Work And Technology Quiz

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The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of
- Commerce.
- The Treasury.
- Defense.
- Labor.

About This Quiz

Technology plays a vital role when it comes to working in the modern world. Are you ready to test your knowledge with this work and technology quiz? The impact of technology on work is huge, both in manufacturing as well as in communication. It has exponentially increased the production rate and the speed at which business occurs. Technology in the workplace or in any job has helped workers become more efficient than ever before. So, let's find out what you know about it!

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2.

What three sub-categories make up human factors?
- Physiological, physical, stress.
- Physiological, Physical, social.
- Stress, organizational, physical.
- Physical, physiological, organizational.
Correct Answer

A. Physical, physiological, organizational.

Explanation

The correct answer is Physical, physiological, organizational. Human factors refer to the study of how humans interact with systems and environments. The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical factors, which involve the physical aspects of the human body and its capabilities; physiological factors, which focus on the psychological and cognitive processes of individuals; and organizational factors, which consider the social and organizational aspects that influence human performance.

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3.

Which action is a physiological factor?
- Performing a task while fatigued.
- Performing a task while intoxicated.
- Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.
- Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness.
Correct Answer

A. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.
4.

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?
- 1 to 2.
- 2 to 2.5.
- 2 to 4.5.
- 2.5 to 3.
Correct Answer

A. 2 to 2.5.
5.

Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?
- Class A.
- Class B.
- Class C.
- Class D.
Correct Answer

A. Class C.

Explanation

When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they will change to Class C. The introduction of an electric current can alter the properties of the fuel, causing it to become more volatile and flammable. Class C fuels are characterized by their ability to conduct electricity and their increased risk of combustion when exposed to an ignition source.

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6.

What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?
- Evacuate personnel from the building.
- Extinguish the fire if possible.
- Call the fire department.
- Sound the fire alarm.
Correct Answer

A. Extinguish the fire if possible.

Explanation

The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate fire extinguishing methods and equipment to try and put out the fire. It is important to assess the situation and determine if it is safe to attempt extinguishing the fire before proceeding. Evacuating personnel from the building, calling the fire department, and sounding the fire alarm are all important steps in the firefighting procedure, but they come before the step of attempting to extinguish the fire.

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7.

Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?
- 50.
- 40.
- 20.
- 10.
Correct Answer

A. 50.

Explanation

Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. Cardiac arrest occurs when the heart's electrical system is disrupted, leading to an abnormal heart rhythm. This disruption can be caused by an electric shock or current passing through the body. A current of 50 milliamps is considered dangerous and can interfere with the heart's normal electrical signals, potentially leading to cardiac arrest.

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8.

Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?
- Accept no unnecessary risk.
- Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
- Apply the process irregularly and continuously.
- Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels.
Correct Answer

A. Apply the process irregularly and continuously.

Explanation

Risk management involves identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks, as well as implementing strategies to mitigate or manage those risks. Applying the process irregularly and continuously would be counterproductive to effective risk management. Risk management should be a consistent and ongoing process, rather than sporadic or inconsistent.

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9.

Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?
- Office of Administration.
- Office of Communications.
- Office of Public Engagement.
- Office of Management and Budget.
Correct Answer

A. Office of Management and Budget.

Explanation

The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management.

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10.

What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?
- State level.
- Federal level.
- Congressional level.
- Department of Defense level.
Correct Answer

A. Federal level.

Explanation

The correct answer is Federal level. Air Force architectures are developed based on requirements mandated at the federal level. This means that the development of these architectures is guided by the policies, regulations, and priorities set by the federal government. These requirements take into account national security objectives, budgetary considerations, and overall defense strategy. It is important for the Air Force to align its architectures with the federal level requirements to ensure effective integration and interoperability with other branches of the military and government agencies.

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11.

Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?
- Administrative record.
- Maintenance record.
- Drawing record.
- Outage record.
Correct Answer

A. Drawing record.

Explanation

The drawing record section of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts the physical layout of communications and information systems and provides engineering data. This section typically includes detailed diagrams, schematics, and blueprints that illustrate the placement and configuration of the systems. It serves as a visual reference for technicians and engineers involved in the installation and maintenance of the systems.

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12.

