3P051 – Intermediate – Test B

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1. Who does the UCMJ apply to?

Explanation

The UCMJ, or Uniform Code of Military Justice, applies to all members of the armed forces. This includes officers, enlisted personnel, and all branches of the military. The UCMJ is a set of laws that govern the conduct and behavior of military personnel, and it ensures discipline and order within the armed forces. It is applicable to all members regardless of rank or position. Therefore, the correct answer is "All members of the armed forces."

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2. The greatest advantage MWD teams provide to security forces is?

Explanation

MWD teams provide a great advantage to security forces due to their superior ability to detect individuals, especially in situations where visibility is limited. This means that they can help identify potential threats or locate individuals who may be hiding or trying to evade capture. This ability enhances the overall effectiveness and efficiency of security operations, as it allows for quicker and more accurate detection of individuals, ultimately ensuring the safety and security of the forces.

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3. SF members must possess what skill level prior to entering the MWD handler apprentice course?

Explanation

SF members must possess a 5-skill level (journeyman) prior to entering the MWD handler apprentice course. This suggests that individuals need to have a certain level of expertise and experience in their field before they can pursue training as a MWD handler. The 5-skill level indicates that they have achieved a journeyman level of proficiency in their current job role, which would likely provide them with the necessary foundation and knowledge to succeed in the MWD handler apprentice course.

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4. Punching, kicking, beating, stabbing, are examples of…

Explanation

The given examples of punching, kicking, beating, and stabbing all involve physical violence and harm inflicted upon someone. Therefore, the correct answer is physical battering, which refers to the act of physically assaulting or abusing someone through acts of violence.

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5. The acronym SPORTS stands for…

Explanation

The acronym SPORTS stands for Slap, pull, observe, release, tap and squeeze. This is the correct answer because it accurately represents the actions or movements associated with the acronym SPORTS. Each word in the acronym corresponds to a specific action, starting with a slap, followed by pulling, observing, releasing, tapping, and finally squeezing.

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6. Of what does a precautionary check consist?

Explanation

A precautionary check consists of verbally communicating with the suspect and asking if they have any sharp objects such as needles, razor blades, or knives. This helps ensure the safety of both the suspect and the person conducting the check by identifying potential weapons that could cause harm. It is important to establish open communication and gather information about any potential threats before proceeding with further actions.

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7. The front and rear sights for the M9 pistol are _______.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Fixed." The front and rear sights for the M9 pistol are fixed, meaning they are not adjustable. This means that the sights are permanently set in place and cannot be moved or changed.

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8. True/False:  US Air Force Integrated Base Defense (IBD) is the integrated application of offensive and defensive action, both active and passive, taken across the ground dimension of the force protection (FP) battle space to achieve local and area dominance in support of force protection.

Explanation

The given statement is true. US Air Force Integrated Base Defense (IBD) refers to the integrated application of offensive and defensive action, both active and passive, taken across the ground dimension of the force protection (FP) battle space to achieve local and area dominance in support of force protection. This means that IBD involves a comprehensive approach to defending military bases, combining various offensive and defensive measures to ensure the safety and security of the force and its assets.

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9. When should you give your opinion during court proceedings?

Explanation

During court proceedings, it is important to give your opinion only if asked to do so by the prosecution or defense. This ensures that your opinion is presented in a controlled and appropriate manner, and that it is relevant to the case at hand. Giving unsolicited opinions can be seen as unprofessional and may not be admissible as evidence. Therefore, it is crucial to wait for the prosecution or defense to specifically request your opinion before offering it during court proceedings.

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10. At least how many security forces members should be present when entry point checks are conducted?

Explanation

When conducting entry point checks, it is necessary to have at least two security forces members present. This ensures that there is proper coordination and collaboration during the checks, allowing for a more thorough and effective assessment of the entry point. Having two members also provides a level of safety and support for each other in case any unexpected situations arise during the process.

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11. Under what conditions during a lawful stop can a frisk be conducted?

Explanation

A frisk can be conducted during a lawful stop if the officer has a reasonable belief that the person is armed and dangerous. This means that the officer must have a justifiable suspicion, based on specific facts and circumstances, that the individual may be carrying a weapon and pose a threat to the safety of the officer or others. The other conditions mentioned in the question, such as the person being in pain, shoplifting, or committing a hit and run, do not meet the criteria for a frisk to be conducted.

