3P051 – Intermediate – Test B
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Please enter Rank & Name (Last, First) for name. Example: A1C Smith, John
- 1.
For effective coverage of the entire front of a position, place mines in a line no closer than 5 meters and no farther apart than _______.
- A.
45 meters
- B.
55 meters
- C.
65 meters
- D.
75 meters
Correct Answer
A. 45 metersExplanation
To effectively cover the entire front of a position with mines, it is recommended to place them in a line no closer than 5 meters and no farther apart than 45 meters. This spacing ensures that there are enough mines to cover the area adequately, while also preventing them from being too close together, which could result in overlapping coverage or accidental detonation.Rate this question:
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- 2.
The final step in laying a mine is to turn legs rearward and then downward and spread each pair of legs at a _________.
- A.
45-degree angle
- B.
60-degree angle
- C.
90-degree angle
- D.
120-degree angle
Correct Answer
A. 45-degree angleExplanation
The final step in laying a mine is to turn the legs rearward and then downward and spread each pair of legs at a 45-degree angle. This angle allows for the legs to be securely planted in the ground, providing stability to the mine. A 45-degree angle is commonly used in various applications where stability and balance are important, such as construction and engineering.Rate this question:
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- 3.
When aiming mines with slit-type peep sight and knife-edge sight, how many inches to the rear of the sight do you position your eye?
- A.
3
- B.
6
- C.
9
- D.
12
Correct Answer
B. 6Explanation
When aiming mines with a slit-type peep sight and knife-edge sight, it is recommended to position your eye 6 inches to the rear of the sight. This distance allows for proper alignment and focus, ensuring accurate targeting of the mines.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which rally point is tentative until the objective is pinpointed?
- A.
Objective
- B.
Re-entry
- C.
Enroute
- D.
Initial
Correct Answer
A. ObjectiveExplanation
The rally point that is tentative until the objective is pinpointed is the "Objective." This means that the exact location for the rally point is not confirmed until the objective or goal of the mission is determined. Once the objective is identified, the rally point can be finalized and used as a meeting point for the team.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which crime prevention program encourages residents to permanently mark their high pilferage property with an identification number?
- A.
Citizen awareness
- B.
Crime hazard reminder
- C.
Operation identification
- D.
Crime hazard identification
Correct Answer
C. Operation identificationExplanation
Operation identification is a crime prevention program that encourages residents to permanently mark their high pilferage property with an identification number. This helps in deterring theft and makes it easier for law enforcement agencies to identify and return stolen property to its rightful owners. By marking their belongings, residents can create a visible deterrent for potential thieves and increase the chances of recovering their stolen items. This program promotes community involvement and awareness in preventing crime.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Security Force members should be discreet when using the siren because it...
- A.
Slow your pursuit down.
- B.
Warns offenders you are coming.
- C.
Gains the attention of the violator.
- D.
Frequently complicates traffic problems.
Correct Answer
D. Frequently complicates traffic problems.Explanation
Using a siren frequently complicates traffic problems because it can startle other drivers and cause them to panic or make sudden and unsafe maneuvers. It can also create confusion and congestion on the road as drivers may not know how to react or where to move to make way for the security force vehicle. Therefore, it is important for security force members to be discreet when using the siren to minimize these potential traffic complications.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What are the Rules of Engagement elements of self-defense?
- A.
Necessity and authority.
- B.
Immediacy and controlled.
- C.
Proportionality and necessity.
- D.
Proportionality and immediacy.
Correct Answer
C. Proportionality and necessity.Explanation
The Rules of Engagement elements of self-defense include proportionality and necessity. Proportionality means that the force used in self-defense should be reasonable and not excessive, based on the threat faced. Necessity refers to the requirement that the use of force is necessary to protect oneself or others from imminent harm. These two elements ensure that self-defense is carried out in a measured and appropriate manner, avoiding unnecessary harm or escalation of violence.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Proportionality of force to counter hostile acts must be...
- A.
Of reasonable intensity, duration and magnitude.
- B.
Of the maximum duration under rules of war.
- C.
Of the appropriate non-lethal means.
- D.
Used only in defense of foreign nationals.
Correct Answer
A. Of reasonable intensity, duration and magnitude.Explanation
The correct answer is "Of reasonable intensity, duration and magnitude." This answer suggests that the force used to counter hostile acts should be proportionate and not excessive. It should be reasonable in terms of its intensity, duration, and magnitude. This means that the force used should be appropriate and necessary to address the hostile acts, without causing unnecessary harm or going beyond what is required to defend oneself or others.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A written order by a competent military commander ordering a search is called a…
- A.
