3e571 CDC Volume 1
Practive test of Volume 1 of the Engineering Assistant CDC's
- 1.
What agency provides support for areas regarding utility systems?
- A.
Office of the Assistant Secretary of the Air Force for Installations
- B.
Air Force Center for Environmental excellence
- C.
Air Force Civil Engineer Support Agency
- D.
Responsible Major command (MAJCOM) engineering staff
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Civil Engineer Support AgencyExplanation
The Air Force Civil Engineer Support Agency provides support for areas regarding utility systems.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Ensuring that the comprehensive plans of your base support the mission and the objectives of the installation is the responsibility of the
- A.
Responsible major command (MAJCOM)
- B.
installation commander
- C.
Air Force civil engineer (CE)
- D.
Assistant Secretary of the air Force
Correct Answer
A. Responsible major command (MAJCOM)Explanation
The responsible major command (MAJCOM) is responsible for ensuring that the comprehensive plans of the base support the mission and objectives of the installation. This means that the MAJCOM is in charge of overseeing and coordinating the planning process to ensure that the base's plans align with the overall goals and objectives set by the command. The MAJCOM has the authority and responsibility to make sure that the base's plans are in line with the larger mission of the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Who approves the general plan for an installation?
- A.
The wing commander
- B.
The responsible major command (MAJCOM)
- C.
The Air Force Civil Engineer (CE)
- D.
The assistant secretary of the Air Force
Correct Answer
A. The wing commanderExplanation
The wing commander is responsible for approving the general plan for an installation. As the commander of the wing, they have the authority to make decisions and approve plans that affect the overall operations and infrastructure of the installation. They work closely with other key stakeholders such as the responsible major command (MAJCOM), the Air Force Civil Engineer (CE), and the assistant secretary of the Air Force to ensure that the general plan aligns with the overall goals and objectives of the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The Air Force Comprehensive Planning Program
- A.
identifies and assesses alternatives for development of surrounding communities
- B.
is primarily a budgeting process that ensures funding for base activities
- C.
identifies and assesses alternative for development of Air Force bases
- D.
Allocates personnel to each base according the base's mission
Correct Answer
C. identifies and assesses alternative for development of Air Force basesExplanation
The correct answer is "identifies and assesses alternative for development of Air Force bases." The Air Force Comprehensive Planning Program is a process that focuses on identifying and evaluating different options for the development of Air Force bases. It involves assessing the needs and requirements of each base and considering various alternatives to meet those needs. This helps in making informed decisions regarding the development and improvement of Air Force bases.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The comprehensive planning process analyzes
- A.
Only the current development potential of the base
- B.
only the long-range development potential of the base
- C.
only the short- long-range development potential of the base
- D.
the current, short-, and long-range development potential of the base
Correct Answer
D. the current, short-, and long-range development potential of the baseExplanation
The comprehensive planning process analyzes the current, short-, and long-range development potential of the base. This means that the planning process takes into account the current state of development, as well as the potential for development in the short-term and long-term future. By considering all three timeframes, the planning process can create a more holistic and effective plan for the base.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which part of the comprehensive plan is a summary document?
- A.
General Plan
- B.
Component Plan
- C.
Infrastructure plan
- D.
Constraints and opportunities plan
Correct Answer
A. General PlanExplanation
The General Plan is a summary document in the comprehensive plan. It provides an overview of the overall goals, objectives, and policies of the comprehensive plan. It summarizes the key components and strategies of the plan, making it a concise and accessible resource for stakeholders and decision-makers.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which component plan would you refer to if concerned about the capacity of the base water system?
- A.
Infrastructure plan
- B.
Land use and transportation plan
- C.
Capital improvements program plan
- D.
Composite constraints and opportunities plan
Correct Answer
A. Infrastructure planExplanation
If you are concerned about the capacity of the base water system, you would refer to the Infrastructure plan. This plan outlines the physical structures and facilities needed for the water system, including pipes, pumps, and treatment plants. It provides information on the current capacity of the system and any planned improvements or expansions. By referring to the Infrastructure plan, you can assess the adequacy of the system's capacity and determine if any upgrades or modifications are necessary.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which component plan integrates the traditional elements of physical planning with other future plans into one document?
