Air Base Defense (Abd) Quiz

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Je9125
J
Je9125
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 555
| Attempts: 555 | Questions: 90
Please wait...
Question 1 / 90
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. Where is an excellent position to place a marksman in an urban area?

Explanation

Placing a marksman on the peak of a roof in an urban area would be an excellent position because it provides a higher vantage point, allowing the marksman to have a clear view of the surroundings and potential targets. Being elevated on a roof also offers better cover and concealment compared to other options like a scrape out or under a parked vehicle. Additionally, the marksman can take advantage of the height to have a wider field of fire and better accuracy in targeting enemies.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
Air Base Defense (Abd) Quiz - Quiz

An air base defense is an United States air force. Take this quiz and learn more about it!

Personalize your quiz and earn a certificate with your name on it!
2. The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is 

Explanation

The correct answer is bombing. Terrorist groups often resort to the tactic of bombing as it allows them to cause significant damage, create fear, and attract media attention. Bombings can be carried out in various ways, such as suicide bombings, car bombings, or the use of improvised explosive devices (IEDs). This tactic is chosen because it can cause mass casualties and destruction, making it an effective method for terrorist groups to achieve their objectives and send a message of terror.

Submit
3. When should CC's and planners identify mission-critical information?

Explanation

CC's and planners should identify mission-critical information at the earliest possible moment. This is important because identifying mission-critical information early allows for effective planning and decision-making. It ensures that all necessary information is taken into account and appropriate actions can be taken in a timely manner. By identifying mission-critical information early, CC's and planners can also communicate this information to the relevant parties and ensure that everyone is informed and prepared.

Submit
4. What is a base already possessing resources and an established infrastructure? 

Explanation

A main operating base refers to a base that already has resources and an established infrastructure in place. This means that the base is fully equipped and ready to support military operations or other activities. It is a permanent facility that can provide various services and support to personnel and equipment. The term "main" implies that it is a primary or significant base, indicating its importance and capabilities.

Submit
5. When conducting ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as

Explanation

During ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as "kill zones" because it accurately reflects the purpose and objective of the ambush. The primary goal of an ambush is to inflict maximum casualties on the enemy forces by catching them off guard and attacking them from a position of advantage. The term "kill zone" emphasizes the lethal nature of this area, where the ambush unit concentrates its firepower to effectively neutralize the enemy and achieve its mission.

Submit
6. What is the staff make-up for the S3?

Explanation

The correct answer is the operations officer and staff. This suggests that the staff make-up for the S3 includes the operations officer and the rest of the staff members. It does not mention the other options such as the supply NCO, first sergeant or section commander, or intelligence officers and security forces investigators. Therefore, the operations officer and staff are the only ones mentioned as part of the staff make-up for the S3.

Submit
7. Where is the best position for you to locate an LP/OP

Explanation

The best position for locating an LP/OP is in a position that doesn't draw attention. This means that the LP/OP should be positioned in a way that it is inconspicuous and does not attract unnecessary attention. By doing so, it can effectively carry out its purpose of monitoring and observing without being easily detected or compromised. This ensures the safety and effectiveness of the LP/OP.

Submit
8. LP/OP teams are not equipped to 

Explanation

LP/OP teams are not equipped to indicate enemy location using flares because their primary role is to gather information and observe the area rather than engage in direct combat. Flares are typically used to illuminate a specific area or signal for support, but LP/OP teams are focused on stealth and gathering intelligence rather than drawing attention to themselves or revealing their location to the enemy. Therefore, they rely on other methods such as communication and reporting to convey information about the enemy rather than using flares.

Submit
9. To modify to prevent recognition of the true identity or character of an asset or activity is to 

Explanation

To modify something in order to prevent its true identity or character from being recognized is to disguise it. Disguising involves altering the appearance or nature of an asset or activity to make it appear as something else or to make it less noticeable or recognizable. This can be done through various means such as changing its physical appearance, behavior, or location. Disguising is often used to deceive or mislead others and can be employed in various contexts, such as espionage, camouflage, or even in everyday situations where someone wants to conceal their true intentions or identity.

Submit
10. A terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is

Explanation

A terrorist group that generally operates independently but receives support from one or more governments is referred to as state-supported. This means that although the group may not be directly controlled or directed by the government, it receives assistance, funding, or resources from them. This support can come in various forms such as training, weapons, safe havens, or intelligence.

Submit
11. What provides key info to the defense force CC and support staffs on specific ABD  activities in order to make decisions, and develop and implement tactical plans and orders?

Explanation

Reports provide key information to the defense force command center and support staffs on specific activities in order to make decisions, and develop and implement tactical plans and orders. Reports contain detailed and organized information about the current situation, including intelligence, enemy activities, and other relevant data. This information is crucial for the defense force to understand the battlefield and make informed decisions to effectively respond to any threats or challenges.

Submit
12. The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around what three principles?

Explanation

The correct answer is Force Protection conditions (FPCONS), assessment factors, and threat levels. The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed to prioritize the safety and security of military personnel and facilities. Force Protection conditions (FPCONS) are used to establish security measures based on the level of threat. Assessment factors are used to evaluate vulnerabilities and potential risks. Threat levels are used to assess the likelihood and severity of potential threats. By considering these three principles, the USAF can effectively implement measures to mitigate the risk of terrorism.

