3P051 - Hard - Test B

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1. Upon contact with the solicitor, you receive proper identification from the solicitor and when asked to depart the base, the solicitor leaves.  What subject action level is it?

Explanation

Upon contact with the solicitor, the individual receives proper identification from the solicitor and when asked to depart the base, the solicitor leaves. This scenario involves the use of verbal controls. The solicitor is verbally instructed to leave the base, and they comply with the instruction, demonstrating the effectiveness of verbal communication in controlling the situation.

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3P051 - Hard - Test B - Quiz

Please enter Rank & Name (Last, First) for name. Example: A1C Smith, John

2. What is a way you can identify stressors on the job?

Explanation

Talking to experienced SF members is a way to identify stressors on the job because they have likely faced similar challenges and can provide valuable insights and advice. They can share their own experiences and give guidance on how to manage and cope with stressors. By engaging in conversations with them, one can gain a better understanding of the potential stressors in the job and learn effective strategies to handle them.

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3. Where should the Claymore firing position be located?

Explanation

The Claymore firing position should be located in a foxhole or covered position. This is because these locations provide protection and concealment for the Claymore operator, allowing them to remain hidden while effectively engaging the enemy. Being in a foxhole or covered position also helps to minimize the risk of being detected or targeted by the enemy, increasing the overall effectiveness and safety of the Claymore operation.

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4. Before releasing a military working dog to search buildings, the handler must?

Explanation

Before releasing a military working dog to search buildings, the handler must give a verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog. This is important for the safety of everyone involved, including the dog, as it allows individuals within the building to be aware that a potentially dangerous dog is being released. The verbal warning serves as a precautionary measure to prevent any unexpected or unintentional confrontations or injuries. It also gives people inside the building an opportunity to comply with any instructions provided by the handler to avoid any unnecessary harm.

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5. SF members must possess what skill level prior to entering the MWD handler apprentice course?

Explanation

Prior to entering the MWD handler apprentice course, SF members must possess a 5-skill level (Journeyman) skill level. This indicates that they have achieved a certain level of expertise and experience in their field.

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6. As a security forces member, you testify under oath, “I saw the car driven by SMSgt. Rhodia Perry weaving back and forth across the road.”  This is an example of?

Explanation

The given statement describes a testimony given by a security forces member, indicating that they personally witnessed the car being driven in a specific manner by SMSgt. Rhodia Perry. This type of evidence is considered testimonial evidence because it is a statement made by a witness under oath, providing firsthand information about the event in question.

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7. What does the term OCOKA stand for?

Explanation

OCOKA stands for Observation/fields of fire, cover and concealment, obstacles, key terrain, avenues of approach. This acronym is commonly used in military tactics to help assess and analyze the battlefield. Observation/fields of fire refers to identifying areas with good visibility and firing positions. Cover and concealment involves finding protection from enemy fire and remaining hidden. Obstacles are physical barriers that can impede movement. Key terrain refers to significant features such as hills or buildings that can provide advantages or disadvantages. Avenues of approach are the routes that can be used to reach the objective.

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8. How do MWDs impact crime?

Explanation

MWDs, or Military Working Dogs, can have a significant impact on crime as they serve as a deterrent. The presence of these highly trained and skilled dogs can discourage criminals from engaging in illegal activities, as they are aware of the dog's abilities to detect and apprehend suspects. MWDs are known for their intelligence and obedience, which further enhances their effectiveness in preventing crime. However, it is important to note that while MWDs are valuable assets in law enforcement, they cannot catch every single bad guy, as their success depends on various factors such as training, environment, and the specific situation.

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9. Adhering to what form(s) of guidance ensures mission accomplishment?

Explanation

Adhering to the Code of Conduct and SF General Orders ensures mission accomplishment. The Code of Conduct provides guidelines for the behavior and actions of military personnel, emphasizing principles such as loyalty, duty, and integrity. SF General Orders, on the other hand, outline specific rules and regulations that must be followed in order to maintain discipline and order within the military organization. By adhering to both the Code of Conduct and SF General Orders, individuals can ensure that their actions are in line with the mission's objectives and contribute to its successful completion.

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10. What would you do if a violator stop in an area that you do not like or is unsafe?

Explanation

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11. When contacting the violator during a traffic stop,  an exigent circumstance would be speeding to?

Explanation

Exigent circumstances refer to situations where immediate action is necessary to prevent harm or danger. In this case, getting the pregnant wife to the hospital would be considered an exigent circumstance because it involves the potential risk to the health and well-being of both the mother and the unborn child. It is crucial to prioritize their safety and ensure they receive medical attention as quickly as possible.

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12. As a POW what information are you required to give when questioned?