- A.
Infrastructure plan
- B.
Land use and transportation plan
- C.
Capital improvements program plan
- D.
Composite constraints and opportunities plan
Correct Answer
C. Capital improvements program planExplanation
The Capital Improvements Program Plan integrates the traditional elements of physical planning with other future plans into one document. It focuses on identifying and prioritizing capital projects and improvements for a specific time period. This plan considers infrastructure needs, land use, transportation, and other factors to create a comprehensive and coordinated approach to future development and growth.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which map series would you refer to for information regarding future development?
- A.
A
- B.
D
- C.
K
- D.
M
Correct Answer
D. MExplanation
Map series M would be the most suitable for obtaining information regarding future development. This is because map series M is likely to contain updated and current information about future development plans and projects. The other map series (A, D, and K) may not necessarily focus on future development and may instead provide information about other aspects such as topography, roads, or landmarks. Therefore, map series M is the most appropriate choice for obtaining information specifically related to future development.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which map series would you refer to for information about the architectural compatibility of your base?
- A.
J
- B.
L
- C.
K
- D.
N
Correct Answer
B. LExplanation
The correct answer is L. The reason is not provided in the question, so it is difficult to give a specific explanation. However, based on the context of the question, it can be inferred that map series L would contain information about the architectural compatibility of the base. This could include details about the design, style, and construction materials used in the base's architecture.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Civil Engineers (CE) assist in preparing explosives site plan (ESP) by ensuring that the weapons safety office is
- A.
Fully aware of all construction actions planned on the installation
- B.
Informed of completed construction activities on the installation
- C.
fully aware of all construction actions planned within the inhabited-building distances
- D.
Informed of completed construction activities within the inhabited-building distances
Correct Answer
C. fully aware of all construction actions planned within the inhabited-building distancesExplanation
Civil Engineers (CE) play a crucial role in preparing the explosives site plan (ESP) by ensuring that the weapons safety office is fully aware of all construction actions planned within the inhabited-building distances. This is important because construction activities near inhabited buildings can pose safety risks, especially when explosives are involved. By keeping the weapons safety office informed about these planned construction actions, the CE helps to ensure the safety of both the construction workers and the occupants of the inhabited buildings.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What agency endorses the explosive site plan (ESP) before it is submitted to the DOD Explosives Saftey Board?
- A.
Air Force Safety Center
- B.
Installation civil engineer (CE) office
- C.
Major Command (MAJCOM) weapons safety office
- D.
Installation weapons safety office
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Safety CenterExplanation
The Air Force Safety Center endorses the explosive site plan (ESP) before it is submitted to the DOD Explosives Safety Board.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which example would not require the submission of an explosives site plan (ESP)?
- A.
Construction of a missile maintenance facility
- B.
Construction of an addition to a weapons storage facility
- C.
A temporary reduction in the storage capacity of UN Class I explosives
- D.
Addition of an aircraft parking area not previously used for explosives operations
Correct Answer
C. A temporary reduction in the storage capacity of UN Class I explosivesExplanation
An explosives site plan (ESP) is typically required for construction or modification of facilities that involve the storage or handling of explosives. The construction of a missile maintenance facility and an addition to a weapons storage facility would likely involve the storage and handling of explosives, therefore requiring the submission of an ESP. The addition of an aircraft parking area not previously used for explosives operations may also require an ESP if it will be used for explosives operations. However, a temporary reduction in the storage capacity of UN Class I explosives would not involve any construction or modification of facilities, therefore it would not require the submission of an ESP.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What kind of work can civil engineers (CE) do after receiving preliminary approval of an explosives site plan (ESP)?
- A.
Nothing. They must wait until final approval to plan and design the construction project
- B.
Proceed with construction without restrictions
- C.
Begin the first phase of construction
- D.
. Begin planning and design activities
Correct Answer
D. . Begin planning and design activitiesExplanation
After receiving preliminary approval of an explosives site plan (ESP), civil engineers can begin planning and design activities. This means they can start working on the detailed plans and designs for the construction project. However, they cannot proceed with construction without restrictions until they receive final approval.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which construction drawings must be submitted for approval of the explosives site plan (ESP)?
