3P051 – Intermediate – Test B

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  • 1/93 Questions

    SF members must possess what skill level prior to entering the MWD handler apprentice course?

    • 5-skill level (journeyman)
    • 7-skill level (craftsman)
    • 9-skill level (superintendent)
    • One is not required
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  • 2. 

    Punching, kicking, beating, stabbing, are examples of…

    • Sexual battering

    • Physical battering

    • Psychological battering

    • Emotional maltreatment

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical battering
    Explanation
    The given examples of punching, kicking, beating, and stabbing all involve physical violence and harm inflicted upon someone. Therefore, the correct answer is physical battering, which refers to the act of physically assaulting or abusing someone through acts of violence.

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  • 3. 

    The acronym SPORTS stands for…

    • Slap, push, open, recall, tap and squeeze.

    • Smooth, pull, open, recoil, tap by squeezing.

    • Slap, pull, observe, release, tap and squeeze.

    • Slap push observe, release, tab and squeeze.

    Correct Answer
    A. Slap, pull, observe, release, tap and squeeze.
    Explanation
    The acronym SPORTS stands for Slap, pull, observe, release, tap and squeeze. This is the correct answer because it accurately represents the actions or movements associated with the acronym SPORTS. Each word in the acronym corresponds to a specific action, starting with a slap, followed by pulling, observing, releasing, tapping, and finally squeezing.

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  • 4. 

    Who does the UCMJ apply to?

    • Only officers

    • Only airman E-4 and below

    • All members of the armed forces

    • All members with club membership

    Correct Answer
    A. All members of the armed forces
    Explanation
    The UCMJ, or Uniform Code of Military Justice, applies to all members of the armed forces. This includes officers, enlisted personnel, and all branches of the military. The UCMJ is a set of laws that govern the conduct and behavior of military personnel, and it ensures discipline and order within the armed forces. It is applicable to all members regardless of rank or position. Therefore, the correct answer is "All members of the armed forces."

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  • 5. 

    The greatest advantage MWD teams provide to security forces is?

    • They will die before us.

    • They are faster than us.

    • Their superior ability to detect individuals, particularly during periods of limited visibility.

    • Their superior loyalty to work for us, and have abilities that humans don’t.

    Correct Answer
    A. Their superior ability to detect individuals, particularly during periods of limited visibility.
    Explanation
    MWD teams provide a great advantage to security forces due to their superior ability to detect individuals, especially in situations where visibility is limited. This means that they can help identify potential threats or locate individuals who may be hiding or trying to evade capture. This ability enhances the overall effectiveness and efficiency of security operations, as it allows for quicker and more accurate detection of individuals, ultimately ensuring the safety and security of the forces.

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  • 6. 

    Of what does a precautionary check consist?

    • Verbal communication with the suspect. Ask if the suspect has any sharp objects (needles, razor blades, or knives).

    • Verbal threats to the suspect, Grabbing searching for sharp objects (needles, razor blades, or knives).

    • Before cuffing, letting the suspect, empty everything out of his pockets.

    • None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. Verbal communication with the suspect. Ask if the suspect has any sharp objects (needles, razor blades, or knives).
    Explanation
    A precautionary check consists of verbally communicating with the suspect and asking if they have any sharp objects such as needles, razor blades, or knives. This helps ensure the safety of both the suspect and the person conducting the check by identifying potential weapons that could cause harm. It is important to establish open communication and gather information about any potential threats before proceeding with further actions.

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  • 7. 

    The front and rear sights for the M9 pistol are _______.

    • Fixed

    • Elevated

    • Calibrated

    • Adjustable

    Correct Answer
    A. Fixed
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Fixed." The front and rear sights for the M9 pistol are fixed, meaning they are not adjustable. This means that the sights are permanently set in place and cannot be moved or changed.

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  • 8. 

    True/False:  US Air Force Integrated Base Defense (IBD) is the integrated application of offensive and defensive action, both active and passive, taken across the ground dimension of the force protection (FP) battle space to achieve local and area dominance in support of force protection.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The given statement is true. US Air Force Integrated Base Defense (IBD) refers to the integrated application of offensive and defensive action, both active and passive, taken across the ground dimension of the force protection (FP) battle space to achieve local and area dominance in support of force protection. This means that IBD involves a comprehensive approach to defending military bases, combining various offensive and defensive measures to ensure the safety and security of the force and its assets.

