Work And Technology Quiz
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Technology plays a vital role when it comes to working in the modern world. Are you ready to test your knowledge with this work and technology quiz? The impact of technology on work is huge, both in manufacturing as well as in communication. It has exponentially increased the production rate and the speed at which business occurs. Technology in the workplace or in any job has helped workers become more efficient than ever before. So, let's find out what you know about it!
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?
- A.
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–200.
- B.
AFI 91–202.
- C.
Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 91–200.
- D.
AFMAN 91–202.
Correct Answer
B. AFI 91–202.Explanation
The correct answer is AFI 91-202 because it specifically mentions the Mishap Prevention Program, indicating that this publication is the one that implements the program. The other options (AFI 91-200, AFMAN 91-200, and AFMAN 91-202) do not mention the Mishap Prevention Program, so they are not the correct choices.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?
- A.
Prevent the use of unsafe equipment.
- B.
Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices.
- C.
Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices.
- D.
Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.
Correct Answer
D. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.Explanation
The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death. This program aims to prevent accidents and mishaps by implementing safety measures and practices. It focuses on identifying potential hazards, assessing risks, and implementing preventive measures to ensure the safety and well-being of both resources and personnel.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of
- A.
Commerce.
- B.
The Treasury.
- C.
Defense.
- D.
Labor.
Correct Answer
D. Labor.Explanation
The correct answer is Labor. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a regulatory agency that falls under the United States Department of Labor. OSHA is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees by setting and enforcing standards and providing training, outreach, education, and assistance to employers and workers.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?
- A.
Air Staff.
- B.
Civil Engineering.
- C.
Squadron commander.
- D.
Installation safety office.
Correct Answer
D. Installation safety office.Explanation
The Installation Safety Office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They are specifically designated to handle safety concerns and provide guidance to ensure the safety of personnel and operations within the installation.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?
- A.
Develop a job safety training outline (JSTO).
- B.
Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).
- C.
Review AF Form 55.
- D.
Certify the employee.
Correct Answer
B. Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).Explanation
Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves identifying potential hazards associated with the task, assessing the risks involved, and developing appropriate control measures to mitigate those risks. Conducting a JSA helps ensure that the task is performed safely and that employees are aware of and prepared for any potential dangers they may encounter.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?
- A.
475.
- B.
480.
- C.
978.
- D.
980.
Correct Answer
C. 978.Explanation
The correct answer is 978. The Air Force uses form 978 to report ground mishaps.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?
- A.
475.
- B.
480.
- C.
978.
- D.
980.
Correct Answer
A. 475.Explanation
The correct answer is 475. The Air Force uses AF Form 475 to report a hazard. This form is used to document and report any potential hazards or unsafe conditions that may pose a risk to personnel, equipment, or operations. By using this form, the Air Force can identify and address these hazards in order to ensure the safety and well-being of its personnel and assets.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What three sub-categories make up human factors?
- A.
Physiological, physical, stress.
- B.
Physiological, Physical, social.
- C.
Stress, organizational, physical.
- D.
Physical, physiological, organizational.
Correct Answer
D. Physical, physiological, organizational.Explanation
The correct answer is Physical, physiological, organizational. Human factors refer to the study of how humans interact with systems and environments. The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical factors, which involve the physical aspects of the human body and its capabilities; physiological factors, which focus on the psychological and cognitive processes of individuals; and organizational factors, which consider the social and organizational aspects that influence human performance.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which action is a physiological factor?
- A.
Performing a task while fatigued.
- B.
Performing a task while intoxicated.
- C.
Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.
- D.
Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness.
Correct Answer
C. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders. -
- 10.
Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?
- A.
Bioenvironmental Engineering.
- B.
Installation safety office.
- C.
Base civil engineer.
- D.
Supervisors.
Correct Answer
A. Bioenvironmental Engineering.Explanation
Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess and evaluate the potential risks and hazards in the environment and provide recommendations on how to control and minimize those risks. This includes measures such as implementing safety protocols, conducting regular inspections, and providing guidance on the proper use of protective equipment. The other options, such as the Installation Safety Office, Base Civil Engineer, and Supervisors, may have roles in implementing and enforcing these controls, but it is the Bioenvironmental Engineering department that recommends them.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.
- A.
Isolating operations.