What network topology is another name for a bus topology?
- Star.
- Ring.
- Loop.
- Linear.
Correct Answer

A. Linear.

Explanation

A bus topology is a network configuration where all devices are connected to a single cable, forming a linear layout. Therefore, the term "linear" is another name for a bus topology.

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13.

What topology offers centralized management of a network?
- Bus.
- Star.
- Ring.
- Radial.
Correct Answer

A. Star.

Explanation

The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which acts as a central point of control and management for the network. This allows for easy monitoring, troubleshooting, and administration of the network, as all communication flows through the central hub. Additionally, the star topology provides better scalability and fault tolerance compared to other topologies, making it a popular choice for many networks.

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14.

What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?
- Request network services and pass arguments between layers.
- Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine.
- Prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.
- Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.
Correct Answer

A. Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.

Explanation

The purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is to regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. This helps in controlling the flow of data and ensuring that the receiving device is not overwhelmed with data.

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15.

What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?
- Version Identification.
- Header Checksum.
- Time to Live.
- Flags.
Correct Answer

A. Header Checksum.

Explanation

The header checksum portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them. The header checksum is a value calculated by the sender that is based on the contents of the IP header. When the datagram reaches its destination, the receiver recalculates the checksum using the received header and compares it to the original checksum. If they do not match, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission, and the datagram is discarded. This ensures the integrity of the IP header and helps to prevent the delivery of corrupted or tampered data.

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16.

Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?
- Service set identifier (SSID) Broadcasting.
- Media access control (MAC) Filtering.
- Encryption.
- Tunneling.
Correct Answer

A. Encryption.

Explanation

Encryption is the best method for hiding a message in a special code. Encryption is the process of converting plain text into cipher text, which can only be understood by authorized parties who have the decryption key. It ensures that the message remains confidential and secure from unauthorized access. SSID Broadcasting, MAC Filtering, and Tunneling are not specifically related to hiding a message in a special code.

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17.

Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?
- Local area network (LAN).
- Wide area network (WAN).
- Virtual private network (VPN).
- Metropolitan area network (MAN).
Correct Answer

A. Virtual private network (VPN).

Explanation

A virtual private network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the Internet. It allows users to securely access a private network over a public network, such as the Internet. This ensures that the data transmitted between the user's device and the private network is encrypted and protected from unauthorized access. VPNs are commonly used by individuals and organizations to establish secure connections and maintain privacy while accessing the Internet.

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18.

What Microsoft application is a software program that allows users to create a desktop database?
- Word.
- Access.
- Outlook.
- PowerPoint.
Correct Answer

A. Access.

Explanation

Access is a software program developed by Microsoft that allows users to create and manage desktop databases. It provides tools and features for creating tables, forms, queries, and reports, making it easier for users to organize and manipulate data. Word, Outlook, and PowerPoint are not designed for creating databases, but rather for word processing, email management, and presentation purposes respectively. Therefore, Access is the correct answer for this question.

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19.

Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?
- When it is placed in service.
- When it is removed from service.
- When the storage container has been cleaned.
- When compromise of the combination is suspected.
Correct Answer

A. When the storage container has been cleaned.

Explanation

Cleaning the storage container is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials because cleaning does not necessarily compromise the security of the container or the materials stored inside. Changing the combination should only be done when there is a suspected compromise of the combination, such as if it has been leaked or if unauthorized individuals have gained access to it.

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20.

What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provide as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel?
- Air Force Portal.
- IMDS.
- Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS).
- Electronic-publications (E-pub).
Correct Answer

A. Air Force Portal.

Explanation

The Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides the Air Force Portal as a major program that serves as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel. The Air Force Portal is a web-based platform that allows personnel to access various resources such as news, documents, training materials, and collaboration tools. It is designed to streamline communication and provide easy access to important information for Air Force personnel.

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21.

What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?
- Prevent the use of unsafe equipment.
- Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices.
- Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices.
- Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.
Correct Answer

A. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.

Explanation

The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death. This program aims to prevent accidents and mishaps by implementing safety measures and practices. It focuses on identifying potential hazards, assessing risks, and implementing preventive measures to ensure the safety and well-being of both resources and personnel.

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22.

Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?
- Air Staff.
- Civil Engineering.
- Squadron commander.
- Installation safety office.
Correct Answer

A. Installation safety office.

Explanation

The Installation Safety Office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They are specifically designated to handle safety concerns and provide guidance to ensure the safety of personnel and operations within the installation.

