Air Base Defense (Abd) Quiz

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 554

Questions: 90 | Attempts: 554 | Updated: Mar 19, 2023

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An air base defense is an United States air force. Take this quiz and learn more about it!

Questions and Answers

1.

The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) begins at the
- A.
  
  Base defense operations center (BDOC)
- B.
  
  Point of insertion
- C.
  
  Base perimeter
- D.
  
  Resource
Correct Answer
D. Resource

Explanation
The correct answer is "resource". The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) is the specific area assigned to a military unit for which it is responsible. It includes the resources within that area that the unit is responsible for protecting or utilizing. The base defense operations center (BDOC), point of insertion, and base perimeter are all important elements within a TAOR, but they do not define the entire area of responsibility. "Resource" is a more general term that encompasses all the elements and assets within the TAOR.

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2.

The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is
- A.
  
  Defeating level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base.
- B.
  
  Defeating level II threats , and disrupting or delaying level IV threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
- C.
  
  Stalling level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
- D.
  
  Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level I threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
Correct Answer
A. Defeating level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base.

Explanation
The primary responsibility of air base defense forces is to defeat level I threats, which are the most immediate and direct threats to the air base. Additionally, they are responsible for disrupting or delaying level II threats, which are slightly less immediate but still pose a significant risk. This ensures the protection and security of the air base and its personnel.

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3.

At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center (BDOC)
- A.
  
  S1 and S3
- B.
  
  S2 and S4
- C.
  
  S2 and S3
- D.
  
  S3 and S4
Correct Answer
C. S2 and S3

Explanation
The base defense operations center (BDOC) requires at least two S-functions to operate effectively. The correct answer is S2 and S3. These two S-functions are essential for the smooth functioning of the BDOC and ensuring the defense operations are carried out efficiently.

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4.

What is the staff make-up for the S3?
- A.
  
  The operations officer and staff.
- B.
  
  Supply NCO
- C.
  
  First sergeant or section commander.
- D.
  
  Intelligence officers and security forces investigators.
Correct Answer
A. The operations officer and staff.

Explanation
The correct answer is the operations officer and staff. This suggests that the staff make-up for the S3 includes the operations officer and the rest of the staff members. It does not mention the other options such as the supply NCO, first sergeant or section commander, or intelligence officers and security forces investigators. Therefore, the operations officer and staff are the only ones mentioned as part of the staff make-up for the S3.

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5.

In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?
- A.
  
  By rank and function.
- B.
  
  By function and location.
- C.
  
  By service component or function.
- D.
  
  By service component and location
Correct Answer
C. By service component or function.

Explanation
Subordinate joint force commands can organize by service component or function. This means that they can be organized based on the specific service (such as Army, Navy, or Air Force) or based on specific functions (such as logistics, intelligence, or operations). This allows for a more efficient and effective command structure, as it ensures that each service component or function is properly represented and coordinated within the joint force command.

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6.

The primary mission of a joint operation is
- A.
  
  Lead host nation forces in defending and securing the rear area.
- B.
  
  Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force.
- C.
  
  Disaster relief operations.
- D.
  
  Humanitarian operations.
Correct Answer
B. Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force.

Explanation
The correct answer is "sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force." In a joint operation, the primary mission is to ensure the continuity and success of the overall campaign and major operations conducted by the joint force. This involves providing support, resources, and coordination to sustain the ongoing military efforts and achieve the desired objectives. While lead host nation forces, disaster relief operations, and humanitarian operations may be part of a joint operation, they are not the primary mission, which is focused on sustaining the campaign and major operations.

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7.

When terrorist attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities , what is their mission?
- A.
  
  Determine which other countries support their beliefs.
- B.
  
  Ensure state funding would continue to finance cause.
- C.
  
  Destroy as much property as possible in a short period.
- D.
  
  Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies.
Correct Answer
D. Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies.

