A2w051 Ure Quiz, Vol. 3 Ammo Iyaayas

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  • 1/70 Questions

    (401) Who is responsible for appointing qualified individuals to become certified munitions inspectors?

    • A. Executive officer.
    • B. Unit commander.
    • C. Element chief.
    • D. Flight chief.
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About This Quiz

The A2W051 URE Quiz, Vol. 3 AMMO IYAAYAS assesses knowledge in munitions management, focusing on responsibilities such as appointing inspectors, determining condition codes, and identifying corrosion types. Essential for those in military munitions roles.

A2w051 Ure Quiz, Vol. 3 Ammo Iyaayas - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (401) What is the minimum skill-level requirement to be a certified munitions inspector?

    • A. 3.

    • B. 5.

    • C. 7.

    • D. There is no minimum requirement.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. 5.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. 5. This suggests that to be a certified munitions inspector, a minimum skill-level requirement of 5 is necessary. This implies that individuals seeking certification as munitions inspectors must possess a certain level of expertise and knowledge in order to effectively perform their duties. It is important for munitions inspectors to have a solid understanding of the subject matter to ensure the safety and security of the munitions they are inspecting.

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  • 3. 

    (401) What type of lot number is assigned to a combination of 5.56 mm ball and tracer packed together for field use?

    • A. Functional.

    • B. Regrouped.

    • C. Assembled.

    • D. Pseudo.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Functional.
    Explanation
    A combination of 5.56 mm ball and tracer packed together for field use would be assigned a functional lot number. This indicates that the ammunition is ready to be used and has undergone testing to ensure its functionality.

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  • 4. 

    (401) The presence of corrosion represents

    • A. metal returning to a natural state.

    • B. blending of compounds in the environment.

    • C. combining specific alloys to create a specific metal.

    • D. deterioration of the physical properties of each component of a specific metal.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. metal returning to a natural state.
    Explanation
    The presence of corrosion represents metal returning to a natural state. Corrosion occurs when metals react with their environment, such as oxygen or moisture, causing them to deteriorate and break down. This process is a natural occurrence and can lead to the formation of rust or other types of corrosion on the metal surface. Therefore, the presence of corrosion indicates that the metal is undergoing a natural process of returning to its original state.

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  • 5. 

    (401) What type of corrosion is characterized by damage that marks the surface with lines but pits are not visible to the naked eye?

    • A. Pitting.

    • B. Etching.

    • C. Caked rust.

    • D. Developed rust.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Etching.
    Explanation
    Etching corrosion is characterized by damage that marks the surface with lines but pits are not visible to the naked eye. This type of corrosion occurs when a corrosive substance dissolves the metal surface, leaving behind visible lines or patterns. It is different from pitting corrosion, where small pits or holes are formed on the surface. Caked rust and developed rust are not specific types of corrosion, so they are not the correct answers.

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  • 6. 

    (402) When you encounter a ballooned barrier bag, what document do you follow for specific item instructions?

    • A. AFI 21−201.

    • B. AFMAN 91−201.

    • C. Item’s technical order (TO).

    • D. Local operating instruction (OI).

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Item’s technical order (TO).
    Explanation
    When encountering a ballooned barrier bag, the specific item instructions should be followed according to the item's technical order (TO). The TO provides detailed guidance and procedures on how to handle and use specific items, including those contained within the barrier bag. It is a comprehensive document that outlines the necessary steps and precautions for proper usage, maintenance, and storage of the item. Therefore, referring to the TO ensures that the correct procedures are followed to avoid any mishaps or damage to the item.

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  • 7. 

    (402) What term is used to conspicuously mark previously opened hermetically sealed containers?

    • A. UNSEALED.

    • B. COMPRIMISED SEAL.

    • C. NOT HERMETICALLY SEALED.

    • D. PRESSURE SENSITIVE SEALED.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. NOT HERMETICALLY SEALED.
    Explanation
    The term "NOT HERMETICALLY SEALED" is used to conspicuously mark previously opened hermetically sealed containers. This indicates that the container was once sealed but is no longer airtight, potentially compromising the quality or safety of the contents.