Submit
13. What is one of the fundamental purposes of the LOAC?

Explanation

The LOAC, or Law of Armed Conflict, is a set of rules and principles that govern the conduct of armed forces during armed conflicts. One of its fundamental purposes is to prevent unnecessary suffering. This means that the LOAC seeks to minimize the harm and suffering inflicted on individuals during armed conflicts, by establishing rules on the humane treatment of prisoners, protection of civilians, and prohibition of certain weapons and tactics that cause excessive harm. By preventing unnecessary suffering, the LOAC aims to uphold the principles of humanity and minimize the human cost of armed conflicts.

Submit
14. Compiling and examining all available information concerning potential threat by threat analysts is a/an

Explanation

Compiling and examining all available information concerning potential threat is an ongoing and continuous process for threat analysts. It is not limited to a specific time frame such as annually, bi-annually, or monthly. Threat analysts constantly gather and analyze information to stay updated on potential threats, making it a continual process.

Submit
15. A typical organization of a terrorist group consists of 

Explanation

The correct answer is "hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support." This answer accurately describes the typical organization of a terrorist group. The "hard-core leadership" refers to the core group of individuals who make important decisions and provide direction to the group. The "active cadre" refers to the members who actively participate in carrying out terrorist activities. The "active support" refers to individuals who provide assistance and resources to the group without directly participating in attacks. The "passive support" refers to individuals who sympathize with the group's cause but do not actively support or participate in its activities.

Submit
16. What does not need to be shown on a sketch?

Explanation

The location of the home station flight does not need to be shown on a sketch. The sketch is likely related to military operations or tactical planning, and showing the location of the home station flight is not relevant or necessary for the purpose of the sketch. The other options mentioned, such as LP/OP locations, patrol routes, engagement lines, mines, sensors, and obstacles, are all elements that are typically included in a sketch for effective planning and execution of operations.

Submit
17. Based on the IBD concept of operations, what are all Airmen considered?

Explanation

According to the IBD concept of operations, all Airmen are considered sensors. This implies that Airmen are responsible for gathering information, monitoring situations, and providing valuable data to support decision-making and operational effectiveness. As sensors, Airmen play a crucial role in detecting, identifying, and reporting any potential threats or changes in the operational environment.

Submit
18. Our first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts is

Explanation

Operations security (OPSEC) is the correct answer because it refers to the measures taken to protect sensitive information that could be used by adversaries to compromise the security of an organization or individual. OPSEC involves identifying critical information, analyzing threats and vulnerabilities, and implementing countermeasures to prevent unauthorized access or exploitation. It focuses on protecting the operational activities and plans of an organization, ensuring that sensitive information is not leaked or compromised. By implementing OPSEC, organizations can enhance their overall security posture and minimize the risk of intelligence collection efforts.

Submit
19. What should always be your first priority of work?

Explanation

Establishing local security should always be the first priority of work because it ensures the safety and protection of the immediate area. By establishing local security, individuals can identify and address any potential threats or vulnerabilities, allowing them to create a secure environment for further work. This step is crucial in preventing any unexpected attacks or disruptions, allowing the subsequent tasks to be carried out effectively and efficiently.

Submit
20. When the machine gun is not assigned to the maneuver element, what is its primary mission?

Explanation

When the machine gun is not assigned to the maneuver element, its primary mission is to provide covering fire for the assault element. This means that its main purpose is to suppress the enemy and provide protection and support for the advancing assault team. By laying down a continuous stream of fire, the machine gun helps to keep the enemy's heads down and allows the assault element to move forward and engage the enemy effectively.

Submit
21. What would necessitate the need to dig hasty firing positions in the field? 

Explanation

When you have made contact with the enemy, it becomes crucial to dig hasty firing positions in the field. This is because these firing positions provide immediate protection and concealment for the soldiers, allowing them to engage the enemy while minimizing their exposure to enemy fire. By digging hasty firing positions, soldiers can quickly establish a defensive posture and effectively return fire, increasing their chances of survival and success in the engagement.

Submit
22. CCs do not use ROE's to ensure operations

Explanation

CCs do not use ROE's to ensure operations. Instead, they focus on meeting manning standards. This means that their main priority is to ensure that they have the appropriate number of personnel to carry out their operations effectively. By meeting manning standards, CCs can ensure that they have the necessary manpower to meet their mission requirements and achieve their goals. This is crucial for the smooth functioning of their operations and the overall success of their organization.

Submit
23. When terrorist attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities , what is their mission?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies." When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, their mission is to use violence as a means of pressuring governments to change their policies. They seek to create fear and chaos in order to force political concessions and policy changes that align with their beliefs. Their goal is to influence and manipulate governments through acts of violence, rather than simply causing destruction or seeking state funding.

Submit
24. You should make restricted areas as small as possible to eliminate the 

Explanation

By making restricted areas as small as possible, the need for securing and maintaining unnecessary terrain is reduced. This means that fewer resources and manpower would be required to protect and maintain the area. By focusing efforts on smaller areas, the overall security and maintenance tasks become more manageable and efficient. This approach also allows for better allocation of resources towards other important tasks, such as patrolling and responding to potential threats.

