Mock Test 15 - Gs Paper I
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Why did the powers to govern were transferred from east India company to british crown?I. For better govt.II. Company's limitation in administrationIII. Due to lack of accountability
- A.
Only I
- B.
Only II
- C.
Both II & III
- D.
All
Correct Answer
D. AllExplanation
The powers to govern were transferred from the East India Company to the British Crown for multiple reasons. Firstly, it was done for better governance as the British Crown could provide more effective and efficient administration. Secondly, the East India Company had limitations in administration, which led to the need for a transfer of power. Lastly, the lack of accountability on the part of the company also played a role in the decision to transfer powers to the British Crown. Therefore, all of the given options (I, II, and III) are correct explanations for the transfer of powers.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Choose the incorrect:I. objective of associating Indians in administration was to understand their custom & traditions by the britishII. During british rule the secretary of state had power to take final decisionsIII. Council formed under secretary of state was advisory in nature
- A.
Only II
- B.
Only III
- C.
Both I & III
- D.
None
Correct Answer
D. NoneExplanation
The correct answer is "None". This means that both statements I and III are correct. Statement I states that the objective of associating Indians in administration was to understand their customs and traditions by the British, which is a valid explanation for their actions. Statement III states that the council formed under the secretary of state was advisory in nature, which is also true. Therefore, both statements are correct and the answer is "None".Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following is not the weakness of legislative council formed to assist secretary of state?I. It could not discuss financial matterII. It required the permission if viceroy to pass the budgetIII. final passing of bil needed approval of secretary of state/
- A.
Only I
- B.
Only II
- C.
Both II & III
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Both II & IIIExplanation
The correct answer is "Both II & III". This means that both statement II and statement III are weaknesses of the legislative council formed to assist the secretary of state. Statement II states that the council required the permission of the viceroy to pass the budget, which indicates a lack of autonomy and decision-making power. Statement III states that the final passing of a bill needed the approval of the secretary of state, suggesting that the council did not have the authority to make independent decisions on legislation.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What was the basic objective of mayo's resolution 1870?
- A.
Creating local bodies
- B.
Financial decentralization
- C.
People's participation in policy making
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Financial decentralizationExplanation
Mayo's Resolution of 1870 aimed to achieve financial decentralization. This means that the objective was to distribute financial power and decision-making authority to local bodies or entities. By doing so, it would allow for more local control and management of financial resources, promoting autonomy and accountability at the local level. This approach would also enable better allocation of funds and resources based on the specific needs and priorities of each locality.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What were the drawbacks of local bodies formed during British rule?I. Limited franchiseII. No proper control and management by the governmentIII. Municipalities were headed by non-officials
- A.
Both I & III
- B.
Both I & II
- C.
Both II & III
- D.
All the above
Correct Answer
A. Both I & IIIExplanation
The drawbacks of local bodies formed during British rule were limited franchise and the fact that municipalities were headed by non-officials. Limited franchise means that only a small portion of the population had the right to vote or participate in local governance. This restricted the representation and voice of the people. Additionally, having non-officials as the heads of municipalities meant that there was no proper control and management by the government, leading to potential mismanagement and corruption. Therefore, the correct answer is Both I & III.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Why did the British felt the need of decentralization of powers?
- A.
Financial difficulties due to over-centralisation
- B.
Rising tide of nationalism
- C.
Associating Indians in administration was seen as instrument to check politicisation by Bitish
- D.
All
Correct Answer
D. AllExplanation
The British felt the need for decentralization of powers due to a combination of factors. Financial difficulties caused by over-centralization made it necessary to distribute power and responsibilities to different regions. Additionally, the rising tide of nationalism among Indians posed a threat to British rule, so involving Indians in administration was seen as a way to prevent politicization and maintain control. Therefore, all of these reasons contributed to the British decision to decentralize powers.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Judge of the High Court can be removed from office during his tenure by:udge of the High Court can be removed from office during his tenure by: - See more at: http://gkhub.com/indian-polity-objective-type-questions-and-answers-for-ssc-nda-and-other-state-psc-exams/#sthash.wuuWsmeQ.dpuf
- A.
The Governor if the State legislature passes a resolution to this effect by two-thirds majority
- B.