Explanation
The correct answer is "Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies." When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, their mission is to use violence as a means of pressuring governments to change their policies. They seek to create fear and chaos in order to force political concessions and policy changes that align with their beliefs. Their goal is to influence and manipulate governments through acts of violence, rather than simply causing destruction or seeking state funding.

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8.

A terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is
- A.
  
  Non-state-supported.
- B.
  
  State-supported.
- C.
  
  Stated-directed.
- D.
  
  State-organized
Correct Answer
B. State-supported.

Explanation
A terrorist group that generally operates independently but receives support from one or more governments is referred to as state-supported. This means that although the group may not be directly controlled or directed by the government, it receives assistance, funding, or resources from them. This support can come in various forms such as training, weapons, safe havens, or intelligence.

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9.

A typical organization of a terrorist group consists of
- A.
  
  Group leader, intelligence officer, explosive specialist, and weapons specialist.
- B.
  
  Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support.
- C.
  
  Hard-core cadre, submissive support, inactive leaders, and low support
- D.
  
  Intelligence officer, inactive leaders, and active cadre
Correct Answer
B. Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support.

Explanation
The correct answer is "hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support." This answer accurately describes the typical organization of a terrorist group. The "hard-core leadership" refers to the core group of individuals who make important decisions and provide direction to the group. The "active cadre" refers to the members who actively participate in carrying out terrorist activities. The "active support" refers to individuals who provide assistance and resources to the group without directly participating in attacks. The "passive support" refers to individuals who sympathize with the group's cause but do not actively support or participate in its activities.

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10.

Generally,, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of
- A.
  
  16-24
- B.
  
  21-28
- C.
  
  23-30
- D.
  
  25-32
Correct Answer
C. 23-30

Explanation
Specially trained terrorists are often individuals who possess above average intelligence and fall within a certain age range. The answer 23-30 is the most suitable option as it falls within the range commonly associated with these individuals. This age range allows them to be young enough to be physically capable and impressionable, yet old enough to have gained some life experience and maturity.

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11.

When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?
- A.
  
  Before execution of attack.
- B.
  
  Just before departing for the target sight.
- C.
  
  One week prior to scheduled attack execution.
- D.
  
  Never; terrorist team members do not conduct rehearsals.
Correct Answer
B. Just before departing for the target sight.

Explanation
Terrorist team members are brought together for final rehearsal just before departing for the target sight. This implies that the team members practice and coordinate their actions shortly before carrying out the attack. This timing ensures that the team members are well-prepared and synchronized for their mission.

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12.

The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
- A.
  
  Arson.
- B.
  
  Bombing.
- C.
  
  Hijacking.
- D.
  
  Assassination.
Correct Answer
B. Bombing.

Explanation
The correct answer is bombing. Terrorist groups often resort to the tactic of bombing as it allows them to cause significant damage, create fear, and attract media attention. Bombings can be carried out in various ways, such as suicide bombings, car bombings, or the use of improvised explosive devices (IEDs). This tactic is chosen because it can cause mass casualties and destruction, making it an effective method for terrorist groups to achieve their objectives and send a message of terror.

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13.

The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around what three principles?
- A.
  
  State Department intelligence assessments, threat levels, and threat conditions (THREATCON)
- B.
  
  Force Protection conditions (FPCONS), assessment factors, and threat levels
- C.
  
  Intelligence gathering, threat level, and THREATCONs.
- D.
  
  Criminal threat, FPCONS, and the CARVER matrix.
Correct Answer
B. Force Protection conditions (FPCONS), assessment factors, and threat levels

Explanation
The correct answer is Force Protection conditions (FPCONS), assessment factors, and threat levels. The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed to prioritize the safety and security of military personnel and facilities. Force Protection conditions (FPCONS) are used to establish security measures based on the level of threat. Assessment factors are used to evaluate vulnerabilities and potential risks. Threat levels are used to assess the likelihood and severity of potential threats. By considering these three principles, the USAF can effectively implement measures to mitigate the risk of terrorism.