- A.
Only those drawings related to safety and protective services
- B.
Only those drawings showing quantity-distance arcs.
- C.
Only those drawings showing the floor plan
- D.
A complete set of drawings showing every aspect of construction.
Correct Answer
A. Only those drawings related to safety and protective servicesExplanation
The correct answer is "Only those drawings related to safety and protective services." This means that only the drawings that pertain to safety measures and protective services need to be submitted for approval of the explosives site plan (ESP). Other drawings, such as those showing quantity-distance arcs or the floor plan, may not be necessary for the approval process. The focus is on ensuring that the necessary safety measures are in place to prevent accidents or hazards at the explosives site.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What color coding is required on maps for an explosives site plan (ESP)?
- A.
Potential explosive ssite (PES) in blue and exposed sites (ES) in black
- B.
PESs in yellow adn ESs in blue
- C.
PESs in red and Ess in green
- D.
PESs blue and ESs in yellow
Correct Answer
C. PESs in red and Ess in greenExplanation
The correct answer is PESs in red and Ess in green. This color coding is required on maps for an explosives site plan (ESP). The use of red for PESs indicates potential explosive sites, while green is used for ESs, which are exposed sites. This color scheme helps to clearly differentiate between the two types of sites and allows for easy identification and understanding of the information provided on the map.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Whose airfield safety standards apply when DoD organizations use civil airfields?
- A.
Air Standardization Coordinating Committee's (ASCC)
- B.
North Atlantic Treaty Organization's (NATO)
- C.
Federal Aviation Administration's (FAA) only
- D.
DoD's if possible; if not, the FAA's
Correct Answer
D. DoD's if possible; if not, the FAA'sExplanation
When DoD organizations use civil airfields, the airfield safety standards that apply are those of the DoD if they are available. However, if the DoD standards are not available, then the airfield safety standards of the FAA apply.Rate this question:
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- 18.
How are the airfield planning criteria in UFC 3-260-01 applied to existing facilities constructed under different standards?
- A.
Existing facilities are always exempt from conforming to these criteria
- B.
Existing facilities must be brought into compliance with these criteria
- C.
Existing facilities can be brought into compliance with these criteria if it is feasible to do so
- D.
Existing facilities must be brought into compliance with these criteria when the facilities are modified
Correct Answer
D. Existing facilities must be brought into compliance with these criteria when the facilities are modifiedExplanation
The correct answer states that existing facilities must be brought into compliance with the airfield planning criteria in UFC 3-260-01 when the facilities are modified. This means that if any modifications or changes are made to the existing facilities, they must adhere to the criteria outlined in UFC 3-260-01. This ensures that the airfield planning criteria are consistently applied to all facilities, regardless of when they were constructed or the standards they were built under.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Under what circumstances can the DOD airfield planning criteria in UFC 3-260-01 be supplemented?
- A.
Only the DOD can supplement the criteria
- B.
A Major command (MAJCOM) needs to meet special mission requirements
- C.
A service component needs to adapt to unique operational characteristics
- D.
The installation commander determines that some criteria don't apply to the installation
Correct Answer
C. A service component needs to adapt to unique operational characteristicsExplanation
The DOD airfield planning criteria in UFC 3-260-01 can be supplemented when a service component needs to adapt to unique operational characteristics. This suggests that the criteria can be modified or added to in order to accommodate specific needs or circumstances that may not be covered by the existing criteria.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is the normal length and width of a clear zone for a class B runway?
- A.
2,000 feet long and 1,000 feet wide
- B.
3,000 feet long and 2,000 feet wide
- C.
3,000 feet long and 3,000 feet wide
- D.
4,000 feet long and 4,000 feet wide
Correct Answer
C. 3,000 feet long and 3,000 feet wideExplanation
A clear zone is an area surrounding a runway that is free of obstacles to ensure the safety of aircraft operations. The normal length and width of a clear zone for a class B runway is 3,000 feet long and 3,000 feet wide. This provides ample space for aircraft to maneuver during takeoff and landing, reducing the risk of accidents caused by obstacles.Rate this question:
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- 21.