The President on the basis of a resolution passed by the Parliament by two-thirds majority
- C.
The Chief Justice of the Supreme court on the recommendation of the Parliament
- D.
The Chief Justice of the High Court on the recommendation of the State Legislature
Correct Answer
B. The President on the basis of a resolution passed by the Parliament by two-thirds majority -
- 8.
Judicial Review in the Indian Constitution is based on:
- A.
Procedure established by law
- B.
Due process of Law
- C.
Rule of Law
- D.
Precedents and conventions
Correct Answer
A. Procedure established by lawExplanation
Judicial Review in the Indian Constitution is based on the concept of "procedure established by law." This means that any law or action taken by the government must follow the established legal procedures. The judiciary has the power to review the constitutionality of laws and government actions to ensure that they adhere to the prescribed procedures. This principle ensures that the government operates within the framework of the law and prevents arbitrary exercise of power. It provides a mechanism for citizens to challenge laws or actions that violate their fundamental rights.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The provision of providing identity cards to voters has been made in:
- A.
The Constitution of India
- B.
The Representation of the People Act 1958
- C.
The Election Laws (Amendment) Act 1975
- D.
The Criminal and Election Laws (Amendment) Act 1969
Correct Answer
B. The Representation of the People Act 1958Explanation
The provision of providing identity cards to voters has been made in the Representation of the People Act 1958. This act is a key legislation in India that governs the conduct of elections. It lays down the rules and regulations for the preparation of electoral rolls, the process of registration of voters, and the issuance of voter identity cards. The act ensures that every eligible citizen has the right to vote and provides a mechanism to verify the identity of voters through the use of identity cards.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The power to decide an election petition is vested in the
- A.
Parliament
- B.
Supreme Court
- C.
High courts
- D.
Election Commission
Correct Answer
C. High courtsExplanation
The power to decide an election petition is vested in the High courts. Election petitions are legal disputes related to the conduct of elections, such as allegations of electoral fraud or irregularities. High courts have the jurisdiction to hear and decide these petitions, as they are the highest judicial authority at the state level. They have the power to review the election process, examine evidence, and make a final determination on the validity of the election. This ensures that there is an independent and impartial body responsible for resolving election disputes at the state level.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The pension of a high court judge is charged to the
- A.
Consolidated Fund of India
- B.
Consolidated Fund of the state where he last served
- C.
Consolidated Funds of the different states where he has served
- D.
Contingency Fund of India
Correct Answer
A. Consolidated Fund of IndiaExplanation
The correct answer is the Consolidated Fund of India. This is because the pension of a high court judge is a central expenditure and is therefore charged to the Consolidated Fund of India, which is the main account of the government where all revenues and expenses are consolidated. The Consolidated Fund of India is controlled by the central government and is used to meet the day-to-day expenses of the government, including pensions of high court judges.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The power of Supreme Court of India to decide the dispute between the centre and states falls under its
- A.
Advisory jurisdiction
- B.
Appellate jurisdiction
- C.
Original jurisdiction
- D.
Constitutional jurisdiction
Correct Answer
C. Original jurisdictionExplanation
The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the center and states falls under its original jurisdiction. This means that the Supreme Court has the authority to hear and determine cases that are brought directly to it, without going through any lower courts. In this particular context, the Supreme Court has the power to adjudicate conflicts between the central government and state governments, ensuring the proper interpretation and application of the Indian Constitution.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The powers to legislate with respect to any matter not enumerated in any of the three lists are mentioned as residuary powers. Which of the following is empowered to determine finally as to whether or not a particular matter falls in this category
- A.
Lok Sabha
- B.
Judiciary
- C.
Rajya Sabha
- D.
Parliament
Correct Answer
B. JudiciaryExplanation
The judiciary is empowered to determine finally whether or not a particular matter falls under the category of residuary powers. As the judicial branch of the government, the judiciary has the authority to interpret the Constitution and make decisions on matters not specifically mentioned in the legislative lists. This ensures a system of checks and balances, where the judiciary acts as a final arbiter in determining the scope and extent of legislative powers.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The nature of the anti-Imperialist struggle was
- A.
Always peaceful and constitutional
- B.