- B.
Providing administrative controls.
- C.
Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).
- D.
Substitution a less hazardous material or process.
Correct Answer
C. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).Explanation
The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it only protects the individual wearing the PPE and does not address the hazard at its source. It should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards as it does not eliminate or reduce the hazard, but rather provides a barrier between the hazard and the individual. It is more effective to eliminate or reduce the hazard through methods such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process.Rate this question:
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- 12.
How many impact classifications do hardhats have?
- A.
One.
- B.
Two.
- C.
Three.
- D.
Four.
Correct Answer
B. Two.Explanation
Hardhats have two impact classifications. This means that they are designed to protect against two different levels of impact: low impact and high impact. The classification is based on the hat's ability to absorb and distribute the force of an impact, providing different levels of protection depending on the situation.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?
- A.
A.
- B.
C.
- C.
E.
- D.
G.
Correct Answer
B. C.Explanation
Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors. This means that if someone wearing a class C helmet comes into contact with an electrical conductor, they are not protected from electric shock or electrocution. It is important to use the appropriate helmet class for the specific task to ensure safety and prevent accidents.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?
- A.
Falls.
- B.
Poor lighting.
- C.
Horseplay.
- D.
Poor ergonomics.
Correct Answer
A. Falls.Explanation
Falls are the greatest hazard in the typical office because they can result in serious injuries. Slippery floors, tripping hazards, and improper use of ladders or stairs can all contribute to falls. Poor lighting, horseplay, and poor ergonomics can also be hazards in the office, but falls pose the highest risk as they can lead to fractures, sprains, and head injuries. It is important for employers to take measures to prevent falls, such as maintaining a clean and dry workspace, providing adequate lighting, and ensuring proper training on ladder and stair safety.Rate this question:
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- 15.
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?
- A.
1 to 2.
- B.
2 to 2.5.
- C.
2 to 4.5.
- D.
2.5 to 3.
Correct Answer
B. 2 to 2.5. -
- 16.
What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?
- A.
8.
- B.
9.
- C.
10.
- D.
11.
Correct Answer
C. 10.Explanation
Chapter 10 in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.Rate this question:
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- 17.
How are fires classified?
- A.
Fuel type.
- B.
Heat source.
- C.
Temperature.
- D.
Atmospheric conditions.
Correct Answer
A. Fuel type.Explanation
Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different types of fuel, such as wood, paper, or flammable liquids, can produce different types of fires. By understanding the fuel type, firefighters can determine the most effective methods to extinguish the fire and minimize the risk of spreading. Heat source, temperature, and atmospheric conditions may also play a role in the behavior of the fire, but the primary factor in classification is the fuel type.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What classification do flammable liquids receive?
- A.
Class A.
- B.
Class B.
- C.
Class C.
- D.
Class D.
Correct Answer
B. Class B.Explanation
Flammable liquids are classified as Class B. This classification is used to identify substances that can easily catch fire and ignite when exposed to an open flame or heat source. Class B flammable liquids have a flash point below 100 degrees Fahrenheit and include substances such as gasoline, ethanol, and acetone. It is important to handle and store these liquids with caution to prevent accidents and fires.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?
- A.
Class A.
- B.
Class B.
- C.
Class C.
- D.
Class D.
Correct Answer
C. Class C.Explanation
When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they will change to Class C. The introduction of an electric current can alter the properties of the fuel, causing it to become more volatile and flammable. Class C fuels are characterized by their ability to conduct electricity and their increased risk of combustion when exposed to an ignition source.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?
- A.
Evacuate personnel from the building.
- B.
Extinguish the fire if possible.
- C.
Call the fire department.
- D.
Sound the fire alarm.
Correct Answer
D. Sound the fire alarm.Explanation
When encountering a fire, the first action to take should be to sound the fire alarm. This is important because it alerts everyone in the building to the presence of the fire, allowing them to evacuate quickly and safely. Evacuating personnel from the building should be the next step, ensuring that everyone is out of harm's way. Calling the fire department is also crucial, as they are trained professionals who can handle the situation effectively. Extinguishing the fire, if possible, can be done after these initial steps have been taken.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?
- A.
Evacuate personnel from the building.
- B.
Extinguish the fire if possible.
- C.
Call the fire department.
- D.