If an accident potential zone (APZ) is classified as an APZ I, it is beyond
- A.
An APZ II and has only a slight potential for an accident
- B.
An APZ II and has a measurable potential for an accident
- C.
the runway clear zone and has a significant potential for accidents
- D.
the runway clear zone and has only a slight potential for accidents
Correct Answer
C. the runway clear zone and has a significant potential for accidentsExplanation
If an accident potential zone (APZ) is classified as an APZ I, it means that it is located within the runway clear zone and has a significant potential for accidents. This means that there is a high likelihood of accidents occurring in this zone, indicating a greater risk compared to other classifications such as APZ II, which has only a slight potential for accidents.Rate this question:
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- 22.
In terms of airfield airspace criteria, an obstruction can refer to
- A.
Objects of natural growth only
- B.
existing man-made objects only
- C.
existing or proposed man-made objects only
- D.
Man-made objects, objects of natural growth, and terrain
Correct Answer
D. Man-made objects, objects of natural growth, and terrainExplanation
In terms of airfield airspace criteria, an obstruction can refer to man-made objects, objects of natural growth, and terrain. This means that any structure or object that may interfere with the safe operation of aircraft, whether it is man-made or naturally occurring, or even the natural terrain of the area, can be considered an obstruction. This broad definition ensures that all potential hazards are taken into account when assessing the airspace around an airfield.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which is not considered an obstruction to air navigation?
- A.
An object 600 feet tall at the site of the object
- B.
A 100-foot tall object within 3 nautical miles of the airfield reference point
- C.
A 400-foot tall object within 4 nautical miles of the airfield reference point
- D.
A 500-foot tall object within 4 nautical miles from the airfield reference point
Correct Answer
B. A 100-foot tall object within 3 nautical miles of the airfield reference pointExplanation
An object 600 feet tall at the site of the object is considered an obstruction to air navigation because it exceeds the maximum height limit for objects in close proximity to the airfield reference point. A 100-foot tall object within 3 nautical miles of the airfield reference point is not considered an obstruction to air navigation because it is within the height limit and distance limit set for objects near the airfield reference point.Rate this question:
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- 24.
. What type of traverse way requires a minimum of 23 feet vertical clearance?
- A.
Interstate highway
- B.
Military roads
- C.
Waterways
- D.
Railroads
Correct Answer
D. RailroadsExplanation
Railroads require a minimum of 23 feet vertical clearance because trains are significantly taller than other forms of transportation. This clearance is necessary to ensure that trains can pass safely under bridges and other structures along the railroad tracks without any obstructions. It is important to have this clearance to prevent accidents and damage to both the train and the structures above.Rate this question:
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- 25.
. Which runway imaginary surface is an oval-shaped plane at an elevation of 150 feet above the airfield evaluation?
- A.
Clear Zone
- B.
Conical surface
- C.
Primary surface
- D.
Inner horizontal surface
Correct Answer
D. Inner horizontal surfaceExplanation
The inner horizontal surface is an imaginary oval-shaped plane that is located at an elevation of 150 feet above the airfield evaluation. It is designed to protect aircraft operating in the vicinity of the airfield and ensures that there are no obstacles or structures that could interfere with the safe takeoff and landing of aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Who approves all Air Force-wide programs to ensure they confirm with DoDI 2000.16, DOD Antiterrorism Standards?
- A.
Air Force Civil Engineer (AF/ILE)
- B.
Air Force Anti-terrorism Chief, AF/IT
- C.
Force Protection working group, (FPWG)
- D.
Air Force Deputy Chief of Staff, Air & Space Operations (AF/XO)
Correct Answer
D. Air Force Deputy Chief of Staff, Air & Space Operations (AF/XO)Explanation
The Air Force Deputy Chief of Staff, Air & Space Operations (AF/XO) approves all Air Force-wide programs to ensure they conform with DoDI 2000.16, DOD Antiterrorism Standards.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which of the following is not one of the steps of engineer anti-terrorism/force protection (AT/FP) planning?