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12. DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, is issued to someone who…

Explanation

The correct answer is "Committed a moving or non-moving traffic offense." This is because DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, can be issued for both moving and non-moving traffic offenses. It is a standardized form used by the military to document and process traffic violations.

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13. Proportionality of force to counter hostile acts must be...

Explanation

The correct answer is "Of reasonable intensity, duration and magnitude." This answer suggests that the force used to counter hostile acts should be proportionate and not excessive. It should be reasonable in terms of its intensity, duration, and magnitude. This means that the force used should be appropriate and necessary to address the hostile acts, without causing unnecessary harm or going beyond what is required to defend oneself or others.

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14. What type of search is ideal for multiple apprehensions?

Explanation

Prone search is the ideal type of search for multiple apprehensions because it involves searching while lying face down on the ground. This position provides a lower profile and makes it easier to approach and apprehend multiple suspects without being easily detected. Additionally, being in a prone position allows for better stability and accuracy when using firearms, if necessary.

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15. When dealing with a violent disturbance, Security Forces (SF) members must immediately…

Explanation

In a violent disturbance situation, it is important for Security Forces (SF) members to immediately separate disputants. This is because keeping the individuals involved in the disturbance apart can help prevent further escalation of violence and allow for a safer environment for everyone involved. By separating the disputants, SF members can also assess the situation more effectively and address any immediate threats or issues that may arise.

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16. What does acronym TRP stand for?

Explanation

The acronym TRP stands for Target Reference Point. A target reference point is a specific location or point on a map that is used as a reference for targeting or directing military operations. It helps in providing accurate information about the location of targets or objectives during reconnaissance or combat missions.

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17. If a witness is reluctant to talk because of the possible reprisals they are experiencing ____________.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Fear of involvement." When a witness is reluctant to talk because of possible reprisals they are experiencing, it suggests that they are afraid of getting involved in the situation. They may fear being targeted or facing negative consequences for speaking out, which leads to their reluctance to talk.

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18. A written order by a competent military commander ordering a search is called a…

Explanation

A written order by a competent military commander ordering a search is called a search authorization. This document grants the military personnel the legal authority to conduct a search and seize items or individuals as necessary. It ensures that the search is conducted within the boundaries of the law and with the proper authorization from a commanding officer.

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19. What do contour lines show you when you look at a map?

Explanation

Contour lines on a map indicate relief and elevation. They represent the shape and steepness of the terrain, allowing the viewer to understand the height and shape of the landforms. By closely examining the contour lines, one can identify valleys, hills, mountains, and other topographical features. This information is crucial for activities such as hiking, urban planning, and understanding the natural landscape.

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20. One of the most important parts to inspect on the compass is the ________.

Explanation

The floating dial is the correct answer because it is an important part to inspect on a compass. The floating dial is the part that indicates the direction and helps the user navigate. By checking the floating dial, one can ensure that it is functioning properly and accurately displaying the correct direction.

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21. Investigators will conduct pretrial preparation with…

Explanation

The staff judge advocate is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance to the investigators during pretrial preparation. They have the expertise and knowledge of the legal system to ensure that the investigation is conducted in accordance with the law and any potential legal issues are addressed. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the investigation is thorough, fair, and legally sound.

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22. Failure to provide a child with the basic necessities of life is…

Explanation

Neglect refers to the failure to provide a child with the basic necessities of life. It involves the caregiver's inability or unwillingness to meet the child's physical, emotional, educational, and medical needs. Neglect can include inadequate supervision, lack of proper nutrition, clothing, shelter, healthcare, and emotional support. It can have severe and long-lasting effects on a child's development and well-being.

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23. The four step interview process includes preparing, planning closing and _________.

Explanation

The four step interview process includes preparing, planning, closing, and conducting. Conducting refers to the actual process of carrying out the interview, where the interviewer asks questions and gathers information from the interviewee. This step is crucial as it allows for the exchange of information and helps the interviewer assess the candidate's suitability for the position or gather necessary information for the investigation.

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24. Define cover.

Explanation

The term "cover" refers to protection from enemy weapons fire. It involves finding physical objects or structures that can shield individuals or military assets from being hit or damaged by enemy gunfire, artillery, or other types of weapons. This protection is crucial in combat situations to minimize casualties and maintain a tactical advantage.

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25. What type of ammunition, used in the M4 carbine, has no primer?

Explanation

The M199 Dummy ammunition is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to simulate the weight and dimensions of live ammunition, but it does not contain a primer. The lack of a primer means that the M199 Dummy cannot be fired and does not produce a projectile. It is commonly used for training purposes and in situations where live ammunition is not necessary, such as during weapon maintenance or handling drills.

