Work And Technology Quiz

1. Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?

When it is placed in service.

When it is removed from service.

When the storage container has been cleaned.

When compromise of the combination is suspected.

Cleaning the storage container is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials because cleaning does not necessarily compromise the security of the container or the materials stored inside. Changing the combination should only be done when there is a suspected compromise of the combination, such as if it has been leaked or if unauthorized individuals have gained access to it.

Explanation

Cleaning the storage container is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials because cleaning does not necessarily compromise the security of the container or the materials stored inside. Changing the combination should only be done when there is a suspected compromise of the combination, such as if it has been leaked or if unauthorized individuals have gained access to it.

2. What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provide as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel?

Air Force Portal.

IMDS.

Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS).

Electronic-publications (E-pub).

The Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides the Air Force Portal as a major program that serves as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel. The Air Force Portal is a web-based platform that allows personnel to access various resources such as news, documents, training materials, and collaboration tools. It is designed to streamline communication and provide easy access to important information for Air Force personnel.

Explanation

The Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides the Air Force Portal as a major program that serves as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel. The Air Force Portal is a web-based platform that allows personnel to access various resources such as news, documents, training materials, and collaboration tools. It is designed to streamline communication and provide easy access to important information for Air Force personnel.

3. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of

Commerce.

The Treasury.

Defense.

Labor.

The correct answer is Labor. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a regulatory agency that falls under the United States Department of Labor. OSHA is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees by setting and enforcing standards and providing training, outreach, education, and assistance to employers and workers.

Explanation

The correct answer is Labor. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a regulatory agency that falls under the United States Department of Labor. OSHA is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees by setting and enforcing standards and providing training, outreach, education, and assistance to employers and workers.

4. What three sub-categories make up human factors?

Physiological, physical, stress.

Physiological, Physical, social.

Stress, organizational, physical.

Physical, physiological, organizational.

The correct answer is Physical, physiological, organizational. Human factors refer to the study of how humans interact with systems and environments. The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical factors, which involve the physical aspects of the human body and its capabilities; physiological factors, which focus on the psychological and cognitive processes of individuals; and organizational factors, which consider the social and organizational aspects that influence human performance.

Explanation

The correct answer is Physical, physiological, organizational. Human factors refer to the study of how humans interact with systems and environments. The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical factors, which involve the physical aspects of the human body and its capabilities; physiological factors, which focus on the psychological and cognitive processes of individuals; and organizational factors, which consider the social and organizational aspects that influence human performance.

5. Which action is a physiological factor?

Performing a task while fatigued.

Performing a task while intoxicated.

Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.

Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness.

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

6. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?

1 to 2.

2 to 2.5.

2 to 4.5.

2.5 to 3.

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

7. Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?

Class A.

Class B.

Class C.

Class D.

When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they will change to Class C. The introduction of an electric current can alter the properties of the fuel, causing it to become more volatile and flammable. Class C fuels are characterized by their ability to conduct electricity and their increased risk of combustion when exposed to an ignition source.

Explanation

When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they will change to Class C. The introduction of an electric current can alter the properties of the fuel, causing it to become more volatile and flammable. Class C fuels are characterized by their ability to conduct electricity and their increased risk of combustion when exposed to an ignition source.

8. What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?

Evacuate personnel from the building.

Extinguish the fire if possible.

Call the fire department.

Sound the fire alarm.

The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate fire extinguishing methods and equipment to try and put out the fire. It is important to assess the situation and determine if it is safe to attempt extinguishing the fire before proceeding. Evacuating personnel from the building, calling the fire department, and sounding the fire alarm are all important steps in the firefighting procedure, but they come before the step of attempting to extinguish the fire.

Explanation

The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate fire extinguishing methods and equipment to try and put out the fire. It is important to assess the situation and determine if it is safe to attempt extinguishing the fire before proceeding. Evacuating personnel from the building, calling the fire department, and sounding the fire alarm are all important steps in the firefighting procedure, but they come before the step of attempting to extinguish the fire.

9. Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?

50.

40.

20.

10.

Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. Cardiac arrest occurs when the heart's electrical system is disrupted, leading to an abnormal heart rhythm. This disruption can be caused by an electric shock or current passing through the body. A current of 50 milliamps is considered dangerous and can interfere with the heart's normal electrical signals, potentially leading to cardiac arrest.

Explanation

Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. Cardiac arrest occurs when the heart's electrical system is disrupted, leading to an abnormal heart rhythm. This disruption can be caused by an electric shock or current passing through the body. A current of 50 milliamps is considered dangerous and can interfere with the heart's normal electrical signals, potentially leading to cardiac arrest.

10. Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?

Accept no unnecessary risk.

Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

Apply the process irregularly and continuously.

Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels.

Risk management involves identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks, as well as implementing strategies to mitigate or manage those risks. Applying the process irregularly and continuously would be counterproductive to effective risk management. Risk management should be a consistent and ongoing process, rather than sporadic or inconsistent.

Explanation

Risk management involves identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks, as well as implementing strategies to mitigate or manage those risks. Applying the process irregularly and continuously would be counterproductive to effective risk management. Risk management should be a consistent and ongoing process, rather than sporadic or inconsistent.

11. Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?

Office of Administration.

Office of Communications.

Office of Public Engagement.

Office of Management and Budget.

The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management.

Explanation

The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management.

12. What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?

State level.

Federal level.

Congressional level.

Department of Defense level.

The correct answer is Federal level. Air Force architectures are developed based on requirements mandated at the federal level. This means that the development of these architectures is guided by the policies, regulations, and priorities set by the federal government. These requirements take into account national security objectives, budgetary considerations, and overall defense strategy. It is important for the Air Force to align its architectures with the federal level requirements to ensure effective integration and interoperability with other branches of the military and government agencies.

Explanation

The correct answer is Federal level. Air Force architectures are developed based on requirements mandated at the federal level. This means that the development of these architectures is guided by the policies, regulations, and priorities set by the federal government. These requirements take into account national security objectives, budgetary considerations, and overall defense strategy. It is important for the Air Force to align its architectures with the federal level requirements to ensure effective integration and interoperability with other branches of the military and government agencies.

13. Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?

Administrative record.

Maintenance record.

Drawing record.

Outage record.

The drawing record section of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts the physical layout of communications and information systems and provides engineering data. This section typically includes detailed diagrams, schematics, and blueprints that illustrate the placement and configuration of the systems. It serves as a visual reference for technicians and engineers involved in the installation and maintenance of the systems.

Explanation

The drawing record section of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts the physical layout of communications and information systems and provides engineering data. This section typically includes detailed diagrams, schematics, and blueprints that illustrate the placement and configuration of the systems. It serves as a visual reference for technicians and engineers involved in the installation and maintenance of the systems.

14. What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

Star.

Ring.

Loop.

Linear.

A bus topology is a network configuration where all devices are connected to a single cable, forming a linear layout. Therefore, the term "linear" is another name for a bus topology.

Explanation

A bus topology is a network configuration where all devices are connected to a single cable, forming a linear layout. Therefore, the term "linear" is another name for a bus topology.

15. What topology offers centralized management of a network?

Bus.

Star.

Ring.

Radial.

The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which acts as a central point of control and management for the network. This allows for easy monitoring, troubleshooting, and administration of the network, as all communication flows through the central hub. Additionally, the star topology provides better scalability and fault tolerance compared to other topologies, making it a popular choice for many networks.

Explanation

The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which acts as a central point of control and management for the network. This allows for easy monitoring, troubleshooting, and administration of the network, as all communication flows through the central hub. Additionally, the star topology provides better scalability and fault tolerance compared to other topologies, making it a popular choice for many networks.

16. What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?

Request network services and pass arguments between layers.

Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine.

Prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.

Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.

The purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is to regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. This helps in controlling the flow of data and ensuring that the receiving device is not overwhelmed with data.