Submit
25. Which essential element of the IBD concept slows the enemy without the need for a massive response at the outset of an engagement?

Explanation

Delay is the essential element of the IBD concept that slows the enemy without the need for a massive response at the outset of an engagement. Instead of immediately launching a full-scale attack, delaying tactics are employed to buy time, disrupt the enemy's plans, and hinder their progress. This allows for the deployment of additional forces, gathering of intelligence, and development of a more strategic and effective response. By delaying the enemy, the defender gains an advantage and can better prepare for a successful counterattack.

Submit
26. What should the defense force CC consider in the sectorization scheme to provide maximum protection for base critical resources?

Explanation

The defense force CC should consider the entire tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) in the sectorization scheme to provide maximum protection for base critical resources. This means that the defense force should take into account the entire area for which they are responsible in terms of defense and allocate resources accordingly. By considering the TAOR, they can ensure that all critical resources within their jurisdiction are adequately protected and defended against potential threats.

Submit
27. At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center (BDOC)

Explanation

The base defense operations center (BDOC) requires at least two S-functions to operate effectively. The correct answer is S2 and S3. These two S-functions are essential for the smooth functioning of the BDOC and ensuring the defense operations are carried out efficiently.

Submit
28. Avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations is what principle of war?

Explanation

The principle of war that is being described in the question is simplicity. Simplicity refers to the idea of avoiding unnecessary complexity in military operations. It emphasizes the importance of keeping plans and strategies straightforward and easy to understand. By minimizing complexity, military forces can enhance their efficiency and effectiveness in executing operations. This principle helps to ensure clear communication, coordination, and decision-making, ultimately leading to better outcomes on the battlefield.

Submit
29. A relatively secure area that allows for positive identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as 

Explanation

A search area is a relatively secure area that allows for positive identification of personnel and vehicles. It is a designated space where thorough searches and inspections can be conducted to ensure the safety and security of the area. This area is specifically designed to identify any potential threats or unauthorized individuals or vehicles, making it an essential component of security protocols.

Submit
30. In terms of engagement ranges, machine guns in the base-of-fire element may find themselves firing at targets within how many meters of the element? 

Explanation

In terms of engagement ranges, machine guns in the base-of-fire element may find themselves firing at targets within 800 meters of the element.

Submit
31. Military operations other than war (MOOTW) missions do not include 

Explanation

Military operations other than war (MOOTW) are a range of military activities that are conducted in situations other than traditional warfare. These operations are typically aimed at achieving specific objectives such as peacekeeping, humanitarian assistance, and quarantine. However, clandestine infiltration involves covertly entering a territory or organization with the intention of gathering information or carrying out sabotage. It is not typically considered a part of MOOTW missions as it involves secretive and often illegal activities, unlike the other options which are more focused on maintaining peace, providing aid, or preventing the spread of diseases.

Submit
32. Protective barriers consist of what two major categories?

Explanation

Protective barriers can be classified into two major categories: natural and structural. Natural barriers refer to naturally occurring features such as mountains, forests, or bodies of water that act as barriers and provide protection. On the other hand, structural barriers are man-made constructions like walls, fences, or dams that are specifically designed to provide protection against various threats. This classification helps to understand the different types of barriers that can be used to safeguard against potential dangers or risks.

Submit
33. Since unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped, what will all security forces UTCs have as a designator?

Explanation

Security forces UTCs will have "QF" as a designator because the question states that unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped. This implies that different types of units, including security forces, will have specific designators assigned to them. In this case, the designator "QF" is specifically assigned to security forces UTCs.

Submit
34. Against what threat levels can close precision engagement add significantly to delaying actions by enhancing the standoff capabilities of defense forces?

Explanation

Close precision engagement can add significantly to delaying actions by enhancing the standoff capabilities of defense forces against threat levels II and III. This means that close precision engagement can be effective in situations where the threats are moderate to high, but may not be as effective against lower level threats (I) or the highest level threats (IV). By utilizing close precision engagement, defense forces can engage targets from a distance, reducing the risk to their own forces and delaying the advancement of the enemy.

Submit
35. The primary mission of a joint operation is

Explanation

The correct answer is "sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force." In a joint operation, the primary mission is to ensure the continuity and success of the overall campaign and major operations conducted by the joint force. This involves providing support, resources, and coordination to sustain the ongoing military efforts and achieve the desired objectives. While lead host nation forces, disaster relief operations, and humanitarian operations may be part of a joint operation, they are not the primary mission, which is focused on sustaining the campaign and major operations.

Submit
36. When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal? 

Explanation

Terrorist team members are brought together for final rehearsal just before departing for the target sight. This implies that the team members practice and coordinate their actions shortly before carrying out the attack. This timing ensures that the team members are well-prepared and synchronized for their mission.