Initially constitutional and by large non-violent
- C.
Based on continuous armed resistance
- D.
Largely supported by foreign powers
Correct Answer
B. Initially constitutional and by large non-violentExplanation
The correct answer is "initially constitutional and by large non-violent". This means that in the beginning, the anti-Imperialist struggle was primarily conducted through legal and peaceful means, with a focus on using non-violent methods to oppose imperialism. This suggests that the movement initially aimed to bring about change through legal and political channels, rather than resorting to armed resistance.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The phrase 'procedure established by the law' means
- A.
The judges in India cannot question the fairness or validity of a law, provided it is within the limits of the constitution
- B.
Judges in India can question the fairness or validity of an undue law even if it is within the limits of the constitution
- C.
Judges in India can declare a law invalid simply because in their opinion the law is not due or is unjust
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. The judges in India cannot question the fairness or validity of a law, provided it is within the limits of the constitutionExplanation
The phrase 'procedure established by the law' means that judges in India cannot question the fairness or validity of a law, as long as it is within the limits set by the constitution. This implies that judges are bound by the constitution and cannot declare a law invalid solely based on their opinion of its fairness or justice. They must adhere to the established legal procedures and follow the constitution when interpreting and applying the law.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The member of a State Public Service Commission can be removed on the ground of misbehavior only after an enquiry has been conducted by the
- A.
Supreme Court of India
- B.
High Court of the state
- C.
Committee appointed by the president
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Supreme Court of IndiaExplanation
A member of a State Public Service Commission can be removed on the ground of misbehavior only after an enquiry conducted by the Supreme Court of India. This ensures that the removal process is fair and unbiased, as the Supreme Court is the highest judicial authority in the country. The Supreme Court's involvement also ensures that the removal decision is based on legal principles and protects the independence of the State Public Service Commission. The High Court of the state may have jurisdiction over certain matters but is not specifically responsible for conducting enquiries into the misbehavior of State Public Service Commission members. A committee appointed by the president may not have the necessary expertise or impartiality to conduct such an enquiry effectively.Rate this question:
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- 17.
The oath of office is conducted to the president by
- A.
The speaker of Lok Sabha
- B.
The chief justice of India
- C.
The vice-president of India
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. The chief justice of IndiaExplanation
The correct answer is the chief justice of India. The oath of office is conducted by the chief justice of India, who is the highest-ranking judicial officer in the country. This is done to ensure that the president takes their oath in the presence of a high-ranking official who upholds the principles of justice and the constitution. The chief justice of India is responsible for administering the oath and ensuring that the president follows the constitutional processes during their term in office.Rate this question:
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- 18.
National Income estimates in India is prepared by
- A.
RBI
- B.
C.S.O.
- C.
Finance Ministry
- D.
Planning Commission
Correct Answer
B. C.S.O.Explanation
The correct answer is C.S.O. The Central Statistics Office (C.S.O.) is responsible for preparing the National Income estimates in India. They collect data from various sources and use it to calculate the country's national income, which is an important indicator of the overall economic health and performance. The C.S.O. plays a crucial role in providing reliable and accurate data for policy-making, economic planning, and analysis in India.Rate this question:
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- 19.
In India which source of irrigation is widely used
- A.
Wells
- B.
Canals
- C.
Rivers
- D.
Tanks
Correct Answer
B. Canals -
- 20.
The former name of Reserve Bank of India was
- A.
National Bank of India
- B.
State Bank of India
- C.
Imperial Bank of India
- D.
Central Bank of India
Correct Answer
D. Central Bank of IndiaExplanation
The former name of Reserve Bank of India was Central Bank of India. This is because the Reserve Bank of India, established in 1935, was initially known as the Central Bank of India. It was later renamed as the Reserve Bank of India in 1937. The Central Bank of India was responsible for regulating the country's monetary policy and controlling the banking system, making it an appropriate precursor to the Reserve Bank of India.Rate this question:
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- 21.
The ratio between marketable crop yield and water used in evapotranspiration is known as--
- A.
Field water use efficiency
- B.
Economic irrigation efficiency
- C.
Consumptive use efficiency
- D.