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14.

What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?
- A.
  
  Activity
- B.
  
  Intentions
- C.
  
  Operational capability
- D.
  
  Operating environment
Correct Answer
B. Intentions

Explanation
The factor that is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests is intentions. Intentions refer to the motives or goals of the terrorist group or individual, specifically their desire to carry out attacks against US interests. This factor takes into account their ideological beliefs, political motivations, and any past history of terrorist activities targeting US interests. By considering the intentions of potential terrorists, security measures can be implemented to prevent and counteract their actions.

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15.

Our first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts is
- A.
  
  Communication security (COMSEC)
- B.
  
  Computer security (COMPUSEC)
- C.
  
  Information security (INFOSEC)
- D.
  
  Operations security (OPSEC)
Correct Answer
D. Operations security (OPSEC)

Explanation
Operations security (OPSEC) is the correct answer because it refers to the measures taken to protect sensitive information that could be used by adversaries to compromise the security of an organization or individual. OPSEC involves identifying critical information, analyzing threats and vulnerabilities, and implementing countermeasures to prevent unauthorized access or exploitation. It focuses on protecting the operational activities and plans of an organization, ensuring that sensitive information is not leaked or compromised. By implementing OPSEC, organizations can enhance their overall security posture and minimize the risk of intelligence collection efforts.

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16.

The primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to
- A.
  
  Support the OPSEC NCO in charge by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC.
- B.
  
  Support the wing CC by ensuring the command or organization has an OPSEC program.
- C.
  
  Support the CC by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC.
- D.
  
  Prevent our communications from falling into the wrong hands.
Correct Answer
C. Support the CC by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC.

Explanation
The correct answer is "support the CC by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC." This answer is supported by the statement that the primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to support the CC (Commander) by ensuring that the command or organization actively practices OPSEC. This means that the OPSEC program is intended to assist the commander in implementing and maintaining effective OPSEC measures to protect sensitive information and prevent unauthorized access or disclosure.

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17.

When should CC's and planners identify mission-critical information?
- A.
  
  At the earliest possible moment.
- B.
  
  Only after the subordinate CC's have been notified
- C.
  
  Only after the review and approval from higher-head quarters CCs
- D.
  
  Never; CCs and planners should not have to identify any critical info.
Correct Answer
A. At the earliest possible moment.

Explanation
CC's and planners should identify mission-critical information at the earliest possible moment. This is important because identifying mission-critical information early allows for effective planning and decision-making. It ensures that all necessary information is taken into account and appropriate actions can be taken in a timely manner. By identifying mission-critical information early, CC's and planners can also communicate this information to the relevant parties and ensure that everyone is informed and prepared.

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18.

Which threat spectrum level consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and gurrillas
- A.
  
  I
- B.
  
  II
- C.
  
  III
- D.
  
  IV
Correct Answer
B. II

Explanation
Threat spectrum level II consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas. This level of threat involves smaller, more localized operations and tactics, often carried out by non-state actors or insurgent groups. These forces typically operate in a guerrilla warfare style, using hit-and-run tactics, ambushes, and asymmetrical warfare strategies. They may also rely on unconventional tactics and weapons, such as improvised explosive devices (IEDs) or guerrilla warfare tactics. Overall, threat spectrum level II represents a significant challenge to conventional military forces due to its agility, adaptability, and ability to blend in with the local population.

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19.

Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?
- A.
  
  Partisans.
- B.
  
  Terrorists.
- C.
  
  Sympathizers.
- D.
  
  Agent activity
Correct Answer
C. Sympathizers.

Explanation
Sympathizers are individuals who support or show sympathy for a particular cause or group. In the context of the question, sympathizers engage in random acts against targets of opportunity, which suggests that they may not have a specific plan or organization behind their actions. This aligns with the definition of sympathizers as individuals who may act independently or spontaneously to further a cause they support. Therefore, sympathizers best fit the description of engaging in random acts against targets of opportunity.