Submit
37. Fixed bases having well-established perimeters usually have limited 

Explanation

Fixed bases with well-established perimeters typically have limited depth. This means that their defensive capabilities are focused on the immediate area surrounding the base, rather than extending further out. This is because fixed bases are designed to protect a specific location or asset, and their defenses are optimized for that purpose. By concentrating their resources and defenses within a limited area, fixed bases can provide a higher level of protection against potential threats.

Submit
38. Guidance on the application of force and exercising of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense is the purpose of the 

Explanation

The correct answer is US military's standing ROE's. The explanation for this is that the US military's standing ROE's (Rules of Engagement) provide guidance on the application of force and the exercise of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense. These rules outline the circumstances under which military personnel are authorized to use force, including the level of force that can be used and the conditions that must be met. They are designed to ensure that military actions are conducted in accordance with international law and the principles of proportionality and necessity.

Submit
39. The immediate impression the entry control facility must impart through its design is one of 

Explanation

The immediate impression the entry control facility must impart through its design is professionalism and commitment. This means that the facility should convey a sense of professionalism and dedication to the task at hand. It should be designed in a way that reflects the seriousness and importance of the work being done at the facility. This can be achieved through the use of professional signage, clean and organized layout, and clear guidelines and procedures. The facility should also convey a sense of commitment to providing a secure and efficient entry control process.

Submit
40. The authority for establishing a national defense area (NDS) is shown with

Explanation

The correct answer is a temporary sign. A temporary sign is used to establish a national defense area (NDS), indicating the boundaries and restrictions of the area. It serves as a clear and visible indication for individuals to recognize and respect the designated area. Unlike a red line, rope marking, or posted guards, a temporary sign can be easily moved or adjusted as needed, making it a practical and efficient method for establishing and communicating the boundaries of an NDS.

Submit
41. What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?

Explanation

The factor that is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests is intentions. Intentions refer to the motives or goals of the terrorist group or individual, specifically their desire to carry out attacks against US interests. This factor takes into account their ideological beliefs, political motivations, and any past history of terrorist activities targeting US interests. By considering the intentions of potential terrorists, security measures can be implemented to prevent and counteract their actions.

Submit
42. What operations are key to assembling an accurate picture of the battle space?

Explanation

Intelligence operations are key to assembling an accurate picture of the battle space. Ground defense refers to the protection of military installations on land, while clandestine operations involve secret or covert activities. Aerial operations pertain to activities carried out in the air. However, it is intelligence operations that provide vital information and analysis about enemy forces, their capabilities, intentions, and the overall situation on the battlefield. Intelligence gathering helps commanders make informed decisions and develop effective strategies to achieve success in military operations.

Submit
43. The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) begins at the 

Explanation

The correct answer is "resource". The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) is the specific area assigned to a military unit for which it is responsible. It includes the resources within that area that the unit is responsible for protecting or utilizing. The base defense operations center (BDOC), point of insertion, and base perimeter are all important elements within a TAOR, but they do not define the entire area of responsibility. "Resource" is a more general term that encompasses all the elements and assets within the TAOR.

Submit
44. Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity? 

Explanation

Sympathizers are individuals who support or show sympathy for a particular cause or group. In the context of the question, sympathizers engage in random acts against targets of opportunity, which suggests that they may not have a specific plan or organization behind their actions. This aligns with the definition of sympathizers as individuals who may act independently or spontaneously to further a cause they support. Therefore, sympathizers best fit the description of engaging in random acts against targets of opportunity.

Submit
45. The environment for SF personnel working in the entry control facilities must be 

Explanation

The environment for SF personnel working in the entry control facilities must be safe and comfortable. This is important because SF personnel are responsible for ensuring the security and safety of the facility. A safe environment ensures that personnel are protected from any potential threats or dangers, while a comfortable environment allows them to perform their duties effectively and without unnecessary distractions. By providing a safe and comfortable environment, SF personnel can focus on their tasks and maintain a high level of vigilance.

Submit
46. What is the time limit for an air and space expeditionary force (AEF) package to respond to and unexpected contingency?

Explanation

The time limit for an air and space expeditionary force (AEF) package to respond to an unexpected contingency is 72 hours. This means that the AEF package must be ready to deploy within 72 hours of being notified of the contingency. This allows for rapid response and ensures that the AEF is able to quickly provide support and assistance in emergency situations.

Submit
47. How long are the majority of SF UTC's capable of existing without support?

Explanation

The majority of SF UTC's are capable of existing without support for a maximum of 5 days. This means that they can function independently for a period of 5 days without requiring any external assistance or maintenance.

Submit
48. When establishing base sectors, you must ensure critical resources and areas are

Explanation

When establishing base sectors, it is important to ensure that critical resources and areas are evenly grouped. This means that these resources and areas are distributed evenly among the sectors, ensuring a balanced allocation. This helps in optimizing the utilization of resources and ensuring that no sector is overloaded or lacking in essential resources. By evenly grouping these critical resources and areas, the base sectors can operate efficiently and effectively.

Submit
49. Generally,, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of 

Explanation

Specially trained terrorists are often individuals who possess above average intelligence and fall within a certain age range. The answer 23-30 is the most suitable option as it falls within the range commonly associated with these individuals. This age range allows them to be young enough to be physically capable and impressionable, yet old enough to have gained some life experience and maturity.

