3P051 - Hard - Test B

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Upon contact with the solicitor, you receive proper identification from the solicitor and when asked to depart the base, the solicitor leaves.  What subject action level is it?

    • Verbal controls
    • Neuromuscular controls
    • Baton as a leverage device
    • Military working dog (off leash)
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3P051 - Hard - Test B - Quiz
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  • 2. 

    What is a way you can identify stressors on the job?

    • Be noisy and stay in every ones business.

    • Talk to experienced SF members.

    • Get stressed out.

    • Let it come to you.

    Correct Answer
    A. Talk to experienced SF members.
    Explanation
    Talking to experienced SF members is a way to identify stressors on the job because they have likely faced similar challenges and can provide valuable insights and advice. They can share their own experiences and give guidance on how to manage and cope with stressors. By engaging in conversations with them, one can gain a better understanding of the potential stressors in the job and learn effective strategies to handle them.

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  • 3. 

    Where should the Claymore firing position be located?

    • BDOC and open position

    • Foxhole or covered position

    • Command center

    • Control center

    Correct Answer
    A. Foxhole or covered position
    Explanation
    The Claymore firing position should be located in a foxhole or covered position. This is because these locations provide protection and concealment for the Claymore operator, allowing them to remain hidden while effectively engaging the enemy. Being in a foxhole or covered position also helps to minimize the risk of being detected or targeted by the enemy, increasing the overall effectiveness and safety of the Claymore operation.

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  • 4. 

    Before releasing a military working dog to search buildings, the handler must?

    • Give a verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog.

    • Loudly announce their intentions to order the dog to bite.

    • Place the military working dog on a long leash.

    • Have the dog bark three times.

    Correct Answer
    A. Give a verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog.
    Explanation
    Before releasing a military working dog to search buildings, the handler must give a verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog. This is important for the safety of everyone involved, including the dog, as it allows individuals within the building to be aware that a potentially dangerous dog is being released. The verbal warning serves as a precautionary measure to prevent any unexpected or unintentional confrontations or injuries. It also gives people inside the building an opportunity to comply with any instructions provided by the handler to avoid any unnecessary harm.

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  • 5. 

    SF members must possess what skill level prior to entering the MWD handler apprentice course?

    • 5-skill level (Journeyman)

    • 7-skill level (Craftsman)

    • 9-skill level (Superintendent)

    • One is not required

    Correct Answer
    A. 5-skill level (Journeyman)
    Explanation
    Prior to entering the MWD handler apprentice course, SF members must possess a 5-skill level (Journeyman) skill level. This indicates that they have achieved a certain level of expertise and experience in their field.

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  • 6. 

    As a security forces member, you testify under oath, “I saw the car driven by SMSgt. Rhodia Perry weaving back and forth across the road.”  This is an example of?

    • Real evidence

    • Direct evidence

    • Testimonial evidence

    • Documentary evidence

    Correct Answer
    A. Testimonial evidence
    Explanation
    The given statement describes a testimony given by a security forces member, indicating that they personally witnessed the car being driven in a specific manner by SMSgt. Rhodia Perry. This type of evidence is considered testimonial evidence because it is a statement made by a witness under oath, providing firsthand information about the event in question.

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  • 7. 

    What does the term OCOKA stand for?

    • Observation/fields of fire, cover and concealment, obstacles, key terrain, avenues of approach.

    • Observation of fire, cover and concealment, obstacles, key avenues of approach.

    • Observation/fields of fire, cover obstacles, key terrain avenues and approach.

    • Observe cover and concealment, obstacles, key terrain, avenues of approach.

    Correct Answer
    A. Observation/fields of fire, cover and concealment, obstacles, key terrain, avenues of approach.
    Explanation
    OCOKA stands for Observation/fields of fire, cover and concealment, obstacles, key terrain, avenues of approach. This acronym is commonly used in military tactics to help assess and analyze the battlefield. Observation/fields of fire refers to identifying areas with good visibility and firing positions. Cover and concealment involves finding protection from enemy fire and remaining hidden. Obstacles are physical barriers that can impede movement. Key terrain refers to significant features such as hills or buildings that can provide advantages or disadvantages. Avenues of approach are the routes that can be used to reach the objective.

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  • 8. 

    How do MWDs impact crime?

