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1. What are two anti-virus programs that the Air Force uses?

Explanation

The Air Force uses Norton and McAfee as their two anti-virus programs.

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About This Quiz
OSI Model Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz, titled 'Networking 3DX5X Vol 2 URE', assesses knowledge on the OSI model, focusing on layers, functions, and protocols. It is designed to enhance understanding of network structures and operations, crucial for IT and networking professionals.

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2. What topology defines the way in which devices communicate, and data is transmitted, throughout the network?

Explanation

Logical topology refers to the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted in a network, regardless of the physical layout. It defines the logical connections between devices, such as how data flows from one device to another, without considering the physical arrangement of the network components. This can include various types of logical topologies such as bus, ring, mesh, or tree.

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3. What topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?

Explanation

A hybrid topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network. This means that it can have a combination of bus, ring, star, or any other topology. It allows for more flexibility and scalability in the network design, as different topologies can be used in different parts of the network based on their specific requirements. This type of topology is commonly used in larger networks where different sections may have different connectivity needs.

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4. What do routing algorithms initialize and maintain to aid the process of path determination?

Explanation

Routing algorithms initialize and maintain routing tables to aid the process of path determination. Routing tables contain information about the network topology, including the available routes and their associated metrics or costs. By consulting the routing table, the algorithm can determine the best path for forwarding packets from the source to the destination. This allows routers to efficiently and accurately route network traffic, ensuring that data reaches its intended destination in the most optimal way possible.

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5. The path between the operating system and virtually all hardware not on the computer's motherboard goes through a special program called a

Explanation

A driver is a special program that acts as a bridge between the operating system and hardware devices that are not located on the computer's motherboard. It allows the operating system to communicate with and control these external hardware components, such as printers, scanners, or graphics cards. Without a driver, the operating system would not be able to access or utilize these devices effectively. Therefore, a driver is necessary to establish a connection and enable proper functioning between the operating system and external hardware.

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6. Using a range of 1–126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address, what class does it belong to?

Explanation

An IPv4 address is divided into different classes based on the range of values in the first octet. Class A addresses have a range of 1-126 in the first octet, which means that the given IPv4 address belongs to Class A. Class A addresses are used for large networks as they can accommodate a large number of hosts.

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7. What notation is expressed in zero compression for IPv6?

Explanation

The given answer "10AB::3:0:1234:5678" is an example of zero compression notation for IPv6. In this notation, consecutive blocks of zeros can be represented by "::". This allows for a shorter representation of the IPv6 address. In the given answer, "::" is used to represent the consecutive blocks of zeros between "10AB" and "3", and between "3" and "1234".

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8. What concerns slowed the military's adoption of wireless network technology?

Explanation

The military's adoption of wireless network technology was slowed due to concerns regarding both security and reliability. Security is a crucial factor for the military as they need to ensure that their wireless networks are protected from unauthorized access and potential cyber threats. Additionally, reliability is essential for the military to ensure uninterrupted communication and data transmission. Therefore, these concerns regarding security and reliability played a significant role in slowing down the military's adoption of wireless network technology.

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9. What topology consists of devices connected to a common, shared cable?

Explanation

Bus topology consists of devices connected to a common, shared cable. In this topology, all devices are connected to a single cable known as the bus. Each device on the network can transmit data onto the bus, and all other devices on the network can receive that data. This type of topology is relatively simple and inexpensive to implement, making it suitable for small networks. However, if the bus cable fails, the entire network can be affected, and the performance of the network can be impacted as more devices are added.

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10. What application within Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol is used to send and receive files via TCP?

Explanation

File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is the correct answer because it is the application within TCP/IP that is specifically designed for sending and receiving files over a network. FTP allows users to transfer files between a client and a server using TCP as the underlying protocol. It provides a reliable and efficient method for file transfer, making it a widely used protocol for tasks such as uploading website files or transferring large files between computers.

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11. The computing part of the computer is the central processing unit, also called the

Explanation

The correct answer is microprocessor because it is the component of a computer that performs most of the processing inside the computer. It is responsible for executing instructions, performing calculations, and managing data flow between different parts of the computer. The microprocessor is often referred to as the "brain" of the computer as it controls and coordinates all the activities of the computer system.

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12. Which landline transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications?

Explanation

Twisted pair cable is the primary carrier of voice communications because it is a reliable and cost-effective transmission medium. It consists of two insulated copper wires twisted together, which helps to minimize interference and crosstalk. Twisted pair cables are widely used in telephone networks and are capable of transmitting voice signals over long distances without significant degradation in quality. Additionally, they are easy to install and maintain, making them a popular choice for voice communication systems.

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13. Which of the following is not one of the three advantages to using wireless technology?

Explanation

Safety is not one of the three advantages to using wireless technology. Wireless technology offers ease of installation, lower cost, and mobility as its advantages. Safety may not be considered as an advantage because wireless technology can have potential security risks such as unauthorized access, data breaches, and interference. While wireless technology provides convenience and flexibility, it may not guarantee the same level of safety as wired connections.

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14. The ability to move about without being tethered by wires in wireless technology is called

Explanation

The correct answer is mobility. Mobility refers to the ability to move freely without being restricted by wires in wireless technology. It allows users to access and use devices or services from different locations without the need for physical connections. This feature is essential in various applications such as mobile phones, laptops, and wireless networks, enabling convenience and flexibility for users.

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15. Who is an authorized client that may unknowingly or maliciously help outside parties gain access to a network?

Explanation

An employee is an authorized client who may unknowingly or maliciously help outside parties gain access to a network. As an insider, an employee has access to sensitive information and network resources, making them a potential threat if they misuse their privileges or fall victim to social engineering tactics. They can either unintentionally assist attackers by clicking on malicious links or sharing confidential information, or intentionally collaborate with external parties to compromise the network's security.

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16. What rule establishes the percent of data that should be local to a segment and the percentage of data that should be destined to traverse a bridge to the other segment?

Explanation

The 80/20 rule establishes that 80% of the data should be local to a segment, meaning it stays within that segment, while 20% of the data should traverse a bridge to the other segment. This rule helps determine the balance between local and remote data transfer, ensuring efficient data distribution and communication between segments.

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17. What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the IP address for a device that knows its own MAC address?