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  • 8. 

    (402) A shipping inspection is accomplished to ensure that munitions are properly marked or labeled to meet

    • A. other munitions.

    • B. municipal codes.

    • C. transportation requirements.

    • D. security forces operating instructions.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. transportation requirements.
    Explanation
    A shipping inspection is conducted to ensure that munitions are properly marked or labeled to meet transportation requirements. This includes ensuring that the munitions are packaged and labeled correctly for safe transportation, in compliance with regulations and guidelines set by transportation authorities. The inspection helps to prevent any potential hazards or accidents during the transportation process, ensuring the safety of both the shipment and the individuals involved. Municipal codes, other munitions, and security forces operating instructions are not directly related to the purpose of a shipping inspection.

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  • 9. 

    (402) What inspection ensures that an item is suitable for its intended use before it is signed over to a user?

    • A. Periodic (PI).

    • B. Shipping (SI).

    • C. Receiving (RI).

    • D. Pre-issue (PII).

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Pre-issue (PII).
    Explanation
    Pre-issue inspection (PII) ensures that an item is suitable for its intended use before it is signed over to a user. This inspection is conducted to verify that the item meets all the necessary requirements and standards, ensuring its functionality, safety, and quality. It helps to prevent any potential issues or defects that may arise during the item's use, ensuring that it is in proper working condition before it is issued to the user.

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  • 10. 

    (403) Condition code C is best described as

    • A. serviceable without qualification.

    • B. serviceable with qualification.

    • C. serviceable, priority issue.

    • D. unserviceable repairable.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. serviceable, priority issue.
    Explanation
    Condition code C is best described as "serviceable, priority issue." This means that the item is in a serviceable condition, but there is a priority issue associated with it. This indicates that the item may require immediate attention or action due to its importance or urgency.

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  • 11. 

    (406) Which word is impressed and stenciled on items that have had their explosive material removed and not replaced?

    • A. Inert.

    • B. Empty.

    • C. Dummy.

    • D. Practice.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Empty.
    Explanation
    The word "empty" is impressed and stenciled on items that have had their explosive material removed and not replaced. This is done to indicate that the item is no longer dangerous and does not contain any explosive material. The word serves as a visual reminder to anyone handling the item that it is safe and does not pose a risk of explosion.

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  • 12. 

    (406) The material remaining after a munitions item has had its explosive filler removed by either normal functioning or demilitarization is called

    • A. hazardous waste.

    • B. munitions residue.

    • C. nonexplosive material.

    • D. obsolete munitions waste.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. munitions residue.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. munitions residue. Munitions residue refers to the material that is left behind after the explosive filler has been removed from a munitions item. This can occur through normal functioning or demilitarization processes. It is important to properly handle and dispose of munitions residue due to its potential hazardous nature.

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  • 13. 

    (407) Which procedure is performed during the initial munitions inspection?

    • A. Internal inspection of railcars, motor vehicles, or aircraft.

    • B. Identify the type of any corrosion spotted.

    • C. Visually inspect vehicle seals.

    • D. Open all damaged containers.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Visually inspect vehicle seals.
    Explanation
    During the initial munitions inspection, one of the procedures performed is the visual inspection of vehicle seals. This involves visually examining the seals on railcars, motor vehicles, or aircraft to ensure they are intact and have not been tampered with. This is an important step to ensure the security and integrity of the munitions during transportation and storage.

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  • 14. 

    (408) Which organization regulates the movement of explosives by commercial aircraft?

    • A. HQ USAF.

    • B. The Air Staff.

    • C. Major command (MAJCOM).

    • D. Federal Aviation Administration (FAA).

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Federal Aviation Administration (FAA).
    Explanation
    The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) is the organization that regulates the movement of explosives by commercial aircraft. The FAA is responsible for ensuring the safety and security of civil aviation in the United States. They establish and enforce regulations that govern the transportation of hazardous materials, including explosives, by air. This includes setting standards for packaging, labeling, and handling of explosives to prevent accidents and ensure the safety of passengers and crew on board commercial aircraft.

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  • 15. 

    (408) The choice for transporting munitions by an ocean-going vessel is the

    • A. 40-foot MILVAN container.