- A.
Identity Constraints
- B.
Design protective systems to counter threats
- C.
Determine levels of protection for assets
- D.
Identify non-combatants on the installation
Correct Answer
D. Identify non-combatants on the installationExplanation
The correct answer is "Identify non-combatants on the installation." This is not one of the steps of engineer anti-terrorism/force protection (AT/FP) planning. The other options, such as "Identity Constraints," "Design protective systems to counter threats," and "Determine levels of protection for assets," are all steps involved in AT/FP planning.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What are the three categories of assets you should consider for anti-terrorism/force protection (AT/FP)?
- A.
Personnel, equipment, and aircraft
- B.
Personnel, materials, and aircraft
- C.
Facilities, aircraft, and personnel
- D.
Facilities, equipment and materials, and personnel
Correct Answer
D. Facilities, equipment and materials, and personnelExplanation
The three categories of assets that should be considered for anti-terrorism/force protection (AT/FP) are facilities, equipment and materials, and personnel. These categories encompass the physical infrastructure, resources, and human resources that need to be protected against potential terrorist threats or attacks. By considering these three categories, comprehensive security measures can be implemented to safeguard against potential risks and ensure the safety and security of the organization or facility.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which aggressors are usually oriented around an ideology, a political cause, or an issue and commonly work in small, well-organized groups with sophistication and efficient planning capability
- A.
Criminals
- B.
Protestors
- C.
Terrorists
- D.
Subversives
Correct Answer
C. TerroristsExplanation
Terrorists are usually oriented around an ideology, a political cause, or an issue and commonly work in small, well-organized groups with sophistication and efficient planning capability. They engage in acts of violence and use fear and intimidation as a means to achieve their objectives.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Facilities are chosen for anti-terrorism /Force protection (AT/FP) measures based on?
- A.
their current use and the assets they house
- B.
Their proximity to base entrance and exit points
- C.
The cost to rebuild them and replace their contents
- D.
the presence of classified materials within them
Correct Answer
A. their current use and the assets they houseExplanation
Facilities are chosen for anti-terrorism/Force protection (AT/FP) measures based on their current use and the assets they house. This means that facilities that are currently being used and house valuable assets are given priority for AT/FP measures. This is because these facilities are more likely to be targeted by terrorists or pose a higher risk to the base's security. By focusing on these facilities, the base can allocate resources effectively and ensure that the most critical areas are protected.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which attack tactic might be used to destroy a building while allowing the aggressors to maintain distance from the occupants?
- A.
Stationary vehicle bomb
- B.
Moving vehicle bomb
- C.
Exterior attack
- D.
Forced entry
Correct Answer
A. Stationary vehicle bombExplanation
A stationary vehicle bomb would be the most likely attack tactic to destroy a building while allowing the aggressors to maintain distance from the occupants. By parking a vehicle filled with explosives near the building and detonating it remotely, the attackers can cause significant damage without putting themselves in immediate danger. This tactic allows them to stay at a safe distance from the explosion while still achieving their goal of destroying the building.Rate this question:
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- 32.
When deciding which assets to protect in an anti-terrorism/force protection (AT/FP) program, you should
- A.
balance the physical, resource, and political constraints against your asset priority list.
- B.
Ignore political constraints because diplomatic channels will overcome them.
- C.
Assume that all necessary resources will be available for AT/FP measures
- D.
enact desirable AT/FP measures regardless of constraints
Correct Answer
A. balance the physical, resource, and political constraints against your asset priority list.Explanation
The correct answer is to balance the physical, resource, and political constraints against your asset priority list. This means that when deciding which assets to protect in an anti-terrorism/force protection program, you need to consider the physical vulnerabilities of the assets, the resources available to protect them, and the political constraints that may affect the implementation of protective measures. By prioritizing assets based on these factors and finding a balance between them, you can effectively allocate resources and implement appropriate measures to protect the assets.Rate this question:
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- 33.
If possible, assets to be protected under the anti-terrorism/force-protection (AT/FP) program should
- A.
not be identified with signs.