Explanation

The Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) is a network layer protocol that provides the IP address for a device that knows its own MAC address. RARP allows a device to send its MAC address to a RARP server and request its corresponding IP address. This is useful in situations where a device does not have an IP address configured and needs to obtain one dynamically. The RARP server will then respond with the appropriate IP address for the requesting device.

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18. What type of network connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distances between cities, states, countries, or around the world?

Explanation

A Wide Area Network (WAN) is a type of network that connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distances. It is used to connect networks between cities, states, countries, or even across the world. Unlike a Local Area Network (LAN) which is limited to a specific area, a WAN allows for long-distance communication and enables organizations to connect their remote offices or branches. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a secure connection that uses public networks to create a private network, while a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) connects networks within a specific metropolitan area.

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19. Instead of using binary, how are IPv4 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?

Explanation

IPv4 addresses are expressed in dotted decimal notation to make them more user-friendly. In this format, the address is divided into four sections, each representing one byte of the address. Each section is separated by a dot, making it easier for users to read and understand the address. This format is widely used and is familiar to most users, making it more convenient for communication and configuration purposes.

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20. What IPv4 reserved address is used for loop back?

Explanation

The IPv4 reserved address used for loop back is 127.0.0.1. This address is commonly referred to as the loopback address and is used to test network connectivity on a local machine. When a packet is sent to this address, it is immediately routed back to the sender without leaving the network interface, allowing the machine to communicate with itself.

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21. What is the type of memory that retains data after power is removed or lost?

Explanation

Nonvolatile memory is the type of memory that retains data even after power is removed or lost. Unlike volatile memory, which requires a constant power supply to retain data, nonvolatile memory can store information without the need for power. This type of memory is commonly used in devices such as hard drives, solid-state drives, and flash memory, where data needs to be stored even when the device is powered off.

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22. Applications are software programs designed to perform what type of tasks?

Explanation

Applications are software programs that are designed to perform specific tasks. Unlike general software programs, which can perform a wide range of functions, applications are focused on a particular purpose or set of tasks. They are developed to meet the specific needs of users and provide targeted functionality. This specificity allows applications to be more efficient and effective in performing their intended tasks.

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23. What was the first disk operating system developed to operate on a wide range of computer systems?

Explanation

UNIX was the first disk operating system developed to operate on a wide range of computer systems. It was created in the 1960s and was designed to be portable, allowing it to run on different hardware platforms. UNIX introduced many innovative features such as multitasking, file system organization, and a command-line interface. Its portability and flexibility made it popular among universities, research institutions, and eventually commercial enterprises. Today, UNIX and its derivatives continue to be widely used in various industries, including telecommunications, finance, and scientific research.

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24. What layer of the Open System Interconnect model defines the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional specifications for links between communicating network systems?

Explanation

The Physical layer of the Open System Interconnect model is responsible for defining the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional specifications for links between communicating network systems. This layer deals with the physical transmission of data, including the physical media, signal encoding, and electrical voltages used for communication. It ensures that the data is transmitted reliably and accurately over the network.

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25. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers divide the Open System Interconnect Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?

Explanation

The correct answer is Logical Link Control and Media Access Control. The Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layer is divided into these two sublayers. The Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer handles the flow control, error checking, and framing of data packets. It also provides services to the Network Layer. The Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer is responsible for controlling access to the network media and managing the physical addressing of data packets. These two sublayers work together to ensure reliable and efficient communication between network devices.

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26. Which network protocol has the Department of Defense chosen as its standard to govern the flow of information?

Explanation

The Department of Defense has chosen the Transport Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) as its standard network protocol to govern the flow of information. TCP/IP is a set of protocols that allows for reliable and secure communication over networks, and it is widely used in the internet and other computer networks. It provides a standardized framework for addressing, routing, and transmitting data packets, making it an ideal choice for the Department of Defense to ensure efficient and secure communication within its network infrastructure.

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27. What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting?

Explanation

The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is a network layer protocol that provides messaging capabilities to assist in troubleshooting. ICMP is primarily used for error reporting, network diagnostics, and troubleshooting network connectivity issues. It allows network devices to send error messages to the source IP address when a problem occurs during packet transmission. These error messages can provide valuable information about network issues, such as unreachable hosts, network congestion, or incorrect routing configurations. ICMP is an essential component of the TCP/IP protocol suite and is widely used by network administrators to diagnose and resolve network problems.

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28. What is a mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP address into a network and host number?

Explanation

A subnet mask is a mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP address into a network and host number. It is used to determine which part of the IP address belongs to the network and which part belongs to the host. By using a subnet mask, a network device can identify the network that a particular IP address belongs to and route the data accordingly. This helps in efficient communication and management of IP addresses within a network.

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29. What organization developed several wireless standards to meet the demands of security, speed, and flexibility of today's wireless networks?

Explanation

The Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers (IEEE) developed several wireless standards to meet the demands of security, speed, and flexibility of today's wireless networks. These standards include IEEE 802.11 for Wi-Fi, IEEE 802.15 for Bluetooth, IEEE 802.16 for WiMAX, and many others. The IEEE is a globally recognized organization that focuses on advancing technology and innovation in various fields, including wireless communications. Their standards ensure interoperability, reliability, and performance in wireless networks, making them crucial for the development and implementation of wireless technologies.

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30. Which of these is an example of an Exterior Gateway Protocol?

Explanation

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is an example of an Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP). BGP is used to exchange routing information between different autonomous systems (AS) on the internet. It is responsible for determining the best path for data packets to travel from one AS to another. BGP is widely used by internet service providers and large networks to ensure efficient and reliable routing of internet traffic.

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31. Which condition permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication?

Explanation

INFOCON 2 is the correct answer because it represents an intermediate level of readiness and signifies an increased risk of attack. During INFOCON 2, non-essential networks can be taken offline and replaced with alternate communication methods to mitigate the risk and protect critical systems from potential attacks. This level of readiness allows for proactive measures to be taken, ensuring the security and functionality of essential networks.

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32. The core operating-system function is the management of the computer system which resides with the

Explanation

The kernel is the correct answer because it is responsible for managing the computer system's core operating functions. It acts as a bridge between the hardware and software, handling tasks such as memory management, process scheduling, and device driver management. The kernel is essential for the proper functioning of the operating system and ensures that all other components, including the shell, device manager, and processor manager, can interact effectively with the hardware and perform their respective functions.

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33. What type of network makes use of tunneling and security protocols to enables a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public Internet?