Consent search
- B.
Search warrant
- C.
Command authority
- D.
Search authorization
Correct Answer
D. Search authorizationExplanation
A written order by a competent military commander ordering a search is called a search authorization. This document grants the military personnel the legal authority to conduct a search and seize items or individuals as necessary. It ensures that the search is conducted within the boundaries of the law and with the proper authorization from a commanding officer.Rate this question:
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- 10.
After prolong firing, the barrel of the MK19 will…
- A.
Melt
- B.
Overheat
- C.
Not overheat
- D.
Become pitted inside
Correct Answer
C. Not overheatExplanation
The correct answer is "Not overheat." The MK19 is a belt-fed, air-cooled, fully automatic machine gun that is designed to withstand prolonged firing without overheating. It is equipped with a heat shield and cooling fins on the barrel to dissipate heat and prevent overheating. Therefore, even after prolonged firing, the barrel of the MK19 will not overheat.Rate this question:
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- 11.
How many calendar days can the QFEBJ sustain operations before requiring resupply?
- A.
3
- B.
5
- C.
7
- D.
10
Correct Answer
B. 5Explanation
The QFEBJ can sustain operations for 5 calendar days before requiring resupply. This means that it has enough resources and provisions to continue functioning for a period of 5 days without needing any additional supplies or support. After this time, it would need to be resupplied in order to continue its operations effectively.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What perception level must your assessment of risk never fall below?
- A.
Unprofessional perception
- B.
Professional perception
- C.
Risk perception
- D.
Tactical perception
Correct Answer
B. Professional perceptionExplanation
Your assessment of risk must never fall below the level of professional perception. This means that when evaluating risks, you should always strive to maintain a high level of professionalism and expertise. This entails considering all relevant factors, analyzing potential consequences, and making informed decisions based on your knowledge and experience in the field. By maintaining a professional perception of risk, you can ensure that your assessments are accurate and reliable, minimizing the likelihood of errors or oversights that could lead to negative outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Progressive application of force encompasses what three main elements?
- A.
Tools, Tactics, Timing.
- B.
Tactical, Threshold, Techniques.
- C.
Techniques, Timing, Tactics.
- D.
Subject Action, Risk Perception, Officer Response.
Correct Answer
A. Tools, Tactics, Timing.Explanation
The correct answer is "Tools, Tactics, Timing." Progressive application of force involves utilizing appropriate tools, employing effective tactics, and considering the timing of actions. These three elements work together to ensure a controlled and measured response in situations that require the use of force.Rate this question:
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- 14.
One advantage to pulling vehicles to the shoulder of the road in a herringbone pattern is…
- A.
Convoy is stopped on an open road.
- B.
Better chance against an enemy attack.
- C.
Volume and density of small arms fire reduced.
- D.
Volume and density of organic weapons is higher.
Correct Answer
D. Volume and density of organic weapons is higher. -
- 15.
How are map editions numbered if you have more than one edition?
- A.
By letter and the lowest sheet
- B.
Alphabetically numbered
- C.
Numbered consecutively
- D.
Numbered numerically
Correct Answer
C. Numbered consecutivelyExplanation
Map editions are numbered consecutively to indicate the order in which they were released. This numbering system allows users to easily identify and track the different editions of a map. Each edition is assigned a unique number that follows the previous edition, ensuring a sequential and organized system for cataloging and referencing maps.Rate this question:
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- 16.
How far can fragments disperse from the fragmentation grenade?
- A.
230 meters
- B.
230 miles
- C.
400 meters
- D.
430 miles
Correct Answer
A. 230 metersExplanation
Fragments from a fragmentation grenade can disperse up to 230 meters. This means that when the grenade explodes, pieces of shrapnel can travel a maximum distance of 230 meters away from the point of detonation. This distance is significant and highlights the danger and destructive power of fragmentation grenades.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which one of the following does not belong in the five basic fundamentals of base defense?
- A.
Aggressive defense
- B.
Defense-in-depth
- C.
Type ground
- D.
All around defense and integrated defense
Correct Answer
C. Type groundExplanation
The given options represent different strategies or concepts related to base defense. Aggressive defense, defense-in-depth, all around defense, and integrated defense are all valid fundamentals of base defense. However, "Type ground" does not fit into this category as it does not represent a fundamental concept or strategy in base defense.Rate this question:
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- 18.
