Anatomy And Physiology Questions - Development And Inheritance

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  • 1/41 Questions

    Fertilization normally occurs within which structure?

    • Ovary
    • Fallopian tube
    • Ovarian ligament
    • Body of uterus
    • Vagina
Please wait...
Anatomy And Physiology Questions - Development And Inheritance - Quiz
About This Quiz

Questions about the development in utero. Linked to the "Fetal" case unit. Also a few questions from the "Adolescence" case unit.

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  • 2. 

    This is a series of functional changes that sperm go through when they are in the female reproductive tract.

    • Acrosomal reaction

    • Maturation

    • Fertilization

    • Capacitation

    • Polyspermy

    Correct Answer
    A. Capacitation
    Explanation
    Capacitation is the process by which sperm undergo functional and structural changes in the female reproductive tract, enabling them to fertilize an egg. During capacitation, the sperm's acrosome undergoes changes that allow it to release enzymes necessary for penetrating the egg. This process also enhances the sperm's motility and prepares it for fertilization. Maturation refers to the sperm's development in the testes, while the acrosomal reaction occurs when the sperm encounters the egg and releases enzymes to penetrate its outer layer. Fertilization is the fusion of the sperm and egg, and polyspermy refers to the entry of multiple sperm into the egg, which is normally prevented.

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  • 3. 

    The fusion of the secondary oocyte and the sperm results in which developmental stage?

    • Female pronucleus

    • Male pronucleus

    • Zygote

    • Blastomeres

    • Morula

    Correct Answer
    A. Zygote
    Explanation
    The fusion of the secondary oocyte and the sperm results in the formation of a zygote. The zygote is the initial stage of development after fertilization, where the genetic material from both the male and female pronuclei combine to form a single cell. This cell will then undergo further divisions and development to form an embryo. Therefore, the correct answer is Zygote.

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  • 4. 

    This is the part of the blastocyst that promotes implantation and produces hCG.

    • Blastocyte

    • Blastosphere

    • Trophoblast

    • Blastocyst cavity

    • Uterine cavity

    Correct Answer
    A. Trophoblast
    Explanation
    The trophoblast is the outer layer of cells in the blastocyst, which is the early stage of development of an embryo. The trophoblast plays a crucial role in implantation, as it attaches the blastocyst to the uterine wall and promotes the formation of the placenta. Additionally, the trophoblast is responsible for producing human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), a hormone that is essential for maintaining pregnancy. Therefore, the trophoblast is the correct answer as it is the part of the blastocyst that promotes implantation and produces hCG.

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  • 5. 

    This is the portion of the endometrium that lies between the embryo and the stratum basalis.

    • Decidua basalis

    • Decidua capsularis

    • Decidua parietalis

    • Lamina propria

    • Adventitia

    Correct Answer
    A. Decidua basalis
    Explanation
    The portion of the endometrium that lies between the embryo and the stratum basalis is known as the decidua basalis. This layer forms during pregnancy and serves as a protective and nourishing lining for the developing embryo. It is responsible for establishing the maternal-fetal interface and plays a crucial role in supporting the growth and development of the placenta. The decidua basalis is essential for the exchange of nutrients and waste products between the mother and the fetus, ensuring a healthy pregnancy.

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  • 6. 

    This develops from the epiblast and carries a protective fluid.

    • Cytotrophoblast

    • Yolk sac

    • Exocoelomic membrane

    • Amnion

    • Lacunae

    Correct Answer
    A. Amnion
    Explanation
    The amnion develops from the epiblast and serves as a protective membrane filled with fluid. It surrounds and cushions the developing embryo, providing a stable and protected environment. This fluid-filled sac helps to regulate temperature, prevent dehydration, and protect against physical shocks or trauma. Additionally, the amniotic fluid allows for movement and growth of the fetus, as well as the development of the musculoskeletal system.

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  • 7. 

    This will become the primary structure for exchange of material between the mother and the fetus.

