# 7 Lvl Ure Vol 3

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Lj4303
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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 46
Questions: 86 | Attempts: 46

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• 1.

### What information on a map is much like the instruction book that comes with a piece of equipment?

• A.

Topographical

• B.

Geographical

• C.

Marginal

• D.

Index

C. Marginal
Explanation
The marginal information on a map is similar to the instruction book that comes with a piece of equipment because it provides additional details and explanations about the map's features and symbols. This information is usually found in the margins of the map and includes things like a legend, scale, grid references, and explanations of symbols used. Just like an instruction book helps users understand how to operate a piece of equipment, marginal information helps map users interpret and navigate the map effectively.

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• 2.

### Which color, found on a map, represents man-made features?

• A.

Yellow

• B.

Green

• C.

Orange

• D.

Black

D. Black
Explanation
Black is commonly used on maps to represent man-made features such as roads, buildings, and boundaries. This color is chosen because it provides a clear contrast against the natural features represented by other colors like green for vegetation or blue for water. By using black, map makers can easily differentiate between natural and man-made elements, making the map more readable and understandable for users.

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• 3.

### On a map, what is represented by a solid blue line with a thin black line as a bank?

• A.

A river

• B.

A lake

• C.

A stream

• D.

A dry pond

A. A river
Explanation
A solid blue line on a map typically represents a body of water, while a thin black line is commonly used to indicate a bank or shoreline. Therefore, a solid blue line with a thin black line as a bank would most likely represent a river.

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• 4.

### If a map shows contour lines on the opposite side of a hill so close that they almost appear as a single line, these lines denote a

• A.

Small ridge or plateau

• B.

Verticle/near verticle cliff

• C.

Small hill with a gentle slope

• D.

Depression in the terrain

B. Verticle/near verticle cliff
Explanation
If a map shows contour lines on the opposite side of a hill so close that they almost appear as a single line, it indicates a vertical or near-vertical cliff. This means that there is a steep drop or an abrupt change in elevation on that side of the hill. The contour lines being close together suggest a rapid change in elevation, which is characteristic of a cliff rather than a small ridge or plateau, a small hill with a gentle slope, or a depression in the terrain.

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• 5.

### Which of the following is not one of the three types of contour lines shown on a Defense Mapping Agency map?

• A.

Supplementary

• B.

Intermediate

• C.

Secondary

• D.

Index

C. Secondary
Explanation
The Defense Mapping Agency map shows three types of contour lines: supplementary, intermediate, and index. The term "secondary" is not mentioned as one of the types of contour lines shown on the map.

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• 6.

### Which major terrain feature is a dip or low point between two areas of higher ground?

• A.

Depression

• B.

Ridge

• C.

Valley

• D.

Explanation
A saddle is a major terrain feature that refers to a dip or low point between two areas of higher ground. It is typically shaped like a saddle on a horse's back, with higher elevations on either side and a lower area in the middle. Saddle formations are commonly found in mountainous regions and are often used as natural passes or routes between two higher areas. They can also be used as strategic points for navigation or as geographic landmarks.

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• 7.

### A short, continuous sloping line of higher ground, normally jutting out from the side of a ridge is called a

• A.

Spur

• B.

Hill

• C.

Cliff

• D.

Slope

A. Spur
Explanation
A short, continuous sloping line of higher ground, normally jutting out from the side of a ridge is called a spur. A spur is a landform that is formed by erosion and is often found in mountainous or hilly areas. It is characterized by its elongated shape and its higher elevation compared to the surrounding terrain. Spur formations are important in understanding the topography and geomorphology of an area, as well as in determining the flow of water and the development of drainage patterns.

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• 8.

### Plotting a six-digit grid coordinate will get you within how many meters of the point you wish to identify?

• A.

1,000

• B.

100

• C.

10

• D.

1

B. 100
Explanation
Plotting a six-digit grid coordinate will get you within 100 meters of the point you wish to identify.

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• 9.

### In land navgtion, which north is your starting point or baseline?

• A.

