1.
What document clearl defines the airman, NCO and Sr.NCO tiers of the AF enlisted force?
Correct Answer
B. AFI 36-2618 The Enlisted Force Structure
Explanation
The correct answer is AFI 36-2618 The Enlisted Force Structure. This document clearly defines the airman, NCO, and Sr. NCO tiers of the AF enlisted force.
2.
As an NCO, it is incumbent upon you to be a bad role model for subordinates
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
you want to be a good role model
3.
What is a primary tool for the AF to accomplish any mission?
Correct Answer
A. NCO Corps
Explanation
The NCO Corps is a primary tool for the AF to accomplish any mission because NCOs are responsible for the day-to-day operations, training, and welfare of enlisted personnel. They provide guidance, mentorship, and leadership to their subordinates, ensuring that they are properly trained and ready to execute the mission. NCOs also serve as a bridge between officers and enlisted personnel, translating and implementing the commander's intent. Their experience, expertise, and hands-on approach make them an essential component in achieving mission success.
4.
Why is PME such a major factor in determining NCO promotion and retention?
Correct Answer
A. NCO's learn and improve leadership skills their
5.
What type of counseling deals with improving and maintaining performance?
Correct Answer
A. Performance counseling
Explanation
Performance counseling is the type of counseling that deals with improving and maintaining performance. This type of counseling focuses on helping individuals identify areas for improvement, set goals, develop strategies, and receive feedback and support to enhance their performance in various aspects of life, such as academics, career, sports, or personal development. Performance counseling aims to optimize an individual's skills, abilities, and overall performance by providing guidance, motivation, and practical tools to achieve desired outcomes.
6.
What are the potential consequences of NOT correcting marginal or substandard behavoir or performance?
Correct Answer
A. Create a substandard standard
Explanation
Not correcting marginal or substandard behavior or performance can lead to the creation of a substandard standard. This means that if these behaviors or performances are not addressed and corrected, they become the norm or accepted standard, which can lower overall standards and expectations. It can create a culture where mediocrity is accepted and excellence is not encouraged or rewarded. This can have negative consequences on productivity, quality, and overall success in any given setting.
7.
Which of the following is not a responsibility of the supervisor?
Correct Answer
C. Discharge from military
Explanation
The responsibility of a supervisor does not include discharging someone from the military. Supervisors are typically responsible for tasks such as developing training plans, maintaining CDC packages, and performing evaluations. Discharging from the military is typically handled by higher-ranking officials or administrative personnel.
8.
EPR's impact individual careers.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Enlisted Performance reports do impact careers/
9.
What is a tool supervisors use to evaluate subordinates effectively?
Correct Answer
A. EES
Explanation
Enlisted Performance Report
10.
What are two objectives of the EES?
Correct Answer(s)
B. Provide ratees with specific standards of performance
C. Provide an official record of performance
Explanation
The two objectives of the EES are to provide ratees with specific standards of performance and to provide an official record of performance. This means that the EES aims to establish clear expectations and criteria for performance evaluation, ensuring that ratees have a clear understanding of what is expected from them. Additionally, the EES serves as an official record of an individual's performance, documenting their achievements and areas for improvement.
11.
Is the key to the entire EES process?
Correct Answer
B. The Rater
Explanation
The rater is the key to the entire EES process because they are responsible for evaluating the performance of the ratee. They provide feedback, assess strengths and weaknesses, and make recommendations for improvement. Their evaluation directly impacts the ratee's performance appraisal and potential career advancement. Without the rater's input and assessment, the EES process would not be able to accurately measure and evaluate the ratee's performance.
12.
What is formal, written communication b/w the rater and ratee concerning military duties and responsibilities?
Correct Answer
D. Feedback
Explanation
Feedback is the correct answer because it refers to the formal, written communication between the rater and ratee regarding military duties and responsibilities. Feedback is an essential component of the performance evaluation process, providing constructive criticism, praise, and suggestions for improvement. It helps the ratee understand their strengths and weaknesses and allows the rater to communicate expectations and provide guidance for professional development.
13.