    • They are a deterrent to crime

    • They are very smart

    • They catch every single bad guy

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. They are a deterrent to crime
    Explanation
    MWDs, or Military Working Dogs, can have a significant impact on crime as they serve as a deterrent. The presence of these highly trained and skilled dogs can discourage criminals from engaging in illegal activities, as they are aware of the dog's abilities to detect and apprehend suspects. MWDs are known for their intelligence and obedience, which further enhances their effectiveness in preventing crime. However, it is important to note that while MWDs are valuable assets in law enforcement, they cannot catch every single bad guy, as their success depends on various factors such as training, environment, and the specific situation.

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  • 9. 

    Adhering to what form(s) of guidance ensures mission accomplishment?

    • Code of Conduct only

    • SF General Orders only

    • Code of Conduct and SF General Orders

    • Performance Fitness Examination

    Correct Answer
    A. Code of Conduct and SF General Orders
    Explanation
    Adhering to the Code of Conduct and SF General Orders ensures mission accomplishment. The Code of Conduct provides guidelines for the behavior and actions of military personnel, emphasizing principles such as loyalty, duty, and integrity. SF General Orders, on the other hand, outline specific rules and regulations that must be followed in order to maintain discipline and order within the military organization. By adhering to both the Code of Conduct and SF General Orders, individuals can ensure that their actions are in line with the mission's objectives and contribute to its successful completion.

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  • 10. 

    What would you do if a violator stop in an area that you do not like or is unsafe?

    • Move your vehicle in front of the violator’s and tell the violator to follow you.

    • Use your public address system to instruct the violator where to go.

    • Signal the violator with you emergency lights and siren to move.

    • Signal the driver using your hand and arm signals to follow you.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use your public address system to instruct the violator where to go.
  • 11. 

    When contacting the violator during a traffic stop,  an exigent circumstance would be speeding to?

    • Get your mother to work.

    • Get your daughter to school.

    • Get your pregnant wife to the hospital.

    • See if your new car will actually do 100 mph.

    Correct Answer
    A. Get your pregnant wife to the hospital.
    Explanation
    Exigent circumstances refer to situations where immediate action is necessary to prevent harm or danger. In this case, getting the pregnant wife to the hospital would be considered an exigent circumstance because it involves the potential risk to the health and well-being of both the mother and the unborn child. It is crucial to prioritize their safety and ensure they receive medical attention as quickly as possible.

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  • 12. 

    As a POW what information are you required to give when questioned?

    • Anything that will keep you alive.

    • Your name, rank, service number, and date of birth.

    • Your name and date of birth only.

    • No information is allowed to be given when questioned.

    Correct Answer
    A. Your name, rank, service number, and date of birth.
    Explanation
    As a prisoner of war (POW), you are required to provide certain information when questioned. This includes your name, rank, service number, and date of birth. This information is necessary for identification purposes and to ensure proper treatment and adherence to international laws regarding the treatment of prisoners of war.

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  • 13. 

    What is the most common method of employing the AN/PVS 14 night vision goggle?

    • Facemask centered on forehead

    • Hand-held and level

    • Shoulder level

    • Infrared mode

    Correct Answer
    A. Facemask centered on forehead
    Explanation
    The most common method of employing the AN/PVS 14 night vision goggle is by wearing a facemask centered on the forehead. This allows for hands-free operation and ensures that the goggle is properly positioned for optimal visibility in low-light conditions.

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  • 14. 

    Which is an example of a protection level 1 resource?

    • Non-nuclear alert forces

    • C4 systems of active nuclear missions

    • Selected C3 facilities, systems, and equipment

    • Fuels and Liquid Oxygen storage areas

    Correct Answer
    A. C4 systems of active nuclear missions
    Explanation
    C4 systems of active nuclear missions are an example of a protection level 1 resource because they are critical to the success of active nuclear missions. These systems are responsible for command, control, communications, and computer operations in nuclear missions, making them highly sensitive and requiring the highest level of protection.

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  • 15. 

    What are the characteristics of the M203 grenade launcher?

    • The M203 grenade launcher is a heavyweight, double-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (no sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M-9 pistol with the RAS.

    • The M203 grenade launcher is a lightweight, single-shot, non breech-loaded, double pump action (sliding barrel), hip-fired weapon that is attached to the M-249 machine gun with the RAS.