Geographic

• B.

Magnetic

• C.

Polar

• D.

True

D. True
Explanation
The correct answer is "True." In land navigation, the starting point or baseline for determining north is referred to as "True north." True north is the direction towards the North Pole and is based on the Earth's geographic axis. It is important to establish true north as a reference point when navigating using a map and compass, as it provides an accurate direction for plotting routes and determining bearings. Magnetic north, on the other hand, is the direction towards the Earth's magnetic pole and can vary depending on the location and magnetic declination.

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• 10.

### What is an azimuth?

• A.

A verticle angle measured clockwise from true north, magnetic north, or grid north

• B.

A horizontal angle measured counterclockwise from true north, magnetic north

• C.

A horizontal angle measured clockwise from true north, magnetic north, or grid north

• D.

A verticle angle measured counterclockwise from magnetic north of grid north

C. A horizontal angle measured clockwise from true north, magnetic north, or grid north
Explanation
An azimuth is a horizontal angle measured clockwise from true north, magnetic north, or grid north. It is used in navigation and surveying to determine the direction or bearing of an object or location. By measuring the azimuth, one can determine the angle between a reference point (north) and the desired direction. This allows for accurate navigation and orientation in various fields such as aviation, marine, and land surveying.

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• 11.

### What are two other grid systems that are used as the basis for the Military Grid Reference System?

• A.

The universal traveling map and the universal plotting scheme

• B.

The universal transverse mercator and the universal polar stereographic

• C.

The unit transverse mercator and the unit polar stereographic

• D.

The universal transit mercator and the universal polarity stereographic

B. The universal transverse mercator and the universal polar stereographic
Explanation
The correct answer is the universal transverse mercator and the universal polar stereographic. These two grid systems are used as the basis for the Military Grid Reference System. The universal transverse mercator system is used for mapping areas between 84 degrees north and 80 degrees south latitude, while the universal polar stereographic system is used for mapping areas near the North and South Poles. These grid systems provide a standardized way to locate and reference specific points on a map, which is essential for military operations and navigation.

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• 12.

### How do you convert a grid azimuth to a magnetic azimuth?

• A.

Subtract the 3.5 degrees from your azimuth

• B.

Add the 3.5-degrees grid magnet angle to the azimuth

• C.

Subtract 3.5 degrees from your back azimuth

• D.

Subtract 5.5 degrees from your azimuth

A. Subtract the 3.5 degrees from your azimuth
Explanation
To convert a grid azimuth to a magnetic azimuth, you need to subtract 3.5 degrees from your azimuth. This adjustment is necessary because grid north and magnetic north are not aligned. By subtracting the 3.5 degrees, you are correcting for the angular difference between the two reference points. This ensures that your azimuth is adjusted to the magnetic north direction, which is important for accurate navigation and orientation.

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• 13.

### What is the most important thing to look for when inspecting your lensatic compass?

• A.

There is no dirt in the dial

• B.

The numbers are easy to read

• C.

The arrows can be seen at night

• D.

The dial or arrow moves freely

D. The dial or arrow moves freely
Explanation
When inspecting a lensatic compass, the most important thing to look for is that the dial or arrow moves freely. This is crucial because if the dial or arrow is stuck or does not move smoothly, it can lead to inaccurate readings and unreliable navigation. A freely moving dial or arrow ensures that the compass is functioning properly and will provide accurate directions when needed.

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• 14.

### Which method of movement gives you the lowest silhouette?

• A.

High crawl

• B.

Low crawl

• C.

Rush

• D.

Roll

B. Low crawl
Explanation
The low crawl method of movement gives you the lowest silhouette. This means that when you are low crawling, you are closer to the ground and have a smaller profile, making it harder for the enemy to spot you. This method involves using your elbows and knees to move forward while keeping your body as close to the ground as possible. By doing so, you minimize your visibility and increase your chances of remaining undetected.

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• 15.

### Which movement technique requires a great deal of patience?

• A.

Low crawl

• B.

Moving at night

• C.