Explanation

The purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is to regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. This helps in controlling the flow of data and ensuring that the receiving device is not overwhelmed with data.

17. What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?

Version Identification.

Header Checksum.

Time to Live.

Flags.

The header checksum portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them. The header checksum is a value calculated by the sender that is based on the contents of the IP header. When the datagram reaches its destination, the receiver recalculates the checksum using the received header and compares it to the original checksum. If they do not match, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission, and the datagram is discarded. This ensures the integrity of the IP header and helps to prevent the delivery of corrupted or tampered data.

Explanation

The header checksum portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them. The header checksum is a value calculated by the sender that is based on the contents of the IP header. When the datagram reaches its destination, the receiver recalculates the checksum using the received header and compares it to the original checksum. If they do not match, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission, and the datagram is discarded. This ensures the integrity of the IP header and helps to prevent the delivery of corrupted or tampered data.

18. Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?

Service set identifier (SSID) Broadcasting.

Media access control (MAC) Filtering.

Encryption.

Tunneling.

Encryption is the best method for hiding a message in a special code. Encryption is the process of converting plain text into cipher text, which can only be understood by authorized parties who have the decryption key. It ensures that the message remains confidential and secure from unauthorized access. SSID Broadcasting, MAC Filtering, and Tunneling are not specifically related to hiding a message in a special code.

Explanation

Encryption is the best method for hiding a message in a special code. Encryption is the process of converting plain text into cipher text, which can only be understood by authorized parties who have the decryption key. It ensures that the message remains confidential and secure from unauthorized access. SSID Broadcasting, MAC Filtering, and Tunneling are not specifically related to hiding a message in a special code.

19. Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?

Local area network (LAN).

Wide area network (WAN).

Virtual private network (VPN).

Metropolitan area network (MAN).

A virtual private network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the Internet. It allows users to securely access a private network over a public network, such as the Internet. This ensures that the data transmitted between the user's device and the private network is encrypted and protected from unauthorized access. VPNs are commonly used by individuals and organizations to establish secure connections and maintain privacy while accessing the Internet.

Explanation

A virtual private network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the Internet. It allows users to securely access a private network over a public network, such as the Internet. This ensures that the data transmitted between the user's device and the private network is encrypted and protected from unauthorized access. VPNs are commonly used by individuals and organizations to establish secure connections and maintain privacy while accessing the Internet.

20. What Microsoft application is a software program that allows users to create a desktop database?

Word.

Access.

Outlook.

PowerPoint.

Access is a software program developed by Microsoft that allows users to create and manage desktop databases. It provides tools and features for creating tables, forms, queries, and reports, making it easier for users to organize and manipulate data. Word, Outlook, and PowerPoint are not designed for creating databases, but rather for word processing, email management, and presentation purposes respectively. Therefore, Access is the correct answer for this question.

Explanation

Access is a software program developed by Microsoft that allows users to create and manage desktop databases. It provides tools and features for creating tables, forms, queries, and reports, making it easier for users to organize and manipulate data. Word, Outlook, and PowerPoint are not designed for creating databases, but rather for word processing, email management, and presentation purposes respectively. Therefore, Access is the correct answer for this question.

21. Which incidents occur when a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system?

Classified message incident.

Eavesdropping.

Data Spillage.

Backdoor.

When a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system, it is referred to as a classified message incident. This means that sensitive information is being transmitted to a system that is not authorized to handle that level of classified data. This can pose a risk as the lower classification level system may not have the necessary security measures in place to protect the sensitive information.

Explanation

When a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system, it is referred to as a classified message incident. This means that sensitive information is being transmitted to a system that is not authorized to handle that level of classified data. This can pose a risk as the lower classification level system may not have the necessary security measures in place to protect the sensitive information.

22. Which of the following services provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas?

Transport.

Application.

Aerial layer.

Satellite communication (SATCOM).

The aerial layer service provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas. This means that it utilizes aircraft and other aerial platforms to ensure that there is constant and uninterrupted communication coverage over a wide area. This can be particularly useful in situations where ground-based communication infrastructure is limited or unavailable.

Explanation

The aerial layer service provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas. This means that it utilizes aircraft and other aerial platforms to ensure that there is constant and uninterrupted communication coverage over a wide area. This can be particularly useful in situations where ground-based communication infrastructure is limited or unavailable.

23. What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?

Prevent the use of unsafe equipment.

Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices.

Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices.

Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.

The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death. This program aims to prevent accidents and mishaps by implementing safety measures and practices. It focuses on identifying potential hazards, assessing risks, and implementing preventive measures to ensure the safety and well-being of both resources and personnel.

Explanation

The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death. This program aims to prevent accidents and mishaps by implementing safety measures and practices. It focuses on identifying potential hazards, assessing risks, and implementing preventive measures to ensure the safety and well-being of both resources and personnel.

24. Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?

Air Staff.

Civil Engineering.

Squadron commander.

Installation safety office.

The Installation Safety Office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They are specifically designated to handle safety concerns and provide guidance to ensure the safety of personnel and operations within the installation.

Explanation

The Installation Safety Office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They are specifically designated to handle safety concerns and provide guidance to ensure the safety of personnel and operations within the installation.

25. What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?

Develop a job safety training outline (JSTO).

Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).

Review AF Form 55.

Certify the employee.

Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves identifying potential hazards associated with the task, assessing the risks involved, and developing appropriate control measures to mitigate those risks. Conducting a JSA helps ensure that the task is performed safely and that employees are aware of and prepared for any potential dangers they may encounter.

Explanation

Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves identifying potential hazards associated with the task, assessing the risks involved, and developing appropriate control measures to mitigate those risks. Conducting a JSA helps ensure that the task is performed safely and that employees are aware of and prepared for any potential dangers they may encounter.

26. Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?

A.

C.

E.

G.

Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors. This means that if someone wearing a class C helmet comes into contact with an electrical conductor, they are not protected from electric shock or electrocution. It is important to use the appropriate helmet class for the specific task to ensure safety and prevent accidents.

Explanation

Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors. This means that if someone wearing a class C helmet comes into contact with an electrical conductor, they are not protected from electric shock or electrocution. It is important to use the appropriate helmet class for the specific task to ensure safety and prevent accidents.

27. What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

Falls.

Poor lighting.

Horseplay.

Poor ergonomics.

Falls are the greatest hazard in the typical office because they can result in serious injuries. Slippery floors, tripping hazards, and improper use of ladders or stairs can all contribute to falls. Poor lighting, horseplay, and poor ergonomics can also be hazards in the office, but falls pose the highest risk as they can lead to fractures, sprains, and head injuries. It is important for employers to take measures to prevent falls, such as maintaining a clean and dry workspace, providing adequate lighting, and ensuring proper training on ladder and stair safety.

Explanation

Falls are the greatest hazard in the typical office because they can result in serious injuries. Slippery floors, tripping hazards, and improper use of ladders or stairs can all contribute to falls. Poor lighting, horseplay, and poor ergonomics can also be hazards in the office, but falls pose the highest risk as they can lead to fractures, sprains, and head injuries. It is important for employers to take measures to prevent falls, such as maintaining a clean and dry workspace, providing adequate lighting, and ensuring proper training on ladder and stair safety.

28. What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?

8.

9.

10.

11.

Chapter 10 in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.

Explanation

Chapter 10 in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.

29. What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

Evacuate personnel from the building.

Extinguish the fire if possible.

Call the fire department.

Sound the fire alarm.

When encountering a fire, the first action to take should be to sound the fire alarm. This is important because it alerts everyone in the building to the presence of the fire, allowing them to evacuate quickly and safely. Evacuating personnel from the building should be the next step, ensuring that everyone is out of harm's way. Calling the fire department is also crucial, as they are trained professionals who can handle the situation effectively. Extinguishing the fire, if possible, can be done after these initial steps have been taken.