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  • 9. 

    When should you give your opinion during court proceedings?

    • During pretrial preparation.

    • When answering prosecution questions.

    • Only if asked to do so by the prosecution or defense.

    • Always present your professional opinion as fact.

    Correct Answer
    A. Only if asked to do so by the prosecution or defense.
    Explanation
    During court proceedings, it is important to give your opinion only if asked to do so by the prosecution or defense. This ensures that your opinion is presented in a controlled and appropriate manner, and that it is relevant to the case at hand. Giving unsolicited opinions can be seen as unprofessional and may not be admissible as evidence. Therefore, it is crucial to wait for the prosecution or defense to specifically request your opinion before offering it during court proceedings.

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  • 10. 

    Under what conditions during a lawful stop can a frisk be conducted?

    • The person stopped appears to be in pain.

    • The person shoplifted a carton of cigarettes.

    • You reasonable believe the person is armed and dangerous.

    • You believe the person committed a hit and run traffic violation.

    Correct Answer
    A. You reasonable believe the person is armed and dangerous.
    Explanation
    A frisk can be conducted during a lawful stop if the officer has a reasonable belief that the person is armed and dangerous. This means that the officer must have a justifiable suspicion, based on specific facts and circumstances, that the individual may be carrying a weapon and pose a threat to the safety of the officer or others. The other conditions mentioned in the question, such as the person being in pain, shoplifting, or committing a hit and run, do not meet the criteria for a frisk to be conducted.

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  • 11. 

    DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, is issued to someone who…

    • Committed a moving violation.

    • Committed a non-moving traffic offense.

    • Has been involved in a vehicle accident.

    • Committed a moving or non-moving traffic offense.

    Correct Answer
    A. Committed a moving or non-moving traffic offense.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Committed a moving or non-moving traffic offense." This is because DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, can be issued for both moving and non-moving traffic offenses. It is a standardized form used by the military to document and process traffic violations.

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  • 12. 

    At least how many security forces members should be present when entry point checks are conducted?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Two
    Explanation
    When conducting entry point checks, it is necessary to have at least two security forces members present. This ensures that there is proper coordination and collaboration during the checks, allowing for a more thorough and effective assessment of the entry point. Having two members also provides a level of safety and support for each other in case any unexpected situations arise during the process.

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  • 13. 

    Proportionality of force to counter hostile acts must be...

    • Of reasonable intensity, duration and magnitude.

    • Of the maximum duration under rules of war.

    • Of the appropriate non-lethal means.

    • Used only in defense of foreign nationals.

    Correct Answer
    A. Of reasonable intensity, duration and magnitude.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Of reasonable intensity, duration and magnitude." This answer suggests that the force used to counter hostile acts should be proportionate and not excessive. It should be reasonable in terms of its intensity, duration, and magnitude. This means that the force used should be appropriate and necessary to address the hostile acts, without causing unnecessary harm or going beyond what is required to defend oneself or others.

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  • 14. 

    What type of search is ideal for multiple apprehensions?

    • Standing search

    • Kneeling search

    • Prone search

    • Standing and kneeling search

    Correct Answer
    A. Prone search
    Explanation
    Prone search is the ideal type of search for multiple apprehensions because it involves searching while lying face down on the ground. This position provides a lower profile and makes it easier to approach and apprehend multiple suspects without being easily detected. Additionally, being in a prone position allows for better stability and accuracy when using firearms, if necessary.

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  • 15. 

    When dealing with a violent disturbance, Security Forces (SF) members must immediately…

    • Search for weapons

    • Separate disputants

    • Seek medical attention

    • Put disputants in a room

    Correct Answer
    A. Separate disputants
    Explanation
    In a violent disturbance situation, it is important for Security Forces (SF) members to immediately separate disputants. This is because keeping the individuals involved in the disturbance apart can help prevent further escalation of violence and allow for a safer environment for everyone involved. By separating the disputants, SF members can also assess the situation more effectively and address any immediate threats or issues that may arise.

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  • 16. 

    What does acronym TRP stand for?