    • The M203 grenade launcher is a lightweight, single-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M16 and M4 carbine rifle series with the RAS.

    • The M203 grenade launcher is a heavy weight, double-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (no sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M240B machine gun with the RAS.

    Correct Answer
    A. The M203 grenade launcher is a lightweight, single-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to the M16 and M4 carbine rifle series with the RAS.
    Explanation
    The correct answer describes the characteristics of the M203 grenade launcher accurately. It states that the M203 is a lightweight weapon that is single-shot and breech-loaded. It also mentions that it has a pump action with a sliding barrel. Additionally, it specifies that the M203 is attached to the M16 and M4 carbine rifle series with the RAS. This answer aligns with the given information about the M203 grenade launcher.

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  • 16. 

    The term “every airman is a sensor…contributing to overall base defense” is the concept of?

    • Principles of War

    • Rules of Engagement

    • Integrated Base Defense

    • Defense Force Doctrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrated Base Defense
    Explanation
    The concept of "every airman is a sensor...contributing to overall base defense" aligns with Integrated Base Defense. This concept emphasizes the idea that every individual within an air base has a role to play in the overall defense of the base. It recognizes that each person can contribute valuable information and situational awareness, making them an important "sensor" in the defense network. Integrated Base Defense focuses on the collaboration and coordination of all personnel and resources to enhance the security and protection of the base.

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  • 17. 

    What are the requirements to attend Airman Leadership School?

    • You must be a SrA with college background

    • Must be an SSgt select or SrA with 48 months of total active federal military services.

    • Must be an SSgt select or SrA with 24 months of total active federal military services.

    • You must have 5 on all your EPRs, and selected by the commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Must be an SSgt select or SrA with 48 months of total active federal military services.
    Explanation
    The requirements to attend Airman Leadership School are being an SSgt select or SrA with 48 months of total active federal military services. This means that individuals who have achieved the rank of Staff Sergeant (SSgt) or Senior Airman (SrA) and have completed 48 months of active federal military service are eligible to attend the school. The other options, such as having a college background or having 24 months of total active federal military services, are not mentioned as requirements for attending Airman Leadership School.

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  • 18. 

    Martial law is military jurisdiction over the civilian population…

    • When directed by the Joint Chiefs of Staff.

    • During government elections.

    • When declared by state governors.

    • In time of emergency.

    Correct Answer
    A. In time of emergency.
    Explanation
    Martial law is a form of military control that is imposed over the civilian population in times of emergency. During such situations, the regular law enforcement agencies may be unable to maintain order and security, hence the military takes over to restore stability. This allows the military to enforce its own set of laws and regulations to ensure public safety and protect vital interests. Martial law can be declared by state governors or national authorities, such as the Joint Chiefs of Staff, depending on the specific circumstances.

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  • 19. 

    What are the six basic questions that need to answered on an AF Form 1168?

    • Who, what, when, where, why and how.

    • The, There, Their, You, Him, and Her.

    • Who, what, When, where, why and Time.

    • Time, Place, What, Where, why, and How.

    Correct Answer
    A. Who, what, when, where, why and how.
    Explanation
    The six basic questions that need to be answered on an AF Form 1168 are who, what, when, where, why, and how. These questions help provide a comprehensive understanding of the situation or incident being reported. "Who" identifies the individuals involved, "what" describes the event or action, "when" specifies the date and time, "where" indicates the location, "why" explains the motive or reason, and "how" outlines the process or method. By addressing these questions, the form can gather all the necessary details for accurate documentation and analysis.

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  • 20. 

    SF squadrons are organized based on what?

    • Chief of Security Forces

    • Defense Force Commander

    • Mission requirements

    • Force Protection

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission requirements
    Explanation
    SF squadrons are organized based on mission requirements. This means that the structure and composition of the squadrons are determined by the specific tasks and objectives they need to accomplish. This allows for flexibility and adaptability, as different missions may require different skill sets, equipment, and personnel. By organizing based on mission requirements, SF squadrons can effectively plan and execute their operations, ensuring that they have the right resources and capabilities to successfully complete their assigned tasks.

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  • 21. 

    What is the most important part of the compass to check during inspection?