True/False: US Air Force Integrated Base Defense (IBD) is the integrated application of offensive and defensive action, both active and passive, taken across the ground dimension of the force protection (FP) battle space to achieve local and area dominance in support of force protection.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The given statement is true. US Air Force Integrated Base Defense (IBD) refers to the integrated application of offensive and defensive action, both active and passive, taken across the ground dimension of the force protection (FP) battle space to achieve local and area dominance in support of force protection. This means that IBD involves a comprehensive approach to defending military bases, combining various offensive and defensive measures to ensure the safety and security of the force and its assets.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Who can issue off-base search procedures in foreign countries?
- A.
Air Force Installation commanders
- B.
Joint rear area commanders
- C.
Staff Judge Advocate
- D.
US Magistrate
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Installation commandersExplanation
Air Force Installation commanders have the authority to issue off-base search procedures in foreign countries. As the commanders of Air Force installations, they are responsible for the overall operations and security of the base. This includes coordinating with foreign authorities and conducting searches off-base if necessary. They have the necessary jurisdiction and knowledge to make decisions regarding search procedures in foreign countries. Joint rear area commanders, Staff Judge Advocate, and US Magistrate may have their own areas of responsibility and authority, but in this context, it is the Air Force Installation commanders who have the power to issue off-base search procedures.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What exist when there is reason to believe that evidence sought is located in a specific place?
- A.
A. Plain view rule
- B.
B. Probable cause
- C.
C. Lawful searching
- D.
D. Exigent circumstances
Correct Answer
B. B. Probable causeExplanation
Probable cause exists when there is reason to believe that evidence sought is located in a specific place. This means that there is enough evidence or information to support a reasonable belief that a crime has been committed and that the evidence can be found in the specified location. It is a standard that must be met by law enforcement before they can conduct a search or obtain a search warrant.Rate this question:
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- 21.
SF members must possess what skill level prior to entering the MWD handler apprentice course?
- A.
5-skill level (journeyman)
- B.
7-skill level (craftsman)
- C.
9-skill level (superintendent)
- D.
One is not required
Correct Answer
A. 5-skill level (journeyman)Explanation
SF members must possess a 5-skill level (journeyman) prior to entering the MWD handler apprentice course. This suggests that individuals need to have a certain level of expertise and experience in their field before they can pursue training as a MWD handler. The 5-skill level indicates that they have achieved a journeyman level of proficiency in their current job role, which would likely provide them with the necessary foundation and knowledge to succeed in the MWD handler apprentice course.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What AFSC is awarded upon completion of the Combat Arms apprentice course?
- A.
3P051
- B.
3P051A
- C.
3P051B
- D.
3P071
Correct Answer
C. 3P051BExplanation
Upon completion of the Combat Arms apprentice course, the AFSC (Air Force Specialty Code) awarded is 3P051B.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Leaders should position weapons where they…
- A.
Protect, avoid detection, and surprise enemy with lethal fire.
- B.
Have the greatest probability of success during engagement.
- C.
Believe they will not be destroyed in a firefight.
- D.
Have no chance of being targeted by the enemy.
Correct Answer
A. Protect, avoid detection, and surprise enemy with lethal fire.Explanation
Leaders should position weapons where they can protect their forces, avoid detection by the enemy, and surprise the enemy with lethal fire. This ensures the safety of their own troops while maximizing the effectiveness of their weapons during engagement. By positioning weapons strategically, leaders increase the probability of success in combat situations. The answer emphasizes the importance of defensive and offensive tactics in warfare, rather than relying on the assumption that the weapons will not be targeted or destroyed.Rate this question:
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- 24.
In the marginal information, where is the elevation guide normally found?
- A.
Lower right margin
- B.
Lower left margin
- C.
Upper right margin
- D.
Upper left margin
Correct Answer
A. Lower right marginExplanation
The elevation guide is typically found in the lower right margin of the marginal information.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What is the framework of the map?
- A.
Projection system
- B.
Vertical datum note
- C.
Grid reference box
- D.
Horizontal datum note
Correct Answer
A. Projection systemExplanation
The framework of a map refers to the underlying system used to represent the Earth's curved surface on a flat piece of paper or screen. The projection system is the correct answer because it determines how the Earth's features are distorted, such as the shape, distance, or area of land masses. Different projection systems can be used depending on the purpose of the map and the area being represented.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Where can you find the note indicating a maps security classification?
- A.
Upper and lower margins
- B.
Right center margin only
- C.