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20.

Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities are what threat spectrum level?
- A.
  
  IV
- B.
  
  III
- C.
  
  II
- D.
  
  I
Correct Answer
C. II

Explanation
The correct answer is II. Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities are categorized under threat spectrum level II. This implies that these missions are focused on countering the threat posed by nuclear weapons and their associated facilities. The other threat spectrum levels (III, IV, and I) are not specifically related to nuclear weapons and therefore do not apply to this particular scenario.

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21.

Which threat level uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50km
- A.
  
  I
- B.
  
  II
- C.
  
  III
- D.
  
  IV
Correct Answer
C. III

Explanation
Threat level III uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50km. This means that in threat level III, the emphasis is placed on utilizing battalion-sized units, which typically consist of 300-800 soldiers, to conduct helicopter insertions and penetrate enemy territory up to a distance of 50km. This strategy allows for swift and effective deployment of troops, enabling them to quickly establish a presence and carry out operations deep within enemy lines.

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22.

What group routinely manages the risk assessment process for CCs
- A.
  
  FP working.
- B.
  
  Anti-terrorism working.
- C.
  
  Physical security.
- D.
  
  Threat working.
Correct Answer
A. FP working.

Explanation
The FP working group routinely manages the risk assessment process for CCs. This group is responsible for assessing and analyzing potential risks and threats to the organization's critical infrastructure and developing strategies to mitigate them. They work closely with other departments and stakeholders to ensure the security and safety of the organization's assets.

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23.

Compiling and examining all available information concerning potential threat by threat analysts is a/an
- A.
  
  Annual process.
- B.
  
  Bi-annual process.
- C.
  
  Monthly process.
- D.
  
  Continual process.
Correct Answer
D. Continual process.

Explanation
Compiling and examining all available information concerning potential threat is an ongoing and continuous process for threat analysts. It is not limited to a specific time frame such as annually, bi-annually, or monthly. Threat analysts constantly gather and analyze information to stay updated on potential threats, making it a continual process.

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24.

What assessment addresses the broad range of physical threat to the security of personnel and assets, and should be conducted periodically?
- A.
  
  Risk.
- B.
  
  Threat.
- C.
  
  Vulnerability.
- D.
  
  Anti-terrorism.
Correct Answer
C. Vulnerability.

Explanation
The correct answer is Vulnerability. Vulnerability assessments are conducted periodically to address the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets. These assessments help identify weaknesses and potential areas of exploitation, allowing organizations to implement appropriate measures to mitigate risks and enhance security.

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25.

The key to FP countermeasure planning is
- A.
  
  The classified protection plan
- B.
  
  Protecting sensitive information
- C.
  
  The offensive FP plan
- D.
  
  The defensive FP plan
Correct Answer
B. Protecting sensitive information

Explanation
The key to FP countermeasure planning is protecting sensitive information. This means that in order to effectively plan for countermeasures against potential threats, it is crucial to prioritize the protection of sensitive information. This can include implementing measures such as encryption, access controls, and secure storage to prevent unauthorized access or disclosure of sensitive data. By safeguarding sensitive information, organizations can mitigate the risk of data breaches and unauthorized use, ensuring the overall security and integrity of their operations.

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26.

The capability to reduce the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy to protect friendly assets and aim points with materials and equipment that alter or obscure part or all of their multispectral signatures is
- A.
  
  Cover, camouflage, and deception (CCD)
- B.
  
  Concealing camouflage deceitfully (CCD)
- C.
  
  Deceptive camouflage concealment (DCC)
- D.
  
  Camouflage, concealment and deception (CCD)
Correct Answer
D. Camouflage, concealment and deception (CCD)

Explanation
The correct answer is camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD). This refers to the capability of reducing the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets by using techniques such as hiding, blending, disguising, and decoying. These techniques involve using materials and equipment that alter or obscure the multispectral signatures of friendly assets and aim points.