Water use efficiency
Correct Answer
A. Field water use efficiencyExplanation
Field water use efficiency is the correct answer because it refers to the ratio between the marketable crop yield and the amount of water used in evapotranspiration. This term specifically focuses on the efficiency of water use in agricultural fields, measuring how effectively crops utilize water for growth and production. It is an important concept in sustainable agriculture as it helps to optimize water resources and minimize wastage.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Among the following crop rotations, which is good for in creasing soil Nutrient status?
- A.
Rice-Wheat
- B.
Groundnut-Wheat
- C.
Pearlmillet-Wheat
- D.
Sorghum-Wheat
Correct Answer
B. Groundnut-WheatExplanation
The crop rotation of Groundnut-Wheat is good for increasing soil nutrient status because groundnut is a leguminous crop that has the ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen into the soil, thus enriching it with this essential nutrient. Wheat, on the other hand, benefits from the increased nitrogen availability in the soil, leading to improved growth and yield. This rotation helps to replenish the soil's nutrient content and maintain its fertility over time.Rate this question:
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- 23.
White colour of soil is due to the presence of -
- A.
White colour of soil is due to the presence of - 1. Silica 2. Iron 3. Manganese oxide 4. All of these Silica
- B.
Iron
- C.
Manganese oxide
- D.
All of these
Correct Answer
C. Manganese oxideExplanation
The white color of soil is due to the presence of manganese oxide. Manganese oxide is a compound that is commonly found in soil and can give it a white or pale color. Silica and iron can also contribute to the color of soil, but in this case, it is specifically manganese oxide that is responsible for the white color.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The animals produced by mating of two different breeds of the same species is known as -
- A.
Mixed breed
- B.
Cross breed
- C.
Exotic breed
- D.
Pure breed
Correct Answer
B. Cross breedExplanation
Cross breeding refers to the mating of two different breeds of the same species, resulting in offspring that inherit traits from both parent breeds. This process is commonly used in animal husbandry to introduce desirable characteristics or improve the overall quality of a breed. Cross breeding can lead to hybrid vigor, where the offspring may exhibit enhanced traits such as increased growth rate, disease resistance, or productivity.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Water use efficiency is the highest is case of-
- A.
Border irrigation
- B.
Drip irrigation
- C.
Sprinkler irrigation
- D.
Flood irrigation
Correct Answer
B. Drip irrigationExplanation
Drip irrigation is the most efficient method of water use among the options given. In drip irrigation, water is delivered directly to the plant's root zone through a network of tubes or pipes with small emitters. This targeted delivery minimizes water loss due to evaporation or runoff. Compared to other methods like border, sprinkler, or flood irrigation, drip irrigation allows for precise control over water application, reducing wastage and ensuring that plants receive the necessary amount of water without excess. Therefore, drip irrigation is considered the most water-efficient method.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The chemical, which is used for controlling the mites, is known as -
- A.
Fungicides
- B.
Mematicides
- C.
Acaricides
- D.
Insecticides
Correct Answer
B. Mematicides -
- 27.
Crop rotation helps to
- A.
Lessen use of pesticides
- B.
Yield more crops
- C.
Produce a greater choice of plant products
- D.
Eliminate parasites which have selective hosts
Correct Answer
D. Eliminate parasites which have selective hostsExplanation
Crop rotation involves the practice of growing different crops in a specific order on the same piece of land over a period of time. This helps to disrupt the life cycles of pests and diseases that are specific to certain crops, as they are unable to find their preferred host plants. As a result, crop rotation can effectively eliminate parasites that have selective hosts, reducing the need for pesticides and promoting healthier crop growth. Additionally, by diversifying the types of crops grown, farmers can yield more crops and have a greater choice of plant products to offer.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Greening of potato results in--
- A.
Increase in nutritional quality
- B.
Increase in disease resistance
- C.
Decrease in disease resistance
- D.
Decrease in nutritional quality
Correct Answer
D. Decrease in nutritional qualityExplanation
Greening of potato occurs when it is exposed to light, causing the production of chlorophyll. This process is accompanied by the accumulation of a toxic compound called solanine, which gives the potato a green color. Solanine is harmful to humans and can cause digestive issues, headaches, and even paralysis in severe cases. Therefore, the greening of potatoes leads to a decrease in nutritional quality as the presence of solanine reduces the overall nutritional value of the potato.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which one of the following makes a case for intensive, modern farming?