Explanation

When encountering a fire, the first action to take should be to sound the fire alarm. This is important because it alerts everyone in the building to the presence of the fire, allowing them to evacuate quickly and safely. Evacuating personnel from the building should be the next step, ensuring that everyone is out of harm's way. Calling the fire department is also crucial, as they are trained professionals who can handle the situation effectively. Extinguishing the fire, if possible, can be done after these initial steps have been taken.

30. What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model.

Data Transport and Application.

Session and Data Transport.

Network and Presentation.

Application and Session.

The correct answer is Data Transport and Application. The OSI reference model consists of seven layers: Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application. The Data Transport layer is responsible for the reliable delivery of data between network devices, while the Application layer provides services for user applications to access network resources.

Explanation

The correct answer is Data Transport and Application. The OSI reference model consists of seven layers: Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application. The Data Transport layer is responsible for the reliable delivery of data between network devices, while the Application layer provides services for user applications to access network resources.

31. The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?

Transport.

Data Link.

Physical.

Session.

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the OSI model. The Data Link layer is responsible for providing error-free and reliable transmission of data between two nodes on the same network. The LLC sublayer specifically handles flow control, error control, and framing of data packets. Therefore, the correct answer is Data Link.

Explanation

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the OSI model. The Data Link layer is responsible for providing error-free and reliable transmission of data between two nodes on the same network. The LLC sublayer specifically handles flow control, error control, and framing of data packets. Therefore, the correct answer is Data Link.

32. When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network's

Transport topology.

Physical topology.

Physical medium.

Logical topology.

The word "topology" refers to the arrangement or structure of a network. When used alone, it typically refers to the physical topology, which describes the physical layout or configuration of the network, including the physical connections between devices and the overall physical structure. This is different from the logical topology, which refers to how data is transmitted between devices in the network. The physical medium refers to the actual physical material or medium through which the network signals are transmitted, such as copper wires or fiber optic cables.

Explanation

The word "topology" refers to the arrangement or structure of a network. When used alone, it typically refers to the physical topology, which describes the physical layout or configuration of the network, including the physical connections between devices and the overall physical structure. This is different from the logical topology, which refers to how data is transmitted between devices in the network. The physical medium refers to the actual physical material or medium through which the network signals are transmitted, such as copper wires or fiber optic cables.

33. What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

There are no negative effects.

A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication.

Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices.

When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.

When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to facilitate communication between the different networks. If this central node point fails, it can lead to large portions of the network becoming isolated, meaning that communication between those portions will be disrupted. This can have a negative effect on the overall functionality and efficiency of the interconnected star networks.

Explanation

When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to facilitate communication between the different networks. If this central node point fails, it can lead to large portions of the network becoming isolated, meaning that communication between those portions will be disrupted. This can have a negative effect on the overall functionality and efficiency of the interconnected star networks.

34. Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?

Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

Federal Communications Commission (FCC).

Department of Homeland Security (DHS).

Department of Defense (DOD).

The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body for IT communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and is responsible for managing and securing the DOD information network. They oversee every level of IT communication, from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control. DISA plays a crucial role in ensuring effective and secure communication within the DOD.

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body for IT communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and is responsible for managing and securing the DOD information network. They oversee every level of IT communication, from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control. DISA plays a crucial role in ensuring effective and secure communication within the DOD.

35. What class is reserved for multicast addressing?

Class A address.

Class B address.

Class C address.

Class D address.

Class D address is reserved for multicast addressing. In IP addressing, multicast is a method of sending data packets to a group of devices simultaneously. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 and are specifically designated for multicast communication. These addresses allow efficient distribution of data to multiple recipients without the need for individual point-to-point connections.

Explanation

Class D address is reserved for multicast addressing. In IP addressing, multicast is a method of sending data packets to a group of devices simultaneously. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 and are specifically designated for multicast communication. These addresses allow efficient distribution of data to multiple recipients without the need for individual point-to-point connections.

36. What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?

0–1023.

1024–49151.

49152–65535.

65536–87000.

The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are reserved for commonly used services and protocols, such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22).

Explanation

The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are reserved for commonly used services and protocols, such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22).

37. What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode?

Two gigabits per second (GB/S).

Four GB/S.

Five GB/S.

10 GB/S.

USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode has a maximum data transfer rate of five gigabits per second (GB/S). This means that it can transfer data at a speed of five billion bits per second.

Explanation

USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode has a maximum data transfer rate of five gigabits per second (GB/S). This means that it can transfer data at a speed of five billion bits per second.

38. What is a peripheral device?

A main internal component of a computer.

Not a main internal component of a computer.

A main component of a computer and can be either internal or external.

Not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external.

A peripheral device refers to any device that is not a main internal component of a computer and can be either internal or external. This means that it is not essential for the basic functioning of a computer, but it can be connected to enhance or expand its capabilities. Examples of peripheral devices include printers, scanners, keyboards, and mice.

Explanation

A peripheral device refers to any device that is not a main internal component of a computer and can be either internal or external. This means that it is not essential for the basic functioning of a computer, but it can be connected to enhance or expand its capabilities. Examples of peripheral devices include printers, scanners, keyboards, and mice.

39. Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?

Printer.

Scanner.

Monitor.

Camera lens.

A scanner is a device that optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image. It uses a light source to illuminate the object being scanned, and then captures the reflected light using a photosensitive sensor. This captured information is then converted into a digital format that can be displayed or edited on a computer. A printer, monitor, and camera lens do not perform this specific function of converting physical images or text into digital format.

Explanation

A scanner is a device that optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image. It uses a light source to illuminate the object being scanned, and then captures the reflected light using a photosensitive sensor. This captured information is then converted into a digital format that can be displayed or edited on a computer. A printer, monitor, and camera lens do not perform this specific function of converting physical images or text into digital format.

40. Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?

Local area network (LAN).

Wide area network (WAN).

Virtual private network (VPN).

Metropolitan area network (MAN).

A local area network (LAN) is a group of computers and associated devices that are connected to a common communications line. In a LAN, the computers and devices typically share the resources of a single processor or server, making it easier for users to access shared files, printers, and other resources. LANs are typically used within a small geographic area, such as an office building or a campus. This distinguishes them from wide area networks (WANs), which cover larger areas, and virtual private networks (VPNs), which are secure connections over public networks. Metropolitan area networks (MANs) are similar to LANs but cover a larger geographic area.

Explanation

A local area network (LAN) is a group of computers and associated devices that are connected to a common communications line. In a LAN, the computers and devices typically share the resources of a single processor or server, making it easier for users to access shared files, printers, and other resources. LANs are typically used within a small geographic area, such as an office building or a campus. This distinguishes them from wide area networks (WANs), which cover larger areas, and virtual private networks (VPNs), which are secure connections over public networks. Metropolitan area networks (MANs) are similar to LANs but cover a larger geographic area.

41. Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?

Local area network (LAN).

Wide area network (WAN).

Virtual private network (VPN).

Metropolitan area network (MAN).

A wide area network (WAN) is a network that connects local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by utilizing long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company. This allows for the connection and communication between geographically dispersed LANs and MANs over a larger area.

Explanation

A wide area network (WAN) is a network that connects local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by utilizing long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company. This allows for the connection and communication between geographically dispersed LANs and MANs over a larger area.

42. Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data?

Local area network (LAN).

Wide area network (WAN).

Metropolitan area network (MAN).

Wireless local area network (WLAN).

Wireless local area networks (WLANs) use Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data. CSMA/CA is a protocol used in WLANs to ensure that multiple devices can access the network without causing interference or collisions. It works by requiring devices to first listen for ongoing transmissions before attempting to transmit data, and if the channel is clear, the device can transmit. This helps prevent collisions and ensures efficient and reliable data transmission in WLANs.