WAPS uses the promotion recommendation ratings to determine the airman's performance score during the promotion selection process.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The statement is true because WAPS (Weighted Airman Promotion System) does indeed use the promotion recommendation ratings to calculate an airman's performance score. This score plays a crucial role in the promotion selection process, as it helps determine whether an airman is eligible for promotion or not. The ratings provided by supervisors and commanders regarding an airman's performance are taken into consideration and contribute to their overall score.
14.
What are the types of Feedback?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Initial
B. Mid-period
C. Follow-up
Explanation
The types of feedback mentioned in the answer are "initial," "mid-period," and "follow-up." These types of feedback are commonly used in various contexts, such as education or performance evaluations. "Initial" feedback refers to the feedback given at the beginning of a process or task. "Mid-period" feedback is provided during the middle of a process or task to assess progress and make any necessary adjustments. "Follow-up" feedback is given after the completion of a process or task to evaluate performance and provide additional guidance or suggestions.
15.
When is performance feedback conducted?
Correct Answer
A. 3 times in a 60 day period
Explanation
Performance feedback is conducted 3 times in a 60-day period. This suggests that feedback is provided multiple times within a relatively short timeframe to assess an individual's performance. Conducting feedback sessions at regular intervals allows for timely evaluation and the opportunity to provide guidance and support for improvement. This approach ensures that individuals receive consistent feedback and have the chance to make necessary adjustments to enhance their performance.
16.
What is the most important thing to do when closing the feedback session?
Correct Answer
C. Schedule next session
Explanation
The most important thing to do when closing the feedback session is to schedule the next session. This ensures that there is a clear plan for continuing the feedback process and allows for ongoing communication and improvement. It shows a commitment to addressing any issues or concerns raised during the session and demonstrates that feedback is valued and taken seriously. By scheduling the next session, it also helps to maintain momentum and keep the feedback process moving forward.
17.
The AF benifits from supervisors making honest and accurate promotion reccomendations.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Supervisors making honest and accurate promotion recommendations benefits the AF (which could refer to the Air Force) because it ensures that deserving individuals are promoted based on their qualifications and performance. This helps maintain a fair and efficient promotion process, boosting morale and motivation within the organization. Honest and accurate recommendations also contribute to the overall effectiveness and success of the AF by ensuring that individuals with the necessary skills and abilities are placed in positions of higher responsibility.
18.
Who is responisble for knowing when a ratee's EPR is due?
Correct Answer
A. Supervisor
Explanation
The supervisor is responsible for knowing when a ratee's EPR (Enlisted Performance Report) is due. As the direct manager of the ratee, the supervisor is in the best position to monitor their performance and track the timeline for submitting the EPR. They are responsible for evaluating the ratee's performance and providing the necessary feedback and documentation for the EPR. The supervisor plays a crucial role in ensuring that the EPR is completed accurately and submitted on time.
19.
What term is used to refer to an evaluato's non-concurrentce with a rating on an EPR?
Correct Answer
C. Disagreement
Explanation
The term used to refer to an evaluator's non-concurrency with a rating on an EPR is "disagreement". This means that the evaluator does not agree with the rating given on the EPR.
20.
Which of the following are not one of the 5 basic motives that make up our individual behavoir?
Correct Answer(s)
B. Positive motives
D. Negative motives
Explanation
Positive motives and negative motives are not one of the 5 basic motives that make up our individual behavior. The 5 basic motives are safety motives, social motives, self-esteem motives, self-actualization motives, and positive motives and negative motives are not included in this list.
21.
What are needs, wants, drives, or impulses from within individuals that direct them toward some goal, which may be considerd conscious or unconscious?
Correct Answer
C. Motives
Explanation
Motives are internal factors that drive individuals towards achieving certain goals. These motives can be conscious or unconscious and can include needs, wants, drives, or impulses. They represent the underlying desires and intentions that guide human behavior and decision-making. Motives can vary from person to person and can be influenced by a variety of factors such as personal values, beliefs, and societal norms.
22.
What are beliefs about what does or does not constitute a worthwhile goal and what is or isnt an accepable method of reaching that goal?
Correct Answer
A. Values
Explanation
Values refer to the beliefs and principles that individuals hold about what is important and desirable in life. They determine what individuals consider to be worthwhile goals and acceptable methods of achieving those goals. Values are deeply ingrained and influence decision-making and behavior. Cravings and motives, on the other hand, are more specific desires or reasons that drive individuals towards certain actions, but they do not encompass the broader concept of determining what constitutes a worthwhile goal or an acceptable method.