    • Team reconnaissance patrol

    • Total reference point

    • Traffic relief point

    • Target reference point

    Correct Answer
    A. Target reference point
    Explanation
    The acronym TRP stands for Target Reference Point. A target reference point is a specific location or point on a map that is used as a reference for targeting or directing military operations. It helps in providing accurate information about the location of targets or objectives during reconnaissance or combat missions.

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  • 17. 

    A written order by a competent military commander ordering a search is called a…

    • Consent search

    • Search warrant

    • Command authority

    • Search authorization

    Correct Answer
    A. Search authorization
    Explanation
    A written order by a competent military commander ordering a search is called a search authorization. This document grants the military personnel the legal authority to conduct a search and seize items or individuals as necessary. It ensures that the search is conducted within the boundaries of the law and with the proper authorization from a commanding officer.

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  • 18. 

    What do contour lines show you when you look at a map?

    • Relief and elevation on standard map.

    • Location in relation to the water.

    • Location anyplace on a map.

    • Location on a ridge.

    Correct Answer
    A. Relief and elevation on standard map.
    Explanation
    Contour lines on a map indicate relief and elevation. They represent the shape and steepness of the terrain, allowing the viewer to understand the height and shape of the landforms. By closely examining the contour lines, one can identify valleys, hills, mountains, and other topographical features. This information is crucial for activities such as hiking, urban planning, and understanding the natural landscape.

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  • 19. 

    If a witness is reluctant to talk because of the possible reprisals they are experiencing ____________.

    • Prejudice

    • Resentment

    • Inconvenience

    • Fear of involvement

    Correct Answer
    A. Fear of involvement
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Fear of involvement." When a witness is reluctant to talk because of possible reprisals they are experiencing, it suggests that they are afraid of getting involved in the situation. They may fear being targeted or facing negative consequences for speaking out, which leads to their reluctance to talk.

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  • 20. 

    One of the most important parts to inspect on the compass is the ________.

    • Cover

    • Bezel ring

    • Glass crystal

    • Floating dial

    Correct Answer
    A. Floating dial
    Explanation
    The floating dial is the correct answer because it is an important part to inspect on a compass. The floating dial is the part that indicates the direction and helps the user navigate. By checking the floating dial, one can ensure that it is functioning properly and accurately displaying the correct direction.

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  • 21. 

    Investigators will conduct pretrial preparation with…

    • The Chief, Security Forces

    • The staff judge advocate

    • Witnesses to the case

    • The victim and suspect

    Correct Answer
    A. The staff judge advocate
    Explanation
    The staff judge advocate is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance to the investigators during pretrial preparation. They have the expertise and knowledge of the legal system to ensure that the investigation is conducted in accordance with the law and any potential legal issues are addressed. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the investigation is thorough, fair, and legally sound.

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  • 22. 

    Failure to provide a child with the basic necessities of life is…

    • Abuse

    • Neglect

    • Abandonment

    • Domestic Violence

    Correct Answer
    A. Neglect
    Explanation
    Neglect refers to the failure to provide a child with the basic necessities of life. It involves the caregiver's inability or unwillingness to meet the child's physical, emotional, educational, and medical needs. Neglect can include inadequate supervision, lack of proper nutrition, clothing, shelter, healthcare, and emotional support. It can have severe and long-lasting effects on a child's development and well-being.

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  • 23. 

    The four step interview process includes preparing, planning closing and _________.

    • Conducting

    • Witnessing

    • Investigating

    • Interrogating

    Correct Answer
    A. Conducting
    Explanation
    The four step interview process includes preparing, planning, closing, and conducting. Conducting refers to the actual process of carrying out the interview, where the interviewer asks questions and gathers information from the interviewee. This step is crucial as it allows for the exchange of information and helps the interviewer assess the candidate's suitability for the position or gather necessary information for the investigation.

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  • 24. 

    Define cover.

    • Protection from enemy observation.

    • Protection from enemy weapons fire.

    • Putting a blanket so no one can see you.

    • Being something your not.

    Correct Answer
    A. Protection from enemy weapons fire.
    Explanation
    The term "cover" refers to protection from enemy weapons fire. It involves finding physical objects or structures that can shield individuals or military assets from being hit or damaged by enemy gunfire, artillery, or other types of weapons. This protection is crucial in combat situations to minimize casualties and maintain a tactical advantage.

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  • 25. 

    What exist when there is reason to believe that evidence sought is located in a specific place?