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26. How many sectors of fire are included on a range card?

Explanation

A range card typically includes two sectors of fire. This is because a range card is a graphical representation of the area surrounding a position, and it is used to record and communicate information about targets and firing positions. The two sectors of fire on a range card usually represent the left and right limits of fire for a specific position, allowing the user to easily identify the boundaries within which they can engage targets.

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27. What exist when there is reason to believe that evidence sought is located in a specific place?

Explanation

Probable cause exists when there is reason to believe that evidence sought is located in a specific place. This means that there is enough evidence or information to support a reasonable belief that a crime has been committed and that the evidence can be found in the specified location. It is a standard that must be met by law enforcement before they can conduct a search or obtain a search warrant.

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28. Which sentence is an example of an active voice?

Explanation

The sentence "Sgt. Smith struck Amn Jones" is an example of an active voice because the subject (Sgt. Smith) is performing the action (struck) on the object (Amn Jones). In an active voice sentence, the subject is the doer of the action, making the sentence more direct and clear.

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29. What are the types of interview approaches?

Explanation

The types of interview approaches are alternating, direct, and indirect. In an alternating approach, the interviewer switches between open-ended and closed-ended questions to gather information from the candidate. In a direct approach, the interviewer asks specific questions to assess the candidate's skills and qualifications. In an indirect approach, the interviewer uses more subtle and indirect questioning techniques to evaluate the candidate's behavior, personality, and problem-solving abilities.

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30. The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the primary document that reflects?

Explanation

The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the primary document that reflects the positions authorized to accomplish the mission. This document outlines the authorized positions within a unit and provides information on the number and type of positions required to carry out the unit's mission. It helps to ensure that the unit has the necessary manpower to effectively complete its tasks and responsibilities.

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31. What AFSC is awarded upon completion of the Combat Arms apprentice course?

Explanation

Upon completion of the Combat Arms apprentice course, the AFSC (Air Force Specialty Code) awarded is 3P051B.

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32. What is physical injury or emotional disturbance, inflicted by means other than an accident called?

Explanation

Physical injury or emotional disturbance inflicted by means other than an accident is referred to as abuse. Abuse can take various forms such as physical, emotional, sexual, or neglectful, and it involves intentionally causing harm or distress to another person. It can occur in various settings, including domestic relationships, institutions, or even within communities.

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33. What is the function of the forward assist?

Explanation

The forward assist on a firearm is designed to lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedures. Immediate action procedures are used in situations where the firearm fails to fire or experiences a malfunction. By locking the bolt forward, the forward assist ensures that the firearm is ready to fire and allows the shooter to quickly address the issue and resume firing.

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34. When responding to a call, keep in mind that each situation is different so the best approach is for you to be…

Explanation

In responding to a call, it is important to remember that each situation is unique and may require different actions. Being calm and positive allows for a level-headed approach, helping to diffuse tense situations and provide reassurance to those involved. This approach promotes effective communication and problem-solving, enabling the responder to better assess the needs of the situation and provide appropriate assistance.

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35.  What are the Rules of Engagement elements of self-defense?

Explanation

The Rules of Engagement elements of self-defense include proportionality and necessity. Proportionality means that the force used in self-defense should be reasonable and not excessive, based on the threat faced. Necessity refers to the requirement that the use of force is necessary to protect oneself or others from imminent harm. These two elements ensure that self-defense is carried out in a measured and appropriate manner, avoiding unnecessary harm or escalation of violence.

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36. After prolong firing, the barrel of the MK19 will…

Explanation

The correct answer is "Not overheat." The MK19 is a belt-fed, air-cooled, fully automatic machine gun that is designed to withstand prolonged firing without overheating. It is equipped with a heat shield and cooling fins on the barrel to dissipate heat and prevent overheating. Therefore, even after prolonged firing, the barrel of the MK19 will not overheat.

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37. An effective tool to control air base defense (ABD) operations is ___________.

Explanation

Base sectorization is an effective tool to control air base defense (ABD) operations. This involves dividing the base into different sectors, each with specific responsibilities and areas of coverage. By implementing base sectorization, the defense forces can efficiently allocate resources, coordinate activities, and ensure comprehensive coverage of the entire base. It allows for better organization, communication, and response to potential threats, ultimately enhancing the overall effectiveness of ABD operations.