Sound the fire alarm.
Correct Answer
B. Extinguish the fire if possible.Explanation
The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate fire extinguishing methods and equipment to try and put out the fire. It is important to assess the situation and determine if it is safe to attempt extinguishing the fire before proceeding. Evacuating personnel from the building, calling the fire department, and sounding the fire alarm are all important steps in the firefighting procedure, but they come before the step of attempting to extinguish the fire.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?
- A.
50.
- B.
40.
- C.
20.
- D.
10.
Correct Answer
A. 50.Explanation
Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. Cardiac arrest occurs when the heart's electrical system is disrupted, leading to an abnormal heart rhythm. This disruption can be caused by an electric shock or current passing through the body. A current of 50 milliamps is considered dangerous and can interfere with the heart's normal electrical signals, potentially leading to cardiac arrest.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which ladder practice is not prohibited?
- A.
Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.
- B.
Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder.
- C.
Using a ladder as a scaffold.
- D.
Using a homemade ladder.
Correct Answer
A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.Explanation
Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, which means it does not conduct electricity. Therefore, using a wooden ladder near electrical circuits does not pose a significant risk of electric shock or other electrical hazards. However, the other options are prohibited for safety reasons. Carrying material while ascending or descending a ladder can lead to loss of balance and falls. Using a ladder as a scaffold is not recommended as it may not provide proper stability and support. Homemade ladders may not meet safety standards and can be unstable or unsafe to use.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?
- A.
Accept no unnecessary risk.
- B.
Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
- C.
Apply the process irregularly and continuously.
- D.
Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels.
Correct Answer
C. Apply the process irregularly and continuously.Explanation
Risk management involves identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks, as well as implementing strategies to mitigate or manage those risks. Applying the process irregularly and continuously would be counterproductive to effective risk management. Risk management should be a consistent and ongoing process, rather than sporadic or inconsistent.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The risk management process includes how many steps?
- A.
Four.
- B.
Five.
- C.
Six.
- D.
Seven.
Correct Answer
B. Five.Explanation
The correct answer is Five. The risk management process typically includes five steps: risk identification, risk assessment, risk mitigation, risk monitoring, and risk communication. These steps are essential in identifying potential risks, evaluating their impact and likelihood, implementing measures to reduce or eliminate them, continuously monitoring the risks, and effectively communicating them to stakeholders.Rate this question:
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- 26.
How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?
- A.
One.
- B.
Two.
- C.
Three.
- D.
Four.
Correct Answer
D. Four.Explanation
The correct answer is four because the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification is composed of four volumes. Each volume addresses a different aspect of the framework, including the overall architecture, the systems, the data, and the technical standards.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?
- A.
Office of Administration.
- B.
Office of Communications.
- C.
Office of Public Engagement.
- D.
Office of Management and Budget.
Correct Answer
D. Office of Management and Budget.Explanation
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?
- A.
State level.
- B.
Federal level.
- C.
Congressional level.
- D.
Department of Defense level.
Correct Answer
B. Federal level.Explanation
The correct answer is Federal level. Air Force architectures are developed based on requirements mandated at the federal level. This means that the development of these architectures is guided by the policies, regulations, and priorities set by the federal government. These requirements take into account national security objectives, budgetary considerations, and overall defense strategy. It is important for the Air Force to align its architectures with the federal level requirements to ensure effective integration and interoperability with other branches of the military and government agencies.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?
- A.
Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record.
- B.
Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record.
- C.
Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.
- D.
Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record.
Correct Answer
C. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.Explanation
The correct answer is administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. These three parts make up the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR). The administrative record includes information about the installation, such as project details and documentation. The drawing record includes diagrams and schematics of the installation. The maintenance record includes information about any maintenance or repairs performed on the system.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?
- A.
Administrative record.
- B.
Maintenance record.
- C.
Drawing record.
- D.
Outage record.
Correct Answer
C. Drawing record.Explanation
The drawing record section of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts the physical layout of communications and information systems and provides engineering data. This section typically includes detailed diagrams, schematics, and blueprints that illustrate the placement and configuration of the systems. It serves as a visual reference for technicians and engineers involved in the installation and maintenance of the systems.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?
- A.
Administrative record.
- B.
Maintenance record.
- C.
Drawing record.
- D.