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23.

What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?
- Develop a job safety training outline (JSTO).
- Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).
- Review AF Form 55.
- Certify the employee.
Correct Answer

A. Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).

Explanation

Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves identifying potential hazards associated with the task, assessing the risks involved, and developing appropriate control measures to mitigate those risks. Conducting a JSA helps ensure that the task is performed safely and that employees are aware of and prepared for any potential dangers they may encounter.

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24.

Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?
- A.
- C.
- E.
- G.
Correct Answer

A. C.

Explanation

Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors. This means that if someone wearing a class C helmet comes into contact with an electrical conductor, they are not protected from electric shock or electrocution. It is important to use the appropriate helmet class for the specific task to ensure safety and prevent accidents.

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25.

What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?
- Falls.
- Poor lighting.
- Horseplay.
- Poor ergonomics.
Correct Answer

A. Falls.

Explanation

Falls are the greatest hazard in the typical office because they can result in serious injuries. Slippery floors, tripping hazards, and improper use of ladders or stairs can all contribute to falls. Poor lighting, horseplay, and poor ergonomics can also be hazards in the office, but falls pose the highest risk as they can lead to fractures, sprains, and head injuries. It is important for employers to take measures to prevent falls, such as maintaining a clean and dry workspace, providing adequate lighting, and ensuring proper training on ladder and stair safety.

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26.

What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?
- 8.
- 9.
- 10.
- 11.
Correct Answer

A. 10.

Explanation

Chapter 10 in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.

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27.

What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?
- Evacuate personnel from the building.
- Extinguish the fire if possible.
- Call the fire department.
- Sound the fire alarm.
Correct Answer

A. Sound the fire alarm.

Explanation

When encountering a fire, the first action to take should be to sound the fire alarm. This is important because it alerts everyone in the building to the presence of the fire, allowing them to evacuate quickly and safely. Evacuating personnel from the building should be the next step, ensuring that everyone is out of harm's way. Calling the fire department is also crucial, as they are trained professionals who can handle the situation effectively. Extinguishing the fire, if possible, can be done after these initial steps have been taken.

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28.

What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model.
- Data Transport and Application.
- Session and Data Transport.
- Network and Presentation.
- Application and Session.
Correct Answer

A. Data Transport and Application.

Explanation

The correct answer is Data Transport and Application. The OSI reference model consists of seven layers: Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application. The Data Transport layer is responsible for the reliable delivery of data between network devices, while the Application layer provides services for user applications to access network resources.

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29.

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?
- Transport.
- Data Link.
- Physical.
- Session.
Correct Answer

A. Data Link.

Explanation

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the OSI model. The Data Link layer is responsible for providing error-free and reliable transmission of data between two nodes on the same network. The LLC sublayer specifically handles flow control, error control, and framing of data packets. Therefore, the correct answer is Data Link.

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30.

When used alone, the word “topology” often refers to a network’s
- Transport topology.
- Physical topology.
- Physical medium.
- Logical topology.
Correct Answer

A. Physical topology.

Explanation

The word "topology" refers to the arrangement or structure of a network. When used alone, it typically refers to the physical topology, which describes the physical layout or configuration of the network, including the physical connections between devices and the overall physical structure. This is different from the logical topology, which refers to how data is transmitted between devices in the network. The physical medium refers to the actual physical material or medium through which the network signals are transmitted, such as copper wires or fiber optic cables.

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31.

What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?
- There are no negative effects.
- A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication.
- Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices.
- When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.
Correct Answer

A. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.

Explanation

When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to facilitate communication between the different networks. If this central node point fails, it can lead to large portions of the network becoming isolated, meaning that communication between those portions will be disrupted. This can have a negative effect on the overall functionality and efficiency of the interconnected star networks.

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32.

Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?
- Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
- Federal Communications Commission (FCC).
- Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
- Department of Defense (DOD).
Correct Answer

A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body for IT communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and is responsible for managing and securing the DOD information network. They oversee every level of IT communication, from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control. DISA plays a crucial role in ensuring effective and secure communication within the DOD.

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33.

What class is reserved for multicast addressing?
- Class A address.
- Class B address.
- Class C address.
- Class D address.
Correct Answer

A. Class D address.

Explanation

Class D address is reserved for multicast addressing. In IP addressing, multicast is a method of sending data packets to a group of devices simultaneously. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 and are specifically designated for multicast communication. These addresses allow efficient distribution of data to multiple recipients without the need for individual point-to-point connections.