    • The lens

    • The body of the compass

    • The cover

    • The floating dial

    Correct Answer
    A. The floating dial
    Explanation
    The floating dial is the most important part of the compass to check during inspection because it is responsible for indicating the direction. It is designed to rotate freely and align with the Earth's magnetic field, allowing the user to accurately determine their heading. If the floating dial is not functioning properly or is misaligned, the compass will not provide accurate readings. Therefore, checking the condition and alignment of the floating dial is crucial to ensure the compass is in proper working order.

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  • 22. 

    What are the characteristics of the M240B machine gun?

    • The M240B is a general-purpose machine gun. It can be mounted on a bipod, tripod, aircraft, or vehicle. The M240B is a belt-fed, air-cooled, gas-operated, fully automatic machine gun that fires from the open bolt position.

    • The M240B is a 5.56-mm, magazine-fed, gas-operated, shoulder-fired weapon. It is designed to fire either semiautomatic or a three-round burst through the use of a selector lever (SAFE, SEMI, and BURST).

    • The M240B is a semiautomatic, magazine-fed, recoil operated, double-action pistol, which is chambered for the 9mm NATO cartridge. The M9 weighs 31 ounces unloaded and 41 ounces loaded with a 15-round magazine.

    • The M240B is a light-weight, air-cooled, belt-and magazine-fed, automatic weapon that fires from the close-bolt position.

    Correct Answer
    A. The M240B is a general-purpose machine gun. It can be mounted on a bipod, tripod, aircraft, or vehicle. The M240B is a belt-fed, air-cooled, gas-operated, fully automatic machine gun that fires from the open bolt position.
    Explanation
    The given answer accurately describes the characteristics of the M240B machine gun. It mentions that it is a general-purpose machine gun that can be mounted on various platforms such as bipods, tripods, aircraft, or vehicles. It also states that the M240B is belt-fed, air-cooled, gas-operated, and fully automatic, firing from the open bolt position. This information provides a comprehensive overview of the key features and capabilities of the M240B machine gun.

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  • 23. 

    The Vietnam Conflict pointed out the need for?

    • A. Armored vehicles in support of base defense.

    • B. Additional security personnel.

    • C. Less military working dogs.

    • D. Revised security thinking.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Revised security thinking.
    Explanation
    The Vietnam Conflict highlighted the importance of revising security thinking. The nature of the conflict, with its guerrilla warfare tactics and unconventional strategies, showed that traditional methods of security were ineffective. This led to a reevaluation of military strategies and the development of new approaches to security.

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  • 24. 

    How many range cards are prepared for each position?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Two
    Explanation
    The correct answer is two because each position requires two range cards to be prepared. This suggests that there are two different ranges that need to be accounted for in each position.

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  • 25. 

    How many meters is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?

    • 600

    • 800

    • 1,100

    • 1,800

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,800
    Explanation
    The maximum range for the M9 pistol is 1,800 meters. This means that the pistol is capable of accurately firing a projectile up to a distance of 1,800 meters. This range allows for effective engagement of targets at medium to long distances, making the M9 pistol a versatile weapon in various combat scenarios.

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  • 26. 

    Why should the Chief, Security Forces (CSF) consider purchasing the same brand and model of equipment used by your civilian counterparts?

    • So military personnel are certified by the state.

    • To ensure that you understand how the local and state law enforcement police operate.

    • To boost morale and get rid of outdated and antiquated hand-held speed measuring devices.

    • So your qualifications are reliable by both military and civil authorities to prosecute offenders.

    Correct Answer
    A. So your qualifications are reliable by both military and civil authorities to prosecute offenders.
    Explanation
    By purchasing the same brand and model of equipment used by civilian counterparts, the Chief, Security Forces (CSF) can ensure that their qualifications are reliable by both military and civil authorities to prosecute offenders. This means that the CSF personnel will have the necessary expertise and knowledge to effectively carry out their duties, as they are familiar with the equipment and procedures used by local and state law enforcement agencies. Additionally, using the same equipment can boost morale among the CSF personnel and eliminate the use of outdated and antiquated devices, ensuring that they are equipped with the most up-to-date tools for their work.

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  • 27. 

    When was the first trial issue shield approved?

    • 1943

    • 1945

    • 1950

    • 1957

    Correct Answer
    A. 1957
    Explanation
    The first trial issue shield was approved in 1957.

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  • 28. 

    On what does a patrol leader base the tentative patrol plan?