Explanation

Wireless local area networks (WLANs) use Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data. CSMA/CA is a protocol used in WLANs to ensure that multiple devices can access the network without causing interference or collisions. It works by requiring devices to first listen for ongoing transmissions before attempting to transmit data, and if the channel is clear, the device can transmit. This helps prevent collisions and ensures efficient and reliable data transmission in WLANs.

43. What year did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratifies the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE)?

1988.

1999.

2005.

2009.

In 1999, the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratified the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE). This means that in 1999, the IEEE officially approved and standardized the use of GbE as a networking technology.

Explanation

In 1999, the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratified the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE). This means that in 1999, the IEEE officially approved and standardized the use of GbE as a networking technology.

44. Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling.

Media converter.

Modem.

Switch.

Router.

A media converter is a device that converts the electrical signal used in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling. This conversion allows for the transmission of data over longer distances and at higher speeds. A modem is used to connect a computer or network to the internet, a switch is used to connect multiple devices within a network, and a router is used to connect multiple networks together. None of these devices specifically convert electrical signals to light waves like a media converter does.

Explanation

A media converter is a device that converts the electrical signal used in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling. This conversion allows for the transmission of data over longer distances and at higher speeds. A modem is used to connect a computer or network to the internet, a switch is used to connect multiple devices within a network, and a router is used to connect multiple networks together. None of these devices specifically convert electrical signals to light waves like a media converter does.

45. What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?

Cost to install and train technicians.

Electromagnetic immunity.

Low attenuation.

Security.

The cost to install and train technicians is not an advantage of fiber optic cable. Fiber optic cables are known for their high bandwidth and low attenuation, meaning they can transmit data over long distances without significant loss of signal strength. They also have high security as they are difficult to tap into and are immune to electromagnetic interference. However, the cost associated with installing and training technicians for fiber optic networks can be higher compared to other types of cables.

Explanation

The cost to install and train technicians is not an advantage of fiber optic cable. Fiber optic cables are known for their high bandwidth and low attenuation, meaning they can transmit data over long distances without significant loss of signal strength. They also have high security as they are difficult to tap into and are immune to electromagnetic interference. However, the cost associated with installing and training technicians for fiber optic networks can be higher compared to other types of cables.

46. What Microsoft application is a personal information manager?

Word.

Access.

Outlook.

PowerPoint.

Outlook is a personal information manager developed by Microsoft. It is primarily used for managing emails, calendars, tasks, and contacts. Outlook allows users to send and receive emails, schedule appointments and meetings, organize tasks, and store contact information. It also offers features like reminders, notes, and a journal. Therefore, Outlook is the correct answer as it is specifically designed to manage personal information.

Explanation

Outlook is a personal information manager developed by Microsoft. It is primarily used for managing emails, calendars, tasks, and contacts. Outlook allows users to send and receive emails, schedule appointments and meetings, organize tasks, and store contact information. It also offers features like reminders, notes, and a journal. Therefore, Outlook is the correct answer as it is specifically designed to manage personal information.

47. What information system (IS) threat is the greatest threat to an organization's mission critical information via its communications and ISs?

Malware.

Denial of service attacks

Inadvertent employee activity.

Hostile information operations.

Hostile information operations pose the greatest threat to an organization's mission-critical information via its communications and information systems. Unlike malware, denial of service attacks, and inadvertent employee activity, hostile information operations involve deliberate and targeted actions by external entities seeking to disrupt or compromise an organization's information systems. These operations can include activities such as hacking, espionage, or spreading misinformation, and they can cause significant damage to an organization's ability to function effectively and protect its sensitive information.

Explanation

Hostile information operations pose the greatest threat to an organization's mission-critical information via its communications and information systems. Unlike malware, denial of service attacks, and inadvertent employee activity, hostile information operations involve deliberate and targeted actions by external entities seeking to disrupt or compromise an organization's information systems. These operations can include activities such as hacking, espionage, or spreading misinformation, and they can cause significant damage to an organization's ability to function effectively and protect its sensitive information.

48. Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer system?

Attacker’s capability to exploit the flaw.

System’s susceptibility to a flaw.

Attacker’s access to the flaw.

Attacker’s lack of ability.

The given answer, "Attacker's lack of ability," suggests that it is not a computer system vulnerability. In the context of computer security, vulnerabilities refer to weaknesses or flaws in a system that can be exploited by attackers. The other options, such as the attacker's capability to exploit the flaw, the system's susceptibility to a flaw, and the attacker's access to the flaw, all relate to vulnerabilities and their potential exploitation. Therefore, the answer implies that the lack of ability on the part of an attacker is not considered a vulnerability in a computer system.

Explanation

The given answer, "Attacker's lack of ability," suggests that it is not a computer system vulnerability. In the context of computer security, vulnerabilities refer to weaknesses or flaws in a system that can be exploited by attackers. The other options, such as the attacker's capability to exploit the flaw, the system's susceptibility to a flaw, and the attacker's access to the flaw, all relate to vulnerabilities and their potential exploitation. Therefore, the answer implies that the lack of ability on the part of an attacker is not considered a vulnerability in a computer system.

49. Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?

Malware.

Spyware.

Adware.

Trojans.

Spyware is a type of computer software that is specifically designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. It is often installed without the user's knowledge and can track their online activities, capture passwords, and steal sensitive information. Unlike adware, which displays unwanted advertisements, and Trojans, which disguise themselves as legitimate software, spyware's main purpose is to gather personal data covertly. Therefore, spyware is the correct answer to the question.

Explanation

Spyware is a type of computer software that is specifically designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. It is often installed without the user's knowledge and can track their online activities, capture passwords, and steal sensitive information. Unlike adware, which displays unwanted advertisements, and Trojans, which disguise themselves as legitimate software, spyware's main purpose is to gather personal data covertly. Therefore, spyware is the correct answer to the question.

50. How would you determine if an intrusion detection system is required or another supplemental control is sufficient?

General Service Administration (GSA) makes that determination.

Office of Special Investigation (OSI) makes that determination.

Wing information office makes that determination.

By competing a risk assessment.

To determine if an intrusion detection system is required or if another supplemental control is sufficient, a risk assessment needs to be conducted. This involves evaluating the potential risks and threats to the system and assessing the likelihood and impact of those risks. By completing a risk assessment, an organization can identify the specific security needs and determine if an intrusion detection system is necessary or if other controls can adequately mitigate the identified risks. The General Service Administration, Office of Special Investigation, and Wing information office may have roles in the overall security process, but the ultimate determination of the need for an intrusion detection system is made through a risk assessment.

Explanation

To determine if an intrusion detection system is required or if another supplemental control is sufficient, a risk assessment needs to be conducted. This involves evaluating the potential risks and threats to the system and assessing the likelihood and impact of those risks. By completing a risk assessment, an organization can identify the specific security needs and determine if an intrusion detection system is necessary or if other controls can adequately mitigate the identified risks. The General Service Administration, Office of Special Investigation, and Wing information office may have roles in the overall security process, but the ultimate determination of the need for an intrusion detection system is made through a risk assessment.

51. Which Air Force (AF) form records the destruction of Top Secret classified material?

AF Form 88.

AF Form 143.

AF Form 144.

AF Form 1776.

AF Form 143 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force form specifically designed for recording the destruction of Top Secret classified material. This form ensures that there is a documented record of the destruction process, including the date, time, location, and individuals involved. It helps maintain accountability and security in handling sensitive information.

Explanation

AF Form 143 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force form specifically designed for recording the destruction of Top Secret classified material. This form ensures that there is a documented record of the destruction process, including the date, time, location, and individuals involved. It helps maintain accountability and security in handling sensitive information.

52. Who has the authority a grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday?

Classified Information Program Manager.

Information Assurance Officer.

Security Manager.

Supervisor.

The Security Manager has the authority to grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday. This individual is responsible for overseeing the security protocols and ensuring that classified information is handled appropriately. They have the necessary knowledge and expertise to assess the risks and make informed decisions regarding the shipment of classified materials during non-business hours.

