3DX5X Cyber Support Journeyman Volume 1. Support To The Cyberspace Mission

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Beto612

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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 598

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1/100 Questions

(001) Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201,Classifying Military Personnel(Officer and Enlisted)?
- A. Core task
- B. Duty competency.
- C. Core Competency.
- D. Duty position task

About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in Cyber Support for Air Force operations, focusing on roles and responsibilities across various specialties like Cyber Systems, Client Systems, and Ground Radar Systems. It evaluates core competencies and duty position tasks as per AFI 36-2201.

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2.

(001) Which enlisted training element is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?
- A. Core task.
- B. Duty competency.
- C. Core competency.
- D. Duty position task.
Correct Answer

A. C. Core competency.

Explanation

A core competency is a set of expert knowledge and organizational skills that are essential to a specific career field. It encompasses the fundamental abilities and expertise required to perform tasks and responsibilities within that field. It goes beyond individual tasks or duties and represents a broader and more comprehensive understanding of the career field as a whole. Therefore, option c, core competency, is the correct answer as it best describes the concept of an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field.

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1
3.

(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?
- A. Cyber Surety.
- B. Client Systems.
- C. Cyber Transport.
- D. Cyber Systems Operations.
Correct Answer

A. D. Cyber Systems Operations.

Explanation

Cyber Systems Operations is the correct answer because this Air Force Specialty (AFS) specifically deals with the administration of servers and server farms across Air Force installations worldwide. This AFS focuses on managing and maintaining the functionality and security of computer systems, networks, and servers, ensuring smooth operations and effective communication within the Air Force.

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4.

(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and “hands-on” maintenance actions?
- A. Cyber Surety.
- B. Client Systems.
- C. Cyber Transport.
- D. Cyber Systems Operations
Correct Answer

A. B. Client Systems.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Client Systems. Client Systems is responsible for local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions. This means that they provide assistance to users on the base with any technical issues they may have and perform physical maintenance on computer systems. This includes tasks such as troubleshooting software and hardware problems, installing updates, and ensuring that systems are functioning properly.

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5.

(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
- A. Spectrum Operations.
- B. Ground Radar Systems.
- C. Cable and Antenna Systems.
- D. Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer

A. D. Radio Frequency Transmission.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Radio Frequency Transmission. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. They work with various RF communication systems and ensure their proper functioning and maintenance.

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6.

(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems?
- A. Spectrum Operations.
- B. Ground Radar Systems.
- C. Cable and Antenna Systems.
- D. Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer

A. B. Ground Radar Systems.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Ground Radar Systems. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for the installation, maintenance, and repair of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems. They ensure that these radar systems are functioning properly and are able to provide accurate information for air traffic control and weather monitoring.

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7.

(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
- A. Spectrum Operations.
- B. Ground Radar Systems.
- C. Cable and Antenna Systems.
- D. Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer

A. C. Cable and Antenna Systems.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Cable and Antenna Systems. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for installing and maintaining large-scale network wiring for both fixed and deployed operations. They are specifically focused on the installation and maintenance of cable and antenna systems, which are crucial for ensuring effective communication and connectivity within the Air Force.

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8.

(002) Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
- A. Unit training manager(UTM).
- B. Base functional manager(BFM).
- C. Major command functional manager(MFM).
- D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer

A. D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

Explanation

The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They provide guidance and support to individuals within the career field, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and opportunities for career development. The AFCFM is responsible for making decisions and implementing policies that impact the career field as a whole, and they work closely with other managers and leaders to ensure the success and growth of the career field.

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9.

(002) Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?
- A. Unit training manager (UTM).
- B. Base functional manager(BFM).
- C. Major command functional manager(MFM).
- D. Air Force career field manager(AFCFM).
Correct Answer

A. D. Air Force career field manager(AFCFM).

Explanation

The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). This means that the AFCFM has the power to exempt individuals from completing the CDC if they deem it necessary or appropriate. The AFCFM is responsible for overseeing the career field and ensuring that all training requirements are met, so they have the authority to make decisions regarding waivers.

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10.