Moving with stealth

• D.

Moving with precision

C. Moving with stealth
Explanation
Moving with stealth requires a great deal of patience because it involves moving slowly, quietly, and deliberately to avoid detection. This technique requires the individual to carefully plan their movements, constantly assess their surroundings, and make minimal noise to remain undetected. It requires patience to move at a slow pace, maintain focus, and wait for the right moments to advance without being noticed.

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• 16.

### When writing paragraph 2 - mission in the operations order, how often do you state the mission?

• A.

One time

• B.

Two times

• C.

Three times

• D.

Four times

B. Two times
Explanation
In paragraph 2 of the operations order, the mission is stated two times. This repetition ensures clarity and understanding among the team members. By restating the mission, it serves as a reminder and reinforces the main objective of the operation. Additionally, stating the mission twice helps to minimize any confusion or misinterpretation that may arise during the execution of the operation.

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• 17.

### In paragraph 3 - execution of the operations order, how should you write the concept of operations?

• A.

Detailed and understandable and describe how the unit will finish its mission

• B.

Concise and understandable and describe, in general terms, how the unit will accomplish its mission

• C.

Concise describe, in general terms, how the unit will accomplish its mission from start to finish

• D.

Concise and understandable and describe, in general terms, how the unit will accomplish its mission from the start to finish

D. Concise and understandable and describe, in general terms, how the unit will accomplish its mission from the start to finish
Explanation
The concept of operations in the execution of the operations order should be concise and understandable. It should describe, in general terms, how the unit will accomplish its mission from the start to finish. This means that the concept should provide a clear and concise overview of the unit's plan, outlining the key steps and objectives without getting into excessive detail. By being both concise and understandable, the concept of operations ensures that all members of the unit can easily grasp and follow the plan, facilitating effective execution of the mission.

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• 18.

### In which paragraph of the operations order is the mechanics of the operations addressed in detail?

• A.

Execution

• B.

Maneuver

• C.

Offensive

• D.

Defensive

B. Maneuver
Explanation
The mechanics of the operations are addressed in detail in the paragraph of the operations order called "Maneuver." This paragraph focuses on the specific actions and movements that will be taken during the operation. It outlines the tasks, responsibilities, and coordination required to execute the plan effectively. This paragraph is crucial for ensuring that all personnel involved understand their roles and how they fit into the overall operation.

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• 19.

### Which paragraph in the operations order addresses service and support, as needed, to clarify the service and support concept?

• A.

1

• B.

2

• C.

3

• D.

4

D. 4
Explanation
Paragraph 4 in the operations order addresses service and support, as needed, to clarify the service and support concept. This paragraph likely provides details on how the service and support will be provided, what resources will be utilized, and any specific instructions or guidelines for the personnel involved. It may also outline the responsibilities and roles of different units or individuals in providing service and support.

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• 20.

### Why would a leader issue a fragmentary order?

• A.

To change an existing order

• B.

• C.

To advise personnel of a fragile operation

• D.

To indicate a change in the command structure of the unit

A. To change an existing order
Explanation
A leader would issue a fragmentary order to change an existing order. Fragmentary orders are used to provide updated information or instructions to subordinates when there is a need to modify or adjust the original order. This allows the leader to quickly and efficiently communicate any changes or updates to the plan, ensuring that everyone is aware of the new instructions and can act accordingly. By issuing a fragmentary order, the leader can maintain control and adapt the plan as necessary in response to changing circumstances or new information.

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• 21.

### Which presentation shows the control measures and key terrain in relation to each other as well as a large rough drawing of the objective areas?

• A.

Rough draft

• B.

Concept sketch

• C.

Operations overlay

• D.

Terrain Scale model

B. Concept sketch
Explanation
A concept sketch is a visual representation that shows the control measures and key terrain in relation to each other, as well as a large rough drawing of the objective areas. It provides a preliminary and rough idea of how the control measures and key terrain are positioned in relation to the objective areas. The concept sketch helps in understanding the overall layout and plan of the presentation.