    • B. 20-foot MILVAN container.

    • C. 40-foot ISO container.

    • D. 20-foot ISO container.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. 20-foot ISO container.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. 20-foot ISO container. ISO containers are standardized shipping containers that are widely used for transporting goods by sea. The 20-foot size is one of the most common sizes and is suitable for transporting munitions. The smaller size allows for easier handling and loading onto the vessel. Additionally, using ISO containers ensures compatibility with various transportation modes and simplifies the logistics process.

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  • 16. 

    (409) What United Nations (UN) specification is designed to keep hazardous materials inside containers and away from people and the environment?

    • A. Performance oriented packaging.

    • B. Combat ammunition system.

    • C. Container allocation system.

    • D. Packaging operations point.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Performance oriented packaging.
    Explanation
    Performance oriented packaging is a United Nations (UN) specification that is designed to keep hazardous materials inside containers and away from people and the environment. This type of packaging is specifically engineered to meet certain performance standards, such as withstanding drops, punctures, and other potential hazards during transportation. It aims to ensure that hazardous materials are securely contained and do not pose a risk to human health or the environment.

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  • 17. 

    (409) When you do not have an original container you can have one built using

    • A. the special packaging instruction (SPI) drawing.

    • B. AFMAN 24−204.

    • C. MIL-STD 129.

    • D. The item’s technical order (TO).

    Correct Answer
    A. A. the special packaging instruction (SPI) drawing.
    Explanation
    When you do not have an original container, you can have one built using the special packaging instruction (SPI) drawing. The SPI drawing provides detailed instructions on how to construct a container that meets the specific requirements for packaging and transporting a particular item. It includes information such as the dimensions, materials, and construction methods needed to ensure the safe and secure transportation of the item. By following the instructions provided in the SPI drawing, a custom container can be built to meet the specific needs of the item being packaged.

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  • 18. 

    (411) A munitions storage magazine is

    • A. used for holding cartridges in some firearms types.

    • B. a building or structure used for storing explosives.

    • C. a magazine published for munitions specialists.

    • D. used for shipping munitions by any method.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. a building or structure used for storing explosives.
    Explanation
    A munitions storage magazine is a building or structure specifically designed and used for storing explosives. It is not used for holding cartridges in firearms, nor is it a magazine published for munitions specialists. Additionally, it is not solely used for shipping munitions, but rather for long-term storage and safekeeping of explosives.

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  • 19. 

    (411) If a lock will not open, what type of lubricant do you use after verifying that the keyway is clear?

    • A. Hydrogen dioxide.

    • B. Ammonium nitrate.

    • C. Molybdenum disulfide.

    • D. Hydrogen sulfurperoxide.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Molybdenum disulfide.
    Explanation
    Molybdenum disulfide is the correct answer because it is a common lubricant used for locks. It has excellent lubricating properties and is often used in high-friction applications like locks. It helps to reduce friction between the moving parts of the lock, allowing it to open smoothly. Hydrogen dioxide, ammonium nitrate, and hydrogen sulfurperoxide are not suitable lubricants for locks and may even cause damage to the lock mechanism.

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  • 20. 

    (411) How often should you put grease or oil into the lock cylinder when lubricating locks?

    • A. Never.

    • B. Monthly.

    • C. Semiannually.

    • D. Annually.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Never.
    Explanation
    Lock cylinders should never be lubricated with grease or oil. Grease or oil can attract dirt and debris, causing the lock to become clogged and difficult to operate. Additionally, lubricants can break down over time and become sticky, further hindering the lock's functionality. Instead, lock cylinders should be lubricated with a dry lubricant, such as graphite powder or silicone spray, which will not attract dirt and will keep the lock operating smoothly.

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  • 21. 

    (412) The source document for explosives capacities and controls for each facility in a munitions storage area is the explosives

    • A. license.

    • B. waiver.

    • C. site plan.