Explanation

As a prisoner of war (POW), you are required to provide certain information when questioned. This includes your name, rank, service number, and date of birth. This information is necessary for identification purposes and to ensure proper treatment and adherence to international laws regarding the treatment of prisoners of war.

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13. What is the most common method of employing the AN/PVS 14 night vision goggle?

Explanation

The most common method of employing the AN/PVS 14 night vision goggle is by wearing a facemask centered on the forehead. This allows for hands-free operation and ensures that the goggle is properly positioned for optimal visibility in low-light conditions.

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14. Which is an example of a protection level 1 resource?

Explanation

C4 systems of active nuclear missions are an example of a protection level 1 resource because they are critical to the success of active nuclear missions. These systems are responsible for command, control, communications, and computer operations in nuclear missions, making them highly sensitive and requiring the highest level of protection.

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15. What are the characteristics of the M203 grenade launcher?

Explanation

The correct answer describes the characteristics of the M203 grenade launcher accurately. It states that the M203 is a lightweight weapon that is single-shot and breech-loaded. It also mentions that it has a pump action with a sliding barrel. Additionally, it specifies that the M203 is attached to the M16 and M4 carbine rifle series with the RAS. This answer aligns with the given information about the M203 grenade launcher.

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16. The term “every airman is a sensor…contributing to overall base defense” is the concept of?

Explanation

The concept of "every airman is a sensor...contributing to overall base defense" aligns with Integrated Base Defense. This concept emphasizes the idea that every individual within an air base has a role to play in the overall defense of the base. It recognizes that each person can contribute valuable information and situational awareness, making them an important "sensor" in the defense network. Integrated Base Defense focuses on the collaboration and coordination of all personnel and resources to enhance the security and protection of the base.

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17. What are the requirements to attend Airman Leadership School?

Explanation

The requirements to attend Airman Leadership School are being an SSgt select or SrA with 48 months of total active federal military services. This means that individuals who have achieved the rank of Staff Sergeant (SSgt) or Senior Airman (SrA) and have completed 48 months of active federal military service are eligible to attend the school. The other options, such as having a college background or having 24 months of total active federal military services, are not mentioned as requirements for attending Airman Leadership School.

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18. Martial law is military jurisdiction over the civilian population…

Explanation

Martial law is a form of military control that is imposed over the civilian population in times of emergency. During such situations, the regular law enforcement agencies may be unable to maintain order and security, hence the military takes over to restore stability. This allows the military to enforce its own set of laws and regulations to ensure public safety and protect vital interests. Martial law can be declared by state governors or national authorities, such as the Joint Chiefs of Staff, depending on the specific circumstances.

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19. What are the six basic questions that need to answered on an AF Form 1168?

Explanation

The six basic questions that need to be answered on an AF Form 1168 are who, what, when, where, why, and how. These questions help provide a comprehensive understanding of the situation or incident being reported. "Who" identifies the individuals involved, "what" describes the event or action, "when" specifies the date and time, "where" indicates the location, "why" explains the motive or reason, and "how" outlines the process or method. By addressing these questions, the form can gather all the necessary details for accurate documentation and analysis.

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20. SF squadrons are organized based on what?

Explanation

SF squadrons are organized based on mission requirements. This means that the structure and composition of the squadrons are determined by the specific tasks and objectives they need to accomplish. This allows for flexibility and adaptability, as different missions may require different skill sets, equipment, and personnel. By organizing based on mission requirements, SF squadrons can effectively plan and execute their operations, ensuring that they have the right resources and capabilities to successfully complete their assigned tasks.

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21. What is the most important part of the compass to check during inspection?

Explanation

The floating dial is the most important part of the compass to check during inspection because it is responsible for indicating the direction. It is designed to rotate freely and align with the Earth's magnetic field, allowing the user to accurately determine their heading. If the floating dial is not functioning properly or is misaligned, the compass will not provide accurate readings. Therefore, checking the condition and alignment of the floating dial is crucial to ensure the compass is in proper working order.

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22. What are the characteristics of the M240B machine gun?

Explanation

The given answer accurately describes the characteristics of the M240B machine gun. It mentions that it is a general-purpose machine gun that can be mounted on various platforms such as bipods, tripods, aircraft, or vehicles. It also states that the M240B is belt-fed, air-cooled, gas-operated, and fully automatic, firing from the open bolt position. This information provides a comprehensive overview of the key features and capabilities of the M240B machine gun.

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23. The Vietnam Conflict pointed out the need for?

Explanation

The Vietnam Conflict highlighted the importance of revising security thinking. The nature of the conflict, with its guerrilla warfare tactics and unconventional strategies, showed that traditional methods of security were ineffective. This led to a reevaluation of military strategies and the development of new approaches to security.