- A.
Cropping pattern
- B.
Higher output using organic method
- C.
Remunerative price
- D.
None of these
Correct Answer
A. Cropping patternExplanation
The given correct answer is "Cropping pattern". This suggests that the cropping pattern used in intensive, modern farming is a compelling reason for its adoption. Intensive farming practices often involve growing high-yield crops in a specific pattern to maximize productivity and efficiency. This approach allows farmers to cultivate a larger quantity of crops within a limited space, leading to increased output and profitability. Therefore, the cropping pattern plays a crucial role in making a case for intensive, modern farming.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Agronomy is a branch of Agriculture that deals with -
- A.
Breeding of crop plants
- B.
Principles of field management
- C.
Principles and practice of crop production
- D.
Protection of crops from Diseases and Pests
Correct Answer
C. Principles and practice of crop productionExplanation
Agronomy is a branch of agriculture that focuses on the principles and practices of crop production. This involves studying and understanding the various techniques and methods used in cultivating crops, such as soil management, irrigation, fertilization, and pest control. Agronomists also research and develop new technologies and strategies to improve crop yields and quality. By specializing in the principles and practice of crop production, agronomists play a crucial role in ensuring food security and sustainability in agricultural systems.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Monoculture is a typical characteristics of -
- A.
Shifting cultivation
- B.
Subsistence farming
- C.
Specialized horticulture
- D.
Commercial grain farming
Correct Answer
D. Commercial grain farmingExplanation
Commercial grain farming is characterized by monoculture, which means the cultivation of a single crop on a large scale. In this type of farming, farmers focus on growing a specific grain crop, such as wheat, corn, or rice, for commercial purposes. Monoculture allows for efficient management and mechanization of farming practices, as well as easier harvesting and processing of the crops. This specialization in growing a single crop helps farmers maximize their yields and profits in the commercial grain market.Rate this question:
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- 32.
India’s economic planning CANNOT be said to be:
- A.
Indicative
- B.
Imperative
- C.
Limited
- D.
Democratic
Correct Answer
B. ImperativeExplanation
India's economic planning cannot be said to be imperative because it does not impose strict rules or commands on the economy. Instead, it follows a more flexible approach known as indicative planning, where the government sets broad goals and provides guidelines for economic development, but allows the market forces to play a significant role in decision-making. This approach promotes a certain level of economic freedom and allows for adaptation to changing circumstances. Therefore, imperative planning, which involves strict control and direction by the government, is not applicable to India's economic planning.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The Ahar Movement:
- A.
Was moved by ideas of self-government.
- B.
Disliked the loyalist politics of Aligarh School and big nawabs and zamindars.
- C.
Advocated participation in the militant national movement.
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The Ahar Movement encompassed all the mentioned characteristics. It was driven by the concept of self-government, rejecting the loyalist politics of Aligarh School and the influential nawabs and zamindars. Additionally, it advocated for active involvement in the militant national movement. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which of the following writs is issued to the courts, corporations or persons directing them to perform their duty?
- A.
Habeas Corpus
- B.
Uo Corpus
- C.
Mandamus
- D.
Prohibition
Correct Answer
C. MandamusExplanation
Mandamus is the correct answer because it is a writ issued by a higher court to a lower court, corporation, or person, commanding them to perform a specific duty that they are legally obligated to do. This writ is used to ensure that individuals or entities fulfill their responsibilities and obligations as required by law.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Peaty soil are mostly found in:
- A.
Bihar
- B.
Orissa
- C.
Kerala
- D.
Gujarat
Correct Answer
C. KeralaExplanation
Peaty soil is mostly found in Kerala. This type of soil is characterized by its high organic content, dark color, and high water-holding capacity. Peaty soil is formed in wetland areas where there is an accumulation of partially decomposed organic matter, such as dead plants and leaves. Kerala, being a state with a significant amount of wetlands and marshy areas, provides the ideal conditions for the formation of peaty soil.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The New Symbol of Indian Rupee is a blend of
- A.
Devanagiri Ra
- B.
Roman R
- C.
Devanagiri Ra and Roman
- D.