- B.
Be located around the exterior walls of buildings.
- C.
be located near activities with large visitor population.
- D.
not be located where they are visible to more than one person.
Correct Answer
A. not be identified with signs.Explanation
Assets should not be identified with signs under the anti-terrorism/force-protection (AT/FP) program because signage can make them more vulnerable to attacks. By not identifying assets with signs, it becomes more difficult for potential terrorists to identify and target specific assets. This helps to enhance the security and protection of these assets.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Expeditionary site planning (ESP) is mainly associated with
- A.
long-range planning for permanent installations.
- B.
Short-range planning for permanent installations
- C.
Long-range forecasting for national security strategy
- D.
locations where the air force presence is not permanent
Correct Answer
D. locations where the air force presence is not permanentExplanation
Expeditionary site planning (ESP) is mainly associated with locations where the air force presence is not permanent. This means that ESP focuses on planning for temporary or mobile installations, rather than long-term or permanent ones. This could include planning for deployments, exercises, or other short-term operations where the air force needs to establish a presence in a specific location. ESP involves considerations such as site selection, logistics, infrastructure, and security for these temporary installations.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which of the following is primarily developed for locations with a permanent Air Force presence?
- A.
Expeditionary site plan (ESP)
- B.
Aircraft mishap survey plan (AMSP)
- C.
Expeditionary site survey process (ESSP)
- D.
In-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP)
Correct Answer
D. In-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP)Explanation
The In-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) is primarily developed for locations with a permanent Air Force presence. This plan is specifically designed for use in garrison, or permanent, locations where the Air Force has a long-term presence. It outlines the necessary steps and procedures for setting up and operating expeditionary sites in these locations. The other options, such as the Expeditionary site plan (ESP), Aircraft mishap survey plan (AMSP), and Expeditionary site survey process (ESSP), may be used in different scenarios or locations, but they are not primarily developed for locations with a permanent Air Force presence.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which template identifies resources and capabilities of a location by functional area?
- A.
Part II, Expeditionary Site Plan (ESP)
- B.
Part I, Expeditionary site survey process (ESSP)
- C.
Part II, In-Garrisson Expeditionary Site Plan (IGESP)
- D.
Part II, Expeditionary Site Survey Process (ESSP)
Correct Answer
B. Part I, Expeditionary site survey process (ESSP)Explanation
The correct answer is Part I, Expeditionary site survey process (ESSP). This template is used to identify resources and capabilities of a location by functional area. It is the initial step in the process of conducting a site survey for an expeditionary site. The site survey helps to gather information about the location, such as the availability of infrastructure, utilities, and other resources that are necessary for the successful operation of the site.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which template identifies limiting factors (LIMFAC)?
- A.
Part II, Expeditionary Site Planning (ESP)
- B.
Part I, Expeditionary Site Survey Process (ESSP)
- C.
Part II, In-Garrison Expeditionary Site Plan (IGESP)
- D.
Part II, Expeditionary Site Survey Process (ESSP)
Correct Answer
D. Part II, Expeditionary Site Survey Process (ESSP)Explanation
The correct answer is Part II, Expeditionary Site Survey Process (ESSP). This template is specifically designed to identify limiting factors (LIMFAC) during the site survey process. It provides a systematic approach to assess and analyze various factors that may limit or affect the planning and execution of an expeditionary site. By using this template, planners can identify potential challenges and constraints in order to develop effective solutions and contingency plans.Rate this question:
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- 38.
You will find a complete listing of the functional responsibilities for beddown operations in
- A.
AFI 10-219
- B.
AFI 10-404
- C.
AFH 10-222 v5
- D.
AFI 32-1042
Correct Answer
B. AFI 10-404Explanation
The correct answer is AFI 10-404 because it is the only option listed that is relevant to the functional responsibilities for beddown operations. AFI 10-404 is likely a specific Air Force Instruction that outlines the guidelines and procedures for beddown operations, providing a comprehensive listing of the functional responsibilities involved in this process. The other options listed may be related to other aspects of Air Force operations, but they are not specifically focused on beddown operations.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Who provides command policy and guidance for implementing in-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and expeditionary site planning (ESP) concepts to meet the command's specific missions?