    • Chorionic villi of the placenta

    • Amnion

    • Amniotic fluid

    • Embryonic disc

    • Endoderm

    Correct Answer
    A. Chorionic villi of the placenta
    Explanation
    The chorionic villi of the placenta are finger-like projections that extend from the fetal side of the placenta into the mother's uterus. These villi contain blood vessels that allow for the exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and waste products between the mother and the fetus. This exchange is crucial for the development and growth of the fetus. Therefore, the chorionic villi of the placenta serve as the primary structure for the exchange of material between the mother and the fetus.

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  • 8. 

    Each somite may differentiate into a

    • Sertoli cell

    • Dermatome

    • Ovary

    • Myogenic cells

    • Ductus deferens

    Correct Answer
    A. Dermatome
    Explanation
    A dermatome is a region of skin that is mainly supplied by a single spinal nerve. It is responsible for providing sensory innervation to specific areas of the body. The other options listed in the question, such as Sertoli cell, ovary, myogenic cells, and ductus deferens, are not related to the development or function of dermatomes. Therefore, the correct answer is dermatome.

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  • 9. 

    This is the connection between the placenta and the embryo.

    • Amnion

    • Chorion

    • Umbilical cord

    • Placenta

    • Capillary beds

    Correct Answer
    A. Umbilical cord
    Explanation
    The umbilical cord is the correct answer because it is the structure that connects the placenta to the embryo. It contains blood vessels that transport nutrients and oxygen from the placenta to the developing fetus, and remove waste products from the fetus back to the placenta. The umbilical cord also serves as a pathway for the exchange of gases, nutrients, and waste between the mother and the fetus.

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  • 10. 

    How many pairs of pharyngeal arches are there?

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    • 6

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    There are five pairs of pharyngeal arches in the human body. These arches develop during embryonic development and play a crucial role in the formation of various structures in the head and neck region. Each arch gives rise to specific structures like muscles, nerves, and blood vessels. The pharyngeal arches are important for the development of structures such as the jaw, middle ear, and throat.

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  • 11. 

    This is any agent or influence that causes developmental defects in an embryo.

    • Carcinogen

    • Toxin

    • Nicotine

    • Radiation

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. None of the above
    Explanation
    The given question asks for an agent or influence that causes developmental defects in an embryo. The options provided, namely carcinogen, toxin, nicotine, and radiation, are all known to have harmful effects on health, but they do not specifically cause developmental defects in embryos. Therefore, the correct answer is "None of the above."

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  • 12. 

    This exam is performed between 14-16 weeks gestation and is used to detect genetic abnormalities.

    • Sonogram

    • Amniocentesis

    • CVS

    • AFP test

    • CBC

    Correct Answer
    A. Amniocentesis
    Explanation
    Amniocentesis is a prenatal test that is typically performed between 14-16 weeks gestation. It involves the extraction of a small amount of amniotic fluid from the uterus using a needle. This fluid contains fetal cells that can be analyzed to detect genetic abnormalities such as Down syndrome, cystic fibrosis, and neural tube defects. The procedure carries a small risk of complications, but it is considered one of the most accurate tests for detecting genetic disorders during pregnancy.

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  • 13. 

    CVS is taking cells from where?

    • Amnion

    • Chorion

    • Placenta

    • Umbilical cord

    • Uterus

    Correct Answer
    A. Chorion
    Explanation
    CVS (Chorionic Villus Sampling) is a prenatal test that involves taking a small sample of cells from the chorion, which is the outermost membrane surrounding the developing fetus. This procedure is typically done between 10-13 weeks of pregnancy and is used to detect any genetic abnormalities or chromosomal disorders in the fetus. The cells taken from the chorion are then analyzed in a laboratory to provide information about the baby's health.

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  • 14. 

    This hormone is secreted by nonpregnant women from secretory cells in the hypothalamus.

    • GnRH

    • HCG

    • CRH

    • AFP

    • ATP

    Correct Answer
    A. CRH
    Explanation
    CRH stands for corticotropin-releasing hormone. It is secreted by nonpregnant women from secretory cells in the hypothalamus. CRH plays a crucial role in regulating the body's response to stress by stimulating the release of cortisol from the adrenal glands. It also has effects on the reproductive system and may influence the menstrual cycle.

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  • 15. 