    • A. Plain view rule

    • B. Probable cause

    • C. Lawful searching

    • D. Exigent circumstances

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Probable cause
    Explanation
    Probable cause exists when there is reason to believe that evidence sought is located in a specific place. This means that there is enough evidence or information to support a reasonable belief that a crime has been committed and that the evidence can be found in the specified location. It is a standard that must be met by law enforcement before they can conduct a search or obtain a search warrant.

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  • 26. 

    Which sentence is an example of an active voice?

    • Sgt. Smith struck Amn Jones.

    • The report was written by Amn Smith.

    • Amn Jones was apprehended by Sgt. Smith.

    • The suspects were surrounded by security forces personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sgt. Smith struck Amn Jones.
    Explanation
    The sentence "Sgt. Smith struck Amn Jones" is an example of an active voice because the subject (Sgt. Smith) is performing the action (struck) on the object (Amn Jones). In an active voice sentence, the subject is the doer of the action, making the sentence more direct and clear.

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  • 27. 

    What are the types of interview approaches?

    • A. Indirect, alternating

    • B. Reverse, direct, indirect

    • C. Direct, indirect, reverse

    • D. Alternating, direct, indirect

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Alternating, direct, indirect
    Explanation
    The types of interview approaches are alternating, direct, and indirect. In an alternating approach, the interviewer switches between open-ended and closed-ended questions to gather information from the candidate. In a direct approach, the interviewer asks specific questions to assess the candidate's skills and qualifications. In an indirect approach, the interviewer uses more subtle and indirect questioning techniques to evaluate the candidate's behavior, personality, and problem-solving abilities.

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  • 28. 

    What type of ammunition, used in the M4 carbine, has no primer?

    • M193 Ball

    • M196 Tracer

    • M199 Dummy

    • M200 Black

    Correct Answer
    A. M199 Dummy
    Explanation
    The M199 Dummy ammunition is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to simulate the weight and dimensions of live ammunition, but it does not contain a primer. The lack of a primer means that the M199 Dummy cannot be fired and does not produce a projectile. It is commonly used for training purposes and in situations where live ammunition is not necessary, such as during weapon maintenance or handling drills.

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  • 29. 

    How many sectors of fire are included on a range card?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Two
    Explanation
    A range card typically includes two sectors of fire. This is because a range card is a graphical representation of the area surrounding a position, and it is used to record and communicate information about targets and firing positions. The two sectors of fire on a range card usually represent the left and right limits of fire for a specific position, allowing the user to easily identify the boundaries within which they can engage targets.

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  • 30. 

    What AFSC is awarded upon completion of the Combat Arms apprentice course?

    • 3P051

    • 3P051A

    • 3P051B

    • 3P071

    Correct Answer
    A. 3P051B
    Explanation
    Upon completion of the Combat Arms apprentice course, the AFSC (Air Force Specialty Code) awarded is 3P051B.

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  • 31. 

    What is physical injury or emotional disturbance, inflicted by means other than an accident called?

    • Abuse

    • Neglect

    • Abandonment

    • Domestic Violence

    Correct Answer
    A. Abuse
    Explanation
    Physical injury or emotional disturbance inflicted by means other than an accident is referred to as abuse. Abuse can take various forms such as physical, emotional, sexual, or neglectful, and it involves intentionally causing harm or distress to another person. It can occur in various settings, including domestic relationships, institutions, or even within communities.

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  • 32. 

    What is the function of the forward assist?

    • Lock the charging handle in place prior to immediate action procedures.

    • Lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedure.

    • Unlock the bolt and secure the charging handle.

    • Unlock bolt during remedial action procedures.

    Correct Answer
    A. Lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedure.
    Explanation
    The forward assist on a firearm is designed to lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedures. Immediate action procedures are used in situations where the firearm fails to fire or experiences a malfunction. By locking the bolt forward, the forward assist ensures that the firearm is ready to fire and allows the shooter to quickly address the issue and resume firing.

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  • 33. 

    The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the primary document that reflects?

    • AFSC

    • Members PRP status

    • Individual position number

    • Positions authorized to accomplish the mission

    Correct Answer
    A. Positions authorized to accomplish the mission
    Explanation
    The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the primary document that reflects the positions authorized to accomplish the mission. This document outlines the authorized positions within a unit and provides information on the number and type of positions required to carry out the unit's mission. It helps to ensure that the unit has the necessary manpower to effectively complete its tasks and responsibilities.