Explanation

A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a type of network that utilizes tunneling and security protocols to enable a group of computer systems to communicate over the public Internet. It creates a secure and encrypted connection between the systems, allowing them to exchange data and information privately. This is particularly useful for remote workers or organizations that need to connect multiple locations securely over the internet. A VPN ensures that the communication remains private and protected from unauthorized access or interception.

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34. How many devices can connect to a FireWire bus?

Explanation

A FireWire bus can connect up to 63 devices. This is because the FireWire standard allows for a maximum of 63 devices to be connected in a daisy-chain configuration, where each device is connected to the previous one. This limit is imposed by the addressing scheme used by FireWire, which assigns a unique identifier to each device on the bus. Therefore, the correct answer is 63.

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35. What is the method called when the entire frame is received and placed into the buffer, an error check is performed, and the frame is sent to the proper port for delivery?

Explanation

Store-and-forward is the method where the entire frame is received and stored in the buffer. It then performs an error check to ensure the integrity of the frame. Once the error check is completed, the frame is sent to the appropriate port for delivery. This method ensures that the frame is error-free before forwarding it, making it a reliable method for data transmission.

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36. When a risk of a network system attack has been identified, which condition requires all unclassified dial-up connections be disconnected?

Explanation

INFOCON 3 is the condition that requires all unclassified dial-up connections to be disconnected when a risk of a network system attack has been identified. This means that when the threat level is at INFOCON 3, it is considered to be high enough that all unclassified dial-up connections should be terminated to minimize the risk of a potential attack.

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37. The classification of a fill device is

Explanation

The correct answer is that a fill device is classified as soon as a key is loaded, and it holds the classification of the loaded key. This means that the classification of the fill device is determined by the key that is loaded into it. Once a key is loaded, the fill device takes on the classification of that key. This ensures that the information stored or processed by the fill device is protected at the appropriate level of classification.

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38. What directory is always identified by the slash symbol (/) and is in the "a" partition?

Explanation

The directory that is always identified by the slash symbol (/) and is in the "a" partition is the root directory. The root directory is the top-level directory in a file system hierarchy and serves as the starting point for navigating the file system. It contains all other directories and files in the system.

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39. At what Open System Interconnect layer do routers operate?

Explanation

Routers operate at the Network layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. The Network layer is responsible for routing packets across different networks and determining the best path for data transmission. Routers use IP addresses and routing tables to make decisions about forwarding packets to their intended destinations. They also perform functions such as packet filtering, network address translation (NAT), and network segmentation. By operating at the Network layer, routers play a crucial role in connecting different networks and enabling communication between devices.

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40. What Open System Interconnect layer is closest to the end user?

Explanation

The Open System Interconnect (OSI) model consists of seven layers, with the Application layer being the closest to the end user. This layer provides services directly to the user, such as email, web browsing, and file transfer. It interacts with software applications and allows users to access network resources. The Application layer is responsible for formatting, encrypting, and compressing data before sending it to the Presentation layer for further processing.

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41. What is a formal set of rules and conventions that govern how computers exchange information over a network medium?

Explanation

A protocol is a formal set of rules and conventions that govern how computers exchange information over a network medium. It defines the format, timing, sequencing, and error control of data transmission. Protocols ensure that different devices and systems can communicate effectively and understand each other's messages. They provide a standardized way for computers to interact and enable the reliable transfer of data across networks.

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42. What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?

Explanation

The star topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component, usually a switch or hub. In this topology, all the computers are connected directly to the central component, allowing for easy management and troubleshooting. If one computer fails or has an issue, it will not affect the rest of the network. Additionally, the star topology provides better performance and scalability compared to other topologies like bus or ring.

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43. What two main components make up the central processing unit?

Explanation

The central processing unit (CPU) is made up of two main components: the control unit and the arithmetic logic unit (ALU). The control unit is responsible for coordinating and controlling the operations of the CPU, while the ALU performs arithmetic and logical operations. Together, these two components work together to execute instructions, process data, and perform calculations within a computer system.

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44. Which of the following is not one the four security threats to Wireless Local Area Network?

Explanation

Direct Connections is not one of the four security threats to Wireless Local Area Network. Rogue Access Points, War Drivers, and Hackers are all potential threats to the security of a wireless network. Rogue Access Points refer to unauthorized access points that are set up by attackers to gain access to the network. War Drivers are individuals who drive around with a wireless device to detect and exploit vulnerabilities in wireless networks. Hackers are individuals who attempt to gain unauthorized access to the network to steal data or disrupt operations. However, Direct Connections do not pose a direct security threat to a wireless network as they are typically used for legitimate purposes such as connecting a device directly to a router or modem.

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45. What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the service of matching a known IP address for a destination device to a Media Access Control address?

Explanation

The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is the network layer protocol that provides the service of matching a known IP address for a destination device to a Media Access Control (MAC) address. ARP is used to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses in order to facilitate communication between devices on a local network.

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46. How many bits are in an IPv4 address?

Explanation

An IPv4 address is made up of 32 bits. Each bit can be either a 0 or a 1, resulting in a total of 2^32 possible combinations. This allows for approximately 4.3 billion unique addresses, which are used to identify devices on a network. IPv4 addresses are commonly written in decimal format with four sets of numbers separated by periods, with each set representing 8 bits.

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47. What Unicast address scope is designed to be private, internally routable addresses that do not route outside the site?

Explanation

Site-local addresses are designed to be private, internally routable addresses that do not route outside the site. These addresses are used within a specific site or organization and are not meant to be globally unique. They provide a way for devices within the same site to communicate with each other without the need for external routing. Site-local addresses have been deprecated in favor of Unique Local Addresses (ULA) as per the IPv6 addressing architecture.

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48. What do you apply across Liquid Crystal Display material to change the alignment and light polarizing property?

Explanation

Voltage is applied across Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) material to change the alignment and light polarizing property. This is because the liquid crystals in an LCD are sensitive to electric fields. By applying a voltage, the electric field causes the liquid crystals to align in a specific direction, which in turn affects the polarization of light passing through the LCD. This allows for the manipulation of light transmission and the creation of images on the display.

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49. This type of bridge is used to convert one Data Link layer protocol to another.

Explanation

A translational bridge is used to convert one Data Link layer protocol to another. This means that it can take data from one type of network and translate it into a format that can be understood by another type of network. This is useful in situations where different networks are using different protocols and need to communicate with each other. The translational bridge acts as a mediator between the two networks, allowing them to exchange data seamlessly.