Submit
50. What pre-deployment factor is considered a constant?

Explanation

Treaties are considered a constant pre-deployment factor because they are legally binding agreements between nations that outline specific obligations and responsibilities. Unlike the other options, treaties do not change based on external factors such as weather or political climate. Treaties provide a stable framework that governs the actions and interactions between countries, making them a constant factor to consider before any deployment.

Submit
51. The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD)  forces is 

Explanation

The primary responsibility of air base defense forces is to defeat level I threats, which are the most immediate and direct threats to the air base. Additionally, they are responsible for disrupting or delaying level II threats, which are slightly less immediate but still pose a significant risk. This ensures the protection and security of the air base and its personnel.

Submit
52. A "call for fire" is a message 

Explanation

A "call for fire" is a message that is prepared by an observer. This message is used to request artillery or mortar fire support. The observer, who is typically positioned on the ground or in the air, is responsible for gathering information about the target and relaying it to the unit in charge of providing the fire support. The observer prepares the call for fire by providing details such as the target location, description, desired type of fire support, and any other relevant information. This information is crucial for the unit to accurately and effectively deliver the requested fire support.

Submit
53. The capability to reduce the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy to protect friendly assets and aim points with materials and equipment that alter or obscure part or all of their multispectral signatures is

Explanation

The correct answer is camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD). This refers to the capability of reducing the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets by using techniques such as hiding, blending, disguising, and decoying. These techniques involve using materials and equipment that alter or obscure the multispectral signatures of friendly assets and aim points.

Submit
54. The political-military nature of military operations other that war (MOOTW) requires you to coordinate your activities 

Explanation

The political-military nature of military operations other than war (MOOTW) necessitates coordination with various government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense. This is because MOOTW often involves non-combat activities such as humanitarian assistance, disaster relief, peacekeeping, and nation-building. These activities require collaboration with agencies such as the Department of State, drug enforcement agencies, and Immigration and Naturalization Services to address political, social, and economic dimensions of the operation. By working with these external agencies, the military can effectively achieve its objectives and ensure a comprehensive approach to MOOTW.

Submit
55. What is an engagement priority for machine gun gunners to direct their fire?

Explanation

The engagement priority for machine gun gunners to direct their fire is crew-served automatic weapons. This means that when engaging targets, machine gunners prioritize targeting and neutralizing enemy crew-served automatic weapons. These weapons are typically more dangerous and have a higher potential to cause casualties or significant damage to friendly forces. By targeting and eliminating these weapons first, machine gun gunners can effectively suppress the enemy's firepower and protect their own forces.

Submit
56. What is the list of all unit type codes (UTC) approved for use in planning?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Air Force-wide Unit type code availability system (AFWUS)". This is because the question is asking for the list of all unit type codes (UTC) approved for use in planning, and the AFWUS is the only option that is related to unit type codes and their availability. The other options, such as AUTD, AFWUR, and AUTSS, do not specifically mention unit type codes or their approval for use in planning.

Submit
57. Directing your operation toward a defined and attainable objective that contributes to operational and tactical claim is what principle of war

Explanation

The principle of war that is being referred to in this question is "Objective." This principle emphasizes the importance of directing operations towards a clearly defined and achievable objective. It highlights the need to have a specific goal in mind and to align all efforts towards achieving that goal. By focusing on the objective, operational and tactical gains can be made, ensuring that actions are purposeful and contribute to overall success.

Submit
58. Proper machine gun placement maximizes fire in 

Explanation

Proper machine gun placement maximizes fire in width and depth. This means that the machine gun is positioned in a way that allows it to cover a wide area horizontally (width) and penetrate deep into the target area vertically (depth). By maximizing fire in width and depth, the machine gun can effectively suppress and engage targets from different angles and distances, providing better coverage and increasing the chances of hitting the intended targets.

Submit
59. What is the main mission of the machine gun?

Explanation

The main mission of the machine gun is to protect and defend through defensive and offensive missions. This means that the machine gun is used to provide firepower and suppress enemy attacks, as well as to support offensive operations by providing cover and suppressing enemy positions. It plays a crucial role in protecting and defending troops and resources, and is a key asset in combat situations.

Submit
60. What two factors add depth to the battle outside the perimeter, allowing the base to continue its primary mission with minimal interference? 

Explanation

Counter-reconnaissance and counterattack add depth to the battle outside the perimeter by providing a multi-layered defense strategy. Counter-reconnaissance involves actively seeking out and neutralizing enemy reconnaissance efforts, preventing them from gathering information about the base's vulnerabilities. This helps to maintain the element of surprise and keeps the base's defenses intact. Additionally, counterattack involves launching offensive operations against the enemy, disrupting their plans and diverting their attention away from the base. By combining these two factors, the base can effectively defend itself while minimizing interference with its primary mission.

Submit
61. Because the danger increases with the size of the weapons, how should artillery be used when integrating indirect suppressive fires to support the breach and assault?

Explanation

Artillery should be used to isolate the objective when integrating indirect suppressive fires to support the breach and assault. By targeting enemy positions away from the breach site, the artillery can create a buffer zone and prevent reinforcements or counterattacks from reaching the objective. This helps to isolate the objective and allows the assaulting forces to focus on breaching and assaulting without being overwhelmed by enemy forces.