    • D. inventory.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. site plan.
    Explanation
    The source document for explosives capacities and controls for each facility in a munitions storage area is the site plan. This plan provides detailed information about the layout and organization of the storage area, including the locations of different facilities, the capacity of each facility, and the necessary controls and safety measures in place. It helps ensure that the storage area is properly designed and managed to prevent accidents and ensure the safe handling of explosives. A license refers to the permission or authorization to handle explosives, a waiver is an exemption from certain requirements, and an inventory is a list of items or materials present in the storage area.

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  • 22. 

    (414) Location designators for munitions consist of how many digits?

    • A. 1.

    • B. 2.

    • C. 11.

    • D. 21.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. 11.
    Explanation
    Location designators for munitions consist of 11 digits. This means that the designators are made up of a sequence of 11 numbers that are used to specify the exact location of the munitions.

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  • 23. 

    (414) The "003" in location designator 34A003C001E, represents the

    • A. last two digits of the building number.

    • B. bay within a warehouse.

    • C. shelf level.

    • D. row.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. row.
    Explanation
    The "003" in location designator 34A003C001E represents the row. This is indicated by the fact that the designator includes other elements such as "34A" (possibly indicating the building or section), "C001E" (possibly indicating the bay or shelf level), and the "003" specifically indicating the row.

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  • 24. 

    (414) How many lite boxes are allowed per stock/lot number and condition code in one base stock location?

    • A. One.

    • B. Two.

    • C. Three.

    • D. Four.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. One.
    Explanation
    In one base stock location, only one lite box is allowed per stock/lot number and condition code. This means that for each unique combination of stock/lot number and condition code, there can only be one lite box present in the base stock location.

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  • 25. 

    (414) The lite box should be stored on the

    • A. top and to the front of the stack.

    • B. top and to the back of the stack.

    • C. bottom and to the front of the stack.

    • D. bottom and to the back of the stack.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. top and to the front of the stack.
    Explanation
    The lite box should be stored on the top and to the front of the stack because this ensures easy accessibility and visibility. Placing it on the top allows for quick retrieval without having to move other boxes, while positioning it to the front ensures that it is within reach and can be easily seen. This arrangement maximizes efficiency and minimizes the risk of accidents or damage when retrieving the lite box.

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  • 26. 

    (414) Structures containing explosives may also store

    • A. empty pallets.

    • B. excess dunnage.

    • C. flammable liquids.

    • D. inert munitions items.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. inert munitions items.
    Explanation
    Structures containing explosives may also store inert munitions items. Inert munitions items refer to non-active or non-functional ammunition or explosive devices that are used for training, display, or other non-combat purposes. These items are designed to be safe and pose no risk of explosion or detonation. Storing inert munitions items alongside explosives allows for efficient organization and management of military or explosive-related facilities.

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  • 27. 

    (411) What are the two categories of earth-covered magazines?

    • A. Cover and ultra-cover.

    • B. Conventional and nuclear.

    • C. Standard and nonstandard.

    • D. Above ground and below ground.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Standard and nonstandard.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. Standard and nonstandard. Earth-covered magazines are used for storing explosives and ammunition. Standard magazines are designed to meet specific safety requirements and are commonly used for storing small quantities of explosives. Nonstandard magazines, on the other hand, do not meet the standard safety requirements and are used for storing larger quantities of explosives. This categorization helps ensure proper storage and safety protocols are followed based on the quantity of explosives being stored.

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  • 28. 

    (413) The purpose of fire and chemical symbols is to

    • A. inform anyone who enters the building of the explosives stored there.

    • B. mislead the enemy about which buildings contain explosives.

    • C. reflect the quantity of explosives stored inside the building.

    • D. inform emergency response forces of any hazards present.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. inform emergency response forces of any hazards present.
    Explanation
    Fire and chemical symbols are used to inform emergency response forces of any hazards present in a building. These symbols provide important information about the type of hazards, such as flammable materials or toxic substances, that may be present. By understanding these symbols, emergency response forces can take appropriate measures to ensure their safety and effectively respond to any potential emergencies.

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  • 29. 

    (414) How often are courtesy storage agreements reviewed?

    • A. Monthly.

    • B. Quarterly.

    • C. Semiannually.