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50. What topology defines the layout of a network's devices and media?

Explanation

The correct answer is Physical. The physical topology refers to the actual physical layout of devices and media in a network. It defines how the devices are connected and the physical arrangement of cables, switches, routers, and other networking equipment. This includes the placement of devices such as computers, servers, printers, and the physical connections between them. The physical topology is important for understanding how data flows within a network and for troubleshooting network issues.

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51. An optical communications system is comprised of a

Explanation

An optical communications system requires a transmitter to convert electrical signals into optical signals, a cable to transmit the optical signals, and a receiver to convert the optical signals back into electrical signals. This is the basic setup for transmitting information through optical fibers. The other options mentioned, such as logic analyzer and protocol analyzer, are not essential components of an optical communications system.

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52. An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information is best described as a COMSEC

Explanation

An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information is best described as a COMSEC incident.

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53. What is the name of the standard all-purpose shell most commonly used?

Explanation

The Bourne shell is the correct answer because it is the most commonly used standard all-purpose shell. It was developed by Stephen Bourne at Bell Labs and is the default shell for most Unix-like operating systems. It provides a wide range of features and functionality, making it versatile and widely adopted in the Unix/Linux community.

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54. This component of the Global Information Grid consists of those items that are necessary to directly connect the warfighter to the global network

Explanation

The Warrior component is the correct answer because it refers to the items that directly connect the warfighter to the global network. This component includes the necessary equipment, technology, and infrastructure that enable communication and information exchange between the warfighter and the global network. It ensures that the warfighter has access to the necessary tools and resources to effectively operate within the Global Information Grid.

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55. Final reports of a communication security incident are due

Explanation

The final reports of a communication security incident are due 30 days after the initial report is issued. This means that the reports must be completed and submitted within this timeframe. The issuance of the initial report marks the starting point for the 30-day period. It is important to adhere to this deadline to ensure timely reporting and resolution of the incident.

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56. Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?

Explanation

Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between two nodes. It determines the most efficient route for data packets to travel from the source node to the destination node in a network. By continuously updating and exchanging routing information, dynamic routing protocols such as OSPF and BGP can adapt to changes in network topology and traffic conditions, ensuring optimal routing decisions are made.

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57. What is the default classful subnet mask on class B networks?

Explanation

The default classful subnet mask for class B networks is 255.255.0.0. This subnet mask allows for a network with a maximum of 65,536 hosts. Class B networks have a default IP address range of 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255, and the first two octets of the subnet mask, 255.255, indicate that the network portion of the IP address is 16 bits long.

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58. How many peripherals can a Universal Serial Bus handle at once?

Explanation

A Universal Serial Bus (USB) can handle up to 127 peripherals at once. USB is a widely used interface for connecting various devices to a computer, such as keyboards, mice, printers, and external storage devices. The USB specification allows for a maximum of 127 devices to be connected in a daisy-chain fashion using hubs. Each device connected to the USB has a unique address, and the USB protocol supports efficient communication and data transfer between the computer and the connected peripherals. Therefore, the correct answer is 127.

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59. What best describes an unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment?

Explanation

Emanation best describes unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment. Emanation refers to the unintentional release of electromagnetic signals or radiation from electronic devices, which can potentially be intercepted or cause interference with other devices. This can occur due to poor shielding or design flaws in the equipment.

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60. What encryption device is certified to secure all classification levels and categories and is able to encrypt trunk-level high-speed circuits?

Explanation

The TSEC/KIV-19 encryption device is certified to secure all classification levels and categories and is capable of encrypting trunk-level high-speed circuits. This device is specifically designed for secure communication and is able to protect sensitive information across different levels of classification. It is a reliable and effective encryption solution for encrypting high-speed circuits, ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of data transmitted over these circuits.

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61. At what level do regional operation centers perform Network Operations (NETOPS) to ensure operational and administrative control by implementing Systems and Network Management Information Assurance/Network Defense (IA/NetD), and Information Dissemination Management?

Explanation

Regional operation centers perform Network Operations (NETOPS) at Tier 2 level. Tier 2 is responsible for ensuring operational and administrative control by implementing Systems and Network Management Information Assurance/Network Defense (IA/NetD), and Information Dissemination Management. This level is usually responsible for monitoring and managing network performance, troubleshooting network issues, and coordinating with Tier 1 and Tier 3 levels for support and escalation.

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62. The main function of the Data Service Unit is to

Explanation

The Data Service Unit (DSU) is responsible for adapting the digital data stream produced by the customer equipment to the signaling standards of the telephone carrier equipment. This means that the DSU converts the data format, encoding, and protocol used by the customer equipment into a format that is compatible with the telephone carrier equipment. This ensures that the data can be transmitted and received correctly between the customer and the telephone carrier, allowing for seamless communication. The other options mentioned in the question, such as buffering and data flow control, managing timing errors, and providing electrical termination, are not the main functions of the DSU.

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63. At what Open System Interconnect layer do network switches and bridges operate?

Explanation

Network switches and bridges operate at the Data Link layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. This layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between adjacent network nodes. Network switches and bridges use MAC addresses to forward data packets within a local area network (LAN) and make decisions based on the Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer. They provide functionalities such as filtering, error detection, and collision avoidance, which are essential for efficient and secure data transmission within a network.

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64. What IPv4 class address is used for multicast addressing?

Explanation

Class D is the correct answer because it is the IPv4 class address used for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing allows a single packet to be sent to multiple destinations simultaneously, making it ideal for applications such as video streaming and online gaming. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 and are reserved for multicast groups.

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65. What is a Data Link layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?

Explanation

A bridge is a Data Link layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. It operates by examining the destination MAC address of each incoming frame and forwarding it only to the segment where the destination device is located. This helps to reduce collisions and improve network performance by isolating traffic within each segment. Unlike a hub, which simply broadcasts all incoming frames to all connected devices, a bridge selectively forwards frames based on their destination MAC address.

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66. What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services?

Explanation

The correct answer is Transmission Control Protocol (TCP). TCP is a transport layer protocol that provides reliable data delivery services. It ensures that data packets are delivered in the correct order and without any errors. TCP uses a combination of acknowledgment and retransmission mechanisms to guarantee reliable delivery of data over IP networks. It also includes flow control and congestion control mechanisms to manage the transmission rate and prevent network congestion. Overall, TCP is designed to provide a reliable and error-free communication channel between network hosts.