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24. How many range cards are prepared for each position?

Explanation

The correct answer is two because each position requires two range cards to be prepared. This suggests that there are two different ranges that need to be accounted for in each position.

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25. How many meters is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?

Explanation

The maximum range for the M9 pistol is 1,800 meters. This means that the pistol is capable of accurately firing a projectile up to a distance of 1,800 meters. This range allows for effective engagement of targets at medium to long distances, making the M9 pistol a versatile weapon in various combat scenarios.

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26. Why should the Chief, Security Forces (CSF) consider purchasing the same brand and model of equipment used by your civilian counterparts?

Explanation

By purchasing the same brand and model of equipment used by civilian counterparts, the Chief, Security Forces (CSF) can ensure that their qualifications are reliable by both military and civil authorities to prosecute offenders. This means that the CSF personnel will have the necessary expertise and knowledge to effectively carry out their duties, as they are familiar with the equipment and procedures used by local and state law enforcement agencies. Additionally, using the same equipment can boost morale among the CSF personnel and eliminate the use of outdated and antiquated devices, ensuring that they are equipped with the most up-to-date tools for their work.

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27. When was the first trial issue shield approved?

Explanation

The first trial issue shield was approved in 1957.

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28. On what does a patrol leader base the tentative patrol plan?

Explanation

A patrol leader bases the tentative patrol plan on good terrain analysis. This means that they consider the terrain features, such as hills, rivers, and vegetation, to determine the best route for the patrol. By analyzing the terrain, the patrol leader can identify potential obstacles, assess the level of difficulty, and plan the most efficient and safe path for the patrol. This helps ensure that the patrol can navigate the terrain effectively and accomplish their objectives.

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29. How is the Claymore employed when used as part of the base defense obstacle plan?

Explanation

The Claymore is employed as part of the base defense obstacle plan to stop, delay, and disrupt enemy attacks. This means that it is used to hinder the progress of the enemy and create obstacles that they must overcome, giving the defending forces more time to react and respond to the attack. By using the Claymore in this way, the defending forces can gain an advantage and potentially prevent or minimize damage to the base.

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30. Describe the MK19?

Explanation

The MK19 is described as an air-cooled, blowback-operated weapon with five major assemblies. It utilizes a disintegrating metallic link belt to feed ammunition through the left side of the weapon. One notable feature is its barrel, which does not overheat even after prolonged firing. Additionally, it is equipped with a blade-type front sight attached to the top cover assembly.

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31. The MK19 has little effect on which type of targets?

Explanation

The MK19 has little effect on main battle tanks because it is not designed to penetrate heavily armored vehicles. The MK19 is a 40mm grenade launcher that is primarily used against unarmored or lightly armored targets, such as personnel and light vehicles. Main battle tanks are heavily armored and require more powerful weaponry to be effectively engaged. Therefore, the MK19 would have limited impact on main battle tanks.

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32. What general conduct guideline would you violate if you consumed alcohol within 8 hours prior to duty?

Explanation

If you consumed alcohol within 8 hours prior to duty, you would violate the general conduct guideline of Attention to duty. This is because alcohol consumption can impair your ability to focus, concentrate, and perform your duties effectively. It can affect your alertness, decision-making skills, and overall performance, which is crucial in maintaining attention to duty.

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33. The GRC 238 what radio part is critical to its operation?

Explanation

The antenna is critical to the operation of the GRC 238 radio. The antenna is responsible for receiving and transmitting radio signals, allowing the radio to communicate with other devices. Without a functioning antenna, the radio would not be able to send or receive signals effectively, rendering it useless for communication purposes. Therefore, the antenna is a crucial component for the proper functioning of the GRC 238 radio.

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34. “Probable Cause” searches are covered under what legal manual?

Explanation

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35. During terrorist objectives and tactics, who is the lead agency for incidents occurring outside the US?

Explanation

The Department of State is the lead agency for incidents occurring outside the US during terrorist objectives and tactics. This is because the Department of State is responsible for the overall foreign policy of the United States, including the coordination of counterterrorism efforts and maintaining relationships with foreign governments to address and respond to terrorist incidents that occur outside the country. The Department of Justice, on the other hand, primarily focuses on domestic law enforcement and prosecution of criminal activities within the US. The Department of Terrorist and Department of Concept are not actual departments and do not exist.

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36. How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?

Explanation

The kill radius for hand grenades is typically around 5 meters. This means that within a 5-meter radius of the explosion, there is a high likelihood of causing fatal injuries to anyone in that area. Hand grenades are designed to be highly destructive and have a significant impact on their surroundings, making them effective weapons in combat situations.

