Aerospace Propulsion CDC Quiz

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Aerospace Propulsion CDC Quiz - Quiz

When you are certified at aerospace propulsion you are tasked with Interprets and implements directives and publications pertaining to maintenance functions, including environmentally safe maintenance practices. Take up this quiz and test what else you should know to get the certification and become a professional. Wish you all the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    To release the internal air pressure in a shipping container/module, you must remove the

    • A.

      Parting surface nuts

    • B.

      Parting surface bolts

    • C.

      Filler valve on the side of the container

    • D.

      Filler valve on the front of the container

    Correct Answer
    D. Filler valve on the front of the container
    Explanation
    To release the internal air pressure in a shipping container/module, you must remove the filler valve on the front of the container. This valve is specifically designed to allow the release of air pressure. Removing the parting surface nuts or bolts would not have any effect on the internal air pressure.

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  • 2. 

    To prepare the engine fuel system for service after depreservation, you must flush the system with

    • A.

      Oil

    • B.

      Fuel

    • C.

      PD-680

    • D.

      Calibration fluid

    Correct Answer
    B. Fuel
    Explanation
    To prepare the engine fuel system for service after depreservation, it is necessary to flush the system with fuel. This is because fuel is the appropriate substance to clean and remove any contaminants or debris that may have accumulated during the depreservation process. Flushing the system with fuel ensures that the engine's fuel system is clean and ready for use, allowing for optimal performance and efficiency.

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  • 3. 

    Which TO covers the disposition of engines removed from aircraft involved in mishaps?

    • A.

      00-20-4

    • B.

      2J-1-14

    • C.

      2J-1-19

    • D.

      33-1-37-1

    Correct Answer
    C. 2J-1-19
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2J-1-19. This TO (Technical Order) covers the disposition of engines that have been removed from aircraft involved in mishaps. It provides guidance on how to handle and document these engines to ensure proper accountability and prevent their reuse in potentially unsafe conditions.

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  • 4. 

    When metal is attacked by chemical corrosion, it will start

    • A.

      Deep within the metal

    • B.

      On the surface of the metal

    • C.

      Throughout the metal all at once

    • D.

      Just under the surface of the metal

    Correct Answer
    B. On the surface of the metal
    Explanation
    When metal is attacked by chemical corrosion, it will start on the surface of the metal. This is because corrosion is a surface phenomenon that occurs when the metal reacts with its surroundings, such as air or moisture. The outer layer of the metal is exposed to these corrosive agents, leading to the formation of corrosion products. As the corrosion progresses, it may penetrate deeper into the metal, but it initially begins on the surface where the metal is in direct contact with the corrosive environment.

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  • 5. 

    Which section of a jet engine introduces and burns fuel?

    • A.

      Turbine

    • B.

      Diffuser

    • C.

      Compressor

    • D.

      Combustion

    Correct Answer
    D. Combustion
    Explanation
    The section of a jet engine that introduces and burns fuel is called the combustion section. In this section, fuel is injected into the engine and mixed with compressed air. The mixture is then ignited, creating a high-temperature and high-pressure gas that expands and drives the turbine. The combustion section is crucial for generating the necessary thrust to propel the aircraft forward.

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  • 6. 

    The heat content per pound of kerosene is how many Btu's?

    • A.

      10,500

    • B.

      15,000

    • C.

      18,500

    • D.

      40,000

    Correct Answer
    C. 18,500
    Explanation
    Kerosene is a type of fuel commonly used for heating and lighting. The heat content per pound refers to the amount of heat energy that can be produced by burning one pound of kerosene. In this case, the correct answer is 18,500 Btu's, which means that burning one pound of kerosene can produce 18,500 British Thermal Units of heat energy.

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  • 7. 

    Which facet of engine design helps prevent igniter plug fouling?

    • A.

      Gold plating on the plug

    • B.

      Split electrode on the plug

    • C.

      Ceramic coating on the plug

    • D.

      Directing air around the plug

    Correct Answer
    D. Directing air around the plug
    Explanation
    Directing air around the plug helps prevent igniter plug fouling by ensuring that the plug remains cool and free from deposits. When air is directed around the plug, it helps to dissipate heat and prevent the build-up of carbon deposits, which can cause fouling. This design feature helps to maintain the efficiency and performance of the engine by ensuring that the igniter plug functions properly without any obstructions or fouling.