    • D. Annually.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Annually.
    Explanation
    Courtesy storage agreements are reviewed once a year. This ensures that the agreements are up to date and any necessary changes or updates can be made. Reviewing the agreements annually also allows for any issues or concerns to be addressed and resolved in a timely manner. This regular review process helps to maintain the accuracy and effectiveness of the storage agreements.

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  • 30. 

    (414) What storage method was designed and tested to increase the explosive storage capacity of limited net explosive weight (NEW) igloos, without increasing quantity distance separation requirements?

    • A. Stuff-it.

    • B. Buffered storage.

    • C. Complete round storage.

    • D. Survive to operate (STO).

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Buffered storage.
    Explanation
    Buffered storage was designed and tested to increase the explosive storage capacity of limited net explosive weight (NEW) igloos without increasing quantity distance separation requirements. This method involves using a buffer material to separate and absorb the energy between explosive items, reducing the risk of sympathetic detonation. By implementing buffered storage, more explosives can be stored in the same space while maintaining safety standards.

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  • 31. 

    (404) Which combat ammunition system (CAS) report must accompany Non-CAS/DODAAC munitions shipments?

    • A. Periodic inspection report.

    • B. Quarterly inspection report.

    • C. Lot history inspection report.

    • D. Ammunition disposition report.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Lot history inspection report.
    Explanation
    The Lot history inspection report must accompany Non-CAS/DODAAC munitions shipments. This report provides a detailed record of the lot history, including information on production, storage, and handling of the ammunition. It ensures that the recipient has all the necessary information about the lot to ensure safe and proper handling of the munitions.

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  • 32. 

    (410) A common document used for shipping munitions from army depots or contract facilities is

    • A. AF Form 2005.

    • B. DD Form 1131.

    • C. DD Form 1149.

    • D. DD Form 1150.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. DD Form 1149.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. DD Form 1149. DD Form 1149 is a common document used for shipping munitions from army depots or contract facilities. This form is used to provide detailed information about the shipment, including the type and quantity of munitions, the shipping address, and any special handling instructions. It is an important document for ensuring that the correct items are shipped and delivered safely.

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  • 33. 

    (411) Earth-covered magazines have a firebreak of how many feet around the ventilators?

    • A. 20.

    • B. 15.

    • C. 10.

    • D. 5.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. 5.
    Explanation
    Earth-covered magazines have a firebreak of 5 feet around the ventilators. This firebreak is necessary to prevent the spread of fire from the ventilators to the surrounding earth cover. By having a 5-foot firebreak, there is a buffer zone that helps to contain any potential fire and minimize the risk of it spreading further.

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  • 34. 

    (412) Simultaneous propagation of an explosion between two adjacent explosives locations is unlikely when what is used in conjunction with the two degree rule?

    • A. Distance.

    • B. Buildings.

    • C. Barricades.

    • D. Buffer material.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Barricades.
    Explanation
    When the two-degree rule is used in conjunction with barricades, simultaneous propagation of an explosion between two adjacent explosives locations is unlikely. The two-degree rule states that there should be a minimum separation angle of two degrees between explosive devices to prevent sympathetic detonation. Barricades act as physical barriers that can absorb and redirect the blast energy, preventing it from reaching adjacent explosives and reducing the likelihood of a chain reaction. Therefore, using barricades in conjunction with the two-degree rule helps to minimize the risk of simultaneous propagation of an explosion.

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  • 35. 

    (413) Posting or changing the fire symbol is the responsibility of the

    • A. munitions flight chief.

    • B. senior munitions inspector.

    • C. person in charge of the operation.

    • D. munitions accountable systems officer (MASO).

    Correct Answer
    A. C. person in charge of the operation.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. person in charge of the operation. This is because posting or changing the fire symbol is a task that falls under the responsibility of the person in charge of the operation. This individual is responsible for ensuring that all necessary safety measures are in place, including the proper display and maintenance of fire symbols. The munitions flight chief, senior munitions inspector, and munitions accountable systems officer may have other important roles within the operation, but they are not specifically responsible for posting or changing the fire symbol.

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  • 36. 

    (414) What is the expected explosive result from two different explosives that are compatible?