    • Good terrain analysis

    • Bad terrain analysis

    • The floating dial on the compass

    • The weather

    Correct Answer
    A. Good terrain analysis
    Explanation
    A patrol leader bases the tentative patrol plan on good terrain analysis. This means that they consider the terrain features, such as hills, rivers, and vegetation, to determine the best route for the patrol. By analyzing the terrain, the patrol leader can identify potential obstacles, assess the level of difficulty, and plan the most efficient and safe path for the patrol. This helps ensure that the patrol can navigate the terrain effectively and accomplish their objectives.

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  • 29. 

    How is the Claymore employed when used as part of the base defense obstacle plan?

    • A. Reduce the enemy’s mobility only.

    • B. Stop, delay, and disrupt enemy attacks.

    • C. Direct the enemy formations for counterattack.

    • D. Channel forces for reengagement at later time.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Stop, delay, and disrupt enemy attacks.
    Explanation
    The Claymore is employed as part of the base defense obstacle plan to stop, delay, and disrupt enemy attacks. This means that it is used to hinder the progress of the enemy and create obstacles that they must overcome, giving the defending forces more time to react and respond to the attack. By using the Claymore in this way, the defending forces can gain an advantage and potentially prevent or minimize damage to the base.

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  • 30. 

    Describe the MK19?

    • Is an air-cooled, blowback-operated weapon, with five major assemblies. It uses ammunition that is belt-fed through the left side of the weapon by a disintegrating metallic link belt. The weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing. It has a blade-type front sight attached to the top cover assembly.

    • Is a light weight, air-cooled gas operated weapon, with 2 major parts. It uses ammunition that is magazine fed through the right side of the weapon by a metallic magazine. The features a barrel that overheats, every 200 rounds, even after prolonged firing.

    • Is a light-weight, air-cooled, belt-and magazine-fed, automatic weapon that fires from the close-bolt position.

    • Is a semiautomatic, magazine-fed, recoil operated, double-action pistol, which is chambered for the 9mm NATO cartridge.

    Correct Answer
    A. Is an air-cooled, blowback-operated weapon, with five major assemblies. It uses ammunition that is belt-fed through the left side of the weapon by a disintegrating metallic link belt. The weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing. It has a blade-type front sight attached to the top cover assembly.
    Explanation
    The MK19 is described as an air-cooled, blowback-operated weapon with five major assemblies. It utilizes a disintegrating metallic link belt to feed ammunition through the left side of the weapon. One notable feature is its barrel, which does not overheat even after prolonged firing. Additionally, it is equipped with a blade-type front sight attached to the top cover assembly.

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  • 31. 

    The MK19 has little effect on which type of targets?

    • Unarmored

    • Lightly armored

    • Main battle tanks

    • Armored personnel carriers

    Correct Answer
    A. Main battle tanks
    Explanation
    The MK19 has little effect on main battle tanks because it is not designed to penetrate heavily armored vehicles. The MK19 is a 40mm grenade launcher that is primarily used against unarmored or lightly armored targets, such as personnel and light vehicles. Main battle tanks are heavily armored and require more powerful weaponry to be effectively engaged. Therefore, the MK19 would have limited impact on main battle tanks.

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  • 32. 

    What general conduct guideline would you violate if you consumed alcohol within 8 hours prior to duty?

    • Attention to duty

    • Personal Appearance

    • Off-Duty Conduct

    • Dealing with Intoxicated Persons

    Correct Answer
    A. Attention to duty
    Explanation
    If you consumed alcohol within 8 hours prior to duty, you would violate the general conduct guideline of Attention to duty. This is because alcohol consumption can impair your ability to focus, concentrate, and perform your duties effectively. It can affect your alertness, decision-making skills, and overall performance, which is crucial in maintaining attention to duty.

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  • 33. 

    The GRC 238 what radio part is critical to its operation?

    • The Antenna

    • Palm Handset

    • Pit Switch

    • Battery Latch

    Correct Answer
    A. The Antenna
    Explanation
    The antenna is critical to the operation of the GRC 238 radio. The antenna is responsible for receiving and transmitting radio signals, allowing the radio to communicate with other devices. Without a functioning antenna, the radio would not be able to send or receive signals effectively, rendering it useless for communication purposes. Therefore, the antenna is a crucial component for the proper functioning of the GRC 238 radio.