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38. What US Code Title directly affects the Air Force?

Explanation

Title 10 of the US Code directly affects the Air Force. Title 10, also known as the "Armed Forces" title, is the primary source of law for the military and governs the organization, structure, and administration of the US military, including the Air Force. It outlines the roles and responsibilities of the military branches, their personnel, and their operations. Therefore, Title 10 directly impacts the Air Force and provides the legal framework for its operations and activities.

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39. When would you fire into your secondary sector of fire?

Explanation

The correct answer is "When ordered to fire there." This means that you would only fire into your secondary sector of fire when specifically instructed to do so by a superior or someone in a position of authority. This emphasizes the importance of following orders and maintaining discipline in a military or tactical situation.

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40. When should hard wire lines be inspected?

Explanation

Hard wire lines should be inspected before installation to ensure that they are in proper working condition and free from any defects or damage. Additionally, once the lines are installed, they should be inspected daily to identify any potential issues or malfunctions that may arise during their operation. This regular inspection helps to maintain the safety and efficiency of the hard wire lines and allows for prompt repairs or replacements if necessary.

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41. When does your pretrial preparation begin?

Explanation

Pretrial preparation begins as soon as you are dispatched to an incident. This means that as soon as you are notified and sent to the scene of an incident, you should start preparing for the trial. This includes gathering evidence, interviewing witnesses, and conducting any necessary investigations. By beginning the pretrial preparation process early, you can ensure that you are fully prepared for the upcoming court-martial.

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42. What are the two methods of installation for the trip flare?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Pull pin and trip trigger." This method of installation involves pulling the pin to arm the trip flare and then triggering it by tripping the trigger mechanism. This ensures that the flare is properly armed and will activate when the trigger is tripped.

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43. US Marshals normally receive civilians detained for on base offenses under what jurisdiction?

Explanation

US Marshals normally receive civilians detained for on base offenses under exclusive jurisdiction. This means that they have the sole authority and control over these cases, without interference from other law enforcement agencies or jurisdictions. This allows the Marshals to effectively carry out their duties and responsibilities in maintaining law and order on military bases.

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44. What is the main reason supply discipline is mandatory?

Explanation

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45. The final step in laying a mine is to turn legs rearward and then downward and spread each pair of legs at a _________.

Explanation

The final step in laying a mine is to turn the legs rearward and then downward and spread each pair of legs at a 45-degree angle. This angle allows for the legs to be securely planted in the ground, providing stability to the mine. A 45-degree angle is commonly used in various applications where stability and balance are important, such as construction and engineering.

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46. Which one of the following does not belong in the five basic fundamentals of base defense?

Explanation

The given options represent different strategies or concepts related to base defense. Aggressive defense, defense-in-depth, all around defense, and integrated defense are all valid fundamentals of base defense. However, "Type ground" does not fit into this category as it does not represent a fundamental concept or strategy in base defense.

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47. Which channel on the analog/portable radio communication (AN/PRC) 139 is reserved for priority use?

Explanation

Channel 1 on the AN/PRC 139 analog/portable radio communication is reserved for priority use.

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48. What does the term SOSES stand for?

Explanation

The term SOSES stands for Shape, orientations, sizes, elevations, and slopes. This acronym is used to refer to the various characteristics and features of a landscape or terrain. By considering these factors, one can gain a comprehensive understanding of the physical attributes of a particular area.

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49. A refined (6-digit) grid coordinate puts you within approximately…

Explanation

A refined (6-digit) grid coordinate provides a higher level of accuracy in identifying a point compared to a less refined coordinate. In this case, a refined coordinate puts you within approximately 100 meters of the point you want to identify.

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50. To ensure proper functioning of a compass, the safe separation distance from telephone wire is __________.

Explanation

To ensure proper functioning of a compass, it is necessary to maintain a safe separation distance from telephone wires. The correct answer is 10 meters. This means that the compass should be kept at least 10 meters away from any telephone wire to prevent any interference or disruption to its magnetic field. This distance is important because telephone wires can generate electromagnetic fields that can affect the accuracy of a compass. By maintaining a safe separation distance, the compass will be able to provide reliable and accurate readings.

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51. Which type of interviewee is interviewed to develop facts?

Explanation

Victims are interviewed to develop facts in an investigation. They provide firsthand information about the incident or crime that occurred, which can help investigators gather evidence and establish the sequence of events. By interviewing victims, investigators can gather important details, such as the time, location, and description of the incident, as well as any potential suspects or witnesses. This information is crucial in building a case and determining the truth behind the incident.