Explanation

The Security Manager has the authority to grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday. This individual is responsible for overseeing the security protocols and ensuring that classified information is handled appropriately. They have the necessary knowledge and expertise to assess the risks and make informed decisions regarding the shipment of classified materials during non-business hours.

53. Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?

Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET).

Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).

Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.

Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data.

The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user.

Explanation

The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user.

54. What system mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users?

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS).

Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

The Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS) is the correct answer because its mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users. This system uses high-frequency radio waves to transmit and receive messages, allowing for long-range and reliable communication in various environments. The other options, SACCS, DCGS, and GCSS, do not specifically focus on providing communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users.

Explanation

The Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS) is the correct answer because its mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users. This system uses high-frequency radio waves to transmit and receive messages, allowing for long-range and reliable communication in various environments. The other options, SACCS, DCGS, and GCSS, do not specifically focus on providing communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users.

55. What system of the Global High Frequency (HF) Network provides rapid, reliable, nondedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war?

Mystic Star.

Global HF system.

Defense Communication System (DCS) entry.

System of Inter-American Telecommunications for the Air Forces (SITFAA).

The correct answer is the Global HF system. This system provides rapid, reliable, nondedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government in various situations such as peacetime, contingency, and war. The other options, Mystic Star, Defense Communication System (DCS) entry, and System of Inter-American Telecommunications for the Air Forces (SITFAA), do not specifically mention the features and purpose described in the question.

Explanation

The correct answer is the Global HF system. This system provides rapid, reliable, nondedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense, aircraft, and ships of the United States government in various situations such as peacetime, contingency, and war. The other options, Mystic Star, Defense Communication System (DCS) entry, and System of Inter-American Telecommunications for the Air Forces (SITFAA), do not specifically mention the features and purpose described in the question.

56. What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?

475.

480.

978.

980.

The correct answer is 475. The Air Force uses AF Form 475 to report a hazard. This form is used to document and report any potential hazards or unsafe conditions that may pose a risk to personnel, equipment, or operations. By using this form, the Air Force can identify and address these hazards in order to ensure the safety and well-being of its personnel and assets.

Explanation

The correct answer is 475. The Air Force uses AF Form 475 to report a hazard. This form is used to document and report any potential hazards or unsafe conditions that may pose a risk to personnel, equipment, or operations. By using this form, the Air Force can identify and address these hazards in order to ensure the safety and well-being of its personnel and assets.

57. Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?

Bioenvironmental Engineering.

Installation safety office.

Base civil engineer.

Supervisors.

Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess and evaluate the potential risks and hazards in the environment and provide recommendations on how to control and minimize those risks. This includes measures such as implementing safety protocols, conducting regular inspections, and providing guidance on the proper use of protective equipment. The other options, such as the Installation Safety Office, Base Civil Engineer, and Supervisors, may have roles in implementing and enforcing these controls, but it is the Bioenvironmental Engineering department that recommends them.

Explanation

Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess and evaluate the potential risks and hazards in the environment and provide recommendations on how to control and minimize those risks. This includes measures such as implementing safety protocols, conducting regular inspections, and providing guidance on the proper use of protective equipment. The other options, such as the Installation Safety Office, Base Civil Engineer, and Supervisors, may have roles in implementing and enforcing these controls, but it is the Bioenvironmental Engineering department that recommends them.

58. What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.

Isolating operations.

Providing administrative controls.

Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).

Substitution a less hazardous material or process.

The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it only protects the individual wearing the PPE and does not address the hazard at its source. It should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards as it does not eliminate or reduce the hazard, but rather provides a barrier between the hazard and the individual. It is more effective to eliminate or reduce the hazard through methods such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process.

Explanation

The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it only protects the individual wearing the PPE and does not address the hazard at its source. It should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards as it does not eliminate or reduce the hazard, but rather provides a barrier between the hazard and the individual. It is more effective to eliminate or reduce the hazard through methods such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process.

59. How many impact classifications do hardhats have?

One.

Two.

Three.

Four.

Hardhats have two impact classifications. This means that they are designed to protect against two different levels of impact: low impact and high impact. The classification is based on the hat's ability to absorb and distribute the force of an impact, providing different levels of protection depending on the situation.

Explanation

Hardhats have two impact classifications. This means that they are designed to protect against two different levels of impact: low impact and high impact. The classification is based on the hat's ability to absorb and distribute the force of an impact, providing different levels of protection depending on the situation.

60. What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?

Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record.

Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record.

Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.

Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record.

The correct answer is administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. These three parts make up the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR). The administrative record includes information about the installation, such as project details and documentation. The drawing record includes diagrams and schematics of the installation. The maintenance record includes information about any maintenance or repairs performed on the system.

Explanation

The correct answer is administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. These three parts make up the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR). The administrative record includes information about the installation, such as project details and documentation. The drawing record includes diagrams and schematics of the installation. The maintenance record includes information about any maintenance or repairs performed on the system.

61. Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?

Administrative record.

Maintenance record.

Drawing record.

Outage record.

The correct answer is maintenance record. The maintenance record is typically retained in the production work center of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR). This record contains important information about the maintenance activities performed on the systems, including repairs, upgrades, and inspections. It helps to track the history of maintenance and ensure that the systems are functioning properly.

Explanation

The correct answer is maintenance record. The maintenance record is typically retained in the production work center of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR). This record contains important information about the maintenance activities performed on the systems, including repairs, upgrades, and inspections. It helps to track the history of maintenance and ensure that the systems are functioning properly.

62. What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify?

Programming.

Transport.

Network.

Data.

The seven layers of the OSI reference model specify different functions in the networking process. These layers include the physical layer, data link layer, network layer, transport layer, session layer, presentation layer, and application layer. Each layer has its own specific role and responsibilities. The network layer, in particular, is responsible for addressing, routing, and forwarding data packets across different networks. It ensures that data is properly delivered from the source to the destination by managing logical network connections and performing routing protocols.

Explanation

The seven layers of the OSI reference model specify different functions in the networking process. These layers include the physical layer, data link layer, network layer, transport layer, session layer, presentation layer, and application layer. Each layer has its own specific role and responsibilities. The network layer, in particular, is responsible for addressing, routing, and forwarding data packets across different networks. It ensures that data is properly delivered from the source to the destination by managing logical network connections and performing routing protocols.

63. Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?

Class A address.

Class B address.

Class C address.

Class D address.

Class C addresses allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. This is because Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which means that the network portion of the address is made up of the first three octets, leaving only the last octet for host addresses. Since the last octet can have a value ranging from 1 to 254 (excluding 0 and 255), there can be a maximum of 254 hosts per network.

Explanation

Class C addresses allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. This is because Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which means that the network portion of the address is made up of the first three octets, leaving only the last octet for host addresses. Since the last octet can have a value ranging from 1 to 254 (excluding 0 and 255), there can be a maximum of 254 hosts per network.

64. What network routing protocols allow multiple autonomous systems to connect together?

Open shortest path first (OSPF).

Exterior gateway protocol (EGP).

Interior gateway protocol (IGP).

Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP).

Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) is a network routing protocol that allows multiple autonomous systems to connect together. EGP is specifically designed to facilitate communication between different autonomous systems and exchange routing information between them. It enables the routing of data packets across multiple networks, ensuring efficient and reliable connectivity between autonomous systems. Other options like OSPF, IGP, and EIGRP are also routing protocols, but they are primarily used within a single autonomous system and not specifically designed for interconnecting multiple autonomous systems. Therefore, EGP is the correct answer for this question.

Explanation

Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) is a network routing protocol that allows multiple autonomous systems to connect together. EGP is specifically designed to facilitate communication between different autonomous systems and exchange routing information between them. It enables the routing of data packets across multiple networks, ensuring efficient and reliable connectivity between autonomous systems. Other options like OSPF, IGP, and EIGRP are also routing protocols, but they are primarily used within a single autonomous system and not specifically designed for interconnecting multiple autonomous systems. Therefore, EGP is the correct answer for this question.