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  • 8. 

    A constructional feature of the centrifugal compressor is that the impeller

    • A.

      Has two matching plates

    • B.

      Has a lightweight design

    • C.

      Is forged as a single unit

    • D.

      Is constructed in rows of blades and stators

    Correct Answer
    C. Is forged as a single unit
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the impeller is forged as a single unit. This means that the impeller is manufactured as one solid piece, rather than being assembled from multiple parts. This constructional feature ensures that the impeller is sturdy and durable, as there are no weak points or potential areas for leakage or failure. It also allows for better balance and efficiency in the compressor's operation.

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  • 9. 

    Stationary vanes positioned between rotor discs in a compressor are used to

    • A.

      Direct air and increase pressure

    • B.

      Direct hot gases rearward

    • C.

      Increase backup pressure

    • D.

      Prolong compressor life

    Correct Answer
    A. Direct air and increase pressure
    Explanation
    The stationary vanes positioned between rotor discs in a compressor are used to direct air and increase pressure. These vanes act as guide vanes, redirecting the airflow and increasing its velocity before it reaches the rotor blades. By directing the air in a specific path, the vanes help to optimize the compressor's efficiency and increase the pressure of the air being compressed. This is essential in various applications where high-pressure air is required, such as in gas turbines, jet engines, and industrial compressors.

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  • 10. 

    What is the most common type of fuel nozzle system?

    • A.

      Pressure-atomizing

    • B.

      Fuel-blasting

    • C.

      Fuel ejector

    • D.

      Fuel tube

    Correct Answer
    A. Pressure-atomizing
    Explanation
    The most common type of fuel nozzle system is the pressure-atomizing system. In this system, fuel is forced through a small nozzle at a high pressure, causing it to atomize into a fine spray. This allows for efficient combustion and better fuel-air mixing, resulting in improved fuel efficiency and reduced emissions. Pressure-atomizing systems are widely used in various industries, including automotive, aviation, and industrial applications.

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  • 11. 

    Three types of turbine and vane assemblies used in jet engines are impulse, reaction, and

    • A.

      Fir tree

    • B.

      Shrouded

    • C.

      Unshrouded

    • D.

      Reaction-impulse

    Correct Answer
    D. Reaction-impulse
    Explanation
    The given answer, "reaction-impulse," suggests that there are two types of turbine and vane assemblies used in jet engines, which combine both reaction and impulse principles. This means that these turbine and vane assemblies utilize both the action of the gas flow and the change in momentum to generate power. However, the explanation is not clear about the specific characteristics or applications of these reaction-impulse turbine and vane assemblies.

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  • 12. 

    The parts on a can-annular combustion section must be removed in a specific order because of the

    • A.

      Fuel nozzle

    • B.

      Transition liner

    • C.

      Combustion chamber outer case

    • D.

      Combustion chamber crossover tubes

    Correct Answer
    D. Combustion chamber crossover tubes
    Explanation
    The parts on a can-annular combustion section must be removed in a specific order because of the combustion chamber crossover tubes. These tubes connect the individual combustion chambers within the can-annular section, allowing for the flow of fuel and air mixture. Removing the crossover tubes first ensures that the fuel and air flow is properly interrupted, preventing any potential hazards or accidents during the maintenance process.

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  • 13. 

    The three major sections of all jet engines are compressor, combustion, and

    • A.

      Turbo

    • B.

      Turbine

    • C.

      Exhaust

    • D.

      Diffuser

    Correct Answer
    B. Turbine
    Explanation
    The three major sections of all jet engines are the compressor, combustion, and turbine. The compressor section is responsible for compressing incoming air, while the combustion section mixes fuel with the compressed air and ignites it to produce hot gases. These hot gases then flow through the turbine section, where the energy from the gases is used to drive the turbine blades. The turbine section is crucial as it converts the energy from the hot gases into mechanical energy to drive the compressor and other engine components.

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  • 14. 

    The torquemeter exciter wheels are in phase when

    • A.

      The shaft power output is transmitted from the power unit

    • B.

      Negative or positive torque is transmitted to the torque indicator

    • C.

      The rectangular teeth on the exciter wheels are aligned at zero torque

    • D.