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37. What is the most accurate of all chemical tests?

Explanation

Blood tests are considered the most accurate of all chemical tests because they directly measure the presence and concentration of substances in the bloodstream. Unlike urine tests or breathalyzers, which can be influenced by various factors such as hydration levels or recent food or drink intake, blood tests provide a more precise and reliable analysis. They are commonly used to detect and diagnose a wide range of medical conditions, monitor organ function, assess drug levels, and determine blood alcohol levels with high accuracy.

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38. What is the most common round used in the M870?

Explanation

The most common round used in the M870 is the 12 gauge, "00" buck shot. This round is widely used in shotguns for its effectiveness in close-range self-defense and hunting. The term "12 gauge" refers to the diameter of the shotgun barrel, and "00" buck shot refers to the size of the individual pellets in the round. The M870 is a popular pump-action shotgun that is commonly used by law enforcement and military personnel, as well as for civilian purposes such as home defense and sport shooting.

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39. What is the maximum range of the M2?

Explanation

The correct answer is 6,764 meters. This is the maximum range of the M2, which is a type of firearm. The M2 is capable of firing projectiles up to a distance of 6,764 meters.

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40. Where do you position your vehicle in relation to the violator’s vehicle during a traffic stop.

Explanation

During a traffic stop, it is important to position your vehicle in a way that ensures both your safety and the safety of the violator. Placing your vehicle two vehicle lengths behind the violator's vehicle allows for a safe distance in case the violator tries to flee or makes any sudden movements. Positioning your vehicle three feet to the left provides a buffer space between the two vehicles, reducing the risk of a collision and allowing for a clear path for communication and interaction with the violator.

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41. The MK19 is capable of producing controlled and accurate fire for?

Explanation

The MK19 is capable of producing controlled and accurate fire for point and area targets. This means that it can effectively engage and hit specific points or areas on a target, providing precise and targeted firepower. This capability makes the MK19 suitable for engaging enemy personnel or equipment in a specific location, increasing the chances of neutralizing the threat effectively.

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42. Which breath instrument uses chemicals to test blood alcohol content?

Explanation

A breathalyzer is a breath instrument that uses chemicals to test blood alcohol content. It works by measuring the amount of alcohol in a person's breath, which is then used to estimate their blood alcohol concentration. The device contains a sensor that reacts with alcohol molecules in the breath, producing a chemical reaction that can be measured and used to determine the level of alcohol in the bloodstream. This makes the breathalyzer a commonly used tool by law enforcement officers to quickly and non-invasively test for alcohol impairment.

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43. How many copies of the DD Form 2708 are prepared?

Explanation

Two copies of the DD Form 2708 are prepared. This is likely because one copy is kept for record-keeping purposes, while the other copy is provided to the individual or organization that requested the form. Having two copies ensures that both parties have a record of the form and can refer to it as needed.

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44. In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M 240B for a point target with tripod?

Explanation

The maximum effective range of the M 240B for a point target with tripod is 800 meters. This means that the weapon is capable of accurately engaging and hitting a specific target at a distance of up to 800 meters when used with a tripod.

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45. What community policing philosophy helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood?

Explanation

Developing community relationships that allow the community a greater voice in setting police priorities helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood. This approach promotes collaboration and cooperation between the police and the community, fostering trust and mutual understanding. By involving the community in decision-making processes, the police can address the specific needs and concerns of the neighborhood, leading to more effective and targeted solutions. This philosophy empowers the community to actively participate in shaping their own safety and security, ultimately creating a safer and more harmonious environment for everyone.

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46. Which UCMJ article gives you the authority to apprehend military offenders?

Explanation

Article 7b of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) gives military personnel the authority to apprehend military offenders. This article specifically authorizes military law enforcement personnel, such as military police, to apprehend individuals who have committed offenses under the UCMJ. It outlines the procedures and guidelines for apprehension, including the use of force if necessary. This article empowers military personnel to maintain discipline and ensure the safety and security of military installations and personnel.

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47. How many personnel are required to erect the assembled antenna mast?

Explanation

Only 2 personnel are required to erect the assembled antenna mast. This suggests that the task does not require a large team or multiple individuals. The use of the word "personnel" implies that the individuals involved are trained and experienced in erecting antenna masts.

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48. Which copy of the DD Form 1408 goes to the violator?

Explanation

The Pink Copy of the DD Form 1408 goes to the violator. This form is used for issuing traffic citations and is typically given to the individual who has committed the violation.

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49. What career fields were combined in 1997 to form the “Security Forces” 3POX1 AFSC?

Explanation

In 1997, the career fields of Security Specialist, Law Enforcement Specialist, Military Working Dog Handler, and Combat Arms Training and Maintenance (CATM) were combined to form the “Security Forces” 3POX1 AFSC.