65. What network device provides a remote network with connectivity to a host network?

Switch.

Modem.

Gateway.

Converter.

A gateway is a network device that provides connectivity between different networks. It acts as an entry and exit point for data packets traveling between the remote network and the host network. It translates protocols and manages the flow of data between the networks, allowing devices in the remote network to communicate with devices in the host network. A switch, modem, or converter does not provide this specific function of connecting remote and host networks.

Explanation

A gateway is a network device that provides connectivity between different networks. It acts as an entry and exit point for data packets traveling between the remote network and the host network. It translates protocols and manages the flow of data between the networks, allowing devices in the remote network to communicate with devices in the host network. A switch, modem, or converter does not provide this specific function of connecting remote and host networks.

66. Which classified document marking appears on the face of each classified United States document and shall indicate the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification.

Banner Lines.

Portion Marks.

Component and office.

Classification authority.

The correct answer is "Classification authority." This marking appears on the face of each classified United States document and serves to indicate the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification. It helps to identify who has the authority to classify the document and for how long it should remain classified.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Classification authority." This marking appears on the face of each classified United States document and serves to indicate the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification. It helps to identify who has the authority to classify the document and for how long it should remain classified.

67. What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?

239.

254.

255.

256.

In Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4), an octet represents 8 bits, which can have a maximum value of 255. This is because the binary representation of 255 is 11111111, which is the highest possible combination of 8 bits. Therefore, the correct answer is 255.

Explanation

In Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4), an octet represents 8 bits, which can have a maximum value of 255. This is because the binary representation of 255 is 11111111, which is the highest possible combination of 8 bits. Therefore, the correct answer is 255.

68. What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?

Shell.

Kernel.

User programs.

Dynamic-link library.

The UNIX kernel is the core component of the operating system that directly interacts with the hardware. It manages the system's resources, such as memory, CPU, and devices, and provides services to the user programs. The kernel is responsible for handling low-level operations, such as device drivers, file system management, and process scheduling. It acts as a bridge between the hardware and the user programs, allowing them to access and utilize the system's resources efficiently. Therefore, the kernel is the UNIX system software that interacts most closely with the hardware.

Explanation

The UNIX kernel is the core component of the operating system that directly interacts with the hardware. It manages the system's resources, such as memory, CPU, and devices, and provides services to the user programs. The kernel is responsible for handling low-level operations, such as device drivers, file system management, and process scheduling. It acts as a bridge between the hardware and the user programs, allowing them to access and utilize the system's resources efficiently. Therefore, the kernel is the UNIX system software that interacts most closely with the hardware.

69. Who should you seek out if you need information on transporting Top Secret information?

Classified Information Program Manager.

Information Assurance Officer.

Security Manager.

Supervisor.

The Information Assurance Officer is the most appropriate person to seek out for information on transporting Top Secret information. This is because their role involves ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information systems and networks, including the secure transportation of sensitive information. They are responsible for implementing and enforcing security policies and procedures, and have the expertise to provide guidance on the proper handling and transportation of classified information. The other options, such as the Classified Information Program Manager, Security Manager, and Supervisor, may have some involvement in security matters, but the Information Assurance Officer is specifically trained and knowledgeable in this area.

Explanation

The Information Assurance Officer is the most appropriate person to seek out for information on transporting Top Secret information. This is because their role involves ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information systems and networks, including the secure transportation of sensitive information. They are responsible for implementing and enforcing security policies and procedures, and have the expertise to provide guidance on the proper handling and transportation of classified information. The other options, such as the Classified Information Program Manager, Security Manager, and Supervisor, may have some involvement in security matters, but the Information Assurance Officer is specifically trained and knowledgeable in this area.

70. What system includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority?

Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN).

Defense Information Systems Network (DISN).

Air Force Information Network (AFIN).

Defense Intelligence Network (DIN).

The Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority. This means that it encompasses all the necessary components and infrastructure required for effective and secure communication and information sharing within the Department of Defense.

Explanation

The Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority. This means that it encompasses all the necessary components and infrastructure required for effective and secure communication and information sharing within the Department of Defense.

71. Which network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet?

Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data or Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET).

Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET).

Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.

Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) IP Data.

The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet. SBU IP Data or NIPRNET is specifically designed for unclassified but sensitive information, allowing users to securely communicate and access the internet while maintaining the necessary security protocols.

Explanation

The correct answer is Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) IP Data or Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET). This network provides Department of Defense (DOD) customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet. SBU IP Data or NIPRNET is specifically designed for unclassified but sensitive information, allowing users to securely communicate and access the internet while maintaining the necessary security protocols.

72. Which system of the Global Command and Control System-Air Force (GCCS-AF) monitors status of resources and training systems ensuring that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available to the for mission completion?

Common Operational Picture (COP).

Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

GCCS Status of Resources and Training (GSORTS).

Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution System (DCAPES).

GSORTS is the system of the Global Command and Control System-Air Force (GCCS-AF) that monitors the status of resources and training systems. It ensures that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available for mission completion.

Explanation

GSORTS is the system of the Global Command and Control System-Air Force (GCCS-AF) that monitors the status of resources and training systems. It ensures that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available for mission completion.

73. Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?

Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–200.

AFI 91–202.

Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 91–200.

AFMAN 91–202.

The correct answer is AFI 91-202 because it specifically mentions the Mishap Prevention Program, indicating that this publication is the one that implements the program. The other options (AFI 91-200, AFMAN 91-200, and AFMAN 91-202) do not mention the Mishap Prevention Program, so they are not the correct choices.

Explanation

The correct answer is AFI 91-202 because it specifically mentions the Mishap Prevention Program, indicating that this publication is the one that implements the program. The other options (AFI 91-200, AFMAN 91-200, and AFMAN 91-202) do not mention the Mishap Prevention Program, so they are not the correct choices.

74. Which ladder practice is not prohibited?

Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.

Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder.

Using a ladder as a scaffold.

Using a homemade ladder.

Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, which means it does not conduct electricity. Therefore, using a wooden ladder near electrical circuits does not pose a significant risk of electric shock or other electrical hazards. However, the other options are prohibited for safety reasons. Carrying material while ascending or descending a ladder can lead to loss of balance and falls. Using a ladder as a scaffold is not recommended as it may not provide proper stability and support. Homemade ladders may not meet safety standards and can be unstable or unsafe to use.

Explanation

Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, which means it does not conduct electricity. Therefore, using a wooden ladder near electrical circuits does not pose a significant risk of electric shock or other electrical hazards. However, the other options are prohibited for safety reasons. Carrying material while ascending or descending a ladder can lead to loss of balance and falls. Using a ladder as a scaffold is not recommended as it may not provide proper stability and support. Homemade ladders may not meet safety standards and can be unstable or unsafe to use.

75. What action is the main purpose of system cache?

Speed up system Read Only Memory (ROM).

Reduce hard drive (HDD) access time to stored data.

Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data.

Reduce Random Access Memory (RAM) access time to stored data.

The main purpose of system cache is to reduce the central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. System cache stores frequently accessed data from the main memory (RAM) in a faster cache memory, allowing the CPU to access it more quickly. This helps to improve the overall performance and efficiency of the system by reducing the time it takes for the CPU to retrieve data from the main memory.

Explanation

The main purpose of system cache is to reduce the central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. System cache stores frequently accessed data from the main memory (RAM) in a faster cache memory, allowing the CPU to access it more quickly. This helps to improve the overall performance and efficiency of the system by reducing the time it takes for the CPU to retrieve data from the main memory.

76. Describe a network bridge.

Data Link layer device that provide central connection to network devices.

Network layer device that provide central connection to network devices.