23.
What can be descrived as how a person consistently behaves and reacts to people and the enviorment
Correct Answer
A. Personality
Explanation
Personality can be described as how a person consistently behaves and reacts to people and the environment. It encompasses a person's unique set of characteristics, traits, and patterns of thinking, feeling, and behaving. It is an enduring pattern of behavior that remains relatively stable over time and across different situations. Personality is influenced by a combination of genetic, environmental, and cultural factors, and it plays a significant role in shaping an individual's thoughts, emotions, and actions.
24.
What occurs when individuals don't agree with others or with the goals of the group?
Correct Answer
A. Conflict
Explanation
When individuals don't agree with others or with the goals of the group, conflict arises. Conflict refers to a situation where there is a disagreement or clash between two or more parties. It can occur due to differences in opinions, values, interests, or objectives. Conflict is a natural part of human interactions and can lead to both positive and negative outcomes, depending on how it is managed and resolved.
25.
When is avoidance appropriate?
Correct Answer(s)
A. The issue is trivial
C. No chance of satisying your own concern
D. Others solve the conflict more effectively
E. Damage of confronting out-weighs the benefits or resolution
Explanation
Avoidance is appropriate in situations where the issue at hand is trivial and not worth the effort or time to address. It is also appropriate when there is no chance of satisfying your own concern, meaning that engaging in conflict or confrontation will not lead to a resolution that meets your needs. Additionally, avoidance may be appropriate if others can solve the conflict more effectively, as it allows for a more efficient resolution. Lastly, avoidance is deemed appropriate when the potential damage or negative consequences of confronting the issue outweigh the benefits or potential for resolution.
26.
What occurs when both parties gain an lose something in order to come to an agreement?
Correct Answer
B. Compromise
Explanation
When both parties gain and lose something in order to come to an agreement, it is called a compromise. In a compromise, both sides make concessions and find a middle ground in order to reach a mutually acceptable solution. This allows both parties to achieve some of their objectives while also making sacrifices. Compromise is often seen as a positive and constructive way to resolve conflicts and find solutions that are acceptable to all parties involved.
27.
Collaboration is when all sides fight against eachother.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
collaboration is when all sides, to satisfy all parties involved through honest discussion of differences.
28.
The Stages of team development are Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The stages of team development are commonly recognized as forming, storming, norming, and performing. This model, developed by Bruce Tuckman, explains the different phases that a team goes through as they progress and become more effective. In the forming stage, team members come together and get to know each other. During the storming stage, conflicts and disagreements may arise as individuals establish their roles and assert their opinions. In the norming stage, the team starts to establish norms and rules for working together. Finally, in the performing stage, the team is highly functional and able to work together efficiently to achieve their goals. Therefore, the statement is true.
29.
What is PAT?
Correct Answer
B. Process Action Team
Explanation
A Process Action Team (PAT) is a group of individuals who come together to analyze and improve a specific process within an organization. They identify areas for improvement, develop action plans, and implement changes to enhance efficiency and effectiveness. PATs are commonly used in businesses to address operational issues and drive continuous improvement.
30.
What behaviors would you expect to see during the forming stage?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Doubt
C. Questions
Explanation
During the forming stage, individuals are likely to exhibit behaviors such as doubt and asking questions. This is because during this stage, group members are getting to know each other, establishing goals, and clarifying their roles. Doubt and questions are natural responses as individuals try to understand the purpose of the group, their own role within it, and how they will work together. These behaviors help facilitate communication and the development of a shared understanding among group members.
31.
What are some signs that indicate a team has reached the norming stage?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Ideas
C. Plans
E. Results
Explanation
The signs that indicate a team has reached the norming stage are the presence of ideas, plans, and results. In the norming stage, team members start to collaborate and contribute their ideas to achieve common goals. They also develop plans and strategies to execute these ideas effectively. As a result of effective communication and coordination, the team starts to produce positive outcomes and achieve desired results. Complaints and disruptions are more likely to occur in the earlier stages of team development and are not indicative of the norming stage.
32.
Once a team has reached the performing stage, is the team development work complete?