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  • 34. 

    When responding to a call, keep in mind that each situation is different so the best approach is for you to be…

    • Passive and subservient

    • Forceful and dominant

    • Calm and positive

    • Laid back

    Correct Answer
    A. Calm and positive
    Explanation
    In responding to a call, it is important to remember that each situation is unique and may require different actions. Being calm and positive allows for a level-headed approach, helping to diffuse tense situations and provide reassurance to those involved. This approach promotes effective communication and problem-solving, enabling the responder to better assess the needs of the situation and provide appropriate assistance.

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  • 35. 

     What are the Rules of Engagement elements of self-defense?

    • Necessity and authority.

    • Immediacy and controlled.

    • Proportionality and necessity.

    • Proportionality and immediacy.

    Correct Answer
    A. Proportionality and necessity.
    Explanation
    The Rules of Engagement elements of self-defense include proportionality and necessity. Proportionality means that the force used in self-defense should be reasonable and not excessive, based on the threat faced. Necessity refers to the requirement that the use of force is necessary to protect oneself or others from imminent harm. These two elements ensure that self-defense is carried out in a measured and appropriate manner, avoiding unnecessary harm or escalation of violence.

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  • 36. 

    After prolong firing, the barrel of the MK19 will…

    • Melt

    • Overheat

    • Not overheat

    • Become pitted inside

    Correct Answer
    A. Not overheat
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Not overheat." The MK19 is a belt-fed, air-cooled, fully automatic machine gun that is designed to withstand prolonged firing without overheating. It is equipped with a heat shield and cooling fins on the barrel to dissipate heat and prevent overheating. Therefore, even after prolonged firing, the barrel of the MK19 will not overheat.

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  • 37. 

    An effective tool to control air base defense (ABD) operations is ___________.

    • Charts and forms

    • Staff control tools

    • Base sectorization

    • Military symbology

    Correct Answer
    A. Base sectorization
    Explanation
    Base sectorization is an effective tool to control air base defense (ABD) operations. This involves dividing the base into different sectors, each with specific responsibilities and areas of coverage. By implementing base sectorization, the defense forces can efficiently allocate resources, coordinate activities, and ensure comprehensive coverage of the entire base. It allows for better organization, communication, and response to potential threats, ultimately enhancing the overall effectiveness of ABD operations.

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  • 38. 

    When should hard wire lines be inspected?

    • Before installation and daily when installed.

    • Twice daily after installation.

    • Four times a week.

    • Before burial.

    Correct Answer
    A. Before installation and daily when installed.
    Explanation
    Hard wire lines should be inspected before installation to ensure that they are in proper working condition and free from any defects or damage. Additionally, once the lines are installed, they should be inspected daily to identify any potential issues or malfunctions that may arise during their operation. This regular inspection helps to maintain the safety and efficiency of the hard wire lines and allows for prompt repairs or replacements if necessary.

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  • 39. 

    What US Code Title directly affects the Air Force?

    • Title 5

    • Title 10

    • Title 15

    • Title 20

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10
    Explanation
    Title 10 of the US Code directly affects the Air Force. Title 10, also known as the "Armed Forces" title, is the primary source of law for the military and governs the organization, structure, and administration of the US military, including the Air Force. It outlines the roles and responsibilities of the military branches, their personnel, and their operations. Therefore, Title 10 directly impacts the Air Force and provides the legal framework for its operations and activities.

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  • 40. 

    When would you fire into your secondary sector of fire?

    • When your primary field of fire is blocked.

    • When you see friendly forces.

    • When ordered to fire there.

    • To test fire your weapon.

    Correct Answer
    A. When ordered to fire there.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "When ordered to fire there." This means that you would only fire into your secondary sector of fire when specifically instructed to do so by a superior or someone in a position of authority. This emphasizes the importance of following orders and maintaining discipline in a military or tactical situation.

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  • 41. 

    The final step in laying a mine is to turn legs rearward and then downward and spread each pair of legs at a _________.