    • A. One will off-set the detonation of the other.

    • B. They are expected to produce the same reaction if initiated.

    • C. They are expected to produce different reactions if initiated.

    • D. The effect will be twice the reaction of either initiated alone.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. They are expected to produce the same reaction if initiated.
    Explanation
    When two different explosives are compatible, it means that they can be safely mixed or used together without any negative effects. In this context, the expected explosive result from these compatible explosives is that they will produce the same reaction if initiated. This means that when both explosives are detonated, they will produce similar or identical explosive effects.

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  • 37. 

    (401) Who is responsible for determining and assigning the appropriate condition codes to munitions assets?

    • A. The flight chief.

    • B. Munitions inspectors.

    • C. Munitions accountability personnel.

    • D. The munitions accountable systems officer (MASO).

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Munitions inspectors.
    Explanation
    Munitions inspectors are responsible for determining and assigning the appropriate condition codes to munitions assets. These inspectors have the knowledge and expertise to assess the condition of the assets and determine the appropriate code that reflects their status. This is crucial for maintaining accurate records and ensuring that the assets are properly managed and accounted for. The flight chief, munitions accountability personnel, and the MASO may have other responsibilities related to munitions management, but determining and assigning condition codes is specifically the role of munitions inspectors.

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  • 38. 

    (403) Which response best describes condition code B?

    • A. Serviceable without qualification.

    • B. Serviceable with qualification.

    • C. Serviceable but priority issue.

    • D. Unserviceable repairable.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Serviceable with qualification.
    Explanation
    Condition code B indicates that an item is serviceable with qualification. This means that the item is in working condition and can be used, but it may have certain limitations or requirements that need to be met in order to ensure its proper functioning. This qualification could be related to specific maintenance procedures, usage restrictions, or other conditions that need to be followed for the item to be considered fully functional and safe to use.

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  • 39. 

    (403) Which selection best describes condition code N?

    • A. Suspended for emergency combat use only.

    • B. Serviceable without qualification.

    • C. Serviceable with qualification.

    • D. Unserviceable repairable.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Suspended for emergency combat use only.
    Explanation
    Condition code N is described as "Suspended for emergency combat use only." This means that the item is not currently in service but can be used in emergency combat situations. The item may require further maintenance or qualification before it can be fully serviceable, but it is still deemed usable in critical situations.

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  • 40. 

    (405) Which of the following is an example of a packaging discrepancy?

    • A. Item received in the wrong condition code.

    • B. Unacceptable substitutes shipped.

    • C. Container markings incorrect.

    • D. Missing documentation.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Container markings incorrect.
    Explanation
    An example of a packaging discrepancy is when the container markings are incorrect. This means that the labels or markings on the packaging do not accurately represent the contents inside. This can lead to confusion, misidentification, or mishandling of the package during transportation or storage.

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  • 41. 

    (405) When using the transportation discrepancy report (TDR), you are identifying a problem against the

    • A. person who packaged the assets.

    • B. carrier who delivered the assets.

    • C. manufacturer who produced the assets.

    • D. person who certified the assets for transportation.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. carrier who delivered the assets.
    Explanation
    When using the transportation discrepancy report (TDR), you are identifying a problem against the carrier who delivered the assets. The TDR is a document used to report any discrepancies or issues with the delivery of assets. It allows the recipient to document and communicate any damages, shortages, or other problems that occurred during transportation. By identifying the carrier as the responsible party, the TDR helps ensure that the appropriate actions can be taken to resolve the issue and hold the carrier accountable for any damages or losses.

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  • 42. 

    (406) Four holes, no smaller than ¼ inch, are required to be drilled 90° apart for munitions items

    • A. procured as inert or empty.

    • B. displayed on a wall plaque.

    • C. on permanent display in a museum.

    • D. stock listed as explosive and have had their explosive filler removed.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. stock listed as explosive and have had their explosive filler removed.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. stock listed as explosive and have had their explosive filler removed. This means that the munitions items were originally classified as explosive and contained an explosive filler. However, the explosive filler has been removed, making them safe for display or storage. The requirement to drill four holes, no smaller than ¼ inch, 90° apart is likely a safety measure to further ensure that the items cannot be used as explosives.