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52. Who can issue off-base search procedures in foreign countries?

Explanation

Air Force Installation commanders have the authority to issue off-base search procedures in foreign countries. As the commanders of Air Force installations, they are responsible for the overall operations and security of the base. This includes coordinating with foreign authorities and conducting searches off-base if necessary. They have the necessary jurisdiction and knowledge to make decisions regarding search procedures in foreign countries. Joint rear area commanders, Staff Judge Advocate, and US Magistrate may have their own areas of responsibility and authority, but in this context, it is the Air Force Installation commanders who have the power to issue off-base search procedures.

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53. What are the common reason for an interviewee’s reluctance to talk?

Explanation

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54. What does the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) identify?

Explanation

The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) identifies life-cycle education and training requirements, both mandatory and desirable. This means that it outlines the necessary education and training that individuals in a specific career field need to complete throughout their career, including both mandatory requirements that must be fulfilled and additional desirable training opportunities that can enhance their skills and knowledge. The CFETP helps individuals and organizations in planning and managing their career development and ensures that they are equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge at each stage of their career.

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55. After you locate a grounding site and dig your hole, drive the grounding rod in until the…

Explanation

The correct answer is that the top of the rod should be about 3 inches above the bottom of the hole. This is important because the grounding rod needs to be properly positioned in order to effectively ground electrical equipment. Placing the top of the rod 3 inches above the bottom of the hole ensures that it is deep enough to provide a solid grounding connection while still allowing for proper contact with the surrounding soil.

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56. For effective coverage of the entire front of a position, place mines in a line no closer than 5 meters and no farther apart than _______.

Explanation

To effectively cover the entire front of a position with mines, it is recommended to place them in a line no closer than 5 meters and no farther apart than 45 meters. This spacing ensures that there are enough mines to cover the area adequately, while also preventing them from being too close together, which could result in overlapping coverage or accidental detonation.

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57. Which rally point is tentative until the objective is pinpointed?

Explanation

The rally point that is tentative until the objective is pinpointed is the "Objective." This means that the exact location for the rally point is not confirmed until the objective or goal of the mission is determined. Once the objective is identified, the rally point can be finalized and used as a meeting point for the team.

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58. What form must be filled out in all instances involving an apprehension?

Explanation

In all instances involving an apprehension, the form that must be filled out is AF Form 3545, Incident Report. This form is used to document the details of the apprehension, including the date, time, location, and circumstances surrounding the incident. It also allows for the recording of witness statements and any evidence collected. The Incident Report is an essential document for documenting and investigating apprehensions within the Air Force.

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59. Which base is austerely manned but is capable of expanding into a full-scale air base operation?

Explanation

A limited base is a base that is minimally staffed but has the potential to expand into a full-scale air base operation. This means that while the base may have a smaller number of personnel initially, it is designed and equipped in a way that allows for rapid expansion and the ability to support larger operations when needed.

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60. How far can fragments disperse from the fragmentation grenade?

Explanation

Fragments from a fragmentation grenade can disperse up to 230 meters. This means that when the grenade explodes, pieces of shrapnel can travel a maximum distance of 230 meters away from the point of detonation. This distance is significant and highlights the danger and destructive power of fragmentation grenades.

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61. Leaders should position weapons where they…

Explanation

Leaders should position weapons where they can protect their forces, avoid detection by the enemy, and surprise the enemy with lethal fire. This ensures the safety of their own troops while maximizing the effectiveness of their weapons during engagement. By positioning weapons strategically, leaders increase the probability of success in combat situations. The answer emphasizes the importance of defensive and offensive tactics in warfare, rather than relying on the assumption that the weapons will not be targeted or destroyed.

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62. When confronted with a culvert obstacle while running field wire, the wire…

Explanation

When confronted with a culvert obstacle while running field wire, the wire should be passed through the culvert if possible. This is because passing the wire through the culvert ensures that it is protected and less likely to be damaged. Running the wire around the culvert may expose it to potential hazards or obstructions. Running the wire over the culvert is also not recommended as it may increase the risk of damage. Therefore, passing the wire through the culvert is the best option to ensure its safety and functionality.

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63. Who has the authority to void a DD Form 1408 Armed Forces Traffic Ticket?

Explanation

The authority to void a DD Form 1408 Armed Forces Traffic Ticket lies with the issuing security forces member or the Chief, Security Forces. This means that either the person who issued the ticket or the Chief of the Security Forces has the power to cancel or invalidate the ticket.