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  • 34. 

    “Probable Cause” searches are covered under what legal manual?

    • MCM Rule 315

    • MCC Rule 315

    • MNM Rule 312

    • MRE Rule 314

    Correct Answer
    A. MCM Rule 315
  • 35. 

    During terrorist objectives and tactics, who is the lead agency for incidents occurring outside the US?

    • Department of Justice

    • Department of State

    • Department of Terrorist

    • Department of Concept

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of State
    Explanation
    The Department of State is the lead agency for incidents occurring outside the US during terrorist objectives and tactics. This is because the Department of State is responsible for the overall foreign policy of the United States, including the coordination of counterterrorism efforts and maintaining relationships with foreign governments to address and respond to terrorist incidents that occur outside the country. The Department of Justice, on the other hand, primarily focuses on domestic law enforcement and prosecution of criminal activities within the US. The Department of Terrorist and Department of Concept are not actual departments and do not exist.

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  • 36. 

    How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?

    • 5

    • 7

    • 10

    • 15

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    The kill radius for hand grenades is typically around 5 meters. This means that within a 5-meter radius of the explosion, there is a high likelihood of causing fatal injuries to anyone in that area. Hand grenades are designed to be highly destructive and have a significant impact on their surroundings, making them effective weapons in combat situations.

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  • 37. 

    What is the most accurate of all chemical tests?

    • Alco-sensor

    • Breathalyzer

    • Urine Tests

    • Blood Tests

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood Tests
    Explanation
    Blood tests are considered the most accurate of all chemical tests because they directly measure the presence and concentration of substances in the bloodstream. Unlike urine tests or breathalyzers, which can be influenced by various factors such as hydration levels or recent food or drink intake, blood tests provide a more precise and reliable analysis. They are commonly used to detect and diagnose a wide range of medical conditions, monitor organ function, assess drug levels, and determine blood alcohol levels with high accuracy.

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  • 38. 

    What is the most common round used in the M870?

    • 15 gauge, “05” buck shot

    • 10 gauge, “02” buck shot

    • 12 gauge, “01” buck shot

    • 12 gauge, “00” buck shot

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 gauge, “00” buck shot
    Explanation
    The most common round used in the M870 is the 12 gauge, "00" buck shot. This round is widely used in shotguns for its effectiveness in close-range self-defense and hunting. The term "12 gauge" refers to the diameter of the shotgun barrel, and "00" buck shot refers to the size of the individual pellets in the round. The M870 is a popular pump-action shotgun that is commonly used by law enforcement and military personnel, as well as for civilian purposes such as home defense and sport shooting.

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  • 39. 

    What is the maximum range of the M2?

    • 5,764 meters

    • 6,764 meters

    • 3,764 yards

    • 6,764 yards

    Correct Answer
    A. 6,764 meters
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 6,764 meters. This is the maximum range of the M2, which is a type of firearm. The M2 is capable of firing projectiles up to a distance of 6,764 meters.

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  • 40. 

    Where do you position your vehicle in relation to the violator’s vehicle during a traffic stop.

    • Two vehicle lengths behind and three feet to the left.

    • Two vehicle lengths behind and two feet to the left.

    • Three vehicle length behind and three feet to the left.

    • Three vehicle length behind and two feet to the left.

    Correct Answer
    A. Two vehicle lengths behind and three feet to the left.
    Explanation
    During a traffic stop, it is important to position your vehicle in a way that ensures both your safety and the safety of the violator. Placing your vehicle two vehicle lengths behind the violator's vehicle allows for a safe distance in case the violator tries to flee or makes any sudden movements. Positioning your vehicle three feet to the left provides a buffer space between the two vehicles, reducing the risk of a collision and allowing for a clear path for communication and interaction with the violator.

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  • 41. 

    The MK19 is capable of producing controlled and accurate fire for?

    • Point and area targets

    • Mounted targets

    • Fixed targets

    • Static targets

    Correct Answer
    A. Point and area targets
    Explanation
    The MK19 is capable of producing controlled and accurate fire for point and area targets. This means that it can effectively engage and hit specific points or areas on a target, providing precise and targeted firepower. This capability makes the MK19 suitable for engaging enemy personnel or equipment in a specific location, increasing the chances of neutralizing the threat effectively.

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  • 42. 

    Which breath instrument uses chemicals to test blood alcohol content?