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• 22.

### Which element or team of the combat patrol provides direct fire support and may control indirect fires for the squad or flight?

• A.

Assault

• B.

Support

• C.

Breach

• D.

Demolition

B. Support
Explanation
The correct answer is "Support." The support element or team in a combat patrol is responsible for providing direct fire support to the squad or flight. They may also have the authority to control indirect fires, such as artillery or airstrikes, to aid in the mission. This element plays a crucial role in enhancing the combat effectiveness of the squad or flight by providing firepower and coordinating fire support assets.

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• 23.

### Attacks on a position or installation followed by a plan withdrawal, defines

• A.

An ambush

• B.

An assault

• C.

A hasty

• D.

A raid

D. A raid
Explanation
A raid is an attack on a position or installation followed by a planned withdrawal. It involves a swift and coordinated assault on a specific target, often with the intention of causing damage, capturing resources, or gathering intelligence. Unlike an ambush, which focuses on surprise and deception, a raid is more proactive and involves a planned withdrawal to minimize casualties and maximize the chances of success.

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• 24.

### Which of the following is not a type of reconnaissance patrol?

• A.

Area

• B.

Silent

• C.

Zone

• D.

Route

B. Silent
Explanation
Silent is not a type of reconnaissance patrol because a silent patrol refers to a stealthy movement technique used during any type of patrol, including reconnaissance patrols. It is not a distinct type of patrol itself, but rather a method employed during various types of patrols to minimize noise and maintain stealth. Therefore, silent cannot be considered as a separate category of reconnaissance patrol.

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• 25.

### Which type of reconnaissance patrol is performed to obtain information on enemy, terrain, and routes within a specialized zone?

• A.

Zone

• B.

Route

• C.

Area

• D.

Silent

A. Zone
Explanation
A reconnaissance patrol performed to obtain information on enemy, terrain, and routes within a specialized zone is called a zone reconnaissance patrol. This type of patrol focuses on gathering detailed information about a specific area, including enemy positions, terrain features, and potential routes. By conducting a zone reconnaissance patrol, military forces can gather crucial intelligence that can inform their future operations and decision-making processes.

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• 26.

### When leading a reconnaissance patrol, what technique positions surveillance teams in locations where they can collectively observe the entire zone long-term, continuously gathering information?

• A.

Multiple area reconnaissance

• B.

Successive sector method

• C.

Converging routes method

• D.

Stationary teams

D. Stationary teams
Explanation
Stationary teams are positioned in locations where they can continuously observe the entire zone long-term, allowing them to gather information over an extended period. This technique is effective for reconnaissance patrols as it ensures constant surveillance and data collection. The other options, multiple area reconnaissance, successive sector method, and converging routes method, do not specifically mention the placement of surveillance teams in stationary positions for long-term observation.

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• 27.

### Before attempting to maneuver, when employing fire and maneuver techniques, units must establish a base

• A.

Of fire

• B.

Support plan

• C.

• D.

Deflection maneuver

A. Of fire
Explanation
When employing fire and maneuver techniques, units must establish a base of fire before attempting to maneuver. This means that they need to establish a position from which they can provide suppressive fire on the enemy, allowing their maneuvering elements to advance or reposition safely. The base of fire serves as a support and protective measure for the maneuvering units, ensuring that they have cover and support while executing their movements. Establishing a base of fire is a crucial step in effective fire and maneuver tactics, as it allows for coordinated and successful offensive or defensive operations.

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• 28.

### In fire and maneuver operations, from where does most of the maneuvering forces fire support come?

• A.

Mortars, MK19's, and M2.50 calibers

• B.

• C.

Fire and maneuver elements

• D.

Explanation
Most of the maneuvering forces' fire support in fire and maneuver operations comes from your team's own weapons. This means that the team members themselves provide the necessary firepower to support their own movements and engagements. This could include individual weapons such as rifles, pistols, or shotguns, as well as any other specialized weapons or equipment that the team possesses. By relying on their own weapons, the team can maintain flexibility and responsiveness in the battlefield, ensuring effective fire support during maneuvering operations.