Submit
62. What are the two types of obstacles you may encounter?

Explanation

The two types of obstacles that one may encounter are existing obstacles, which are already present and need to be dealt with, and reinforcing obstacles, which are obstacles that become stronger or more difficult to overcome over time.

Submit
63. When the need for a new UTC or a major change in an existing UTC is required, who may initiate the action for the change?

Explanation

Any level may initiate the action for a new UTC or a major change in an existing UTC. This means that individuals at any level within the organization have the authority to propose and initiate the necessary actions for a new or changed UTC.

Submit
64. The key to FP countermeasure planning is 

Explanation

The key to FP countermeasure planning is protecting sensitive information. This means that in order to effectively plan for countermeasures against potential threats, it is crucial to prioritize the protection of sensitive information. This can include implementing measures such as encryption, access controls, and secure storage to prevent unauthorized access or disclosure of sensitive data. By safeguarding sensitive information, organizations can mitigate the risk of data breaches and unauthorized use, ensuring the overall security and integrity of their operations.

Submit
65. What placement allows for redundancy in observation and better sector coverage?

Explanation

The placement that allows for redundancy in observation and better sector coverage is "In-depth". This placement involves thorough and comprehensive observation, ensuring that all aspects and sectors are covered extensively. It provides redundancy by repeating the observation process multiple times, reducing the chances of missing any critical information. This approach ensures a comprehensive understanding of the subject matter and better coverage of different sectors.

Submit
66. What does the AF maintain to support the on-call air and space expeditionary force, as well as on-call lead wings to open expeditionary bases?

Explanation

The AF maintains five BGLs to support the on-call air and space expeditionary force, as well as on-call lead wings to open expeditionary bases.

Submit
67. Once fully implemented, what will the IBD security system greatly enhance in base defensive operations?

Explanation

The IBD security system, when fully implemented, will greatly enhance detection and security in base defensive operations. This means that the system will improve the ability to identify and identify potential threats or breaches in security measures. It will also enhance the overall security measures in place, making the base more secure against any potential attacks or unauthorized access.

Submit
68. What assessment addresses the broad range of physical threat to the security of personnel and assets, and should be conducted periodically?

Explanation

The correct answer is Vulnerability. Vulnerability assessments are conducted periodically to address the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets. These assessments help identify weaknesses and potential areas of exploitation, allowing organizations to implement appropriate measures to mitigate risks and enhance security.

Submit
69. Which threat level uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50km

Explanation

Threat level III uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50km. This means that in threat level III, the emphasis is placed on utilizing battalion-sized units, which typically consist of 300-800 soldiers, to conduct helicopter insertions and penetrate enemy territory up to a distance of 50km. This strategy allows for swift and effective deployment of troops, enabling them to quickly establish a presence and carry out operations deep within enemy lines.

Submit
70. In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?

Explanation

Subordinate joint force commands can organize by service component or function. This means that they can be organized based on the specific service (such as Army, Navy, or Air Force) or based on specific functions (such as logistics, intelligence, or operations). This allows for a more efficient and effective command structure, as it ensures that each service component or function is properly represented and coordinated within the joint force command.

Submit
71. What does SF provide for the IBD concept?

Explanation

SF, which stands for Special Forces, provides the foundation for the IBD concept. The IBD concept refers to Intelligence Based Defense, which is a strategy that uses intelligence and information to enhance defense operations. Special Forces play a crucial role in providing the necessary training, expertise, and support to establish a strong foundation for the IBD concept. They provide the necessary skills, knowledge, and resources to ensure the successful implementation and execution of intelligence-based defense strategies.

Submit
72. What UTC, when deployed with UTCs QFEBB  and QFEBS, provides HQ staff support for a medium to large (130-180 personnel) deployed SF unit.

Explanation

QFEBA, when deployed with UTCs QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ staff support for a medium to large deployed SF unit.

Submit
73. What UTC consists of a 3-person team of specially trained and equipped SF personnel, who deploy as mission essential ground personnel on airlift aircraft transiting or operating out of high-risk locations?

Explanation

The correct answer is QFEPR. UTC stands for Unit Type Code, and in this context, it refers to a 3-person team of specially trained and equipped SF (Special Forces) personnel. They are deployed as mission essential ground personnel on airlift aircraft transiting or operating out of high-risk locations.

Submit
74. The primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to 

Explanation

The correct answer is "support the CC by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC." This answer is supported by the statement that the primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to support the CC (Commander) by ensuring that the command or organization actively practices OPSEC. This means that the OPSEC program is intended to assist the commander in implementing and maintaining effective OPSEC measures to protect sensitive information and prevent unauthorized access or disclosure.

Submit
75. What UTC is composed of one home station-validated explosive detection dog and an assigned handler?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
76. What UTC is essential to direct the fire of and provide support for the mortar teams?