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64. What must be removed from the field phone when external batteries are used?

Explanation

When external batteries are used with a field phone, the two internal BA 30 batteries must be removed. This is because the external batteries will provide the necessary power for the field phone, making the internal batteries redundant. Removing the internal batteries will prevent them from draining and potentially causing damage to the device.

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65. Where can you find the note indicating a maps security classification?

Explanation

In maps, the note indicating a map's security classification can be found in the upper and lower margins. These margins often contain additional information or annotations related to the map, including any security classifications that may be applicable. By placing the note in the margins, it ensures that it is visible and easily accessible to users without obstructing the main content of the map.

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66. What is the primary movement method of the fire team?

Explanation

The primary movement method of the fire team is the wedge formation. In this formation, the team members are positioned in a V-shape, with the team leader at the front and the other members fanning out to the sides. This formation allows for good visibility and firepower distribution, as well as flexibility in maneuvering and reacting to enemy threats. It also ensures that the team members can provide mutual support and cover each other effectively.

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67. When aiming mines with slit-type peep sight and knife-edge sight, how many inches to the rear of the sight do you position your eye?

Explanation

When aiming mines with a slit-type peep sight and knife-edge sight, it is recommended to position your eye 6 inches to the rear of the sight. This distance allows for proper alignment and focus, ensuring accurate targeting of the mines.

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68. What terrain feature is an area of low ground surrounded by higher ground in all directions?

Explanation

A depression is an area of low ground that is surrounded by higher ground in all directions. This means that the land slopes downward towards the center of the depression, creating a basin-like shape. Depressions can be caused by various geological processes, such as erosion, tectonic activity, or glacial action. They can vary in size and depth, and often collect water, forming lakes or ponds.

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69. Progressive application of force encompasses what three main elements?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Tools, Tactics, Timing." Progressive application of force involves utilizing appropriate tools, employing effective tactics, and considering the timing of actions. These three elements work together to ensure a controlled and measured response in situations that require the use of force.

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70. A rough (4-digit) grid coordinate puts you within approximately…

Explanation

A rough (4-digit) grid coordinate puts you within approximately 1,000 meters of the point you want to identify.

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71. What factors influence employment actions of the M2?

Explanation

The factors that influence employment actions of the M2 include the mission, terrain, target engagement, and rules of engagement. These factors are crucial in determining how the M2 is utilized and deployed in a given situation. The mission provides the overall objective and purpose for the employment of the M2, while the terrain influences the tactics and strategies used. Target engagement refers to the specific targets that the M2 is intended to engage, and the rules of engagement outline the guidelines and limitations for the use of force. Considering all these factors is essential in making informed decisions regarding the employment of the M2.

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72. Why would you use the deliberate offset method to set an azimuth to one side of your target?

Explanation

The deliberate offset method is used to set an azimuth to one side of the target in order to compensate for possible compass or map errors. By intentionally offsetting the azimuth, any errors in the compass or map readings can be accounted for, ensuring that the correct direction is followed. This method helps to maintain accuracy and prevent walking straight up to an enemy position or ending up in an undesired location.

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73. Grazing fire occurs when the projectile does not rise more than how many meters about the ground?

Explanation

Grazing fire occurs when the projectile does not rise more than one meter above the ground. This means that the projectile travels very close to the ground, making it more likely to hit targets that are low to the ground or behind cover. Grazing fire is often used in situations where the target is in a prone position or behind obstacles, as it increases the chances of hitting the target.

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74. Which search method is often used to conduct a room, building or small outdoor area search?

Explanation

Concentric circle search method is often used to conduct a room, building, or small outdoor area search. In this method, searchers start from a central point and move in circular paths, expanding the search area with each circle. This method ensures thorough coverage of the area and allows searchers to systematically examine each section. It is particularly useful in situations where the search area is limited and the objective is to locate a specific item or person.

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75. Which cartridge, used in the M4 carbine, has no projectile?

Explanation

The M200 cartridge, used in the M4 carbine, does not have a projectile. This means that it does not contain a bullet or any other type of projectile that is typically fired from a firearm. The M200 cartridge may be used for training or other non-lethal purposes, where the absence of a projectile is desired.

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76. Security Force members should be discreet when using the siren because it...