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27.

To modify to prevent recognition of the true identity or character of an asset or activity is to
- A.
  
  Hide
- B.
  
  Blend
- C.
  
  Decoy
- D.
  
  Disguise
Correct Answer
D. Disguise

Explanation
To modify something in order to prevent its true identity or character from being recognized is to disguise it. Disguising involves altering the appearance or nature of an asset or activity to make it appear as something else or to make it less noticeable or recognizable. This can be done through various means such as changing its physical appearance, behavior, or location. Disguising is often used to deceive or mislead others and can be employed in various contexts, such as espionage, camouflage, or even in everyday situations where someone wants to conceal their true intentions or identity.

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28.

The political-military nature of military operations other that war (MOOTW) requires you to coordinate your activities
- A.
  
  Through the Department of State, drug enforcement agencies, and Immigration and Naturalization Services.
- B.
  
  With a number of government and civilian agencies outside the department of Defense.
- C.
  
  Through the Red Cross, Red Crescent, and Cooperative for Assistance and relief Everywhere.
- D.
  
  Through the joint rear area CC (JRAC)
Correct Answer
B. With a number of government and civilian agencies outside the department of Defense.

Explanation
The political-military nature of military operations other than war (MOOTW) necessitates coordination with various government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense. This is because MOOTW often involves non-combat activities such as humanitarian assistance, disaster relief, peacekeeping, and nation-building. These activities require collaboration with agencies such as the Department of State, drug enforcement agencies, and Immigration and Naturalization Services to address political, social, and economic dimensions of the operation. By working with these external agencies, the military can effectively achieve its objectives and ensure a comprehensive approach to MOOTW.

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29.

Military operations other than war (MOOTW) missions do not include
- A.
  
  Quarantine
- B.
  
  Peacekeeping
- C.
  
  Clandestine infiltration
- D.
  
  Humanitarian assistance
Correct Answer
C. Clandestine infiltration

Explanation
Military operations other than war (MOOTW) are a range of military activities that are conducted in situations other than traditional warfare. These operations are typically aimed at achieving specific objectives such as peacekeeping, humanitarian assistance, and quarantine. However, clandestine infiltration involves covertly entering a territory or organization with the intention of gathering information or carrying out sabotage. It is not typically considered a part of MOOTW missions as it involves secretive and often illegal activities, unlike the other options which are more focused on maintaining peace, providing aid, or preventing the spread of diseases.

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30.

Which military operations other than war (MOOTW) principle never permits hostile factions to acquire a military, political, or informational advantage?
- A.
  
  Unity of Effort
- B.
  
  Objective
- C.
  
  Restraint
- D.
  
  Security
Correct Answer
D. Security

Explanation
Security is the correct answer because it is the military operations other than war (MOOTW) principle that focuses on preventing hostile factions from gaining any military, political, or informational advantage. This principle emphasizes the protection of critical assets, information, and operations to maintain the overall security of the mission. By implementing security measures, MOOTW aims to minimize the vulnerabilities and risks that hostile factions may exploit to gain an advantage.

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31.

As a Total Force organization, a typical air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is responsive and capable of
- A.
  
  Full spectrum of air and space domination
- B.
  
  Deploying to multiple geographic locations simultaneously
- C.
  
  Deploying to conduct broad range operations with minimum waring time
- D.
  
  Supporting multi-national forces under the control of host nation CCs
Correct Answer
C. Deploying to conduct broad range operations with minimum waring time

Explanation
A typical air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is capable of deploying to conduct a broad range of operations with minimum warning time. This means that the force is prepared to quickly and efficiently respond to various types of missions and tasks in different locations. The AEF is flexible and adaptable, able to handle a wide range of operations and scenarios with minimal delay or preparation time. This capability allows for a rapid and effective response to emerging threats or situations, ensuring the force can effectively support national and international objectives.