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67. What IPv4 class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes?

Explanation

Class C is the correct answer because it is designed for small to medium-sized networks with approximately 250 nodes. Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, allowing for up to 254 hosts per network. Class D is used for multicasting, Class E is reserved for experimental purposes, and Class F is not a valid class in the IPv4 addressing system.

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68. Analog modems are used over the voice band range of

Explanation

Analog modems are used over the voice band range of 20 Hz to 20 kHz. This range is commonly referred to as the audio frequency range, as it covers the frequencies that are audible to the human ear. Analog modems use this frequency range to transmit and receive data over telephone lines. The lower frequency limit of 20 Hz ensures that the modem can transmit low-frequency signals accurately, while the upper frequency limit of 20 kHz allows for the transmission of higher-frequency signals without distortion.

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69. An accreditation decision which allows a system to operate in an environment for which it was originally intended is known as

Explanation

A full accreditation is an accreditation decision that permits a system to function in its intended environment. This means that the system has met all the necessary requirements and standards to operate effectively and safely in its designated environment. It signifies that the system has undergone a comprehensive evaluation and has been deemed capable of fulfilling its intended purpose without any limitations or restrictions.

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70. Which one is not a category of the operating system's task categories?

Explanation

The given options are all categories of the operating system's task categories, except for "Troubleshoot interface". The other options, such as "User interface", "Memory management", and "Processor management", are all essential functions of an operating system. The "Troubleshoot interface" is not a recognized category of tasks performed by an operating system.

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71. One of the Windows Server Editions operating systems provides support for high-end, high traffic applications servers. Which Operating system is it?

Explanation

The correct answer is Datacenter Edition. This edition of Windows Server is specifically designed to provide support for high-end and high-traffic application servers. It offers advanced features and capabilities to handle large workloads and ensure high availability and scalability. Datacenter Edition is often used in enterprise environments where reliability and performance are crucial for running critical applications and services.

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72. While you are using the Red Switch, what feature lets you know that you have dialed the correct number at the proper level of security?

Explanation

The correct answer is the liquid crystal display. When using the Red Switch, the liquid crystal display is the feature that lets you know that you have dialed the correct number at the proper level of security. The liquid crystal display typically shows important information such as the dialed number, the level of security, and other relevant details, ensuring that the correct number has been dialed and the appropriate security measures are in place.

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73. Which is a common port that contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol servers and proxies?

Explanation

Port 8080 is commonly used for hosting Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) servers and proxies. While port 80 is the default port for HTTP, port 8080 is often used as an alternative when port 80 is already in use or blocked. This allows for multiple HTTP servers or proxies to run simultaneously on a single device.

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74. Which applied discipline applies measures and controls to protect data in computer systems against unauthorized, disclosure, modification, or destruction?

Explanation

COMPUSEC, also known as computer security, is the applied discipline that applies measures and controls to protect data in computer systems against unauthorized disclosure, modification, or destruction. It focuses on safeguarding the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of computer systems and their data. This includes implementing various security measures such as access controls, encryption, firewalls, and intrusion detection systems to prevent unauthorized access, data breaches, and other security threats.

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75. What is the difference between a hub router and a premise router?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Interconnected via the Defense Information Systems Agency Asynchronous Transfer Mode network." This means that a hub router and a premise router are connected to each other through the Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) network. This network is used for transferring data and information between these routers. The other statements provided in the question are not relevant to the difference between a hub router and a premise router.

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76. Which is an internet protocol encryption device that can be directly connected to Red local area networks?

Explanation

The KG-84 is an internet protocol encryption device that can be directly connected to Red local area networks. It is a secure device used to encrypt and protect data transmitted over the internet. The other options listed, KG-194, KIV-7, and KG175, are not specifically designed for direct connection to Red local area networks.

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77. What type of Defense Switched Network precedence call cannot be preempted?

Explanation

Flash Override is a type of Defense Switched Network precedence call that cannot be preempted. This means that when a Flash Override call is made, it takes priority over all other types of calls and cannot be interrupted or preempted by any other call. This ensures that important and urgent information can be transmitted without delay or interruption.

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78. The Global Positioning System program is responsible for maintaining GPS time to within how many seconds of universal time code?

Explanation

The Global Positioning System program is responsible for maintaining GPS time to within 1 microsecond of universal time code. This means that the GPS system is accurate up to one millionth of a second compared to the universal time code. This level of precision is crucial for accurate positioning and navigation using GPS technology.

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79. What Unicast address scope is publicly accessible with the Network ID portion of the address broken up into different areas allowing for hierarchical design and allocation?

Explanation

Aggregatable Global is the correct answer because it refers to a unicast address scope that is publicly accessible. In this scope, the Network ID portion of the address is broken up into different areas, allowing for hierarchical design and allocation. This means that the address can be divided into smaller subnets, making it easier to manage and allocate IP addresses in a large network. The term "aggregatable" suggests that these smaller subnets can be aggregated or combined together, reducing the routing table size and improving efficiency in network routing.

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80. What forwarding method is also known as runtless switching?

Explanation

Fragment-free forwarding method, also known as runtless switching, is a type of switching method used in network communication. In this method, the switch checks the first 64 bytes of a data frame before forwarding it to the destination. This ensures that any potential collisions or errors in the frame are detected and prevented, reducing the chances of forwarding corrupted or incomplete frames. Therefore, fragment-free forwarding method is a reliable and efficient method that helps in improving network performance and reducing transmission errors.

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81. What encryption device may you rarely see due to its lower maximum data rate?

Explanation

The TSEC/KIV-7 encryption device may rarely be seen due to its lower maximum data rate. This suggests that the TSEC/KIV-7 has a slower data processing capability compared to the other encryption devices listed. As a result, it may not be as commonly used or encountered in situations where higher data rates are required.

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82. Software is generally divided into

Explanation

The correct answer is systems software, operating systems software, and applications software. This is because software can be categorized into three main types: systems software, which includes programs that manage and control the computer hardware; operating systems software, which is responsible for managing computer resources and providing a platform for other software to run on; and applications software, which are programs designed for specific tasks or purposes, such as word processing or gaming.