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• 29.

### Why do squads use formations?

• A.

For control flexibility and security

• B.

Flexibility and movement

• C.

Flexibility only

• D.

For control only

A. For control flexibility and security
Explanation
Squads use formations for control flexibility and security. Formations allow squads to maintain control over their movements and actions, as well as adapt to different situations on the battlefield. By organizing themselves in a specific formation, squads can coordinate their movements and maintain a cohesive unit, which enhances their ability to respond to threats and carry out their objectives effectively. Additionally, formations provide a sense of security by ensuring that squad members are aware of their surroundings and have support from their teammates.

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• 30.

### The basic formation for the fire team is the

• A.

File

• B.

Wedge

• C.

• D.

B. Wedge
Explanation
A fire team is a small unit within a military or firefighting organization. The wedge formation is a commonly used formation for fire teams. In this formation, the team members are arranged in a triangular shape, with the team leader at the front and the other members fanning out behind in a V-shape. This formation allows for easy movement through difficult terrain and provides good visibility and firepower in multiple directions. It also allows for effective communication and coordination within the team. Therefore, the wedge formation is the basic formation for a fire team.

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• 31.

### Which squad formation provides maximum firepower to the front?

• A.

Column

• B.

Wedge

• C.

Line

• D.

File

C. Line
Explanation
A line formation provides maximum firepower to the front because it allows all soldiers in the squad to face the enemy directly, ensuring that they can all engage the enemy simultaneously. In a line formation, soldiers are positioned side by side, creating a continuous line of fire. This formation maximizes the number of soldiers who can shoot at the enemy at the same time, increasing the overall firepower of the squad.

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• 32.

### When contact is possible, what movement technique should you choose for your squad?

• A.

Bounding overwatch

• B.

Traveling overwatch

• C.

Traverse overwatch

• D.

Leap frog movements

B. Traveling overwatch
Explanation
When contact is possible, the movement technique that should be chosen for the squad is traveling overwatch. Traveling overwatch is a movement technique where one element of the squad moves while the other element provides overwatch and covers the moving element. This technique allows for continuous movement while also maintaining security and readiness to engage the enemy if necessary. It ensures that the squad can cover ground quickly while minimizing the risk of being caught off guard by the enemy.

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• 33.

### Which bounding method is easier to control?

• A.

Alternate

• B.

Successive

• C.

Progressive

• D.

Leap frog

B. Successive
Explanation
Successive bounding method is easier to control compared to other methods. This is because successive bounding involves making incremental adjustments or approximations in a step-by-step manner. It allows for easier monitoring and adjustment of the bounding process, ensuring that the desired outcome is achieved. In contrast, other methods such as alternate, progressive, or leap frog bounding may involve more complex or unpredictable adjustments, making them harder to control.

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• 34.

### Which movement techniques are combined to cross an area so large the squad cannot bypass it due to the time required to accomplish the mission?

• A.

Overwatch and bounding overwatch

• B.

Traveling overwatch and traversing overwatch

• C.

Traveling overwatch and bounding overwatch

• D.

Traversing overwatch and bounding overwatch

C. Traveling overwatch and bounding overwatch
Explanation
Traveling overwatch and bounding overwatch are combined to cross an area that is too large for the squad to bypass due to time constraints. Traveling overwatch involves one element moving while the other provides security, and then switching roles. Bounding overwatch involves one element moving quickly and then taking up a position to provide security while the other element moves past them. By combining these two techniques, the squad can efficiently and safely cross the large area.

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• 35.

### You and your squad have come across a small open area to cross. You decide to use a series of 90-degree turns to the right or left so the squad moves around the open area until the far side is reached, then continue the mission. Which movement method did you elect to use?

• A.

Night walking

• B.

Detour bypass method

• C.

Contact danger method

• D.