A network bridge is a Data Link layer network device or software set that logically separates a single network into multiple segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. It helps to improve network performance by reducing collisions and increasing bandwidth availability. By dividing the network into segments, a bridge can control the flow of traffic and prevent unnecessary broadcast storms. It operates at the Data Link layer of the OSI model and uses MAC addresses to forward data packets between different segments of the network.

Explanation

A network bridge is a Data Link layer network device or software set that logically separates a single network into multiple segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. It helps to improve network performance by reducing collisions and increasing bandwidth availability. By dividing the network into segments, a bridge can control the flow of traffic and prevent unnecessary broadcast storms. It operates at the Data Link layer of the OSI model and uses MAC addresses to forward data packets between different segments of the network.

77. Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information fully encodes all the way through the network to the users' own end terminals?

Internet Protocol.

End-to-end.

Bulk.

Link.

End-to-end encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information is fully encoded from the sender's end terminal all the way through the network to the recipient's end terminal. This means that the data remains encrypted and secure throughout the entire transmission process, making it difficult for any unauthorized parties to access or intercept the information.

Explanation

End-to-end encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information is fully encoded from the sender's end terminal all the way through the network to the recipient's end terminal. This means that the data remains encrypted and secure throughout the entire transmission process, making it difficult for any unauthorized parties to access or intercept the information.

78. Which classified document markings identifies the highest level of classification?

Banner Lines.

Portion Marks.

Component and office.

Classification authority.

Banner Lines are the classified document markings that identify the highest level of classification. These markings typically appear at the top and bottom of each page and contain information such as the classification level, the agency or department responsible for the classification, and the date of classification. Banner Lines are crucial in ensuring that the document is handled and protected according to its level of sensitivity and confidentiality.

Explanation

Banner Lines are the classified document markings that identify the highest level of classification. These markings typically appear at the top and bottom of each page and contain information such as the classification level, the agency or department responsible for the classification, and the date of classification. Banner Lines are crucial in ensuring that the document is handled and protected according to its level of sensitivity and confidentiality.

79. Which network provides high-quality, secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management?

Defense Switched Network (DSN).

Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN).

Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) IP Data.

Top Secret/Secret Compartmentalized Information (TS/SCI) Internet Protocol (IP) Data.

The Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN) is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to provide high-quality and secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management. DRSN is a dedicated network used by the Department of Defense and other government agencies for sensitive and classified communications. It ensures the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information, making it the ideal choice for secure telecommunications in situations that require command and control and crisis management capabilities.

Explanation

The Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN) is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to provide high-quality and secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management. DRSN is a dedicated network used by the Department of Defense and other government agencies for sensitive and classified communications. It ensures the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information, making it the ideal choice for secure telecommunications in situations that require command and control and crisis management capabilities.

80. What classification do flammable liquids receive?

Class A.

Class B.

Class C.

Class D.

Flammable liquids are classified as Class B. This classification is used to identify substances that can easily catch fire and ignite when exposed to an open flame or heat source. Class B flammable liquids have a flash point below 100 degrees Fahrenheit and include substances such as gasoline, ethanol, and acetone. It is important to handle and store these liquids with caution to prevent accidents and fires.

Explanation

Flammable liquids are classified as Class B. This classification is used to identify substances that can easily catch fire and ignite when exposed to an open flame or heat source. Class B flammable liquids have a flash point below 100 degrees Fahrenheit and include substances such as gasoline, ethanol, and acetone. It is important to handle and store these liquids with caution to prevent accidents and fires.

81. What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

Communications between devices over multiple links of a network.

Communications between devices over a single link of a network.

Protocol access to the physical network medium.

Protocol access to the links of a network.

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manages communications between devices over a single link of a network. This sublayer is responsible for providing error control, flow control, and sequencing of frames over a single link. It ensures reliable and efficient communication between devices connected by a single link, handling issues such as frame loss, duplication, and out-of-order delivery.

Explanation

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manages communications between devices over a single link of a network. This sublayer is responsible for providing error control, flow control, and sequencing of frames over a single link. It ensures reliable and efficient communication between devices connected by a single link, handling issues such as frame loss, duplication, and out-of-order delivery.

82. What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM)?

ROM is volatile, RAM in non-volatile.

ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile.

RAM has a slower access time versus ROM.

ROM has a slower access time versus RAM.

The major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM) is that ROM is non-volatile, meaning that it retains its data even when power is turned off, while RAM is volatile, meaning that it loses its data when power is turned off.

Explanation

The major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM) is that ROM is non-volatile, meaning that it retains its data even when power is turned off, while RAM is volatile, meaning that it loses its data when power is turned off.

83. How many T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits do Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer?

24.

15.

10.

7.

Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer 7 T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits.

Explanation

Standardized Tactical Entry Point (STEP) terminals offer 7 T1 Defense Switched Network (DSN) access circuits.

84. Computer security (COMPUSEC) vulnerabilities are broken down into how many categories?

4.

6.

8.

10.

Computer security vulnerabilities are broken down into eight categories. This means that there are eight different types or classifications of vulnerabilities that can exist in computer systems. These categories help to identify and understand the different ways in which a system can be vulnerable to attacks or breaches. By categorizing vulnerabilities, it becomes easier to develop strategies and measures to protect against them.

Explanation

Computer security vulnerabilities are broken down into eight categories. This means that there are eight different types or classifications of vulnerabilities that can exist in computer systems. These categories help to identify and understand the different ways in which a system can be vulnerable to attacks or breaches. By categorizing vulnerabilities, it becomes easier to develop strategies and measures to protect against them.

85. How many air defenses sectors is the Battle Control System-Fixed (BSC-F) divided into?

Six.

Five.

Four.

Two.

The Battle Control System-Fixed (BSC-F) is divided into two air defense sectors.

Explanation

The Battle Control System-Fixed (BSC-F) is divided into two air defense sectors.

86. Which system is a space-based high data rate communications link for the flow of information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces?

Global Broadcast System (GBS).

Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

The correct answer is Global Broadcast System (GBS). GBS is a space-based high data rate communications link that is used to transmit information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces. It provides a reliable and secure means of delivering real-time intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance data to warfighters in the field. GBS enables rapid dissemination of critical information, allowing for more effective decision-making and mission execution.

Explanation

The correct answer is Global Broadcast System (GBS). GBS is a space-based high data rate communications link that is used to transmit information from the United States or rear echelon locations to deployed forces. It provides a reliable and secure means of delivering real-time intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance data to warfighters in the field. GBS enables rapid dissemination of critical information, allowing for more effective decision-making and mission execution.

87. The risk management process includes how many steps?

Four.

Five.

Six.

Seven.

The correct answer is Five. The risk management process typically includes five steps: risk identification, risk assessment, risk mitigation, risk monitoring, and risk communication. These steps are essential in identifying potential risks, evaluating their impact and likelihood, implementing measures to reduce or eliminate them, continuously monitoring the risks, and effectively communicating them to stakeholders.

Explanation

The correct answer is Five. The risk management process typically includes five steps: risk identification, risk assessment, risk mitigation, risk monitoring, and risk communication. These steps are essential in identifying potential risks, evaluating their impact and likelihood, implementing measures to reduce or eliminate them, continuously monitoring the risks, and effectively communicating them to stakeholders.

88. How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?

One.

Two.

Three.

Four.

The correct answer is four because the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification is composed of four volumes. Each volume addresses a different aspect of the framework, including the overall architecture, the systems, the data, and the technical standards.

Explanation

The correct answer is four because the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification is composed of four volumes. Each volume addresses a different aspect of the framework, including the overall architecture, the systems, the data, and the technical standards.

89. What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?

Regular of how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.

Reference location of a particular application or process on each machine (in the application layer).

Preventer of network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.