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83. A modem is a device that modulates

Explanation

A modem is a device that is used to transmit data over a communication network. In this case, the correct answer states that a modem modulates digital data onto an analog carrier for transmission over an analog medium. This means that the modem converts the digital data into analog signals, which are then transmitted over an analog medium such as telephone lines. This is commonly used in dial-up internet connections, where the modem converts the digital data from the computer into analog signals that can be transmitted over the telephone line to connect to the internet.

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84. Instead of using binary, how are IPv6 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?

Explanation

IPv6 addresses are expressed in a colon hexadecimal format to make them more user-friendly. This format represents the address as eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, separated by colons. This allows for a larger address space compared to IPv4 and makes it easier for users to read and remember the addresses. Additionally, the use of hexadecimal digits simplifies the representation of large numbers and reduces the length of the address compared to using binary or decimal notation.

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85. Which pathnames begin at the current working directory?

Explanation

Relative pathnames begin at the current working directory. Unlike absolute pathnames, which start from the root directory, relative pathnames are specified in relation to the current directory. They indicate the location of a file or directory relative to the current working directory, allowing for easier navigation within the file system.

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86. Who bears the responsibility for maintenance of the sustaining base portion of the Defense Information System Network?

Explanation

The responsibility for maintenance of the sustaining base portion of the Defense Information System Network lies with the service that owns the installation. This means that the specific branch of the military that operates and maintains the installation is responsible for the upkeep and maintenance of the network.

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87. How are non-internet protocols sent across the Secret Internet Protocol Router Network?

Explanation

Non-internet protocols are sent across the Secret Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET) by being encapsulated by the internet protocol before being transmitted. This means that the non-internet protocols are wrapped or packaged within the internet protocol packets, allowing them to be transmitted across the SIPRNET. This encapsulation ensures that the non-internet protocols can be properly transmitted and received within the SIPRNET environment.

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88. What provides conduit for Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communication System data transmission from one location to another?

Explanation

The DISN backbone is the correct answer because it serves as the conduit for Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communication System (JWICS) data transmission from one location to another. The DISN (Defense Information Systems Network) backbone is a global network that provides secure and reliable communication services for the Department of Defense (DoD). It connects various military installations and facilitates the transmission of sensitive information, including JWICS data, between different locations.

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89. What is the maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN)?

Explanation

The maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN) is 19.2 Kbps. This means that the network can transfer data at a maximum speed of 19.2 kilobits per second.

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90. What notation is expressed in leading zero compression for IPv6?

Explanation

The given answer, "1234:1234:0:0:1234:0:0:1234," is an example of leading zero compression for IPv6 notation. In this notation, consecutive groups of zeros can be represented by a double colon (::) to simplify the representation of the address. This allows for a more concise and readable representation of IPv6 addresses.

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91. Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts?

Explanation

The correct answer is "C" because resources designated as priority are given higher importance and allocated more security measures when the level of security requires deterrence against hostile acts. This means that these resources are considered more critical and are protected with additional safeguards to prevent any potential threats or attacks.

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92. Windows operating systems traditionally function in one of two network models. Which model does not operate using centralized user accounts?

Explanation

The Workgroup network model does not operate using centralized user accounts. In a Workgroup, each computer maintains its own user accounts and security settings independently, without a central authority controlling access. This model is typically used in small networks or home environments where there is no need for centralized administration and user management.

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93. Which system provides support for features such as Windows System Resource Manager and Metadirectory Services?

Explanation

Enterprise Edition provides support for features such as Windows System Resource Manager and Metadirectory Services. These features are typically used in large-scale enterprise environments where resource management and directory services are crucial. AERO, Standard Edition, and Datacenter Edition do not provide the same level of support for these features, making Enterprise Edition the correct choice.

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94. Which security program is covered under AFI 10–701?

Explanation

AFI 10-701 is a United States Air Force Instruction that covers Operations Security (OPSEC). OPSEC refers to the process of identifying critical information and implementing measures to protect it from adversaries. It involves analyzing potential threats, vulnerabilities, and impacts, and then applying countermeasures to mitigate risks. Therefore, since AFI 10-701 covers OPSEC, the correct answer is OPSEC.

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95. What is the COMSEC program designed to do?

Explanation

The COMSEC program is designed to detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information. This means that the program is focused on identifying and addressing any vulnerabilities or flaws in the procedures and protocols related to the handling of sensitive information. By doing so, the program aims to enhance the security and protection of critical information from being compromised or accessed by unauthorized individuals.

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96. What encryption device is capable of loading up to 500 keys?

Explanation

The AN/CYZ-10 /DTD is capable of loading up to 500 keys.

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97. Which condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system activities when an increased risk of attack is present?

Explanation

When the INFOCON level is raised to 4, it indicates an increased risk of attack in the network system. This means that there is a higher likelihood of security breaches or unauthorized access. To mitigate these risks, increased monitoring of all network system activities is mandated. This ensures that any suspicious or malicious activities can be detected and addressed promptly, minimizing the potential damage caused by an attack.

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98. What is the first step in merging voice, data and video networks into one integrated network within the Air Force?

Explanation

The first step in merging voice, data, and video networks into one integrated network within the Air Force is to integrate traditional TDM switches with voice over IP systems. This means combining the existing traditional TDM switches with voice over IP technology to enable the transmission of voice signals over an IP network. By integrating these two systems, the Air Force can begin the process of merging different types of networks into one cohesive network, allowing for more efficient communication and data transmission.

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99. At what Open System Interconnect layer are common data compression and encryption schemes used?

Explanation

Common data compression and encryption schemes are used at the Presentation layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. The Presentation layer is responsible for formatting and presenting data to the application layer. It ensures that the data is in a format that the receiving application can understand. Data compression reduces the size of the data for efficient transmission, while encryption ensures the security and privacy of the data by converting it into a form that can only be accessed by authorized parties. Therefore, the correct answer is Presentation.

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100. Which condition exists when there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer networks?

Explanation

INFOCON 5 indicates the lowest threat level, meaning there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer networks. This suggests that there are no known or suspected attacks or threats against computer networks at the current time.

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101. Which form is used as a visitor register log to record visitors into restricted areas?

Explanation

AF Form 1109 is the correct answer because it is the form used as a visitor register log to record visitors into restricted areas. The other forms listed (AF Form 1019, AF Form 1119, and AF Form 1190) are not specifically used for this purpose.