Explanation

Using a siren frequently complicates traffic problems because it can startle other drivers and cause them to panic or make sudden and unsafe maneuvers. It can also create confusion and congestion on the road as drivers may not know how to react or where to move to make way for the security force vehicle. Therefore, it is important for security force members to be discreet when using the siren to minimize these potential traffic complications.

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77. What perception level must your assessment of risk never fall below?

Explanation

Your assessment of risk must never fall below the level of professional perception. This means that when evaluating risks, you should always strive to maintain a high level of professionalism and expertise. This entails considering all relevant factors, analyzing potential consequences, and making informed decisions based on your knowledge and experience in the field. By maintaining a professional perception of risk, you can ensure that your assessments are accurate and reliable, minimizing the likelihood of errors or oversights that could lead to negative outcomes.

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78. How many calendar days can the QFEBJ sustain operations before requiring resupply?

Explanation

The QFEBJ can sustain operations for 5 calendar days before requiring resupply. This means that it has enough resources and provisions to continue functioning for a period of 5 days without needing any additional supplies or support. After this time, it would need to be resupplied in order to continue its operations effectively.

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79. Who is normally responsible for the responsibility center?

Explanation

The squadron commander is normally responsible for the responsibility center. This means that they are in charge of overseeing and managing the operations and activities within the responsibility center. They have the authority to make decisions, allocate resources, and ensure that the goals and objectives of the responsibility center are met. The squadron commander is the highest-ranking officer within the squadron and holds the ultimate responsibility for the success and performance of the responsibility center.

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80. What does a surge trigger point show?

Explanation

A surge trigger point shows that the requirements for forces have started to exceed the capabilities of the two AEFs (Air Expeditionary Forces) and the available LD/HD (Limited Deployment/High Demand) forces. This means that there is a need for additional resources and support to meet the increasing demands and maintain operational effectiveness.

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81. In the marginal information, where is the elevation guide normally found?

Explanation

The elevation guide is typically found in the lower right margin of the marginal information.

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82. During limited visibility, to preset your azimuth by the click method; find the desired azimuth, then…

Explanation

During limited visibility, the click method is used to preset the azimuth. The click method involves finding the desired azimuth and then dividing it by three. This is done to ensure that the azimuth is accurately set despite the limited visibility.

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83. Which crime prevention program encourages residents to permanently mark their high pilferage property with an identification number?

Explanation

Operation identification is a crime prevention program that encourages residents to permanently mark their high pilferage property with an identification number. This helps in deterring theft and makes it easier for law enforcement agencies to identify and return stolen property to its rightful owners. By marking their belongings, residents can create a visible deterrent for potential thieves and increase the chances of recovering their stolen items. This program promotes community involvement and awareness in preventing crime.

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84. How many types of ammunition are used with the M252?

Explanation

The M252 uses four types of ammunition.

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85. How are map editions numbered if you have more than one edition?

Explanation

Map editions are numbered consecutively to indicate the order in which they were released. This numbering system allows users to easily identify and track the different editions of a map. Each edition is assigned a unique number that follows the previous edition, ensuring a sequential and organized system for cataloging and referencing maps.

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86. Leaders select fixed positions that provide the MK19 team the opportunity to…

Explanation

The correct answer is "Mount and utilize the T&E mechanism for stability." This answer suggests that leaders choose fixed positions for the MK19 team to mount the T&E (Traverse and Elevation) mechanism, which helps stabilize the weapon. By mounting the T&E mechanism, the team can ensure accuracy and stability while engaging targets.

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87. What type of child abuse or neglect are you dealing with if you discover parents blatantly rejecting their child?

Explanation

If parents are blatantly rejecting their child, it indicates emotional maltreatment. Emotional maltreatment refers to any behavior or attitude that damages a child's emotional well-being and development. Blatantly rejecting a child involves consistently and intentionally disregarding their emotional needs, making them feel unloved, unwanted, and worthless. This type of abuse can have long-lasting effects on the child's self-esteem, mental health, and overall development.

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88. One advantage to pulling vehicles to the shoulder of the road in a herringbone pattern is…

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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89. During initial power-up how many seconds will the frequency fill device execute a display segment?

Explanation

During the initial power-up, the frequency fill device will execute a display segment for 1 second.

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90. What is the framework of the map?

Explanation

The framework of a map refers to the underlying system used to represent the Earth's curved surface on a flat piece of paper or screen. The projection system is the correct answer because it determines how the Earth's features are distorted, such as the shape, distance, or area of land masses. Different projection systems can be used depending on the purpose of the map and the area being represented.