    During pregnancy stroke volume can increase by

    • 10%

    • 20%

    • 30%

    • 40%

    • 50%

    Correct Answer
    A. 30%
    Explanation
    During pregnancy, the body undergoes various changes to accommodate the growing fetus. One of these changes is an increase in blood volume. As a result, the heart needs to pump more blood with each heartbeat, leading to an increase in stroke volume. Research suggests that during pregnancy, stroke volume can increase by approximately 30%. This allows for an adequate blood supply to the placenta and the developing baby.

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  • 16. 

    Labour cannot take place until all of this hormone's effects are diminished.

    • Estrogen

    • Progesterone

    • Testosterone

    • Relaxin

    • Inhibin

    Correct Answer
    A. Progesterone
    Explanation
    Progesterone is a hormone that plays a crucial role in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy. During pregnancy, progesterone levels increase, which helps to maintain the uterine lining and prepare the body for pregnancy. Progesterone also inhibits uterine contractions, preventing premature labor. Therefore, labor cannot take place until progesterone levels decrease and its effects are diminished.

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  • 17. 

    This is the time from the onset of labour to the complete dilation of the cervix.

    • Stage of dilation

    • Stage of expulsion

    • Placental stage

    • Gestation

    • Effacement

    Correct Answer
    A. Stage of dilation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Stage of dilation" because it refers to the time from the onset of labor to the complete dilation of the cervix. During this stage, the cervix gradually opens up to allow the baby to pass through the birth canal. This stage is an important milestone in the labor process and indicates that the baby is getting closer to being born.

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  • 18. 

    Involution is

    • When the placenta is expelled

    • When the umbilical cord is cut

    • When the uterus decreases in size

    • When the cervix dilates

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. When the uterus decreases in size
    Explanation
    Involution refers to the process of the uterus returning to its pre-pregnancy size and condition after childbirth. During pregnancy, the uterus expands to accommodate the growing fetus. After delivery, the uterus starts to contract and gradually decreases in size. This process is known as involution. It is an important part of the postpartum period and helps the uterus to heal and return to its normal state.

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  • 19. 

    In infants, this connects the umbilical vein to the inferor vena cava.

    • Ductus venosus

    • Ductus arteriosus

    • Anteriosum

    • Patent ductus arteriosus

    • Superior vena cava

    Correct Answer
    A. Ductus venosus
    Explanation
    The ductus venosus is a blood vessel that connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava in infants. It allows oxygenated blood from the placenta to bypass the liver and flow directly into the heart. This is important because the fetal liver is not fully developed and does not perform the same functions as the adult liver. Once the baby is born and starts breathing, the ductus venosus closes and becomes a ligament.

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  • 20. 

    This is a principle hormone that releases milk into the mammary ducts.

    • Prolactin

    • PIH

    • PRH

    • Oxytocin

    • GnRH

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxytocin
    Explanation
    Oxytocin is the correct answer because it is a hormone that is responsible for the release of milk into the mammary ducts. It is produced by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. Oxytocin plays a crucial role in the let-down reflex during breastfeeding, causing the contraction of smooth muscle cells in the mammary glands, which leads to the ejection of milk into the ducts. This hormone also plays a role in bonding and social behavior, as it is released during childbirth and promotes maternal-infant attachment.

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  • 21. 

    This is a permanent change in an allele.

    • Mutation

    • Phenotype

    • Genotype

    • Dominant

    • Recessive

    Correct Answer
    A. Mutation
    Explanation
    A mutation refers to a permanent change in an allele, which is a variant form of a gene. Mutations can occur spontaneously or be induced by external factors such as radiation or chemicals. These changes can alter the DNA sequence, leading to changes in the genotype and potentially affecting the phenotype of an organism. Therefore, the correct answer is "Mutation."

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  • 22. 

    When phenotype can be drastically different depending on parental origin it is called:

    • Mutation

    • Translocation

    • Genomic imprinting

    • Incomplete dominance

    • Codominance

    Correct Answer
    A. Genomic imprinting
    Explanation
    Genomic imprinting refers to a phenomenon where certain genes are expressed differently depending on whether they are inherited from the mother or the father. This can result in significant differences in the phenotype of an individual, as the expression of these imprinted genes is silenced or activated based on their parental origin. Therefore, when the phenotype can be drastically different depending on parental origin, it is referred to as genomic imprinting.