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34.

What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?
- 0–1023.
- 1024–49151.
- 49152–65535.
- 65536–87000.
Correct Answer

A. 0–1023.

Explanation

The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are reserved for commonly used services and protocols, such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22).

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35.

What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode?
- Two gigabits per second (GB/S).
- Four GB/S.
- Five GB/S.
- 10 GB/S.
Correct Answer

A. Five GB/S.

Explanation

USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode has a maximum data transfer rate of five gigabits per second (GB/S). This means that it can transfer data at a speed of five billion bits per second.

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36.

What is a peripheral device?
- A main internal component of a computer.
- Not a main internal component of a computer.
- A main component of a computer and can be either internal or external.
- Not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external.
Correct Answer

A. Not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external.

Explanation

A peripheral device refers to any device that is not a main internal component of a computer and can be either internal or external. This means that it is not essential for the basic functioning of a computer, but it can be connected to enhance or expand its capabilities. Examples of peripheral devices include printers, scanners, keyboards, and mice.

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37.

Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?
- Printer.
- Scanner.
- Monitor.
- Camera lens.
Correct Answer

A. Scanner.

Explanation

A scanner is a device that optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image. It uses a light source to illuminate the object being scanned, and then captures the reflected light using a photosensitive sensor. This captured information is then converted into a digital format that can be displayed or edited on a computer. A printer, monitor, and camera lens do not perform this specific function of converting physical images or text into digital format.

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38.

Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?
- Local area network (LAN).
- Wide area network (WAN).
- Virtual private network (VPN).
- Metropolitan area network (MAN).
Correct Answer

A. Local area network (LAN).

Explanation

A local area network (LAN) is a group of computers and associated devices that are connected to a common communications line. In a LAN, the computers and devices typically share the resources of a single processor or server, making it easier for users to access shared files, printers, and other resources. LANs are typically used within a small geographic area, such as an office building or a campus. This distinguishes them from wide area networks (WANs), which cover larger areas, and virtual private networks (VPNs), which are secure connections over public networks. Metropolitan area networks (MANs) are similar to LANs but cover a larger geographic area.

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39.

Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?
- Local area network (LAN).
- Wide area network (WAN).
- Virtual private network (VPN).
- Metropolitan area network (MAN).
Correct Answer

A. Wide area network (WAN).

Explanation

A wide area network (WAN) is a network that connects local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by utilizing long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company. This allows for the connection and communication between geographically dispersed LANs and MANs over a larger area.

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40.

Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data?
- Local area network (LAN).
- Wide area network (WAN).
- Metropolitan area network (MAN).
- Wireless local area network (WLAN).
Correct Answer

A. Wireless local area network (WLAN).

Explanation

Wireless local area networks (WLANs) use Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data. CSMA/CA is a protocol used in WLANs to ensure that multiple devices can access the network without causing interference or collisions. It works by requiring devices to first listen for ongoing transmissions before attempting to transmit data, and if the channel is clear, the device can transmit. This helps prevent collisions and ensures efficient and reliable data transmission in WLANs.

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41.

What year did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratifies the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE)?
- 1988.
- 1999.
- 2005.
- 2009.
Correct Answer

A. 1999.

Explanation

In 1999, the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratified the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE). This means that in 1999, the IEEE officially approved and standardized the use of GbE as a networking technology.

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42.

Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling.
- Media converter.
- Modem.
- Switch.
- Router.
Correct Answer

A. Media converter.

Explanation

A media converter is a device that converts the electrical signal used in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling. This conversion allows for the transmission of data over longer distances and at higher speeds. A modem is used to connect a computer or network to the internet, a switch is used to connect multiple devices within a network, and a router is used to connect multiple networks together. None of these devices specifically convert electrical signals to light waves like a media converter does.

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43.

What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?
- Cost to install and train technicians.
- Electromagnetic immunity.
- Low attenuation.
- Security.
Correct Answer

A. Cost to install and train technicians.

Explanation

The cost to install and train technicians is not an advantage of fiber optic cable. Fiber optic cables are known for their high bandwidth and low attenuation, meaning they can transmit data over long distances without significant loss of signal strength. They also have high security as they are difficult to tap into and are immune to electromagnetic interference. However, the cost associated with installing and training technicians for fiber optic networks can be higher compared to other types of cables.