Left lower margins
- D.
Left center margin
Correct Answer
A. Upper and lower marginsExplanation
In maps, the note indicating a map's security classification can be found in the upper and lower margins. These margins often contain additional information or annotations related to the map, including any security classifications that may be applicable. By placing the note in the margins, it ensures that it is visible and easily accessible to users without obstructing the main content of the map.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Leaders select fixed positions that provide the MK19 team the opportunity to…
- A.
Dismount and utilize the accuracy of the T&E mechanism.
- B.
Mount and utilize the T&E mechanism for stability.
- C.
Select positions of primary concern.
- D.
Establish final protective lines.
Correct Answer
B. Mount and utilize the T&E mechanism for stability.Explanation
The correct answer is "Mount and utilize the T&E mechanism for stability." This answer suggests that leaders choose fixed positions for the MK19 team to mount the T&E (Traverse and Elevation) mechanism, which helps stabilize the weapon. By mounting the T&E mechanism, the team can ensure accuracy and stability while engaging targets.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Under what conditions during a lawful stop can a frisk be conducted?
- A.
The person stopped appears to be in pain.
- B.
The person shoplifted a carton of cigarettes.
- C.
You reasonable believe the person is armed and dangerous.
- D.
You believe the person committed a hit and run traffic violation.
Correct Answer
C. You reasonable believe the person is armed and dangerous.Explanation
A frisk can be conducted during a lawful stop if the officer has a reasonable belief that the person is armed and dangerous. This means that the officer must have a justifiable suspicion, based on specific facts and circumstances, that the individual may be carrying a weapon and pose a threat to the safety of the officer or others. The other conditions mentioned in the question, such as the person being in pain, shoplifting, or committing a hit and run, do not meet the criteria for a frisk to be conducted.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What are the common reason for an interviewee’s reluctance to talk?
- A.
Biased toward police, resentment and fear of involvement.
- B.
Inconvenience, resentment and fear of involvement.
- C.
Fear of involvement and biased toward police.
- D.
Resentment and inconvenience.
Correct Answer
B. Inconvenience, resentment and fear of involvement. -
- 30.
What terrain feature is an area of low ground surrounded by higher ground in all directions?
- A.
Hill
- B.
Saddle
- C.
Valley
- D.
Depression
Correct Answer
D. DepressionExplanation
A depression is an area of low ground that is surrounded by higher ground in all directions. This means that the land slopes downward towards the center of the depression, creating a basin-like shape. Depressions can be caused by various geological processes, such as erosion, tectonic activity, or glacial action. They can vary in size and depth, and often collect water, forming lakes or ponds.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What do contour lines show you when you look at a map?
- A.
Relief and elevation on standard map.
- B.
Location in relation to the water.
- C.
Location anyplace on a map.
- D.
Location on a ridge.
Correct Answer
A. Relief and elevation on standard map.Explanation
Contour lines on a map indicate relief and elevation. They represent the shape and steepness of the terrain, allowing the viewer to understand the height and shape of the landforms. By closely examining the contour lines, one can identify valleys, hills, mountains, and other topographical features. This information is crucial for activities such as hiking, urban planning, and understanding the natural landscape.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What does the term SOSES stand for?
- A.
Steep, orientations, sizes, elevations, and slopes.
- B.
Shape, orientations, sizes, elevations, and slopes.
- C.
Spurs, orientations, sizes, elevations, and slopes.
- D.
Shade, orientations, sizes, elevations, and slopes.
Correct Answer
B. Shape, orientations, sizes, elevations, and slopes.Explanation
The term SOSES stands for Shape, orientations, sizes, elevations, and slopes. This acronym is used to refer to the various characteristics and features of a landscape or terrain. By considering these factors, one can gain a comprehensive understanding of the physical attributes of a particular area.Rate this question:
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- 33.
When should hard wire lines be inspected?
- A.
Before installation and daily when installed.
- B.
Twice daily after installation.
- C.
Four times a week.
- D.
Before burial.
Correct Answer
A. Before installation and daily when installed.Explanation
Hard wire lines should be inspected before installation to ensure that they are in proper working condition and free from any defects or damage. Additionally, once the lines are installed, they should be inspected daily to identify any potential issues or malfunctions that may arise during their operation. This regular inspection helps to maintain the safety and efficiency of the hard wire lines and allows for prompt repairs or replacements if necessary.Rate this question:
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- 34.
When confronted with a culvert obstacle while running field wire, the wire…
- A.
Should always be run around the culvert.