Outage record.
Correct Answer
B. Maintenance record.Explanation
The correct answer is maintenance record. The maintenance record is typically retained in the production work center of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR). This record contains important information about the maintenance activities performed on the systems, including repairs, upgrades, and inspections. It helps to track the history of maintenance and ensure that the systems are functioning properly.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify?
- A.
Programming.
- B.
Transport.
- C.
Network.
- D.
Data.
Correct Answer
C. Network.Explanation
The seven layers of the OSI reference model specify different functions in the networking process. These layers include the physical layer, data link layer, network layer, transport layer, session layer, presentation layer, and application layer. Each layer has its own specific role and responsibilities. The network layer, in particular, is responsible for addressing, routing, and forwarding data packets across different networks. It ensures that data is properly delivered from the source to the destination by managing logical network connections and performing routing protocols.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model.
- A.
Data Transport and Application.
- B.
Session and Data Transport.
- C.
Network and Presentation.
- D.
Application and Session.
Correct Answer
A. Data Transport and Application.Explanation
The correct answer is Data Transport and Application. The OSI reference model consists of seven layers: Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application. The Data Transport layer is responsible for the reliable delivery of data between network devices, while the Application layer provides services for user applications to access network resources.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?
- A.
Transport.
- B.
Data Link.
- C.
Physical.
- D.
Session.
Correct Answer
B. Data Link.Explanation
The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the OSI model. The Data Link layer is responsible for providing error-free and reliable transmission of data between two nodes on the same network. The LLC sublayer specifically handles flow control, error control, and framing of data packets. Therefore, the correct answer is Data Link.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?
- A.
Communications between devices over multiple links of a network.
- B.
Communications between devices over a single link of a network.
- C.
Protocol access to the physical network medium.
- D.
Protocol access to the links of a network.
Correct Answer
B. Communications between devices over a single link of a network.Explanation
The logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manages communications between devices over a single link of a network. This sublayer is responsible for providing error control, flow control, and sequencing of frames over a single link. It ensures reliable and efficient communication between devices connected by a single link, handling issues such as frame loss, duplication, and out-of-order delivery.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What does the media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?
- A.
Communications between devices over a single link of a network.
- B.
Communications between devices over multiple links of a network.
- C.
Protocol access to the physical network medium.
- D.
Protocol access to the links of a network.
Correct Answer
C. Protocol access to the physical network medium.Explanation
The media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manages the protocol access to the physical network medium. This means that it controls how devices on a network access and use the physical transmission medium, such as Ethernet cables or wireless frequencies, to send and receive data. The MAC sublayer is responsible for ensuring that multiple devices can share the same medium without interfering with each other, by implementing techniques such as collision detection or token passing.Rate this question:
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- 37.
When used alone, the word “topology” often refers to a network’s
- A.
Transport topology.
- B.
Physical topology.
- C.
Physical medium.
- D.
Logical topology.
Correct Answer
B. Physical topology.Explanation
The word "topology" refers to the arrangement or structure of a network. When used alone, it typically refers to the physical topology, which describes the physical layout or configuration of the network, including the physical connections between devices and the overall physical structure. This is different from the logical topology, which refers to how data is transmitted between devices in the network. The physical medium refers to the actual physical material or medium through which the network signals are transmitted, such as copper wires or fiber optic cables.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What network topology is another name for a bus topology?
- A.
Star.
- B.
Ring.
- C.
Loop.
- D.
Linear.
Correct Answer
D. Linear.Explanation
A bus topology is a network configuration where all devices are connected to a single cable, forming a linear layout. Therefore, the term "linear" is another name for a bus topology.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What topology offers centralized management of a network?
- A.
Bus.
- B.
Star.
- C.
Ring.
- D.
Radial.
Correct Answer
B. Star.Explanation
The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which acts as a central point of control and management for the network. This allows for easy monitoring, troubleshooting, and administration of the network, as all communication flows through the central hub. Additionally, the star topology provides better scalability and fault tolerance compared to other topologies, making it a popular choice for many networks.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?
- A.
There are no negative effects.
- B.
A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication.
- C.
Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices.
- D.
When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.
Correct Answer
D. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.Explanation
When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to facilitate communication between the different networks. If this central node point fails, it can lead to large portions of the network becoming isolated, meaning that communication between those portions will be disrupted. This can have a negative effect on the overall functionality and efficiency of the interconnected star networks.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?