Explanation

The correct answer is QFEBK. UTC stands for "Universal Transverse Mercator Coordinate System," which is a grid-based system used to precisely locate points on the Earth's surface. In the context of directing fire and providing support for mortar teams, knowing the UTC is crucial as it allows for accurate coordination and communication between different teams and units. By using the UTC, mortar teams can effectively target and engage enemy positions, ensuring the safety and success of their operations.

Submit
77. What does the risk management process allow the CC to determine?

Explanation

The risk management process allows the CC to determine countermeasures options. This means that the process helps the CC identify and evaluate different strategies or actions that can be taken to mitigate or reduce risks. By considering various countermeasures options, the CC can make informed decisions on how to best address potential risks and protect the organization or project.

Submit
78. What group routinely manages the risk assessment process for CCs

Explanation

The FP working group routinely manages the risk assessment process for CCs. This group is responsible for assessing and analyzing potential risks and threats to the organization's critical infrastructure and developing strategies to mitigate them. They work closely with other departments and stakeholders to ensure the security and safety of the organization's assets.

Submit
79. As a Total Force organization, a typical air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is responsive and capable of

Explanation

A typical air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is capable of deploying to conduct a broad range of operations with minimum warning time. This means that the force is prepared to quickly and efficiently respond to various types of missions and tasks in different locations. The AEF is flexible and adaptable, able to handle a wide range of operations and scenarios with minimal delay or preparation time. This capability allows for a rapid and effective response to emerging threats or situations, ensuring the force can effectively support national and international objectives.

Submit
80. What is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners?

Explanation

Flexibility is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners because it allows for adaptation and responsiveness to changing circumstances. In a dynamic and unpredictable environment, having flexible forces enables planners to adjust strategies and tactics as needed. This ensures that the forces can effectively address various challenges and meet evolving objectives. Flexibility also enables forces to be versatile and adaptable, capable of operating in different environments and against different threats. Ultimately, flexibility enhances the overall effectiveness and efficiency of the forces in achieving their goals.

Submit
81. During peacetime operation, what UTC would provide the initial security for USAF resources and personnel, conduct convoys; and defend local and other security missions as required?

Explanation

QFEB2 would provide the initial security for USAF resources and personnel, conduct convoys, and defend local and other security missions as required during peacetime operations.

Submit
82. What is not an example of a routine in defense measure?

Explanation

Assigning sectors of fire is not an example of a routine in defense measure because it is a specific task that is assigned in a tactical situation rather than a regular and repetitive activity. Personal hygiene, sanitation, rest, relief, and rotation are routine practices that contribute to maintaining the health and well-being of the defense personnel. Area of operation policing for cleanliness involves regular cleaning and maintenance of the designated area. Weapons maintenance and cleaning schedules are also routine tasks that ensure the proper functioning and readiness of the weapons.

Submit
83. Which threat spectrum level consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and gurrillas

Explanation

Threat spectrum level II consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas. This level of threat involves smaller, more localized operations and tactics, often carried out by non-state actors or insurgent groups. These forces typically operate in a guerrilla warfare style, using hit-and-run tactics, ambushes, and asymmetrical warfare strategies. They may also rely on unconventional tactics and weapons, such as improvised explosive devices (IEDs) or guerrilla warfare tactics. Overall, threat spectrum level II represents a significant challenge to conventional military forces due to its agility, adaptability, and ability to blend in with the local population.

Submit
84. Which military operations other than war (MOOTW) principle never permits hostile factions to acquire a military, political, or informational advantage?

Explanation

Security is the correct answer because it is the military operations other than war (MOOTW) principle that focuses on preventing hostile factions from gaining any military, political, or informational advantage. This principle emphasizes the protection of critical assets, information, and operations to maintain the overall security of the mission. By implementing security measures, MOOTW aims to minimize the vulnerabilities and risks that hostile factions may exploit to gain an advantage.

Submit
85. Which principle of indirect fire aims to destroy enemy soldiers and degrade the effectiveness of enemy vehicles by causing them to fight buttoned-up

Explanation

The principle of indirect fire that aims to destroy enemy soldiers and degrade the effectiveness of enemy vehicles by causing them to fight buttoned-up is the "required effect." This means that the objective is to force the enemy to take cover and limit their ability to effectively engage in combat. By causing them to fight buttoned-up, the enemy's visibility, mobility, and ability to return fire are greatly reduced, making them easier targets for friendly forces.

Submit
86. An expeditionary military force is defined as a force that conducts military operations 

Explanation

An expeditionary military force is a force that can quickly respond to crises on short notice. The force is specifically designed and tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives. This means that the force is not meant to achieve unlimited or unclear objectives, but rather to address specific issues or goals in a timely and efficient manner. The ability to respond within a short timeframe is crucial in order to effectively address crises and mitigate their impact.

Submit
87. The key to optimizing peacetime participation of the traditional guardsman and reservists who must balance military duties with full-time civilian employment is

Explanation

The key to optimizing peacetime participation of the traditional guardsman and reservists who must balance military duties with full-time civilian employment is predictability. Having a predictable schedule allows these individuals to effectively plan and manage their time between their military and civilian responsibilities. It ensures that they can fulfill their military obligations without disrupting their civilian work and personal life. Predictability also helps in reducing stress and uncertainty, allowing guardsmen and reservists to focus on their duties and perform at their best in both roles.