Correct Answer
B. No
Explanation
No, the team development work is not complete once a team has reached the performing stage. The performing stage is characterized by a high level of trust, cooperation, and effectiveness among team members. However, teams can still continue to grow and develop further. They may face new challenges, changes in team composition, or shifts in goals and objectives that require ongoing development and adaptation. Therefore, team development is a continuous process that extends beyond the performing stage.
33.
Who is responisble for selecting the team leader as well as the team members?
Correct Answer
A. Process owner
Explanation
The process owner is responsible for selecting the team leader as well as the team members. As the owner of the process, they have the authority to make decisions regarding the composition of the team and choose individuals who are best suited for their roles. The process owner ensures that the team leader and members have the necessary skills and qualifications to successfully carry out the tasks and responsibilities of the team. They play a crucial role in the formation and management of the team, ensuring that it is capable of achieving its objectives.
34.
The process owner must be able to communicated clearly in both verbal and written form.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The process owner must be able to communicate clearly in both verbal and written form because effective communication is crucial for ensuring that instructions, guidelines, and information are conveyed accurately and understood by all stakeholders involved in the process. Clear communication helps in avoiding misunderstandings, reducing errors, and promoting collaboration among team members. Verbal communication is important for real-time interactions and discussions, while written communication is essential for documenting processes, sharing information, and providing written instructions. Therefore, the process owner needs to possess strong communication skills in both verbal and written forms to effectively manage and oversee the process.
35.
Who is speifically trained to function as a teacher, coach, and moderator for a group or team?
Correct Answer
C. Facilitator
Explanation
A facilitator is specifically trained to function as a teacher, coach, and moderator for a group or team. They possess the skills and knowledge to guide discussions, encourage participation, and ensure that the group or team stays focused on their objectives. A facilitator helps to create a supportive and productive environment where everyone's ideas and opinions are valued, and they play a crucial role in helping the group or team achieve their goals.
36.
The AF is a bureaucracy.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The statement "The AF is a bureaucracy" is true. Bureaucracy refers to a system of administration characterized by strict hierarchical structure, formal rules and procedures, and a focus on adherence to regulations. The AF, which likely stands for Armed Forces or Air Force, is typically organized in a bureaucratic manner with clear chains of command, standardized processes, and adherence to military regulations. Therefore, it can be concluded that the AF is indeed a bureaucracy.
37.
What are the basic principles of organization in a bureaucracy?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Hirearchy of authority
B. Unity of command
C. Task specialization
Explanation
The basic principles of organization in a bureaucracy include hierarchy of authority, unity of command, and task specialization. Hierarchy of authority refers to the clear chain of command where each level has authority over the one below it. Unity of command means that each employee should have only one supervisor to avoid confusion and conflicting instructions. Task specialization involves dividing work into specific tasks and assigning them to individuals or departments based on their skills and expertise. These principles help ensure clear lines of communication, efficient decision-making, and effective coordination within a bureaucratic organization.
38.
What is the extent to which authority is passed down to lower levels in an organization?
Correct Answer
B. Decentralization
Explanation
Decentralization refers to the extent to which authority and decision-making power is delegated to lower levels within an organization. In a decentralized organization, decision-making is distributed among various levels and departments, allowing for greater autonomy and empowerment of employees. This can lead to quicker decision-making, increased employee motivation, and improved responsiveness to local needs. On the other hand, centralization refers to a more top-down approach where decision-making power is concentrated at higher levels of management. Extrovertialization is not a recognized term in the context of organizational authority distribution.
39.
Leaderships role is to spread hate and bias.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Leaderships role is to spread dignity and fairness
40.
What cultural element of the AF will enable it to evolve from an air force to an air and space force on its path toward space?
Correct Answer
B. Innovation
Explanation
Innovation is the cultural element of the AF that will enable it to evolve from an air force to an air and space force on its path toward space. Innovation involves the ability to think creatively, adapt to new technologies and ideas, and find novel solutions to challenges. By fostering a culture of innovation, the AF can explore and develop new technologies, strategies, and capabilities that are essential for operating in the space domain. This will allow the AF to effectively transition from being solely focused on air operations to incorporating space operations as well.
41.
What can result from tratng people with dignity and fairness?