Contouring around the open area

B. Detour bypass method
Explanation
The movement method chosen in this scenario is the detour bypass method. This involves using a series of 90-degree turns to either the right or left to navigate around the open area. By doing this, the squad avoids crossing the open area directly and instead takes a longer route to reach the far side. This method helps to minimize exposure and potential dangers that may be present in the open area, allowing the squad to continue their mission safely.

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• 36.

### At squad level, which teams normally provide flank security as well as fires into the kill zone?

• A.

The security elements

• B.

The outside buddy teams

• C.

The inside buddy teams

• D.

The ambush reserve teams

B. The outside buddy teams
Explanation
The outside buddy teams are the ones that normally provide flank security as well as fires into the kill zone at the squad level. They are responsible for ensuring the safety of the squad by covering the flanks and engaging any threats that may come from those directions. This allows the rest of the squad to focus on their primary objectives without worrying about being attacked from the sides. The outside buddy teams act as a protective barrier and help to maintain the security and effectiveness of the squad's operations.

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• 37.

### A deliberate ambush is conducted when your team

• A.

Has a specific target and a predetermined location

• B.

Deploys to attack an enemy in a single kill zone

• C.

Deploys in two or more related point ambushes

• D.

Makes visual contact with an enemy force and has time to establish an ambush

A. Has a specific target and a predetermined location
Explanation
A deliberate ambush is conducted when your team has a specific target and a predetermined location. This means that the team has identified a specific enemy target that they want to attack and has planned out a location where they will set up the ambush. This type of ambush requires careful planning and coordination to ensure that the target is effectively neutralized. By having a specific target and a predetermined location, the team can maximize their chances of success and minimize the risk to themselves.

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• 38.

### Which ambush uses limiting stakes to prevent friendly fires from hitting the assault element?

• A.

Point

• B.

Linear

• C.

I-shaped

• D.

L-shaped

D. L-shaped
Explanation
The L-shaped ambush uses limiting stakes to prevent friendly fires from hitting the assault element. This type of ambush is designed to maximize the element of surprise and create a kill zone for the enemy. The limiting stakes are strategically placed to guide the enemy into the kill zone while minimizing the risk of friendly fire. The shape of the ambush allows for better control and coordination of the assault element, ensuring their safety during the engagement.

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• 39.

### If there is any return of fire once the assault element begins to search, they must be prepared to move across the kill zone using which movement technique?

• A.

Individual

• B.

Fire team

• C.

Teams organized

• D.

Bounding fire team

A. Individual
Explanation
Once the assault element begins to search and encounters return fire, they must be prepared to move across the kill zone using the individual movement technique. This technique involves each soldier moving independently and taking cover as they advance, allowing for greater flexibility and minimizing the risk of multiple casualties from enemy fire. It also allows for quick reactions and adaptability to the changing battlefield conditions.

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• 40.

### Normally, how does a team withdraw from an ambush site?

• A.

In the reverse order that they established their positions

• B.

In the order that they established their positions

• C.

Two at a time so one can cover the other

• D.

Simultaneously

A. In the reverse order that they established their positions
Explanation
A team withdraws from an ambush site in the reverse order that they established their positions. This means that the last member to take up their position will be the first to withdraw, followed by the second-to-last member, and so on, until the first member who established their position is the last to withdraw. This method ensures that the team maintains their defensive positions and provides cover for each other during the withdrawal, minimizing the risk of being exposed to enemy fire.

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• 41.

### What does a delay in an enemy-of -force operation create to allow other actions to take place?

• A.

Space

• B.

Area

• C.

Time

• D.

Opportunity

C. Time
Explanation
A delay in an enemy-of-force operation creates time for other actions to take place. This means that when there is a delay in the enemy's actions, it provides an opportunity for the opposing side to carry out their own actions or strategies. This delay allows for planning, preparation, and execution of alternative tactics or countermeasures. It gives the opposing force time to regroup, assess the situation, and potentially gain an advantage over the enemy.

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• 42.

### What are two types of withdrawals?

• A.

Fast and slow

• B.

Aid and unaided

• C.