      There is a change in the torque transmitted to the torque shaft exciter wheel

    Correct Answer
    C. The rectangular teeth on the exciter wheels are aligned at zero torque
    Explanation
    When the rectangular teeth on the exciter wheels are aligned at zero torque, it means that no torque is being transmitted. This alignment indicates that there is no power being transmitted from the power unit and no negative or positive torque being transmitted to the torque indicator. Therefore, this alignment signifies that the torquemeter is at a neutral position with no torque being measured or transmitted.

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  • 15. 

    What is NOT a propeller brake postion?

    • A.

      Engaged

    • B.

      Applied

    • C.

      Released

    • D.

      Locked

    Correct Answer
    A. Engaged
    Explanation
    The term "propeller brake" refers to a mechanism used to stop or slow down the rotation of a propeller. In this context, the propeller brake can be in different positions or states. "Engaged" means that the propeller brake is activated or in use, which contradicts the question's statement that asks for a position that is NOT a propeller brake position. Therefore, "Engaged" is not a propeller brake position.

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  • 16. 

    The T700 power turbine drive shaft assembly is made up of what two components?

    • A.

      Overspeed and Np sensor

    • B.

      Drive shaft and overspeed sensor

    • C.

      Torque sensor tube and Np sensor

    • D.

      Drive shaft and torque sensor tube

    Correct Answer
    D. Drive shaft and torque sensor tube
    Explanation
    The T700 power turbine drive shaft assembly is composed of two components: the drive shaft and the torque sensor tube. The drive shaft is responsible for transmitting power from the engine to the power turbine, while the torque sensor tube measures the torque being applied to the shaft. These two components work together to ensure the efficient and accurate transfer of power within the turbine system.

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  • 17. 

    When blending fourth stage compressor blades on an F100-PW-220 engine, a maximum of how many blends are allowed on any single edge?

    • A.

      Two

    • B.

      Three

    • C.

      Four

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    A. Two
    Explanation
    When blending fourth stage compressor blades on an F100-PW-220 engine, a maximum of two blends are allowed on any single edge. This means that if a blade is damaged or worn, it can only be blended twice before it needs to be replaced. This limitation ensures the integrity and performance of the engine by preventing excessive blending, which could compromise the blade's strength and efficiency.

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  • 18. 

    External flanges on the F100 engine are referred to by

    • A.

      Letter designations

    • B.

      Number designations

    • C.

      Directional refrences

    • D.

      Accessories refrences

    Correct Answer
    A. Letter designations
    Explanation
    The external flanges on the F100 engine are referred to by letter designations. This means that each flange is assigned a specific letter to identify it. This method of designation allows for easy communication and reference when discussing or working with the engine. Number designations, directional references, and accessories references are not used to identify the external flanges on the F100 engine.

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  • 19. 

    How many hollow struts/inlet guide vanes are contained in the inlet fan case of the F119 engine?

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      18

    • C.

      21

    • D.

      23

    Correct Answer
    C. 21
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 21. The F119 engine contains 21 hollow struts/inlet guide vanes in its inlet fan case. These components play a crucial role in directing and guiding the airflow into the engine, ensuring efficient combustion and optimal performance. The specific number of 21 has been determined based on the engine design and requirements.

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  • 20. 

    When the null orifice on the T56 engine TD valve is set at zero, how much fuel will the valve bypass?

    • A.

      0%

    • B.

      10%

    • C.

      20%

    • D.

      30%

    Correct Answer
    C. 20%
    Explanation
    When the null orifice on the T56 engine TD valve is set at zero, it means that it is completely closed. In this position, the valve will bypass 20% of the fuel. This means that 20% of the fuel will not go through the TD valve and will instead bypass it.

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  • 21. 

    Which type of oil system stores the oil in a tank fitted to the side of the engine?

    • A.

      Wet sump

    • B.

      Dry sump

    • C.

      Hot tank

    • D.

      Cold tank

    Correct Answer
    B. Dry sump
    Explanation
    A dry sump oil system is the type of oil system that stores the oil in a tank fitted to the side of the engine. In this system, the oil is pumped from the engine into the external tank, where it is stored and cooled before being recirculated back into the engine. This design allows for better oil control, as it prevents oil from pooling in the bottom of the engine (wet sump), ensuring a constant supply of oil to all the engine components.

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  • 22. 

    When an engine is NOT operating, static preload for a carbon seal is provided by?

    • A.

      Air pressure

    • B.

      Oil pressure

    • C.

      Spring pressure

    • D.