- B.
Could be run over the culvert, when possible.
- C.
Should be passed through a culvert, if possible.
- D.
Could be put on top to reduce the possibility of being damaged.
Correct Answer
C. Should be passed through a culvert, if possible.Explanation
When confronted with a culvert obstacle while running field wire, the wire should be passed through the culvert if possible. This is because passing the wire through the culvert ensures that it is protected and less likely to be damaged. Running the wire around the culvert may expose it to potential hazards or obstructions. Running the wire over the culvert is also not recommended as it may increase the risk of damage. Therefore, passing the wire through the culvert is the best option to ensure its safety and functionality.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Investigators will conduct pretrial preparation with…
- A.
The Chief, Security Forces
- B.
The staff judge advocate
- C.
Witnesses to the case
- D.
The victim and suspect
Correct Answer
B. The staff judge advocateExplanation
The staff judge advocate is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance to the investigators during pretrial preparation. They have the expertise and knowledge of the legal system to ensure that the investigation is conducted in accordance with the law and any potential legal issues are addressed. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the investigation is thorough, fair, and legally sound.Rate this question:
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- 36.
When should you give your opinion during court proceedings?
- A.
During pretrial preparation.
- B.
When answering prosecution questions.
- C.
Only if asked to do so by the prosecution or defense.
- D.
Always present your professional opinion as fact.
Correct Answer
C. Only if asked to do so by the prosecution or defense.Explanation
During court proceedings, it is important to give your opinion only if asked to do so by the prosecution or defense. This ensures that your opinion is presented in a controlled and appropriate manner, and that it is relevant to the case at hand. Giving unsolicited opinions can be seen as unprofessional and may not be admissible as evidence. Therefore, it is crucial to wait for the prosecution or defense to specifically request your opinion before offering it during court proceedings.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which sentence is an example of an active voice?
- A.
Sgt. Smith struck Amn Jones.
- B.
The report was written by Amn Smith.
- C.
Amn Jones was apprehended by Sgt. Smith.
- D.
The suspects were surrounded by security forces personnel.
Correct Answer
A. Sgt. Smith struck Amn Jones.Explanation
The sentence "Sgt. Smith struck Amn Jones" is an example of an active voice because the subject (Sgt. Smith) is performing the action (struck) on the object (Amn Jones). In an active voice sentence, the subject is the doer of the action, making the sentence more direct and clear.Rate this question:
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- 38.
DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, is issued to someone who…
- A.
Committed a moving violation.
- B.
Committed a non-moving traffic offense.
- C.
Has been involved in a vehicle accident.
- D.
Committed a moving or non-moving traffic offense.
Correct Answer
D. Committed a moving or non-moving traffic offense.Explanation
The correct answer is "Committed a moving or non-moving traffic offense." This is because DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, can be issued for both moving and non-moving traffic offenses. It is a standardized form used by the military to document and process traffic violations.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Who has the authority to void a DD Form 1408 Armed Forces Traffic Ticket?
- A.
Chief, Security Forces.
- B.
Issuing security forces member.
- C.
First Sergeant or Operations Superintendent.
- D.
Issuing security forces member or Chief, Security Forces.
Correct Answer
D. Issuing security forces member or Chief, Security Forces.Explanation
The authority to void a DD Form 1408 Armed Forces Traffic Ticket lies with the issuing security forces member or the Chief, Security Forces. This means that either the person who issued the ticket or the Chief of the Security Forces has the power to cancel or invalidate the ticket.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which channel on the analog/portable radio communication (AN/PRC) 139 is reserved for priority use?
- A.
1
- B.
3
- C.
5
- D.
7
Correct Answer
A. 1Explanation
Channel 1 on the AN/PRC 139 analog/portable radio communication is reserved for priority use.Rate this question:
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- 41.
To remove the antenna from the receiver on an analog-portable radio communication (AN/PRC) 139, you must…
- A.
Turn the antenna clockwise.
- B.
Loosen the antenna from the top.
- C.
Turn the antenna counterclockwise.
- D.
Loosen the antenna from the bottom.
Correct Answer
A. Turn the antenna clockwise.Explanation
To remove the antenna from the receiver on an AN/PRC 139, you must turn the antenna clockwise. This indicates that the antenna is screwed onto the receiver, and turning it clockwise will loosen it and allow for removal. The other options of loosening the antenna from the top or bottom do not provide a clear indication of how to remove the antenna, while turning it counterclockwise would actually tighten it further.Rate this question:
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- 42.