Submit
88. What UTC is a 4-person team designed to provide 24-hr security forces augmentation to immediate headquarters for ground defense and weapons systems security functions?

Explanation

UTC stands for Unit Type Code, and in this context, it refers to a specific team or unit designed to provide security forces augmentation to immediate headquarters for ground defense and weapons systems security functions. The code QFDB9 represents the specific UTC that fulfills this role.

Submit
89. Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities are what threat spectrum level?

Explanation

The correct answer is II. Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities are categorized under threat spectrum level II. This implies that these missions are focused on countering the threat posed by nuclear weapons and their associated facilities. The other threat spectrum levels (III, IV, and I) are not specifically related to nuclear weapons and therefore do not apply to this particular scenario.

Submit
90. What three subordinate areas are search areas divided into?

Explanation

The search areas are divided into three subordinate areas: personnel, vehicle, and reaction force. This means that when conducting a search, these three areas are considered and addressed separately. Personnel refers to the individuals who are being searched, vehicle refers to any vehicles that may be involved in the search, and reaction force refers to the appropriate response or action to be taken during the search process.

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jul 22, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jul 22, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 09, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Je9125
Cancel
  • All
    All (90)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
Where is an excellent position to place a marksman in an urban area?
The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is 
When should CC's and planners identify mission-critical...
What is a base already possessing resources and an established...
When conducting ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as
What is the staff make-up for the S3?
Where is the best position for you to locate an LP/OP
LP/OP teams are not equipped to 
To modify to prevent recognition of the true identity or character of...
A terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but...
What provides key info to the defense force CC and support staffs on...
The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around what three...
What is one of the fundamental purposes of the LOAC?
Compiling and examining all available information concerning potential...
A typical organization of a terrorist group consists of 
What does not need to be shown on a sketch?
Based on the IBD concept of operations, what are all Airmen...
Our first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts is
What should always be your first priority of work?
When the machine gun is not assigned to the maneuver element, what is...
What would necessitate the need to dig hasty firing positions in the...
CCs do not use ROE's to ensure operations
When terrorist attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities , what...
You should make restricted areas as small as possible to eliminate...
Which essential element of the IBD concept slows the enemy without the...
What should the defense force CC consider in the sectorization scheme...
At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base...
Avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning,...
A relatively secure area that allows for positive identification of...
In terms of engagement ranges, machine guns in the base-of-fire...
Military operations other than war (MOOTW) missions do not...
Protective barriers consist of what two major categories?
Since unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped, what will all...
Against what threat levels can close precision engagement add...
The primary mission of a joint operation is
When are terrorist team members brought together for final...
Fixed bases having well-established perimeters usually have...
Guidance on the application of force and exercising of the inherent...
The immediate impression the entry control facility must impart...
The authority for establishing a national defense area (NDS) is shown...
What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks...
What operations are key to assembling an accurate picture of the...
The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) begins at the 
Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against...
The environment for SF personnel working in the entry control...
What is the time limit for an air and space expeditionary force (AEF)...
How long are the majority of SF UTC's capable of existing without...
When establishing base sectors, you must ensure critical resources and...
Generally,, specially trained terrorists are of above average...
What pre-deployment factor is considered a constant?
The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD)  forces...
A "call for fire" is a message 
The capability to reduce the capability of attacking forces and...
The political-military nature of military operations other that war...
What is an engagement priority for machine gun gunners to direct their...
What is the list of all unit type codes (UTC) approved for use in...
Directing your operation toward a defined and attainable objective...
Proper machine gun placement maximizes fire in 
What is the main mission of the machine gun?
What two factors add depth to the battle outside the perimeter,...
Because the danger increases with the size of the weapons, how should...
What are the two types of obstacles you may encounter?
When the need for a new UTC or a major change in an existing UTC is...
The key to FP countermeasure planning is 
What placement allows for redundancy in observation and better sector...
What does the AF maintain to support the on-call air and space...
Once fully implemented, what will the IBD security system greatly...
What assessment addresses the broad range of physical threat to the...
Which threat level uses doctrine that stresses the use of...
In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?
What does SF provide for the IBD concept?
What UTC, when deployed with UTCs QFEBB  and QFEBS, provides HQ...
What UTC consists of a 3-person team of specially trained and equipped...
The primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is...
What UTC is composed of one home station-validated explosive detection...
What UTC is essential to direct the fire of and provide support for...
What does the risk management process allow the CC to determine?
What group routinely manages the risk assessment process for CCs
As a Total Force organization, a typical air and space expeditionary...
What is the key element in the design of forces that should be...
During peacetime operation, what UTC would provide the initial...
What is not an example of a routine in defense measure?
Which threat spectrum level consists of small tactical units,...
Which military operations other than war (MOOTW) principle never...
Which principle of indirect fire aims to destroy enemy soldiers and...
An expeditionary military force is defined as a force that conducts...
The key to optimizing peacetime participation of the traditional...
What UTC is a 4-person team designed to provide 24-hr security forces...
Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities are...
What three subordinate areas are search areas divided into?
Alert!

Advertisement