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  • 43. 

    (408) According to AFMAN 24–204, Preparing Hazardous Materials for Military Air Shipments, personnel trained and qualified to maintain an item by technical specialty for only those hazardous materials in their specialty are called

    • A. technical specialists.

    • B. technical journeymen.

    • C. subject matter specialists.

    • D. subject matter journeymen.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. technical specialists.
    Explanation
    According to AFMAN 24-204, personnel trained and qualified to maintain hazardous materials in their specialty are referred to as technical specialists. This implies that they possess specialized knowledge and skills in handling and managing hazardous materials. The term "technical journeymen" does not align with the concept of maintaining hazardous materials, while "subject matter specialists" and "subject matter journeymen" are not mentioned in the given source.

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  • 44. 

    (408) Which of the following regulates the transportation of explosives and other hazardous materials by water?

    • A. US Navy.

    • B. US Coast Guard.

    • C. Homeland Security.

    • D. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).

    Correct Answer
    A. B. US Coast Guard.
    Explanation
    The US Coast Guard is responsible for regulating the transportation of explosives and other hazardous materials by water. They have the authority to enforce regulations and ensure the safety of maritime transportation, including the handling and transportation of hazardous materials. The Coast Guard plays a crucial role in preventing accidents and protecting the environment from potential hazards associated with the transportation of dangerous goods by water.

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  • 45. 

    (413) Where is the fire symbol posted when a multicube storage magazine is sited as a multicube instead of as a single storage magazine?

    • A. On top of the facility.

    • B. Inside each facility.

    • C. Entry control point.

    • D. On each door.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. On each door.
    Explanation
    When a multicube storage magazine is sited as a multicube instead of as a single storage magazine, the fire symbol is posted on each door. This is likely done to ensure that the fire symbol is easily visible and accessible from every entrance point to the storage magazine. By having the fire symbol on each door, it helps to indicate the presence of the storage magazine and alert individuals to the potential fire hazards associated with it.

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  • 46. 

    (415) What weapon storage and security system (WS3) group provides physical storage and security?

    • A. Console.

    • B. Coder-transfer.

    • C. Monitor-indicator.

    • D. Vault control group.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Vault control group.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. Vault control group. The vault control group is responsible for providing physical storage and security for weapon storage and security systems (WS3). This group ensures that weapons are stored safely and securely, maintaining the integrity and control of the weapons. They are responsible for monitoring access to the vault and ensuring that only authorized personnel have access to the weapons.

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  • 47. 

    (411) What type of facility is normally used to store only class/division 1.3 and 1.4 munitions?

    • A. Claytile storage warehouse.

    • B. Modular-constructed igloo.

    • C. Corbetta magazine.

    • D. Standard igloo.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Claytile storage warehouse.
    Explanation
    A claytile storage warehouse is normally used to store only class/division 1.3 and 1.4 munitions. This type of facility provides the necessary protection and containment for these types of explosives. Claytile construction offers excellent fire resistance and insulation properties, making it suitable for storing hazardous materials. Additionally, the design of the warehouse can be customized to meet specific storage requirements, such as ventilation and temperature control.

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  • 48. 

    (414) When direct input methods are not used what AF IMT form is used to document munitions movements from one location to another?

    • A. 68.

    • B. 102.

    • C. 2005.

    • D. 4331.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. 4331.
    Explanation
    When direct input methods are not used, the AF IMT form 4331 is used to document munitions movements from one location to another. This form is specifically designed for recording and tracking the transfer of munitions, ensuring proper documentation and accountability throughout the process. The form includes fields for information such as the type and quantity of munitions, the originating and receiving locations, and the responsible individuals involved in the transfer.

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  • 49. 

    (401) A munitions item or component with its explosives material completely removed is considered

    • A. inert.

    • B. empty.

    • B. empty.

    • D. nonexplosive.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. empty.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. empty. A munitions item or component with its explosives material completely removed is considered empty. This means that there is no longer any explosive material present in the item or component, making it safe and non-hazardous.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 19, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 09, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Monkeyheads92
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