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102. This characteristic of the Global Information Grid ensures seamless transmission of information between different service branches

Explanation

Common policy and standards refer to a set of guidelines and regulations that are established and followed by all service branches. These policies and standards ensure consistency and compatibility in the transmission of information across different branches of the Global Information Grid. By having a common policy and standards, the seamless transmission of information is guaranteed as all branches adhere to the same rules and protocols. This ensures that information can be easily shared and accessed by different service branches, promoting effective communication and collaboration within the Global Information Grid.

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103. What is the purpose of the standardized tactical entry point terminal?

Explanation

The purpose of the standardized tactical entry point terminal is to provide a secure and reliable communication link between commanders in the field and the National Command Authority. This allows commanders to have direct access to important information and instructions from higher authorities, enabling effective decision-making and coordination.

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104. What Unicast address scope operates within a network segment, and will not originate from, or be destined to, an interface that requires a router to direct traffic?

Explanation

Link-local addresses are used for communication within a network segment and do not require a router for directing traffic. These addresses are automatically assigned to interfaces and are not meant to be routed outside of the local network. They are used for local network operations and are not globally unique. Therefore, link-local is the correct answer for the given question.

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105. An unclassified term referring to technical investigations for compromising emanations from electrically operated data processing equipment is known as

Explanation

The correct answer is "Telecommunications Electronic Material Protected from Emanating Spurious Transmissions". This term refers to technical investigations for compromising emanations from electrically operated data processing equipment. It suggests that there is a need to protect the electronic material used in telecommunications from emitting spurious transmissions that could potentially compromise security.

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106. What layer of the open system interconnection model do routers operate?

Explanation

Routers operate at Layer 3 of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model. Layer 3 is the network layer, responsible for routing and forwarding data packets between different networks. Routers use IP addresses to determine the best path for data to travel across multiple networks. They make decisions based on network layer information, such as destination IP addresses, to direct traffic efficiently. By operating at Layer 3, routers play a crucial role in connecting different networks and enabling communication between devices on those networks.

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107. Which of the following security programs is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities?

Explanation

OPSEC, which stands for Operations Security, is the correct answer. OPSEC is a security program that involves identifying critical information and analyzing friendly actions in order to protect military operations and other activities. It focuses on preventing the release of sensitive information that could be used by adversaries to compromise security. EMSEC, COMSEC, and COMPUSEC are also security programs, but they are not specifically related to the process of identifying critical information and analyzing friendly actions.

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108. Disclosure of information that would result in the loss, misuse, modification or unauthorized access that might adversely affect national security would best be described as

Explanation

The disclosure of information that could potentially harm national security, if accessed or modified without authorization, would be best described as "sensitive but unclassified." This term suggests that the information is not classified at the highest level of secrecy, but it is still considered sensitive and should be handled with caution to prevent any adverse effects on national security.

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109. Which organization is responsible for the design, acquisition, and single systems management of the Defense Switched Network?

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for the design, acquisition, and single systems management of the Defense Switched Network. DISA is an agency of the United States Department of Defense that provides information technology and communications support to the military. They are responsible for ensuring that the Defense Switched Network, which is a global voice and data network for the military, is properly designed, acquired, and managed.

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110. Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package?

Explanation

The SF 153 form is used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package.

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111. What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material?

Explanation

AF Form 3227 is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material.

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112. At which NETOPS level is responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure globally managed?

Explanation

Tier 1 is the correct answer because at this level, responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure is globally managed. This means that Tier 1 is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the management of the defense information infrastructure across different regions and countries, ensuring its smooth operation and effective management.

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113. Besides limiting connections to the Global Information Grid, what other Combat Information Transport Systems initiative will help increase network security?

Explanation

Eliminating the MAJCOM NOSC concept and integrating the functions into two Integrated NOSCs will help increase network security by streamlining and centralizing the network operation and security functions. This consolidation will allow for better coordination and control over network security measures, reducing the potential for vulnerabilities and improving overall network protection.

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114. Guidance for posting information on Air Force web sites is outlined in

Explanation

AFI 33–129 provides guidance for posting information on Air Force web sites. This document outlines the rules and regulations that must be followed when posting content on Air Force websites. It covers topics such as security, privacy, accessibility, and content management. By following the guidelines outlined in AFI 33–129, Air Force personnel can ensure that the information posted on their websites is compliant with regulations and meets the necessary standards.

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115. How is responsiveness provided in the Defense Switched Network?

Explanation

Responsiveness is provided in the Defense Switched Network (DSN) through the use of precedence access thresholding. This means that certain users or types of communication have priority access to the network based on their level of importance or urgency. By setting access thresholds, the DSN ensures that critical communications are given priority over less important ones, allowing for a more efficient and responsive network.

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116. What method borrows bits from the host field of an IP address to create a subnet?

Explanation

Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) is the method that borrows bits from the host field of an IP address to create a subnet. CIDR allows for more flexible and efficient allocation of IP addresses by allowing variable-length subnet masks. This means that the traditional class-based subnetting is replaced with a more granular approach, where the number of borrowed bits can vary depending on the network's needs. CIDR is widely used in modern networks to optimize address allocation and routing.

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117. What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging?

Explanation

The correct answer is AFI 33-119. AFI 33-119 is the reference that provides guidance on Air Force messaging. It likely contains information on the proper procedures and protocols for messaging within the Air Force, including guidelines for formatting, content, and distribution. This document would be a valuable resource for anyone in the Air Force who needs to send or receive messages in an official capacity.

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118. Which organization assigns communication security incident report case numbers?

Explanation

The Air Force Communications Agency is responsible for assigning communication security incident report case numbers. This agency is specifically tasked with managing and securing the communication systems within the Air Force. They handle the documentation and tracking of security incidents, including assigning case numbers to ensure proper record-keeping and follow-up.

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119. Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing "confidential" information?

Explanation

The correct answer is SF 708. SF 708 is the form that should be used to properly label removable storage media containing "confidential" information.

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120. Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information can be found in

Explanation

AFI 31–501 is the correct answer because it is the official guidance that provides information on individual security clearances and granting access to classified information. The other options, AFI 31–301, AFI 31–401, and AFI 31–601, may contain information related to security or classified information, but they do not specifically address individual security clearances and access permissions like AFI 31–501 does.

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121. Providing a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DOD best describes which mandatory item of a Privacy Act Statement?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Routine use". In a Privacy Act Statement, a routine use refers to a specific purpose for which the information collected will be disclosed outside the Department of Defense (DOD). This includes providing a list of the entities or individuals who will have access to the information and the reasons why it will be disclosed. Routine use ensures transparency and informs individuals about how their personal information may be shared with other organizations or agencies.