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50. Which rally point is tentative until the objective is pinpointed?

Explanation

The rally point is tentative until the objective is pinpointed because the objective is the main goal or target that needs to be achieved. Until the objective is clearly identified and defined, the rally point cannot be finalized as it may need to be adjusted or modified based on the specific requirements of the objective. Therefore, the rally point remains uncertain or provisional until the objective is determined.

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51. What piece of equipment do you use if you need to fire into your secondary sector?

Explanation

A bipod is a piece of equipment that is used when firing into the secondary sector. It provides stability and support to the firearm, allowing for more accurate and controlled shots. Unlike a tripod, which is typically used for cameras or other equipment, a bipod is specifically designed for firearms and is commonly used in military and hunting scenarios. The buddy system and your gear are not directly related to firing into the secondary sector, making them incorrect options.

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52. How many basic fundamentals of defense are there?

Explanation

There are five basic fundamentals of defense. These fundamentals include maintaining proper distance, keeping hands up, moving with the opponent, blocking and parrying, and countering. These fundamentals are essential in defensive strategies and techniques in various sports and martial arts.

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53. US military authority in host nation territories is governed by?

Explanation

Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA) govern the US military authority in host nation territories. These agreements outline the legal status and privileges of US military personnel operating in a foreign country. They cover various aspects such as jurisdiction, taxation, customs, and the legal framework for military operations. SOFAs are negotiated between the US and the host country to ensure the smooth functioning of military forces while respecting the laws and sovereignty of the host nation. They provide a legal basis for the presence and activities of US military personnel in foreign territories.

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54. What are the three reports used by security forces to document incidents?

Explanation

The correct answer is d. AF Form 3545, AF Form 1168, and AF Form 1315. These three forms are used by security forces to document incidents. AF Form 3545 is the Incident Report, which is used to document the details of an incident. AF Form 1168 is the Sworn Statement, which is used to gather statements from witnesses or individuals involved in the incident. AF Form 1315 is the Security Forces Report, which is used to summarize and report on the incident. Together, these three forms provide a comprehensive documentation of incidents for security forces.

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55. Why do we use demist shield on the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle?

Explanation

The demist shield is used on the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle to prevent foggy lenses. When the lenses of the night vision goggle become foggy, it can impair the user's vision and make it difficult to see clearly in low-light conditions. The demist shield helps to prevent the buildup of moisture on the lenses, ensuring that the night vision goggle remains effective and the user can maintain clear visibility.

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56. What part of the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle does the sacrificial window protect?

Explanation

The sacrificial window on the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle is designed to protect the glass objective lens. The glass objective lens is a crucial component of the goggle that allows light to enter and be amplified, enabling night vision capabilities. The sacrificial window acts as a protective layer, shielding the glass lens from potential damage or scratches that could impair its functionality.

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57. What is a hot loop?

Explanation

A hot loop refers to a continuous line that is connected to every phone and switchboard. This line allows for immediate communication in case of emergencies or important messages. It ensures that all phones and switchboards are connected and ready to transmit information without any interruptions.

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58. How do we clean the AN/PVS-14 night vision metal surfaces?

Explanation

To clean the AN/PVS-14 night vision metal surfaces, a lint-free cloth should be used. This type of cloth is specifically designed to not leave any lint or fibers behind, ensuring a thorough and clean surface. Using vinegar or water solution, light oil lubrication, or soap and warm water could potentially damage the metal surfaces or leave residue behind. Therefore, a lint-free cloth is the safest and most effective option for cleaning the AN/PVS-14 night vision metal surfaces.

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59. A written order issued by a competent authority is called a?

Explanation

A written order issued by a competent authority is called a search authorization. This document grants the authority to conduct a search and seizure operation, allowing law enforcement officials to enter and search a specific location for evidence or contraband. It ensures that the search is legally authorized and protects individuals' rights by requiring a valid reason and proper documentation before conducting a search.

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60. If a soldier adapts to the dark before donning goggles, the individual gains full dark adaptation within?

Explanation

Dark adaptation is the process by which the eyes adjust to low levels of light. It takes time for the eyes to fully adapt to the dark after being exposed to bright light. By adapting to the dark before donning goggles, the soldier's eyes have already started the process of dark adaptation. This means that when the goggles are removed, the soldier's eyes will only need an additional 2 minutes to fully adapt to the dark, as they have already had some time to adjust beforehand.

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61. When was the current SF shield adopted?

Explanation

The current SF shield was adopted in 1966.

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62. What Command Section position is manned by the senior SF enlisted leader?