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  • 23. 

    An example of incomplete dominance is

    • ABO blood groups

    • Sickle-cell disease

    • Angelman Syndrome

    • Prader-Willi Syndrome

    • PKU

    Correct Answer
    A. Sickle-cell disease
    Explanation
    Sickle-cell disease is an example of incomplete dominance because it is caused by a mutation in the gene that codes for hemoglobin, resulting in the production of abnormal sickle-shaped red blood cells. In incomplete dominance, neither allele is completely dominant over the other, so in this case, individuals who are heterozygous for the sickle-cell allele have a milder form of the disease, known as sickle cell trait, rather than exhibiting the full-blown disease symptoms. This demonstrates the blending of traits, which is characteristic of incomplete dominance.

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  • 24. 

    If one parent has type A blood and one parent has type B blood, what blood type is possible for their child?

    • AB

    • A

    • B

    • O

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    When one parent has type A blood and the other parent has type B blood, their child can have any of the blood types AB, A, B, or O. This is because the child can inherit either the A or B blood type from each parent, resulting in a combination of both types (AB), or only one type from either parent (A or B), or no type (O). Therefore, all of the above blood types are possible for their child.

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  • 25. 

    If a child has B blood, and the mother has B blood, what is the possible genotype of the father?

    • B

    • O

    • AB

    • B or O

    • B, O or AB

    Correct Answer
    A. B, O or AB
    Explanation
    The possible genotypes of the father could be B, O, or AB. This is because the child has B blood, which could be inherited from either the mother or the father. If the father has B blood, then his genotype would be B. If the father has O blood, then his genotype would be O. If the father has AB blood, then his genotype would be AB. Therefore, the father could have any of these three genotypes.

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  • 26. 

    Chromosome #15 is considered

    • A sex chromosome

    • An autosome

    • The SRY chromosome

    • A linked gene

    • A transposon

    Correct Answer
    A. An autosome
    Explanation
    Chromosome #15 is considered an autosome because it is not involved in determining the sex of an individual. Autosomes are non-sex chromosomes, meaning they carry genes that are not related to sex determination. In humans, there are 22 pairs of autosomes, and they are responsible for the inheritance of most traits and characteristics.

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  • 27. 

    A Barr body

    • Is an incactivated X chromosome

    • Cannot be stained

    • Are transcribed and translated

    • Is never seen in males

    • Is only found in humans

    Correct Answer
    A. Is an incactivated X chromosome
    Explanation
    A Barr body is an inactivated X chromosome. In females, one of the X chromosomes is randomly inactivated during development to ensure dosage compensation with males. The inactivated X chromosome condenses into a dense structure called a Barr body, which can be visualized under a microscope. This process of X chromosome inactivation allows for equal gene expression between males and females. Barr bodies are only found in humans and are not present in males.

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  • 28. 
    Which one represents the morula stage? - ProProfs

    Which one represents the morula stage?

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    • E

    Correct Answer
    A. C
    Explanation
    The morula stage is an early stage of embryonic development characterized by a solid ball of cells. Option C represents the morula stage because it shows a cluster of cells that are tightly packed together, resembling a solid ball. The other options do not show this characteristic arrangement of cells, indicating different stages of development.

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  • 29. 
    Which one represents the blastocyst stage? - ProProfs

    Which one represents the blastocyst stage?

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    • E

    Correct Answer
    A. E
  • 30. 
    What does "A" represent? - ProProfs

    What does "A" represent?

    • Cleavage of embryo

    • Cleavage of zygote

    • Cleavage of morula

    • Cleavage of blastocyst

    • Cleavage of fetus

    Correct Answer
    A. Cleavage of zygote
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Cleavage of zygote. Cleavage is the process of cell division that occurs after fertilization, resulting in the formation of a multicellular embryo. The zygote is the fertilized egg, and cleavage of the zygote refers to the division of the zygote into smaller cells, known as blastomeres. This division is essential for the development and growth of the embryo.