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32.

What is the time limit for an air and space expeditionary force (AEF) package to respond to and unexpected contingency?
- A.
  
  12 hrs
- B.
  
  24 hrs
- C.
  
  48hrs
- D.
  
  72hrs
Correct Answer
D. 72hrs

Explanation
The time limit for an air and space expeditionary force (AEF) package to respond to an unexpected contingency is 72 hours. This means that the AEF package must be ready to deploy within 72 hours of being notified of the contingency. This allows for rapid response and ensures that the AEF is able to quickly provide support and assistance in emergency situations.

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33.

What does SF provide for the IBD concept?
- A.
  
  Support
- B.
  
  Foundation
- C.
  
  Tactical Operation
- D.
  
  Retrograde operations
Correct Answer
B. Foundation

Explanation
SF, which stands for Special Forces, provides the foundation for the IBD concept. The IBD concept refers to Intelligence Based Defense, which is a strategy that uses intelligence and information to enhance defense operations. Special Forces play a crucial role in providing the necessary training, expertise, and support to establish a strong foundation for the IBD concept. They provide the necessary skills, knowledge, and resources to ensure the successful implementation and execution of intelligence-based defense strategies.

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34.

Based on the IBD concept of operations, what are all Airmen considered?
- A.
  
  Detectors
- B.
  
  Monitors
- C.
  
  Fighters
- D.
  
  Sensors
Correct Answer
D. Sensors

Explanation
According to the IBD concept of operations, all Airmen are considered sensors. This implies that Airmen are responsible for gathering information, monitoring situations, and providing valuable data to support decision-making and operational effectiveness. As sensors, Airmen play a crucial role in detecting, identifying, and reporting any potential threats or changes in the operational environment.

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35.

Which essential element of the IBD concept slows the enemy without the need for a massive response at the outset of an engagement?
- A.
  
  Anticipate
- B.
  
  Detect
- C.
  
  Delay
- D.
  
  Deny
Correct Answer
C. Delay

Explanation
Delay is the essential element of the IBD concept that slows the enemy without the need for a massive response at the outset of an engagement. Instead of immediately launching a full-scale attack, delaying tactics are employed to buy time, disrupt the enemy's plans, and hinder their progress. This allows for the deployment of additional forces, gathering of intelligence, and development of a more strategic and effective response. By delaying the enemy, the defender gains an advantage and can better prepare for a successful counterattack.

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36.

What does the risk management process allow the CC to determine?
- A.
  
  Countermeasures options
- B.
  
  If reassessments and follow ups are needed
- C.
  
  Whether to introduce risk management process training
- D.
  
  If there is a need to maximize live-fire training on full impact ranges
Correct Answer
A. Countermeasures options

Explanation
The risk management process allows the CC to determine countermeasures options. This means that the process helps the CC identify and evaluate different strategies or actions that can be taken to mitigate or reduce risks. By considering various countermeasures options, the CC can make informed decisions on how to best address potential risks and protect the organization or project.

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37.

An expeditionary military force is defined as a force that conducts military operations
- A.
  
  Within 24 hrs of notification in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives.
- B.
  
  On short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives
- C.
  
  On short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve unlimited and unclear objectives.
- D.
  
  Within 72 hrs in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives
Correct Answer
B. On short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives

Explanation
An expeditionary military force is a force that can quickly respond to crises on short notice. The force is specifically designed and tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives. This means that the force is not meant to achieve unlimited or unclear objectives, but rather to address specific issues or goals in a timely and efficient manner. The ability to respond within a short timeframe is crucial in order to effectively address crises and mitigate their impact.

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38.

What does the AF maintain to support the on-call air and space expeditionary force, as well as on-call lead wings to open expeditionary bases?
- A.
  
  Two bomber group leads (BGL)
- B.
  