None of these
Correct Answer
C. Devanagiri Ra and RomanExplanation
The correct answer is Devanagiri Ra and Roman. This is because the new symbol of the Indian Rupee incorporates both the Devanagiri script, which is used for writing Hindi, and the Roman script, which is commonly used in English. The symbol is a combination of the Devanagiri letter "Ra" and the Roman letter "R", representing the currency in both scripts. This blend of scripts represents the multicultural and multilingual nature of India.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which is the most important source of income for Government of India?
- A.
Interest
- B.
Licence fee
- C.
Income tax
- D.
Excise duty
Correct Answer
D. Excise dutyExplanation
Excise duty is the most important source of income for the Government of India. Excise duty is a tax levied on the production or sale of goods within the country. It is an indirect tax and is imposed on goods like alcohol, tobacco, petroleum products, and more. The revenue generated from excise duty plays a crucial role in the government's finances as it contributes significantly to the overall tax revenue. This revenue is then used to fund various government expenditures and welfare programs.Rate this question:
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- 38.
India’s foreign trade policy could be best described as
- A.
Free trade
- B.
Laizzez faire
- C.
Controlled free trade
- D.
None of these
Correct Answer
C. Controlled free tradeExplanation
India's foreign trade policy can be described as controlled free trade because while it allows for some degree of free trade, it also imposes certain regulations and restrictions on imports and exports. The government of India implements various measures such as tariffs, quotas, and licensing requirements to control and regulate foreign trade. This approach allows the government to protect domestic industries, promote economic growth, and maintain a balance of trade.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Steel is more elastic than rubber because it -
- A.
Is harder than rubber
- B.
Requires larger deforming force
- C.
Is never deformed
- D.
Is deformed very easily
Correct Answer
B. Requires larger deforming forceExplanation
Steel is more elastic than rubber because it requires a larger deforming force. Elasticity refers to a material's ability to deform under stress and return to its original shape when the stress is removed. Steel, being a stronger and more rigid material compared to rubber, requires a greater force to deform it. On the other hand, rubber is known for its high elasticity as it can easily deform under smaller forces. Therefore, steel's higher elasticity is attributed to the fact that it requires a larger deforming force.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Price rigidity is the feature of -
- A.
Perfect competitive competition
- B.
Monopoly
- C.
Oligopoly
- D.
Monopolistic competition
Correct Answer
C. OligopolyExplanation
Price rigidity is a characteristic of oligopoly. In an oligopoly market structure, there are only a few large firms that dominate the market. Due to the interdependence of these firms, they tend to engage in strategic behavior and closely monitor each other's pricing decisions. This leads to a situation where prices are relatively stable and resistant to change, resulting in price rigidity. In contrast, perfect competition, monopoly, and monopolistic competition do not exhibit the same level of price rigidity as they have different market structures and characteristics.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter, but the water at its bottom is still liquid. What is the reason?
- A.
Ice is a bad conductor of heat
- B.
Since the surface of the lake is at the same temperature as the air, no heat is lost
- C.
The density of water is maximum at 4°C
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. The density of water is maximum at 4°CExplanation
The reason why the surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter, but the water at its bottom is still liquid is because the density of water is maximum at 4°C. As the temperature decreases, the water near the surface starts to cool and become denser. This denser water sinks to the bottom, displacing the warmer water which rises to the surface. This process continues until the entire lake is at a uniform temperature of 4°C, which is the temperature at which water is most dense. As a result, the bottom water remains in liquid form while the surface freezes.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which of the following devices converts electrical energy into mechanical energy?
- A.
Dynamo
- B.
Transformer
- C.
Electric motor
- D.
Inductor
Correct Answer
C. Electric motorExplanation
An electric motor is a device that converts electrical energy into mechanical energy. It does this by using the principles of electromagnetism. When an electric current flows through the motor, it creates a magnetic field that interacts with the field produced by permanent magnets inside the motor. This interaction causes a force that rotates the motor's shaft, resulting in mechanical motion. Therefore, an electric motor is the correct answer as it directly converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.Rate this question:
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- 43.
A person weighs more in a lift, which is -
- A.
Moving up with a constant velocity
- B.