      Hydraulic pressure

    Correct Answer
    C. Spring pressure
    Explanation
    When an engine is not operating, the carbon seal requires a static preload to maintain its sealing capability. This preload is provided by spring pressure. Springs are used to apply a constant force on the carbon seal, ensuring that it remains in contact with the mating surface and prevents any leakage. The spring pressure acts as a mechanical force that keeps the seal compressed and maintains its effectiveness even when the engine is not running.

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  • 23. 

    Which type of oil pump is used on the T56 engine?

    • A.

      Gear

    • B.

      Float

    • C.

      Gerotor

    • D.

      Centrifugal

    Correct Answer
    A. Gear
    Explanation
    The T56 engine uses a gear oil pump. This type of oil pump uses gears to create suction and pressure, which allows it to effectively circulate oil throughout the engine. Gear oil pumps are commonly used in engines because they are reliable, durable, and can handle high-pressure applications. They are designed to efficiently pump oil to lubricate engine components and ensure proper functioning.

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  • 24. 

    Which part of a generator acts as an automatic switching device, changing alternating current to direct current?

    • A.

      Brushes

    • B.

      Slip rings

    • C.

      Commutator

    • D.

      Permanent magnet

    Correct Answer
    C. Commutator
    Explanation
    The commutator is the part of a generator that acts as an automatic switching device, changing alternating current to direct current. It consists of a set of copper segments that are connected to the ends of the armature coil. As the armature rotates, the brushes make contact with different segments of the commutator, allowing the current to flow in the same direction. This process ensures that the output of the generator is direct current rather than alternating current.

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  • 25. 

    The JFS is basically a

    • A.

      Piston-type starter

    • B.

      Pneumatic-type starter

    • C.

      Small gas turbine engine

    • D.

      Cartridge-pneumatic starter

    Correct Answer
    C. Small gas turbine engine
    Explanation
    The correct answer is small gas turbine engine. This is because the JFS (Jet Fuel Starter) is a small gas turbine engine used to start larger engines on aircraft. It provides the necessary power to initiate the rotation of the main engines, allowing them to start and operate efficiently. It is commonly used in military aircraft and some commercial aircraft as well.

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  • 26. 

    On the T56 engine, which switch energizes the starter control valve to the OPEN position?

    • A.

      Ground start

    • B.

      Speed-sensitive

    • C.

      Fuel enrichment

    • D.

      Secondary fuel pump pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Ground start
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ground start." Ground start is the switch that energizes the starter control valve to the OPEN position on the T56 engine. This means that when the ground start switch is activated, it allows the starter control valve to open, enabling the engine to start.

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  • 27. 

    The T56 engine anti-icing solenoid valve is

    • A.

      Normally open

    • B.

      Energized open

    • C.

      Normally closed

    • D.

      Energized closed

    Correct Answer
    A. Normally open
    Explanation
    The T56 engine anti-icing solenoid valve is normally open, meaning that it is in an open position by default. In this state, the valve allows the flow of fluid or air to pass through. It only closes or restricts the flow when it is energized or activated by an external power source. This configuration ensures that the anti-icing system remains operational and allows for the continuous flow of fluids to prevent ice formation.

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  • 28. 

    The T56 component that allows 14th stage air to close the bleed air valve is the

    • A.

      Balance line

    • B.

      Bleed air valve

    • C.

      Speed-sensitive valve

    • D.

      Speed-sensitive control

    Correct Answer
    C. Speed-sensitive valve
    Explanation
    The T56 component that allows 14th stage air to close the bleed air valve is the speed-sensitive valve. This valve is designed to respond to changes in engine speed and adjust the flow of air accordingly. When the engine speed reaches a certain level, the speed-sensitive valve closes, preventing the bleed air from escaping and allowing it to be directed to other systems as needed.

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  • 29. 

    The core reverser lock proxomity sensors are mounted on the

    • A.

      Aft fan duct

    • B.

      Fwd fan duct

    • C.

      Actuator

    • D.

      Control valve

    Correct Answer
    C. Actuator
    Explanation
    The correct answer is actuator. The core reverser lock proximity sensors are mounted on the actuator. This suggests that the actuator plays a crucial role in the functioning of the core reverser lock system. It is likely that the actuator is responsible for controlling the movement or position of the core reverser lock, and the proximity sensors are used to detect its position.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 16, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Kbowden
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