  Three BGLs
- C.
  
  Four BGLs
- D.
  
  Five BGLs
Correct Answer
D. Five BGLs

Explanation
The AF maintains five BGLs to support the on-call air and space expeditionary force, as well as on-call lead wings to open expeditionary bases.

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39.

The key to optimizing peacetime participation of the traditional guardsman and reservists who must balance military duties with full-time civilian employment is
- A.
  
  Predictability
- B.
  
  Flexibility
- C.
  
  Mobility
- D.
  
  Stability
Correct Answer
A. Predictability

Explanation
The key to optimizing peacetime participation of the traditional guardsman and reservists who must balance military duties with full-time civilian employment is predictability. Having a predictable schedule allows these individuals to effectively plan and manage their time between their military and civilian responsibilities. It ensures that they can fulfill their military obligations without disrupting their civilian work and personal life. Predictability also helps in reducing stress and uncertainty, allowing guardsmen and reservists to focus on their duties and perform at their best in both roles.

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40.

Since unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped, what will all security forces UTCs have as a designator?
- A.
  
  UT
- B.
  
  FP
- C.
  
  AT
- D.
  
  QF
Correct Answer
D. QF

Explanation
Security forces UTCs will have "QF" as a designator because the question states that unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped. This implies that different types of units, including security forces, will have specific designators assigned to them. In this case, the designator "QF" is specifically assigned to security forces UTCs.

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41.

When the need for a new UTC or a major change in an existing UTC is required, who may initiate the action for the change?
- A.
  
  Any level
- B.
  
  Unit level
- C.
  
  Major Command (MAJCOM) level
- D.
  
  Air Staff level only
Correct Answer
A. Any level

Explanation
Any level may initiate the action for a new UTC or a major change in an existing UTC. This means that individuals at any level within the organization have the authority to propose and initiate the necessary actions for a new or changed UTC.

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42.

What is the list of all unit type codes (UTC) approved for use in planning?
- A.
  
  Air Force Unit Tasking Document (AUTD)
- B.
  
  Air Force-wide UTC roster (AFWUR)
- C.
  
  Air expeditionary Unit Tasking summary sheet (AUTSS)
- D.
  
  Air Force-wide Unit type code availability system (AFWUS)
Correct Answer
D. Air Force-wide Unit type code availability system (AFWUS)

Explanation
The correct answer is "Air Force-wide Unit type code availability system (AFWUS)". This is because the question is asking for the list of all unit type codes (UTC) approved for use in planning, and the AFWUS is the only option that is related to unit type codes and their availability. The other options, such as AUTD, AFWUR, and AUTSS, do not specifically mention unit type codes or their approval for use in planning.

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43.

Directing your operation toward a defined and attainable objective that contributes to operational and tactical claim is what principle of war
- A.
  
  Maneuver
- B.
  
  Offensive
- C.
  
  Objective
- D.
  
  Mass
Correct Answer
C. Objective

Explanation
The principle of war that is being referred to in this question is "Objective." This principle emphasizes the importance of directing operations towards a clearly defined and achievable objective. It highlights the need to have a specific goal in mind and to align all efforts towards achieving that goal. By focusing on the objective, operational and tactical gains can be made, ensuring that actions are purposeful and contribute to overall success.

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44.

Avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations is what principle of war?
- A.
  
  Unity of Command
- B.
  
  Simplicity
- C.
  
  Objective
- D.
  
  Offensive
Correct Answer
B. Simplicity

Explanation
The principle of war that is being described in the question is simplicity. Simplicity refers to the idea of avoiding unnecessary complexity in military operations. It emphasizes the importance of keeping plans and strategies straightforward and easy to understand. By minimizing complexity, military forces can enhance their efficiency and effectiveness in executing operations. This principle helps to ensure clear communication, coordination, and decision-making, ultimately leading to better outcomes on the battlefield.

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45.

CCs do not use ROE's to ensure operations
- A.
  