    • 45-degree angle

    • 60-degree angle

    • 90-degree angle

    • 120-degree angle

    Correct Answer
    A. 45-degree angle
    Explanation
    The final step in laying a mine is to turn the legs rearward and then downward and spread each pair of legs at a 45-degree angle. This angle allows for the legs to be securely planted in the ground, providing stability to the mine. A 45-degree angle is commonly used in various applications where stability and balance are important, such as construction and engineering.

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  • 42. 

    Which one of the following does not belong in the five basic fundamentals of base defense?

    • Aggressive defense

    • Defense-in-depth

    • Type ground

    • All around defense and integrated defense

    Correct Answer
    A. Type ground
    Explanation
    The given options represent different strategies or concepts related to base defense. Aggressive defense, defense-in-depth, all around defense, and integrated defense are all valid fundamentals of base defense. However, "Type ground" does not fit into this category as it does not represent a fundamental concept or strategy in base defense.

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  • 43. 

    Which channel on the analog/portable radio communication (AN/PRC) 139 is reserved for priority use?

    • 1

    • 3

    • 5

    • 7

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    Channel 1 on the AN/PRC 139 analog/portable radio communication is reserved for priority use.

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  • 44. 

    When does your pretrial preparation begin?

    • Trial council contacts you.

    • You are notified of the courts-martial.

    • When you advise the suspect of their rights.

    • As soon as you are dispatched to an incident.

    Correct Answer
    A. As soon as you are dispatched to an incident.
    Explanation
    Pretrial preparation begins as soon as you are dispatched to an incident. This means that as soon as you are notified and sent to the scene of an incident, you should start preparing for the trial. This includes gathering evidence, interviewing witnesses, and conducting any necessary investigations. By beginning the pretrial preparation process early, you can ensure that you are fully prepared for the upcoming court-martial.

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  • 45. 

    What are the two methods of installation for the trip flare?

    • Drag pin and Pull trigger

    • Push trigger and push pin

    • Pull pin and trip trigger

    • Trip Trigger and leave pin

    Correct Answer
    A. Pull pin and trip trigger
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Pull pin and trip trigger." This method of installation involves pulling the pin to arm the trip flare and then triggering it by tripping the trigger mechanism. This ensures that the flare is properly armed and will activate when the trigger is tripped.

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  • 46. 

    US Marshals normally receive civilians detained for on base offenses under what jurisdiction?

    • Absolute martial law

    • Exclusive jurisdiction

    • Jurisdiction Power

    • Absolute Exclusive Power

    Correct Answer
    A. Exclusive jurisdiction
    Explanation
    US Marshals normally receive civilians detained for on base offenses under exclusive jurisdiction. This means that they have the sole authority and control over these cases, without interference from other law enforcement agencies or jurisdictions. This allows the Marshals to effectively carry out their duties and responsibilities in maintaining law and order on military bases.

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  • 47. 

    What is the main reason supply discipline is mandatory?

    • Store, maintain, operate and dispense materials on an as needed basis.

    • Operate, dispense and protect government bench stock items for future resale.

    • Maintain adequate stock levels, deplete old supplies, and free up necessary storage areas.

    • Conserve, protect, and maintain available government supplies, equipment, and real property.

    Correct Answer
    A. Conserve, protect, and maintain available government supplies, equipment, and real property.
  • 48. 

    What does the term SOSES stand for?

    • Steep, orientations, sizes, elevations, and slopes.

    • Shape, orientations, sizes, elevations, and slopes.

    • Spurs, orientations, sizes, elevations, and slopes.

    • Shade, orientations, sizes, elevations, and slopes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Shape, orientations, sizes, elevations, and slopes.
    Explanation
    The term SOSES stands for Shape, orientations, sizes, elevations, and slopes. This acronym is used to refer to the various characteristics and features of a landscape or terrain. By considering these factors, one can gain a comprehensive understanding of the physical attributes of a particular area.

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  • 49. 

    A refined (6-digit) grid coordinate puts you within approximately…

    • 100 feet of the point you want to identify.

    • 100 meters of the point you want to identify.

    • 1,000 feet of the point you want to identify.

    • 1,000 meters of the point you want to identify.

    Correct Answer
    A. 100 meters of the point you want to identify.
    Explanation
    A refined (6-digit) grid coordinate provides a higher level of accuracy in identifying a point compared to a less refined coordinate. In this case, a refined coordinate puts you within approximately 100 meters of the point you want to identify.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 13, 2009
    Quiz Created by
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