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91. To remove the antenna from the receiver on an analog-portable radio communication (AN/PRC) 139, you must…

Explanation

To remove the antenna from the receiver on an AN/PRC 139, you must turn the antenna clockwise. This indicates that the antenna is screwed onto the receiver, and turning it clockwise will loosen it and allow for removal. The other options of loosening the antenna from the top or bottom do not provide a clear indication of how to remove the antenna, while turning it counterclockwise would actually tighten it further.

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92. How long is the mortar of the M252 capable of illuminating an area?

Explanation

The mortar of the M252 is capable of illuminating an area for 75 seconds per round. The maximum distance that it can illuminate is 1,100 meters.

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93. How often must you check your compass on the known line of direction?

Explanation

It is important to regularly check your compass on the known line of direction to ensure accuracy and maintain proper navigation. Checking your compass monthly allows you to identify any potential deviations or errors in your compass readings, which can occur over time due to factors such as magnetic interference or wear and tear. By checking your compass monthly, you can make any necessary adjustments and ensure that you are staying on the correct line of direction during your navigation activities.

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Who does the UCMJ apply to?
The greatest advantage MWD teams provide to security forces is?
SF members must possess what skill level prior to entering the MWD...
Punching, kicking, beating, stabbing, are examples of…
The acronym SPORTS stands for…
Of what does a precautionary check consist?
The front and rear sights for the M9 pistol are _______.
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When should you give your opinion during court proceedings?
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DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, is ...
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When dealing with a violent disturbance, Security ...
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Define cover.
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Which sentence is an example of an active voice?
What are the types of interview approaches?
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What AFSC is awarded upon completion of the Combat Arms apprentice...
What is physical injury or emotional disturbance, inflicted by means...
What is the function of the forward assist?
When responding to a call, keep in mind that each situation is...
 What are the Rules of Engagement elements of self-defense?
After prolong firing, the barrel of the MK19 will…
An effective tool to control air base defense (ABD) ...
What US Code Title directly affects the Air Force?
When would you fire into your secondary sector of fire?
When should hard wire lines be inspected?
When does your pretrial preparation begin?
What are the two methods of installation for the trip flare?
US Marshals normally receive civilians detained for ...
What is the main reason supply discipline is mandatory?
The final step in laying a mine is to turn legs rearward and then...
Which one of the following does not belong in the five basic...
Which channel on the analog/portable radio communication (AN/PRC) 139...
What does the term SOSES stand for?
A refined (6-digit) grid coordinate puts you within approximately…
To ensure proper functioning of a compass, the safe ...
Which type of interviewee is interviewed to develop facts?
Who can issue off-base search procedures in foreign countries?
What are the common reason for an interviewee’s reluctance to talk?
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Which rally point is tentative until the objective is pinpointed?
What form must be filled out in all instances ...
Which base is austerely manned but is capable of ...
How far can fragments disperse from the fragmentation grenade?
Leaders should position weapons where they…
When confronted with a culvert obstacle while ...
Who has the authority to void a DD Form 1408 Armed ...
What must be removed from the field phone when ...
Where can you find the note indicating a maps ...
What is the primary movement method of the fire team?
When aiming mines with slit-type peep sight and knife-edge sight, how...
What terrain feature is an area of low ground surrounded by higher...
Progressive application of force encompasses what three main elements?
A rough (4-digit) grid coordinate puts you within approximately…
What factors influence employment actions of the M2?
Why would you use the deliberate offset method to set an azimuth to...
Grazing fire occurs when the projectile does not ...
Which search method is often used to conduct a ...
Which cartridge, used in the M4 carbine, has no projectile?
Security Force members should be discreet when using the siren because...
What perception level must your assessment of risk never fall below?
How many calendar days can the QFEBJ sustain operations before...
Who is normally responsible for the responsibility center?
What does a surge trigger point show?
In the marginal information, where is the elevation ...
During limited visibility, to preset your azimuth ...
Which crime prevention program encourages residents to permanently...
How many types of ammunition are used with the M252?
How are map editions numbered if you have more than one edition?
Leaders select fixed positions that provide the ...
What type of child abuse or neglect are you dealing with if you...
One advantage to pulling vehicles to the shoulder of the road in a...
During initial power-up how many seconds will the ...
What is the framework of the map?
To remove the antenna from the receiver on an analog-portable radio...
How long is the mortar of the M252 capable of illuminating an area?
How often must you check your compass on the known line of direction?
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