  Follow the rule of law
- B.
  
  Meet manning standards
- C.
  
  Follow national policy goals
- D.
  
  Follow mission requirements
Correct Answer
B. Meet manning standards

Explanation
CCs do not use ROE's to ensure operations. Instead, they focus on meeting manning standards. This means that their main priority is to ensure that they have the appropriate number of personnel to carry out their operations effectively. By meeting manning standards, CCs can ensure that they have the necessary manpower to meet their mission requirements and achieve their goals. This is crucial for the smooth functioning of their operations and the overall success of their organization.

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46.

Guidance on the application of force and exercising of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense is the purpose of the
- A.
  
  United Nations
- B.
  
  Geneva Convention
- C.
  
  Joint force CCs directives
- D.
  
  US military's standing ROE's
Correct Answer
D. US military's standing ROE's

Explanation
The correct answer is US military's standing ROE's. The explanation for this is that the US military's standing ROE's (Rules of Engagement) provide guidance on the application of force and the exercise of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense. These rules outline the circumstances under which military personnel are authorized to use force, including the level of force that can be used and the conditions that must be met. They are designed to ensure that military actions are conducted in accordance with international law and the principles of proportionality and necessity.

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47.

What is one of the fundamental purposes of the LOAC?
- A.
  
  Prevent unnecessary suffering
- B.
  
  Prevent use of political influence
- C.
  
  Maintain a well-defined military plan
- D.
  
  Provide equal representation of all combatants
Correct Answer
A. Prevent unnecessary suffering

Explanation
The LOAC, or Law of Armed Conflict, is a set of rules and principles that govern the conduct of armed forces during armed conflicts. One of its fundamental purposes is to prevent unnecessary suffering. This means that the LOAC seeks to minimize the harm and suffering inflicted on individuals during armed conflicts, by establishing rules on the humane treatment of prisoners, protection of civilians, and prohibition of certain weapons and tactics that cause excessive harm. By preventing unnecessary suffering, the LOAC aims to uphold the principles of humanity and minimize the human cost of armed conflicts.

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48.

What is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners?
- A.
  
  Sustainability
- B.
  
  Attainability
- C.
  
  Flexibility
- D.
  
  Simplicity
Correct Answer
C. Flexibility

Explanation
Flexibility is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners because it allows for adaptation and responsiveness to changing circumstances. In a dynamic and unpredictable environment, having flexible forces enables planners to adjust strategies and tactics as needed. This ensures that the forces can effectively address various challenges and meet evolving objectives. Flexibility also enables forces to be versatile and adaptable, capable of operating in different environments and against different threats. Ultimately, flexibility enhances the overall effectiveness and efficiency of the forces in achieving their goals.

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49.

What UTC is a 4-person team designed to provide 24-hr security forces augmentation to immediate headquarters for ground defense and weapons systems security functions?
- A.
  
  QFDB9
- B.
  
  QFEBA
- C.
  
  QFEBB
- D.
  
  QFEBD
Correct Answer
A. QFDB9

Explanation
UTC stands for Unit Type Code, and in this context, it refers to a specific team or unit designed to provide security forces augmentation to immediate headquarters for ground defense and weapons systems security functions. The code QFDB9 represents the specific UTC that fulfills this role.

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50.

What UTC, when deployed with UTCs QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ staff support for a medium to large (130-180 personnel) deployed SF unit.
- A.
  
  QFEBU
- B.
  
  QFEPR
- C.
  
  QFFPF
- D.
  
  QFEBA
Correct Answer
D. QFEBA

Explanation
QFEBA, when deployed with UTCs QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ staff support for a medium to large deployed SF unit.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

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Current Version
Mar 19, 2023

Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
Apr 09, 2013

Quiz Created by
Je9125

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What UTC, when deployed with UTCs QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ staff support for a medium to large (130-180 personnel) deployed SF unit.