Moving down with a constant velocity
- C.
Accelerating upward
- D.
Accelerating downward
Correct Answer
C. Accelerating upwardExplanation
When a person is in a lift that is accelerating upward, their weight appears to increase. This is because the person experiences an upward force, which is the sum of their weight and the force due to the lift's acceleration. As a result, the person feels heavier.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Conservation of energy means that -
- A.
Energy can be created as well as destroyed
- B.
Energy can be created, but not destroyed
- C.
Energy cannot be created, but can be destroyed
- D.
Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
Correct Answer
D. Energy can neither be created nor destroyedExplanation
This answer is based on the principle of conservation of energy, which states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, but only transformed from one form to another. This principle is also known as the law of conservation of energy or the first law of thermodynamics. It means that the total amount of energy in a closed system remains constant over time. This concept is fundamental in physics and is supported by various experiments and observations.Rate this question:
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- 45.
A person climbing a hill bends forward in order to -
- A.
Avoid slipping
- B.
Increase speed
- C.
Reduce fatigue
- D.
Increase stability
Correct Answer
D. Increase stabilityExplanation
When a person climbs a hill, bending forward helps to increase stability. This is because it shifts the center of gravity lower and closer to the ground, providing a better balance and preventing the person from losing their balance and falling backwards. By leaning forward, the person can distribute their weight more evenly and maintain a stable position while climbing uphill.Rate this question:
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- 46.
A football bounces when it falls on the ground, because -
- A.
It is made up of Rubber
- B.
It is hollow
- C.
It is very light and is able to overcome the resistance of air
- D.
Of its property of elasticity
Correct Answer
D. Of its property of elasticityExplanation
When a football falls on the ground, it bounces due to its property of elasticity. Elasticity refers to the ability of an object to regain its original shape after being deformed. In the case of a football, when it hits the ground, it gets compressed. However, because of its elasticity, it quickly regains its original shape, causing it to bounce back up. This property allows the football to overcome the resistance of the ground and gravity, resulting in a bouncing motion.Rate this question:
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- 47.
An air bubble in water will act like a -
- A.
Convex mirror
- B.
Concave lens
- C.
Concave mirror
- D.
Convex lens
Correct Answer
D. Convex lensExplanation
An air bubble in water will act like a convex lens because it has a curved surface that is thicker in the middle and thinner at the edges. This curvature causes light rays passing through the bubble to converge, similar to how a convex lens focuses light. As a result, the image formed by the bubble will be smaller and inverted.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Superconductivity means -
- A.
Very feeble currect
- B.
Very large current
- C.
Current without facing any resistance
- D.
Current due to positive particles
Correct Answer
C. Current without facing any resistanceExplanation
Superconductivity refers to the phenomenon where an electric current can flow through a material without experiencing any resistance. This means that the current can move through the material indefinitely without losing any energy. In superconducting materials, the electrons pair up and move together, creating a current that can flow freely without any obstacles. This property allows for the efficient transmission of electricity and has various applications in industries such as healthcare, energy, and transportation.Rate this question:
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- 49.
In photoelectric emission, the energy of emitted electron is
- A.
Same as that of incident photon
- B.
Larger than that of incident photon
- C.
Less than that of incident photon
- D.
Proportional to the intensity of incident light
Correct Answer
D. Proportional to the intensity of incident lightExplanation
In photoelectric emission, the energy of the emitted electron is proportional to the intensity of the incident light. This means that as the intensity of the incident light increases, the energy of the emitted electron also increases. This is because the energy of the incident photons is transferred to the electrons, causing them to be emitted from the material. The greater the intensity of the incident light, the more energy is transferred to the electrons, resulting in higher energy electrons being emitted.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Garampani sanctuary is located at
- A.
Junagarh, Gujarat
- B.
Diphu, Assam
- C.
Kohima, Nagaland
- D.
Gangtok, Sikkim
Correct Answer
B. Diphu, AssamExplanation
Garampani sanctuary is located in Diphu, Assam. This sanctuary is known for its rich biodiversity and is home to various species of flora and fauna. It is a popular tourist destination and offers a serene and peaceful environment for visitors to explore and enjoy nature.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Oct 05, 2014Quiz Created by
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