- A.
AF/ILE
- B.
AF/XO
- C.
AF/ILG
- D.
Major command (MAJCOM)
Correct Answer
D. Major command (MAJCOM)Explanation
The Major command (MAJCOM) provides command policy and guidance for implementing in-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and expeditionary site planning (ESP) concepts to meet the command's specific missions.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which of the following is not a responsibility of major command (MAJCOM) functional managers?
- A.
Take appropriate action to resolve subordinate unit limiting factors (LIMFAC)
- B.
Coordinate site survey requests with major command (MAJCOM) logistics plans function
- C.
Exercise management control over the expeditionary site planning (ESP) program
- D.
Coordinate efforts with MAJCOM logistics plans function and appropriate numbered air force (NAF) agencie
Correct Answer
C. Exercise management control over the expeditionary site planning (ESP) programExplanation
The correct answer is "Exercise management control over the expeditionary site planning (ESP) program." This is not a responsibility of major command (MAJCOM) functional managers.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What are the three sub-processes of the expeditionary site survey process (ESSP)?
- A.
Pre-site survey, site survey, post-site survey
- B.
Site selection, data selection, storage and access
- C.
Site survey, data selection, post-site survey
- D.
Pre-site survey, storage and access, post-site survey
Correct Answer
B. Site selection, data selection, storage and accessExplanation
The three sub-processes of the expeditionary site survey process (ESSP) are site selection, data selection, and storage and access. Site selection involves identifying and choosing the appropriate location for the survey. Data selection involves collecting and choosing the relevant data needed for the survey. Storage and access involve storing the collected data and ensuring it is easily accessible for analysis and future reference.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Information gathered during an expeditionary site survey is used to generate the
- A.
limiting factors (LIMFAC)
- B.
Airfield suitability assessment
- C.
employment knowledge base (EKB)
- D.
Anti-terrorism/force protection (AT/FP) plan
Correct Answer
B. Airfield suitability assessmentExplanation
During an expeditionary site survey, information is collected and analyzed to determine the suitability of an airfield for specific operations. This assessment takes into account various factors such as runway condition, available facilities, and potential obstacles that may affect aircraft operations. It helps to identify any limitations or constraints that may impact the use of the airfield and allows for proper planning and decision-making regarding its employment.Rate this question:
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- 43.
During an expeditionary site survey, data is collected in which components?
- A.
Site selection, site survey, reporting
- B.
Pre-site survey, site survey, post-site survey
- C.
Pre-site survey, site survey database development
- D.
Site selection, database development, airfield suitability survey
Correct Answer
B. Pre-site survey, site survey, post-site surveyExplanation
During an expeditionary site survey, data is collected in three main components: pre-site survey, site survey, and post-site survey. The pre-site survey involves gathering information and conducting research before visiting the site. The site survey is the actual on-site data collection process, where measurements, observations, and assessments are made. The post-site survey involves analyzing and reporting the collected data, which includes summarizing findings, identifying potential issues or improvements, and making recommendations. These three components together ensure a comprehensive assessment of the site and provide valuable information for decision-making.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Expeditionary site survey data collected with the survey tool for employment planning (STEP) is stored in the
- A.
Reconnaissance information database (RID)
- B.
Employment knowledge base (EKB)
- C.
Expeditionary site assessment tool (ESAT)
- D.
Beddown capability assessment tool (BCAT)
Correct Answer
B. Employment knowledge base (EKB)Explanation
The correct answer is Employment knowledge base (EKB). The question asks where the expeditionary site survey data collected with the survey tool for employment planning (STEP) is stored. The employment knowledge base (EKB) is a logical choice for storing this data as it is a repository of information related to employment planning and can provide valuable insights for future deployments. The other options, such as the reconnaissance information database (RID), expeditionary site assessment tool (ESAT), and beddown capability assessment tool (BCAT), do not specifically mention their relevance to storing survey data for employment planning.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Who should units desiring to conduct site surveys outside of their area of responsibility (AOr) contact for permission?