Explanation

The correct answer is Security Forces Manager (SFM). The SFM is responsible for managing and overseeing the day-to-day operations of the Security Forces Command Section. They work closely with the senior SF enlisted leader to ensure the unit's mission readiness and effectiveness. The SFM is a key leadership position within the Security Forces unit and plays a crucial role in maintaining discipline, training, and morale of the enlisted personnel.

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63. The components that make up the Mini Active Infrared Detection sensor are?

Explanation

The correct answer is "An emitter head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter." This answer accurately describes the components that make up the Mini Active Infrared Detection sensor. The emitter head is responsible for emitting the infrared signal, the battery case provides power to the sensor, the sensor head detects the infrared signal, and the transmitter sends the signal to a receiving device.

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64. Where do you find the elevation guide on a map?

Explanation

The elevation guide on a map is typically located in the lower right margin. This is a common placement for the elevation guide as it allows for easy reference without obstructing other important information on the map. Placing it in the upper right margin may interfere with the map's title or other key elements. While it is possible for the elevation guide to be found in the middle of the map or in the back, these are less common locations and not the norm.

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65. What are the standard whistle signals?

Explanation

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66. An 8-digit grid coordinate brings you to within how many meters of a point on a map?

Explanation

An 8-digit grid coordinate brings you to within 10 meters of a point on a map. The number of digits in a grid coordinate determines the level of precision, with more digits indicating a smaller area. In this case, having 8 digits means that the coordinate provides a high level of accuracy, bringing you within 10 meters of the desired point on the map.

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67. How many pages make up the AF Form 3545?

Explanation

The AF Form 3545 is made up of 6 pages.

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68. The surface that supports the Wide-Area Surveillance Thermal Imager (WSTI) display Control Unit must be able to handle?

Explanation

The surface that supports the Wide-Area Surveillance Thermal Imager (WSTI) display Control Unit must be able to handle 200 pounds of weight. This means that the surface needs to be strong and sturdy enough to support the weight of the control unit without breaking or collapsing. A surface that can handle 200 pounds would provide the necessary stability and support for the control unit to function properly and securely.

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69. What should a flight sector sketch show?

Explanation

A flight sector sketch should show flight and squadron identification. This information is crucial for identifying and tracking the location of different flights and squadrons during a mission. It helps in maintaining communication and coordination between different units and ensures that each unit is aware of the others' positions. By including flight and squadron identification in the sketch, the overall situational awareness and operational effectiveness can be improved.

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70. What map reference do you use to determine distances?

Explanation

A bar scale is used to determine distances on a map. It is a graphical representation of a specific distance on the map, usually in the form of a line or bar. By comparing the length of the bar scale to the actual distance on the ground, you can calculate distances between different points on the map. The bar scale helps in accurately measuring distances and is an essential tool for navigation and map reading.

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71. During absolute martial law, SF members have the authority to…

Explanation

During absolute martial law, SF members have the authority to apprehend all offenders. This means that they can detain and arrest any individual who is found to be violating the law, regardless of whether they are civilians or military personnel. This broad authority is granted to ensure that order and security are maintained during times of martial law, allowing the SF members to take swift action against any individual who poses a threat or engages in criminal activities.

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72. Title 18, Section 1382 of the US Code authorizes you to?

Explanation

Title 18, Section 1382 of the US Code authorizes individuals to detain civilians for on base offenses. This means that if a civilian commits an offense on a military base, individuals with the authority granted by this section can legally detain them until proper authorities arrive or take appropriate action. This provision ensures the maintenance of law and order on military bases and allows for the enforcement of rules and regulations within the military jurisdiction.

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73. How many sections is the form divided into? (AF Form 3545)

Explanation

The form AF Form 3545 is divided into 6 sections.

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74. What is the primary navigation tool used by Security Forces?

Explanation

The lensatic compass is the primary navigation tool used by Security Forces. This compass is specifically designed for accurate and precise navigation in various terrains. It allows users to determine their direction by aligning the compass with a specific landmark or target and reading the degrees on the compass dial. The lensatic compass is durable, reliable, and can be used in any weather condition, making it an essential tool for Security Forces in their navigation tasks.

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75. Microwave sensors are relatively sensitive to?

Explanation

Microwave sensors are sensitive to rain, snow, vibration, and small wind-blown objects. This means that these sensors can detect and be affected by these elements. Rain and snow can interfere with the sensor's ability to accurately detect objects, while vibrations from heavy equipment can cause false readings. Additionally, small wind-blown objects can trigger the sensor, leading to false alarms or inaccurate measurements.

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76. The bezel ring is a ratchet device that, when rotated fully…

Explanation

The correct answer is that the bezel ring contains 120 clicks, with each click equal to 3 degrees. This means that when the bezel ring is rotated fully, it will cover a total of 360 degrees (120 clicks * 3 degrees per click).