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44.

What Microsoft application is a personal information manager?
- Word.
- Access.
- Outlook.
- PowerPoint.
Correct Answer

A. Outlook.

Explanation

Outlook is a personal information manager developed by Microsoft. It is primarily used for managing emails, calendars, tasks, and contacts. Outlook allows users to send and receive emails, schedule appointments and meetings, organize tasks, and store contact information. It also offers features like reminders, notes, and a journal. Therefore, Outlook is the correct answer as it is specifically designed to manage personal information.

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45.

What information system (IS) threat is the greatest threat to an organization’s mission critical information via its communications and ISs?
- Malware.
- Denial of service attacks
- Inadvertent employee activity.
- Hostile information operations.
Correct Answer

A. Hostile information operations.

Explanation

Hostile information operations pose the greatest threat to an organization's mission-critical information via its communications and information systems. Unlike malware, denial of service attacks, and inadvertent employee activity, hostile information operations involve deliberate and targeted actions by external entities seeking to disrupt or compromise an organization's information systems. These operations can include activities such as hacking, espionage, or spreading misinformation, and they can cause significant damage to an organization's ability to function effectively and protect its sensitive information.

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46.

Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer system?
- Attacker’s capability to exploit the flaw.
- System’s susceptibility to a flaw.
- Attacker’s access to the flaw.
- Attacker’s lack of ability.
Correct Answer

A. Attacker’s lack of ability.

Explanation

The given answer, "Attacker's lack of ability," suggests that it is not a computer system vulnerability. In the context of computer security, vulnerabilities refer to weaknesses or flaws in a system that can be exploited by attackers. The other options, such as the attacker's capability to exploit the flaw, the system's susceptibility to a flaw, and the attacker's access to the flaw, all relate to vulnerabilities and their potential exploitation. Therefore, the answer implies that the lack of ability on the part of an attacker is not considered a vulnerability in a computer system.

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47.

Which incidents occur when a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system?
- Classified message incident.
- Eavesdropping.
- Data Spillage.
- Backdoor.
Correct Answer

A. Classified message incident.

Explanation

When a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system, it is referred to as a classified message incident. This means that sensitive information is being transmitted to a system that is not authorized to handle that level of classified data. This can pose a risk as the lower classification level system may not have the necessary security measures in place to protect the sensitive information.

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48.

Which of the following services provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas?
- Transport.
- Application.
- Aerial layer.
- Satellite communication (SATCOM).
Correct Answer

A. Aerial layer.

Explanation

The aerial layer service provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas. This means that it utilizes aircraft and other aerial platforms to ensure that there is constant and uninterrupted communication coverage over a wide area. This can be particularly useful in situations where ground-based communication infrastructure is limited or unavailable.

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49.

What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?
- 475.
- 480.
- 978.
- 980.
Correct Answer

A. 475.

Explanation

The correct answer is 475. The Air Force uses AF Form 475 to report a hazard. This form is used to document and report any potential hazards or unsafe conditions that may pose a risk to personnel, equipment, or operations. By using this form, the Air Force can identify and address these hazards in order to ensure the safety and well-being of its personnel and assets.

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Aug 29, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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Feb 16, 2018

Quiz Created by
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Work And Technology Quiz

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of

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What three sub-categories make up human factors?

Which action is a physiological factor?

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?

Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?

What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?

Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?

Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?

Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?

What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?

Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?

What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

What topology offers centralized management of a network?

What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?

What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?

Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?

Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?

What Microsoft application is a software program that allows users to create a desktop database?

Which event is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classified materials?

What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provide as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel?

What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?

Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?

What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?

Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?

What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?

What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model.

The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?

When used alone, the word “topology” often refers to a network’s

What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?

What class is reserved for multicast addressing?

What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?

What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) transfer mode?

What is a peripheral device?

Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it to a digital image?

Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?

Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?

Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data?

What year did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratifies the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE)?

Which device works as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network cabling to light waves used for fiber optic cabling.

What characteristic is not an advantage of fiber optic cable?

What Microsoft application is a personal information manager?

What information system (IS) threat is the greatest threat to an organization’s mission critical information via its communications and ISs?

Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer system?

Which incidents occur when a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system?

Which of the following services provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas?

What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?