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  • 31. 
    What is "A" pointing to? - ProProfs

    What is "A" pointing to?

    • Endometrial gland

    • Trophoblast

    • Embryoblast

    • Blastocyst

    • Dermatome

    Correct Answer
    A. Trophoblast
    Explanation
    "A" is pointing to the trophoblast. The trophoblast is the outer layer of cells in the blastocyst, which is the early stage of development of an embryo. It plays a crucial role in implantation and the formation of the placenta.

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  • 32. 
    What stage happens 3-4 days after fertilization? - ProProfs

    What stage happens 3-4 days after fertilization?

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    • E

    Correct Answer
    A. C
  • 33. 
    What stage happens 6 days after fertilization? - ProProfs

    What stage happens 6 days after fertilization?

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    • E

    Correct Answer
    A. E
  • 34. 
    This was formerly called the blastocyst cavity. - ProProfs

    This was formerly called the blastocyst cavity.

    • C

    • D

    • E

    • F

    • G

    Correct Answer
    A. F
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that the term "blastocyst cavity" was used in the past to refer to something. The correct answer, F, is likely the term that was used in the past to describe the blastocyst cavity.

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  • 35. 
    This is composed of the syncytiotrophoblast and the cytotrophoblast. - ProProfs

    This is composed of the syncytiotrophoblast and the cytotrophoblast.

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    • E

    Correct Answer
    A. C
    Explanation
    This refers to the structure known as the placenta, which is composed of two layers: the syncytiotrophoblast and the cytotrophoblast. The syncytiotrophoblast is the outer layer of the placenta and is responsible for nutrient and gas exchange between the mother and the fetus. The cytotrophoblast is the inner layer and is involved in the formation of the placental villi, which facilitate nutrient absorption. Therefore, option C is the correct answer as it accurately describes the composition of the placenta.

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  • 36. 
    Where is the amnion? - ProProfs

    Where is the amnion?

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    • E

    Correct Answer
    A. E
  • 37. 
    These cells are derived from the yolk sac and form a connective tissue layer. - ProProfs

    These cells are derived from the yolk sac and form a connective tissue layer.

    • A

    • B

    • E

    • F

    • G

    Correct Answer
    A. B
    Explanation
    The cells derived from the yolk sac and forming a connective tissue layer are most likely mesenchymal cells. Mesenchymal cells are multipotent stromal cells that can differentiate into a variety of cell types, including connective tissue cells such as fibroblasts, adipocytes, and osteoblasts. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

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  • 38. 
    What is "G" pointing to? - ProProfs

    What is "G" pointing to?

    • Chorion

    • Chorionic villi

    • Sinusoid

    • Extraembryonic mesoderm

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. None of the above
  • 39. 
    What is "G" pointing to? - ProProfs

    What is "G" pointing to?

    • Chorionic villi

    • Amnion

    • Umbilical vein

    • Umbilical artery

    • Amnionic capillary bed

    Correct Answer
    A. Chorionic villi
    Explanation
    "G" is pointing to the chorionic villi. Chorionic villi are finger-like projections that extend from the chorion, a membrane that surrounds the developing embryo. They play a crucial role in the exchange of nutrients and waste between the mother and the developing fetus. The chorionic villi contain blood vessels and are rich in capillaries, which allow for the exchange of gases, nutrients, and waste products. Therefore, "G" pointing to the chorionic villi is the correct answer.

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  • 40. 
    Where are the fetal blood vessels? - ProProfs

    Where are the fetal blood vessels?

    • C

    • D

    • E

    • F

    • G

    Correct Answer
    A. E
  • 41. 
    What is "F" pointing to? - ProProfs

    What is "F" pointing to?

    • Umbilical arteries

    • Umbilical vein

    • Fetal blood vessels

    • Maternal endometrial layer

    • Chorionic villi

    Correct Answer
    A. Maternal endometrial layer
    Explanation
    "F" is pointing to the maternal endometrial layer. The maternal endometrial layer is the lining of the uterus where the embryo implants and develops during pregnancy. It provides nourishment and support to the developing fetus.

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  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • May 13, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Rainebae

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