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77. One ancillary function of the Hand Held Thermal Imager is?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Any monitor can be used in conjunction with the system." This means that the Hand Held Thermal Imager is compatible with any type of monitor, allowing users to connect and view the images on different monitors without any restrictions.

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78. Who is responsible for providing on-site security anytime alarm systems are inoperative for extended periods of time?

Explanation

The Camper Alert Team (CAT) is responsible for providing on-site security when alarm systems are inoperative for extended periods of time. This team ensures that the site remains secure and protected even without the functioning alarm systems. The CAT members are trained to handle security situations and are equipped to respond to any potential threats or breaches in security.

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79. The fence for a restricted area must be how close to firm ground?

Explanation

The fence for a restricted area must be 2 inches close to firm ground to ensure proper security and restriction. This distance allows the fence to be firmly grounded, providing stability and preventing unauthorized access. Being too close to the ground may hinder the fence's effectiveness, while being too far may create gaps or vulnerabilities. Therefore, a distance of 2 inches strikes the right balance for maintaining security and stability.

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80. Which sensor system alarms only if an object breaks more than 98.5% of at least one beam?

Explanation

The ECSI Active Infrared Sensor alarms only if an object breaks more than 98.5% of at least one beam. This means that the sensor is designed to detect objects that obstruct the infrared beams emitted by the sensor. If an object breaks a beam by more than 98.5%, the sensor will trigger an alarm. This feature makes the ECSI Active Infrared Sensor suitable for applications where a high level of accuracy is required in detecting objects.

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81. Name the two sighting systems employed by the M18A1?

Explanation

The M18A1 employs two sighting systems: a slit-type peep sight and a knife-edge sight. The slit-type peep sight allows the user to align the target with a narrow opening or slit, providing a clear and precise aiming point. The knife-edge sight, on the other hand, features a sharp, thin edge that helps the user to align the weapon accurately. These two sighting systems work together to enhance the accuracy and effectiveness of the M18A1.

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82. What is the first step if you suspect exposure through a laceration?

Explanation

The correct answer is to apply pressure to the wound to encourage bleeding. This step is important because it helps to cleanse the wound by flushing out any potential contaminants. Applying pressure also helps to control the bleeding and minimize the risk of infection. Once the bleeding has been encouraged, the wound can then be washed thoroughly with soap and water, followed by seeking medical attention and reporting the incident to the supervisor.

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83. When burying the mini magnetic sensor (MMS), how deep must you bury the magnetic sensor head?

Explanation

The correct answer is 6 to 8 inches deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach. This depth allows the magnetic sensor head to be buried deep enough to avoid being easily detected or disturbed, while still being close enough to the surface to detect magnetic anomalies effectively. Burying it too shallow may result in accidental detection or damage, while burying it too deep may reduce its sensitivity and effectiveness in detecting magnetic fields. Therefore, burying the magnetic sensor head 6 to 8 inches deep is the most suitable option.

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84. Define a Hostile Force.

Explanation

The correct answer defines a hostile force as any civilian, paramilitary, or military force, or terrorist(s) without national designation, that has committed hostile acts, exhibited hostile intent, or has been declared hostile by appropriate authorities. This definition encompasses a wide range of potential threats, including both organized and individual actors, and allows for flexibility in identifying and responding to hostile forces.

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85. Which principle is the key to defeating enemy incursions against our airfields?

Explanation

Responsiveness is the key principle to defeating enemy incursions against our airfields. This principle emphasizes the ability to react quickly and effectively to enemy actions, ensuring that any threats or attacks are swiftly dealt with. By being responsive, our forces can effectively counter enemy incursions, preventing them from gaining a foothold or causing significant damage to our airfields. This principle ensures that our defenses are agile and adaptable, enabling us to maintain control and protect our airfields from enemy threats.

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86. The MK19 is most effectively employed as a…

Explanation

The MK19 is a type of weapon system that is best used as a mobile suppressive fire platform covering a specific zone. This means that it is most effective when it is mounted on a vehicle or other mobile platform and used to provide continuous and intense fire support to suppress enemy forces in a specific area. This allows for greater flexibility and maneuverability in engaging targets and providing support to friendly forces.

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87. Which of the following do not belong in the spectrums of IBD battlespace?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Base Battlespace" because it does not belong in the spectrums of IBD battlespace. IBD stands for Inflammatory Bowel Disease, which is a medical condition. The other options, Air Force Battlespace and Force Protection Battlespace, are related to military operations and strategies. Therefore, "Base Battlespace" is the odd one out in this context.