A TCP socket is a combination of a port number and an IP address that is used by a process to request network services and is passed as an argument between layers. This allows the process to establish a connection with another process on a different machine and communicate over the network. The port number identifies the specific process or service on the receiving machine, while the IP address identifies the specific machine. By combining these two pieces of information, the TCP socket allows for the establishment of a reliable and secure network connection.

Explanation

A TCP socket is a combination of a port number and an IP address that is used by a process to request network services and is passed as an argument between layers. This allows the process to establish a connection with another process on a different machine and communicate over the network. The port number identifies the specific process or service on the receiving machine, while the IP address identifies the specific machine. By combining these two pieces of information, the TCP socket allows for the establishment of a reliable and secure network connection.

90. Which system is the Department of Defense's (DOD) command and control (C2) system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler?

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

The correct answer is Global Command and Control System (GCCS). This system is the Department of Defense's command and control system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler. It is a comprehensive system that provides situational awareness, decision support, and information sharing capabilities to military commanders and decision-makers. GCCS integrates information from various sources and enables real-time collaboration and coordination across different military branches and units. It plays a crucial role in enabling the Department of Defense to effectively plan, execute, and monitor military operations.

Explanation

The correct answer is Global Command and Control System (GCCS). This system is the Department of Defense's command and control system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler. It is a comprehensive system that provides situational awareness, decision support, and information sharing capabilities to military commanders and decision-makers. GCCS integrates information from various sources and enables real-time collaboration and coordination across different military branches and units. It plays a crucial role in enabling the Department of Defense to effectively plan, execute, and monitor military operations.

91. Which system is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program hosted on a powerful server-based computer system that takes inputs from long-range and short-range radars and displays it all on a scope?

Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

The correct answer is Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F). This system is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program hosted on a powerful server-based computer system. It takes inputs from long-range and short-range radars and displays all the information on a scope. This system is specifically designed for battle control and provides real-time situational awareness and tracking capabilities.

Explanation

The correct answer is Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F). This system is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program hosted on a powerful server-based computer system. It takes inputs from long-range and short-range radars and displays all the information on a scope. This system is specifically designed for battle control and provides real-time situational awareness and tracking capabilities.

92. In general, how many operating system task categories are there?

Four.

Five.

Six.

Seven.

There are six operating system task categories in general.

Explanation

There are six operating system task categories in general.

93. What system is a telecommunications network that provides the exchange of information in an interoperable and global space, divided by security demands, transmission requirements and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers?

Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN).

Defense Information Systems Network (DISN).

Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

Air Force Information Network (AFIN).

The Defense Information Systems Network (DISN) is a telecommunications network that provides the exchange of information in an interoperable and global space. It is divided by security demands, transmission requirements, and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers. This network is specifically designed for the Department of Defense and plays a crucial role in ensuring secure and reliable communication for military operations. The other options, such as DODIN, DISA, and AFIN, are also related to the Department of Defense's information and communication systems, but they do not specifically refer to the telecommunications network described in the question.

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Network (DISN) is a telecommunications network that provides the exchange of information in an interoperable and global space. It is divided by security demands, transmission requirements, and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers. This network is specifically designed for the Department of Defense and plays a crucial role in ensuring secure and reliable communication for military operations. The other options, such as DODIN, DISA, and AFIN, are also related to the Department of Defense's information and communication systems, but they do not specifically refer to the telecommunications network described in the question.

94. What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?

475.

480.

978.

980.

The correct answer is 978. The Air Force uses form 978 to report ground mishaps.

Explanation

The correct answer is 978. The Air Force uses form 978 to report ground mishaps.

95. How are fires classified?

Fuel type.

Heat source.

Temperature.

Atmospheric conditions.

Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different types of fuel, such as wood, paper, or flammable liquids, can produce different types of fires. By understanding the fuel type, firefighters can determine the most effective methods to extinguish the fire and minimize the risk of spreading. Heat source, temperature, and atmospheric conditions may also play a role in the behavior of the fire, but the primary factor in classification is the fuel type.

Explanation

Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different types of fuel, such as wood, paper, or flammable liquids, can produce different types of fires. By understanding the fuel type, firefighters can determine the most effective methods to extinguish the fire and minimize the risk of spreading. Heat source, temperature, and atmospheric conditions may also play a role in the behavior of the fire, but the primary factor in classification is the fuel type.

96. What does the media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?

Communications between devices over a single link of a network.

Communications between devices over multiple links of a network.

Protocol access to the physical network medium.

Protocol access to the links of a network.

The media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manages the protocol access to the physical network medium. This means that it controls how devices on a network access and use the physical transmission medium, such as Ethernet cables or wireless frequencies, to send and receive data. The MAC sublayer is responsible for ensuring that multiple devices can share the same medium without interfering with each other, by implementing techniques such as collision detection or token passing.

Explanation

The media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manages the protocol access to the physical network medium. This means that it controls how devices on a network access and use the physical transmission medium, such as Ethernet cables or wireless frequencies, to send and receive data. The MAC sublayer is responsible for ensuring that multiple devices can share the same medium without interfering with each other, by implementing techniques such as collision detection or token passing.

97. What system is the priority component of the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities?

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

National Military Command Center (NMCC).

Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS).

The National Military Command Center (NMCC) is the priority component of the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities. The NMCC serves as the focal point for the operational and strategic-level command and control of the U.S. military. It provides situational awareness, decision-making support, and coordination of military operations. The NMCC is responsible for monitoring and coordinating military activities, issuing orders, and facilitating communication between the highest levels of command.

Explanation

The National Military Command Center (NMCC) is the priority component of the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities. The NMCC serves as the focal point for the operational and strategic-level command and control of the U.S. military. It provides situational awareness, decision-making support, and coordination of military operations. The NMCC is responsible for monitoring and coordinating military activities, issuing orders, and facilitating communication between the highest levels of command.

98. Which system are the Air Forces’ primary intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis, and dissemination system?

Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).

Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

The correct answer is Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS). DCGS is the primary system used by the Air Forces for intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis, and dissemination. It is a network-centric system that integrates various sensors, platforms, and intelligence sources to provide real-time situational awareness and intelligence support to military operations. DCGS enables the Air Forces to gather and analyze information from multiple sources, such as manned and unmanned aircraft, satellites, and ground-based sensors, to support decision-making and mission planning.

Explanation

The correct answer is Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS). DCGS is the primary system used by the Air Forces for intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis, and dissemination. It is a network-centric system that integrates various sensors, platforms, and intelligence sources to provide real-time situational awareness and intelligence support to military operations. DCGS enables the Air Forces to gather and analyze information from multiple sources, such as manned and unmanned aircraft, satellites, and ground-based sensors, to support decision-making and mission planning.

99. What system provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions?

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS).

Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

The Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS) provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions. This system is specifically designed to ensure the secure transmission of critical information and instructions related to strategic operations, enabling effective command and control of these assets. The other options, Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS), Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS), and Global Combat Support System (GCSS), do not have the same level of focus and capability in providing a secure communications path for strategic operations.

Explanation

The Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS) provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions. This system is specifically designed to ensure the secure transmission of critical information and instructions related to strategic operations, enabling effective command and control of these assets. The other options, Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS), Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS), and Global Combat Support System (GCSS), do not have the same level of focus and capability in providing a secure communications path for strategic operations.

100. Which system is the primary network used to transmit the Emergency Action Messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field?

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).

Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS).

Global Combat Support System (GCSS).

The Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS) is the primary network used to transmit the Emergency Action Messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field. This system allows for reliable and secure communication over long distances using high frequency radio waves. It ensures that critical messages can be quickly and efficiently transmitted to commanders in various locations, enabling effective coordination and response in emergency situations.

Explanation

The Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS) is the primary network used to transmit the Emergency Action Messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field. This system allows for reliable and secure communication over long distances using high frequency radio waves. It ensures that critical messages can be quickly and efficiently transmitted to commanders in various locations, enabling effective coordination and response in emergency situations.