- A.
AF Deputy Chief of Staff, Air & space operations (AF/XO)
- B.
Director of Logistics Readiness (AF/ILG)
- C.
Their own wing commander
- D.
Their own major command (MAJCOM)
Correct Answer
D. Their own major command (MAJCOM)Explanation
Units desiring to conduct site surveys outside of their area of responsibility (AOR) should contact their own major command (MAJCOM) for permission. The MAJCOM is responsible for overseeing and coordinating operations within their specific command, so they would have the authority to grant or deny permission for site surveys outside of the unit's AOR. This ensures that proper coordination and authorization are obtained before conducting any activities outside of their designated area.Rate this question:
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- 46.
How many members should an expeditionary site survey team have?
- A.
Three
- B.
Five
- C.
Ten
- D.
Depends on the mission
Correct Answer
D. Depends on the missionExplanation
The number of members required for an expeditionary site survey team depends on the mission at hand. Different missions may have varying requirements in terms of manpower, expertise, and resources. Therefore, the team size should be determined based on the specific needs and objectives of the mission to ensure its successful execution.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What is the purpose of the follow-on team in an expeditionary site survey?
- A.
Produce an airfield suitability survey
- B.
Gather data relevant to the success of the specific mission
- C.
Produce minimum essential data such as a full spectrum threat assessment
- D.
Gather data for the expeditionary combat support (ECS) beddown assessment
Correct Answer
B. Gather data relevant to the success of the specific missionExplanation
The purpose of the follow-on team in an expeditionary site survey is to gather data relevant to the success of the specific mission. This means that the team is responsible for collecting information that is necessary for the mission to be accomplished effectively. This data could include factors such as terrain analysis, weather conditions, logistical considerations, and any other information that is crucial for the mission's success. By gathering this data, the follow-on team ensures that the mission has the necessary information and resources to be completed successfully.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Who certifies the data collected by an expeditionary site survey team?
- A.
All team members
- B.
Site survey team chief
- C.
Major command (MAJCOM) commander
- D.
Director of Logistics Readiness (AF/ILG)
Correct Answer
B. Site survey team chiefExplanation
The site survey team chief certifies the data collected by an expeditionary site survey team. This individual is responsible for overseeing the entire survey process and ensuring that accurate and reliable data is collected. They have the authority and expertise to validate the information gathered by the team and certify its accuracy.Rate this question:
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- 49.
In the context of expeditionary site planning, what are limiting factors (LIMFAC)?
- A.
Minor supply shortfalls
- B.
Budget shortfalls that must be made up
- C.
Enemy strengths that threaten combat support operations
- D.
Personnel or materiel deficiencies that threaten the mission
Correct Answer
D. Personnel or materiel deficiencies that threaten the missionExplanation
Limiting factors (LIMFAC) in the context of expeditionary site planning refer to personnel or materiel deficiencies that pose a threat to the successful execution of the mission. These deficiencies can include inadequate manpower, equipment, or resources necessary for the mission's accomplishment. They can hinder the ability to effectively carry out combat support operations and may require immediate attention and resolution to ensure the mission's success.Rate this question:
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- 50.
In AFI 10-404, Base support and expeditionary site Planning, where would you find guidance on depicting utility layouts that reflect possible expansion on USAF and host nation lines?
- A.
Attachment 8 (Ch 7, "Airfield operations, Part 1")
- B.
Attachment 9 (Ch 8, "Airfield Loading/Parking Plan, Part 2)
- C.
Attachment 45 (Ch 44, "Maps, Part 1")
- D.
Attachment 46 (Ch 45, "combat Logistic Support, Part 1")
Correct Answer
C. Attachment 45 (Ch 44, "Maps, Part 1")Explanation
In AFI 10-404, the guidance on depicting utility layouts that reflect possible expansion on USAF and host nation lines can be found in Attachment 45 (Ch 44, "Maps, Part 1"). This attachment specifically focuses on maps and would likely provide the necessary information and instructions for accurately depicting utility layouts.Rate this question:
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Mar 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Nov 09, 2011Quiz Created by
BeckerL23
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