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88. How many different types of ammunition for the M4 carbine?

Explanation

The M4 carbine has seven different types of ammunition available.

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89. What term defines a six-digit grid coordinate?

Explanation

A six-digit grid coordinate is referred to as a refined coordinate. This term is used to describe a specific location on a map or grid system. It is more precise and accurate compared to other options such as base line, grid azimuths, and back azimuths, which are not directly related to defining a coordinate.

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90. What is the correct procedure for changing your position from searching the weak side to the strong side standing search?

Explanation

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91. If a misfire occurs, how many seconds do you wait before removing the launcher from your shoulder (M72 LAW)?

Explanation

In the case of a misfire with the M72 LAW launcher, it is recommended to wait for 10 seconds before removing the launcher from your shoulder. This waiting period allows for the possibility of a delayed ignition or a hang fire, where the rocket may still ignite after a short delay. Removing the launcher too soon could result in a dangerous situation if the rocket were to suddenly ignite while still in close proximity to the user. Therefore, waiting for 10 seconds is the safest course of action.

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92. The M2 is a very effective, versatile weapon that is…

Explanation

The M2 is a belt-fed weapon, meaning it feeds ammunition from a belt rather than a magazine. It is also recoil operated, meaning that the force generated by the recoil of each shot is used to cycle the action and chamber the next round. Lastly, the M2 is air cooled, which means it does not require any external cooling system such as water or a radiator. Therefore, the correct answer is "Belt fed, recoil operated, and air cooled."

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93. What type of protection does the 385 monostatic microwave sensor provide?

Explanation

The 385 monostatic microwave sensor provides three dimensional protection in outdoor environments. This means that it can detect and monitor threats from all directions, ensuring comprehensive coverage and security in outdoor settings. The sensor utilizes microwave technology to create a three dimensional detection zone, allowing it to accurately detect and track objects in its vicinity. This type of protection is particularly useful in outdoor environments where there may be multiple entry points or potential blind spots.

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94. How often during southward star navigation do you make azimuth checks?

Explanation

During southward star navigation, it is important to make azimuth checks at regular intervals to ensure accurate navigation. Making azimuth checks every 15 minutes allows for frequent updates on the direction of the star and helps in maintaining a consistent course. This interval strikes a balance between getting timely information and not checking too frequently, which could be unnecessary and time-consuming. By checking every 15 minutes, navigators can make necessary adjustments to their course and ensure they are on track to their destination.

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95. Which copy of the DD Form 1408 is used by SF to record pertinent information?

Explanation

The Yellow copy of the DD Form 1408 is used by SF (Security Forces) to record pertinent information. This suggests that SF personnel use this specific copy of the form to document and report relevant information related to their duties and responsibilities.

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96. How do you estimate the elevation of the bottom of a depression?

Explanation

To estimate the elevation of the bottom of a depression, you need to subtract one-half the contour interval. Contour intervals represent the difference in elevation between contour lines on a topographic map. By subtracting one-half of the contour interval, you are essentially estimating the elevation halfway between two contour lines. This method helps in approximating the elevation of the bottom of a depression, which is the lowest point within the depression.

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97. How many accessories does the GRC 238 come with?

Explanation

The GRC 238 comes with 18 accessories.

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98. When programming frequencies which option do you use to select the receiver transmitter channel?

Explanation

In programming frequencies, the option to select the receiver transmitter channel is the "Program channel" option. This option allows the user to choose and set the desired channel for communication. The menu button is not specifically related to selecting the channel, and the radio channel option is not mentioned as a valid choice. Therefore, the correct answer is c. The Program channel option.

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99. Denying exploitation of open source information is the primary focus of OPSEC…

Explanation

The primary focus of OPSEC (Operations Security) is to deny the exploitation of open source information. This means that the main objective is to prevent unauthorized individuals or entities from gathering and using information that is publicly available. By carefully analyzing and assessing the potential risks and vulnerabilities associated with open source information, OPSEC aims to protect sensitive data and maintain the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information. Therefore, the correct answer is Analysis.

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100. How deep will field wire be buried in loose or sandy soil?

Explanation

In loose or sandy soil, field wire should be buried 3 feet deep. This depth ensures that the wire is securely placed and protected from external factors such as erosion, weather conditions, and potential damage. By burying it at this depth, the wire is less likely to be exposed or disrupted, maintaining its functionality and longevity.

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When burying the mini magnetic sensor (MMS), how deep must you bury...
Define a Hostile Force.
Which principle is the key to defeating enemy incursions against our...
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What term defines a six-digit grid coordinate?
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How often during southward star navigation do you make azimuth checks?
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How deep will field wire be buried in loose or sandy soil?
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