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122. The Air Force Information Assurance Program is detailed in

Explanation

The correct answer is AFI 33-200. This is the Air Force Instruction (AFI) that provides the details of the Air Force Information Assurance Program. It outlines the policies, procedures, and guidelines for ensuring the security and protection of Air Force information systems and networks. AFI 33-200 covers topics such as risk management, incident response, vulnerability management, and information assurance training.

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123. Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts?

Explanation

The correct answer is "B" because when the level of security requires a significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts, the resources designated priority are provided. This means that the resources that are most important and critical for security are given special attention and allocation to ensure that they can effectively deter any hostile acts.

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124. Which segment of the Defense Information System Network (DISN) may be a person in the deployed Area of Responsibility or a person sitting in a fixed location thousands of miles from combat?

Explanation

A sustaining base refers to a fixed location that supports military operations, which can be thousands of miles away from combat zones. This segment of the Defense Information System Network (DISN) may involve personnel who are not directly involved in combat but play a crucial role in providing logistical support and maintaining the overall functionality of the military operations. These individuals could be responsible for tasks such as supply chain management, equipment maintenance, and administrative support.

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What are two anti-virus programs that the Air Force uses?
What topology defines the way in which devices communicate, and data...
What topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a...
What do routing algorithms initialize and maintain to aid the process...
The path between the operating system and virtually all hardware not...
Using a range of 1–126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address,...
What notation is expressed in zero compression for IPv6?
What concerns slowed the military's adoption of wireless network...
What topology consists of devices connected to a common, shared cable?
What application within Transmission Control Protocol/Internet...
The computing part of the computer is the central processing unit,...
Which landline transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice...
Which of the following is not one of the three advantages to using...
The ability to move about without being tethered by wires in wireless...
Who is an authorized client that may unknowingly or maliciously help...
What rule establishes the percent of data that should be local to a...
What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer...
What type of network connects networks that are typically separated by...
Instead of using binary, how are IPv4 addresses expressed to be more...
What IPv4 reserved address is used for loop back?
What is the type of memory that retains data after power is removed or...
Applications are software programs designed to perform what type of...
What was the first disk operating system developed to operate on a...
What layer of the Open System Interconnect model defines the...
The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers divide the Open...
Which network protocol has the Department of Defense chosen as its...
What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer...
What is a mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP...
What organization developed several wireless standards to meet the...
Which of these is an example of an Exterior Gateway Protocol?
Which condition permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and...
The core operating-system function is the management of the computer...
What type of network makes use of tunneling and security protocols to...
How many devices can connect to a FireWire bus?
What is the method called when the entire frame is received and placed...
When a risk of a network system attack has been identified, which...
The classification of a fill device is
What directory is always identified by the slash symbol (/) and is in...
At what Open System Interconnect layer do routers operate?
What Open System Interconnect layer is closest to the end user?
What is a formal set of rules and conventions that govern how...
What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected...
What two main components make up the central processing unit?
Which of the following is not one the four security threats to...
What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer...
How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
What Unicast address scope is designed to be private, internally...
What do you apply across Liquid Crystal Display material to change the...
This type of bridge is used to convert one Data Link layer protocol to...
What topology defines the layout of a network's devices and media?
An optical communications system is comprised of a
An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially...
What is the name of the standard all-purpose shell most commonly used?
This component of the Global Information Grid consists of those items...
Final reports of a communication security incident are due
Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how...
What is the default classful subnet mask on class B networks?
How many peripherals can a Universal Serial Bus handle at once?
What best describes an unintended signals or noise appearing external...
What encryption device is certified to secure all classification...
At what level do regional operation centers perform Network Operations...
The main function of the Data Service Unit is to
At what Open System Interconnect layer do network switches and bridges...
What IPv4 class address is used for multicast addressing?
What is a Data Link layer network device that logically separates a...
What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol transport layer...
What IPv4 class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes?
Analog modems are used over the voice band range of
An accreditation decision which allows a system to operate in an...
Which one is not a category of the operating system's task categories?
One of the Windows Server Editions operating systems provides support...
While you are using the Red Switch, what feature lets you know that...
Which is a common port that contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol...
Which applied discipline applies measures and controls to protect data...
What is the difference between a hub router and a premise router?
Which is an internet protocol encryption device that can be directly...
What type of Defense Switched Network precedence call cannot be...
The Global Positioning System program is responsible for maintaining...
What Unicast address scope is publicly accessible with the Network ID...
What forwarding method is also known as runtless switching?
What encryption device may you rarely see due to its lower maximum...
Software is generally divided into
A modem is a device that modulates
Instead of using binary, how are IPv6 addresses expressed to be more...
Which pathnames begin at the current working directory?
Who bears the responsibility for maintenance of the sustaining base...
How are non-internet protocols sent across the Secret Internet...
What provides conduit for Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communication...
What is the maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch...
What notation is expressed in leading zero compression for IPv6?
Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of...
Windows operating systems traditionally function in one of two network...
Which system provides support for features such as Windows System...
Which security program is covered under AFI 10–701?
What is the COMSEC program designed to do?
What encryption device is capable of loading up to 500 keys?
Which condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all...
What is the first step in merging voice, data and video networks into...
At what Open System Interconnect layer are common data compression and...
Which condition exists when there is no apparent terrorist activity...
Which form is used as a visitor register log to record visitors into...
This characteristic of the Global Information Grid ensures seamless...
What is the purpose of the standardized tactical entry point terminal?
What Unicast address scope operates within a network segment, and will...
An unclassified term referring to technical investigations for...
What layer of the open system interconnection model do routers...
Which of the following security programs is defined as a process of...
Disclosure of information that would result in the loss, misuse,...
Which organization is responsible for the design, acquisition, and...
Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC...
What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material?
At which NETOPS level is responsibility for the worldwide management...
Besides limiting connections to the Global Information Grid, what...
Guidance for posting information on Air Force web sites is outlined in
How is responsiveness provided in the Defense Switched Network?
What method borrows bits from the host field of an IP address to...
What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging?
Which organization assigns communication security incident report case...
Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media...
Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting...
Providing a list of where and why the information will be disclosed...
The Air Force Information Assurance Program is detailed in
Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of...
Which segment of the Defense Information System Network (DISN) may be...
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