Correct Answer
A. Retention
Explanation
Treating people with dignity and fairness can result in higher employee retention rates. When individuals feel respected and valued in their workplace, they are more likely to stay in their jobs for longer periods of time. This is because they feel satisfied and fulfilled, leading to increased loyalty and commitment to the organization. Additionally, when employees are treated fairly, they are more likely to have positive relationships with their colleagues and superiors, creating a supportive and harmonious work environment that further promotes retention.
42.
To become an effective leader, what two fundamental concepts must you always consider?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Mission
D. People
Explanation
To become an effective leader, considering the mission is crucial as it provides direction and purpose to the team. By keeping the mission in mind, leaders can make decisions and set goals that align with the overall objective. Additionally, considering the people is essential as leaders need to understand and cater to the needs, strengths, and weaknesses of their team members. By valuing and supporting the people, leaders can foster a positive and productive work environment, which ultimately leads to achieving the mission successfully.
43.
What is MEO?
Correct Answer
C. Military Equal Opportunity
Explanation
MEO stands for Military Equal Opportunity. This term refers to the policies and practices implemented by the military to ensure equal treatment and opportunities for all individuals, regardless of their race, gender, religion, or other protected characteristics. MEO aims to prevent discrimination, harassment, and unfair treatment within the military, promoting diversity, inclusion, and a respectful working environment.
44.
What is the misues of drugs, alcholol or medication?
Correct Answer
A. Substance Abuse
Explanation
Substance abuse refers to the misuse or excessive use of drugs, alcohol, or medication. It involves the habitual and dangerous consumption of these substances, leading to negative physical, mental, and social consequences. Substance abuse can result in addiction, health problems, impaired judgment, and strained relationships. It is a serious issue that requires intervention, treatment, and support to overcome.
45.
What AF form is the sorce from for standards of conduct
Correct Answer
A. 36-2909
Explanation
The correct answer is 36-2909. This is the Air Force form that serves as the source for standards of conduct. It outlines the expectations and guidelines regarding ethical behavior for Air Force personnel.
46.
What is used by commanders to provide and officail repository of substandard derogatory data concerning an AF members personal conduct and performance?
Correct Answer
B. UIF
Explanation
A UIF (Unfavorable Information File) is used by commanders to maintain a formal record of derogatory information regarding an Air Force member's personal conduct and performance. It serves as an official repository for substandard data and can be accessed when making personnel decisions or taking disciplinary actions.
47.
What is used by commanders to provides a means to monitor an individual whose duty perfrmance is substandard or who fails to meet or maintaing AF standards?
Correct Answer
C. Control Roster
Explanation
A Control Roster is used by commanders to monitor an individual whose duty performance is substandard or who fails to meet or maintain AF standards. It provides a means of tracking and addressing disciplinary issues, ensuring that the individual is held accountable for their actions and given the opportunity to improve their performance.
48.
Who has the authority to add or remove any assigned or attached enlisted member to or from the control roster?
Correct Answer
B. Commander
Explanation
The commander has the authority to add or remove any assigned or attached enlisted member to or from the control roster. As the highest-ranking officer in the unit, the commander is responsible for maintaining discipline and order within the organization. They have the power to make decisions regarding the control roster, which is a tool used to manage and monitor the behavior of military personnel. The commander's role includes ensuring that the control roster is updated and enforced appropriately to maintain discipline and accountability.
49.
Where is the control roster stored?
Correct Answer
B. In the UIF
Explanation
The control roster is stored in the UIF (Unit Identification File). This is a centralized database or system that contains important information and records related to personnel within a military unit. Storing the control roster in the UIF ensures that it is easily accessible and can be updated as needed. It also helps to maintain confidentiality and security of the information, as the UIF is typically only accessed by authorized personnel.
50.
What types of relationships are essential to the effective operation of all organizations?
Correct Answer
A. Professional
Explanation
Professional relationships are essential to the effective operation of all organizations. These relationships are built on mutual respect, trust, and a shared commitment to achieving the organization's goals. They involve clear communication, collaboration, and the ability to work together towards common objectives. Professional relationships enable employees to effectively coordinate their efforts, share knowledge and expertise, and make informed decisions. They also contribute to a positive work environment, employee satisfaction, and overall organizational success.