During initial power-up how many seconds will the frequency fill device execute a display segment?
- A.
7
- B.
5
- C.
3
- D.
1
Correct Answer
D. 1Explanation
During the initial power-up, the frequency fill device will execute a display segment for 1 second.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What is physical injury or emotional disturbance, inflicted by means other than an accident called?
- A.
Abuse
- B.
Neglect
- C.
Abandonment
- D.
Domestic Violence
Correct Answer
A. AbuseExplanation
Physical injury or emotional disturbance inflicted by means other than an accident is referred to as abuse. Abuse can take various forms such as physical, emotional, sexual, or neglectful, and it involves intentionally causing harm or distress to another person. It can occur in various settings, including domestic relationships, institutions, or even within communities.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Failure to provide a child with the basic necessities of life is…
- A.
Abuse
- B.
Neglect
- C.
Abandonment
- D.
Domestic Violence
Correct Answer
B. NeglectExplanation
Neglect refers to the failure to provide a child with the basic necessities of life. It involves the caregiver's inability or unwillingness to meet the child's physical, emotional, educational, and medical needs. Neglect can include inadequate supervision, lack of proper nutrition, clothing, shelter, healthcare, and emotional support. It can have severe and long-lasting effects on a child's development and well-being.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Punching, kicking, beating, stabbing, are examples of…
- A.
Sexual battering
- B.
Physical battering
- C.
Psychological battering
- D.
Emotional maltreatment
Correct Answer
B. Physical batteringExplanation
The given examples of punching, kicking, beating, and stabbing all involve physical violence and harm inflicted upon someone. Therefore, the correct answer is physical battering, which refers to the act of physically assaulting or abusing someone through acts of violence.Rate this question:
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- 46.
A rough (4-digit) grid coordinate puts you within approximately…
- A.
100 feet of the point you want to identify.
- B.
100 meters of the point you want to identify.
- C.
1,000 feet of the point you want to identify.
- D.
1,000 meters of the point you want to identify.
Correct Answer
D. 1,000 meters of the point you want to identify.Explanation
A rough (4-digit) grid coordinate puts you within approximately 1,000 meters of the point you want to identify.Rate this question:
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- 47.
A refined (6-digit) grid coordinate puts you within approximately…
- A.
100 feet of the point you want to identify.
- B.
100 meters of the point you want to identify.
- C.
1,000 feet of the point you want to identify.
- D.
1,000 meters of the point you want to identify.
Correct Answer
B. 100 meters of the point you want to identify.Explanation
A refined (6-digit) grid coordinate provides a higher level of accuracy in identifying a point compared to a less refined coordinate. In this case, a refined coordinate puts you within approximately 100 meters of the point you want to identify.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What type of child abuse or neglect are you dealing with if you discover parents blatantly rejecting their child?
- A.
Sexual
- B.
Neglect
- C.
Physical
- D.
Emotional maltreatment
Correct Answer
D. Emotional maltreatmentExplanation
If parents are blatantly rejecting their child, it indicates emotional maltreatment. Emotional maltreatment refers to any behavior or attitude that damages a child's emotional well-being and development. Blatantly rejecting a child involves consistently and intentionally disregarding their emotional needs, making them feel unloved, unwanted, and worthless. This type of abuse can have long-lasting effects on the child's self-esteem, mental health, and overall development.Rate this question:
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- 49.
When responding to a call, keep in mind that each situation is different so the best approach is for you to be…
- A.
Passive and subservient
- B.
Forceful and dominant
- C.
Calm and positive
- D.
Laid back
Correct Answer
C. Calm and positiveExplanation
In responding to a call, it is important to remember that each situation is unique and may require different actions. Being calm and positive allows for a level-headed approach, helping to diffuse tense situations and provide reassurance to those involved. This approach promotes effective communication and problem-solving, enabling the responder to better assess the needs of the situation and provide appropriate assistance.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What is the function of the forward assist?
- A.
Lock the charging handle in place prior to immediate action procedures.
- B.
Lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedure.
- C.
Unlock the bolt and secure the charging handle.
- D.
Unlock bolt during remedial action procedures.
Correct Answer
B. Lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedure.Explanation
The forward assist on a firearm is designed to lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedures. Immediate action procedures are used in situations where the firearm fails to fire or experiences a malfunction. By locking the bolt forward, the forward assist ensures that the firearm is ready to fire and allows the shooter to quickly address the issue and resume firing.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jul 13, 2009Quiz Created by
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