    • Intoxilyzer

    • Alco-sensor

    • Breathalyzer

    • Breathometer

    Correct Answer
    A. Breathalyzer
    Explanation
    A breathalyzer is a breath instrument that uses chemicals to test blood alcohol content. It works by measuring the amount of alcohol in a person's breath, which is then used to estimate their blood alcohol concentration. The device contains a sensor that reacts with alcohol molecules in the breath, producing a chemical reaction that can be measured and used to determine the level of alcohol in the bloodstream. This makes the breathalyzer a commonly used tool by law enforcement officers to quickly and non-invasively test for alcohol impairment.

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  • 43. 

    How many copies of the DD Form 2708 are prepared?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    Two copies of the DD Form 2708 are prepared. This is likely because one copy is kept for record-keeping purposes, while the other copy is provided to the individual or organization that requested the form. Having two copies ensures that both parties have a record of the form and can refer to it as needed.

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  • 44. 

    In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M 240B for a point target with tripod?

    • 400

    • 800

    • 1,100

    • 1,800

    Correct Answer
    A. 800
    Explanation
    The maximum effective range of the M 240B for a point target with tripod is 800 meters. This means that the weapon is capable of accurately engaging and hitting a specific target at a distance of up to 800 meters when used with a tripod.

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  • 45. 

    What community policing philosophy helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood?

    • A zero tolerance approach to handling crime.

    • The police getting involved with local youth programs.

    • The police handling random calls to solve community problems.

    • Develop community relationships that allow the community a greater voice in setting police priorities.

    Correct Answer
    A. Develop community relationships that allow the community a greater voice in setting police priorities.
    Explanation
    Developing community relationships that allow the community a greater voice in setting police priorities helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood. This approach promotes collaboration and cooperation between the police and the community, fostering trust and mutual understanding. By involving the community in decision-making processes, the police can address the specific needs and concerns of the neighborhood, leading to more effective and targeted solutions. This philosophy empowers the community to actively participate in shaping their own safety and security, ultimately creating a safer and more harmonious environment for everyone.

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  • 46. 

    Which UCMJ article gives you the authority to apprehend military offenders?

    • Article 1

    • Article 5

    • Article 7b

    • Article 134

    Correct Answer
    A. Article 7b
    Explanation
    Article 7b of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) gives military personnel the authority to apprehend military offenders. This article specifically authorizes military law enforcement personnel, such as military police, to apprehend individuals who have committed offenses under the UCMJ. It outlines the procedures and guidelines for apprehension, including the use of force if necessary. This article empowers military personnel to maintain discipline and ensure the safety and security of military installations and personnel.

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  • 47. 

    How many personnel are required to erect the assembled antenna mast?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 5

    • 6

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    Only 2 personnel are required to erect the assembled antenna mast. This suggests that the task does not require a large team or multiple individuals. The use of the word "personnel" implies that the individuals involved are trained and experienced in erecting antenna masts.

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  • 48. 

    Which copy of the DD Form 1408 goes to the violator?

    • The White Copy

    • The Black Copy

    • The Pink Copy

    • The Yellow Copy

    Correct Answer
    A. The Pink Copy
    Explanation
    The Pink Copy of the DD Form 1408 goes to the violator. This form is used for issuing traffic citations and is typically given to the individual who has committed the violation.

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  • 49. 

    What career fields were combined in 1997 to form the “Security Forces” 3POX1 AFSC?

    • Security Specialist, Law Enforcement Specialist to include Military Working Dog Handler, Combat Arms Training and Maintenance, or CATM.

    • Maintenance and Supply Training, Military Police, Military Working Dog Handler, and CATM

    • Security Specialist, Law Enforcement Specialist to include Military Working Dog Handler, and CATM

    • Security Specialist, Law Enforcement Specialist to include Military Working Dog Handler, and Maintenance and Supply Training.

    Correct Answer
    A. Security Specialist, Law Enforcement Specialist to include Military Working Dog Handler, Combat Arms Training and Maintenance, or CATM.
    Explanation
    In 1997, the career fields of Security Specialist, Law Enforcement Specialist, Military Working Dog Handler, and Combat Arms Training and Maintenance (CATM) were combined to form the “Security Forces” 3POX1 AFSC.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 03, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Aircaraballo
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