Assisted and unassisted

• D.

Forward and backward

C. Assisted and unassisted
Explanation
The correct answer is "Assisted and unassisted". This answer refers to two types of withdrawals. An assisted withdrawal is when someone receives help or support in the process of withdrawing, while an unassisted withdrawal is when someone does it independently without any assistance.

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• 43.

### Which is not a method of disengaging from the enemy?

• A.

Under Enemy Pressure

• B.

Thinning the lines

• C.

Fire teams

• D.

A. Under Enemy Pressure
• 44.

### Which S-function is responsible for personnel management and development and maintenance of morale?

• A.

S-1

• B.

S-2

• C.

S-3

• D.

S-4

A. S-1
Explanation
S-1 is responsible for personnel management and development and maintenance of morale.

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• 45.

### Which S-function gathers intelligence for air base defense force operations; predicts effects of nuclear, biological, and chemical attacks; and relays weather information?

• A.

S-4

• B.

S-3

• C.

S-2

• D.

S-1

C. S-2
Explanation
The correct answer is S-2. The S-2 function is responsible for gathering intelligence for air base defense force operations, predicting the effects of nuclear, biological, and chemical attacks, and relaying weather information.

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• 46.

### The S-4 is normally responsible for completing which paragraph of the squadron operations order?

• A.

Paragraph 4

• B.

Paragraph 3

• C.

Paragraph 2

• D.

Paragraph 1

A. Paragraph 4
Explanation
The S-4 is responsible for completing Paragraph 4 of the squadron operations order. This indicates that the S-4 is in charge of providing information related to logistics and supply, such as transportation, maintenance, and supply requirements. This paragraph typically includes details on how the squadron will be supported in terms of equipment, fuel, and other necessary resources.

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• 47.

### The base commander form the base defense operations center with

• A.

Personnel from the augmentation force

• B.

Personnel who are on temporary duty

• C.

Personnel from the S-function staff

• D.

Available base assets

D. Available base assets
Explanation
The base commander forms the base defense operations center with personnel from the augmentation force, personnel who are on temporary duty, personnel from the S-function staff, and available base assets. This implies that the available base assets play a crucial role in the formation of the defense operations center. These assets could include equipment, vehicles, weapons, and other resources that are readily accessible to the base commander for the purpose of defending the base.

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• 48.

### Who is the chief of the base defense operations center?

• A.

Commander, Security Forces

• B.

Commander, Base Defense Force

• C.

Commander, Area Defense Force

• D.

B. Commander, Base Defense Force
Explanation
The correct answer is Commander, Base Defense Force. This individual is responsible for leading and overseeing the operations of the base defense operations center. They are in charge of coordinating and executing the defense strategies and measures to protect the base from potential threats and attacks.

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• 49.

### The CIS is responsible for all plans, estimates, reports, and requests concerning ground combat intelligence. The S-2 CIS is responsible for all

• A.

ABD affecting the GCI force

• B.

Support and supply functions

• C.

GCI affecting the ABD force

• D.

Operational matters with the ABD force

C. GCI affecting the ABD force
Explanation
The correct answer is "GCI affecting the ABD force." This answer is supported by the statement that the S-2 CIS is responsible for all operational matters with the ABD force. This implies that the GCI (ground combat intelligence) has an impact on the ABD force, and the S-2 CIS is responsible for managing this relationship.

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• 50.

### What is EEI?

• A.

Essential elements of information

• B.

Essential evaluation information

• C.

Emergency enemy information

• D.

Enemy evaluation information

A. Essential elements of information
Explanation
EEI stands for Essential Elements of Information. These are key pieces of information that are necessary for decision-making and understanding a particular situation or problem. They provide critical details and context that enable individuals or organizations to effectively analyze and respond to a given situation. In various fields such as intelligence, military operations, emergency management, and business, EEIs help in gathering, processing, and disseminating relevant information to support decision-making processes.

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• Current Version
• Mar 18, 2023
Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
• Jul 23, 2013
Quiz Created by
Lj4303