- A.
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
- B.
Federal Communications Commission (FCC).
- C.
Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
- D.
Department of Defense (DOD).
Correct Answer
A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).Explanation
The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body for IT communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and is responsible for managing and securing the DOD information network. They oversee every level of IT communication, from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control. DISA plays a crucial role in ensuring effective and secure communication within the DOD.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?
- A.
Regular of how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.
- B.
Reference location of a particular application or process on each machine (in the application layer).
- C.
Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers.
- D.
Preventer of network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.
Correct Answer
C. Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers.Explanation
A TCP socket is a combination of a port number and an IP address that is used by a process to request network services and is passed as an argument between layers. This allows the process to establish a connection with another process on a different machine and communicate over the network. The port number identifies the specific process or service on the receiving machine, while the IP address identifies the specific machine. By combining these two pieces of information, the TCP socket allows for the establishment of a reliable and secure network connection.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?
- A.
Request network services and pass arguments between layers.
- B.
Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine.
- C.
Prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.
- D.
Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.
Correct Answer
D. Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.Explanation
The purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is to regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. This helps in controlling the flow of data and ensuring that the receiving device is not overwhelmed with data.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?
- A.
Version Identification.
- B.
Header Checksum.
- C.
Time to Live.
- D.
Flags.
Correct Answer
B. Header Checksum.Explanation
The header checksum portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them. The header checksum is a value calculated by the sender that is based on the contents of the IP header. When the datagram reaches its destination, the receiver recalculates the checksum using the received header and compares it to the original checksum. If they do not match, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission, and the datagram is discarded. This ensures the integrity of the IP header and helps to prevent the delivery of corrupted or tampered data.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?
- A.
239.
- B.
254.
- C.
255.
- D.
256.
Correct Answer
C. 255.Explanation
In Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4), an octet represents 8 bits, which can have a maximum value of 255. This is because the binary representation of 255 is 11111111, which is the highest possible combination of 8 bits. Therefore, the correct answer is 255.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?
- A.
Class A address.
- B.
Class B address.
- C.
Class C address.
- D.
Class D address.
Correct Answer
C. Class C address.Explanation
Class C addresses allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. This is because Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which means that the network portion of the address is made up of the first three octets, leaving only the last octet for host addresses. Since the last octet can have a value ranging from 1 to 254 (excluding 0 and 255), there can be a maximum of 254 hosts per network.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What class is reserved for multicast addressing?
- A.
Class A address.
- B.
Class B address.
- C.
Class C address.
- D.
Class D address.
Correct Answer
D. Class D address.Explanation
Class D address is reserved for multicast addressing. In IP addressing, multicast is a method of sending data packets to a group of devices simultaneously. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 and are specifically designated for multicast communication. These addresses allow efficient distribution of data to multiple recipients without the need for individual point-to-point connections.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?
- A.
0–1023.
- B.
1024–49151.
- C.
49152–65535.
- D.
65536–87000.
Correct Answer
A. 0–1023.Explanation
The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are reserved for commonly used services and protocols, such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22).Rate this question:
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- 49.
What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM)?
- A.
ROM is volatile, RAM in non-volatile.
- B.
ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile.
- C.
RAM has a slower access time versus ROM.
- D.
ROM has a slower access time versus RAM.
Correct Answer
B. ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile.Explanation
The major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM) is that ROM is non-volatile, meaning that it retains its data even when power is turned off, while RAM is volatile, meaning that it loses its data when power is turned off.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What action is the main purpose of system cache?
- A.
Speed up system Read Only Memory (ROM).
- B.
Reduce hard drive (HDD) access time to stored data.
- C.
Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data.
- D.
Reduce Random Access Memory (RAM) access time to stored data.
Correct Answer
C. Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data.Explanation
The main purpose of system cache is to reduce the central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. System cache stores frequently accessed data from the main memory (RAM) in a faster cache memory, allowing the CPU to access it more quickly. This helps to improve the overall performance and efficiency of the system by reducing the time it takes for the CPU to retrieve data from the main memory.Rate this question:
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Aug 29, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Feb 16, 2018Quiz Created by
Dowhaniuk
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