(002) Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?
- A. Unit training manger (UTM).
- B. Base functional manager (BFM).
- C. Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer

A. C. Major command functional manager (MFM).

Explanation

The Major command functional manager (MFM) is responsible for assisting with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of the specialty knowledge test (SKT) and the career development course (CDC). They have the knowledge and expertise to select individuals who are well-versed in the subject matter and can contribute to the development of these important training materials. The MFM plays a crucial role in ensuring that the SKT and CDC are comprehensive and accurate, helping to enhance the knowledge and skills of individuals in their respective career fields.

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11.

(002) What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
- A. Unit training manger (UTM).
- B. Base functional manager (BFM).
- C. Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer

A. B. Base functional manager (BFM).

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Base functional manager (BFM). This title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO). This means that the NCO is responsible for managing the functional aspects of the cyberspace operations at the base level. They oversee the implementation and execution of cyberspace policies and procedures, as well as coordinate with other units and personnel to ensure the effective functioning of cyberspace operations within the base.

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12.

(002) What is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
- A. Modify training.
- B. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
- C. Conduct climate training surveys.
- D. Review the occupational analysis report.
Correct Answer

A. B. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

Explanation

The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This plan outlines the education and training requirements for a specific career field, ensuring that personnel receive the necessary training and education to perform their duties effectively. The U&TW allows for the review and revision of the CFETP to ensure it remains up-to-date and relevant. This goal aligns with the purpose of the workshop, which is to provide a platform for stakeholders to collaborate and make informed decisions regarding training and education in the career field.

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13.

(003) Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on “Material Handling and Storage Equipment?”
- A. 91–46.
- B. 91–50.
- C. 91–64.
- D. 91–68.
Correct Answer

A. A. 91–46.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. 91-46. This AFOSH standard specifically addresses safety information related to "Material Handling and Storage Equipment."

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14.

(003) Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on “Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems?”
- A. 91–46.
- B. 91–50.
- C. 91–64.
- D. 91–68.
Correct Answer

A. B. 91–50.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. 91-50. This Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would be referenced for safety information on "Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems".

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15.

(003) The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard
- A. 91–46.
- B. 91–50.
- C. 91–64.
- D. 91–68.
Correct Answer

A. C. 91–64.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. 91-64. The AFOSH standard that provides safety information specifically for data processing facilities is AFOSH standard 91-64.

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16.

(003) From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?
- A. Sunlight.
- B. Microwaves.
- C. Ionizing radiation.
- D. Nonionizing radiation.
Correct Answer

A. D. Nonionizing radiation.

Explanation

Nonionizing radiation refers to forms of radiation that do not have enough energy to remove tightly bound electrons from atoms or molecules, and therefore do not cause ionization. This type of radiation includes radio waves, microwaves, and visible light. Unlike ionizing radiation, which can cause damage to tissues and organs by breaking chemical bonds and causing ionization, nonionizing radiation does not have enough energy to cause such harmful effects. Therefore, exposure to nonionizing radiation does not result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating.

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17.

(004) Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk?
- A. Accept no unnecessary risk.
- B. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
- C. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
- D. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.
Correct Answer

A. A. Accept no unnecessary risk.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Accept no unnecessary risk. This principle states that the most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk. This means that unnecessary risks should be avoided, and only risks that are necessary for the mission should be accepted. By minimizing unnecessary risks, the safety and well-being of personnel and resources can be protected while still successfully completing the mission.

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18.

(004) Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capability?
- A. Accept no unnecessary risk.
- B. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
- C. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
- D. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.
Correct Answer

A. C. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

Explanation

This principle of occupational risk management (ORM) requests individuals to evaluate the risks against the opportunities and benefits in order to maximize the capability of the unit. It suggests that if the benefits of taking a certain risk outweigh the costs associated with it, then the risk should be accepted. This approach allows for informed decision-making and ensures that risks are only accepted when there is a clear advantage to doing so.

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19.

(004) Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?
- A. Accept no unnecessary risk.
- B. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
- C. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
- D. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.
Correct Answer

A. D. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

Explanation

Integrating ORM into operations and planning at all levels means that risk assessments are conducted as a normal part of the mission process, rather than being seen as an additional step. This ensures that risk assessments are consistently and effectively performed, and that they are considered essential to the overall mission planning and execution. By integrating ORM into operations and planning, organizations can proactively identify and mitigate risks, leading to safer and more successful missions.

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20.

(005) Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by
- A. providing adversaries access to useless data files on legacy systems.
- B. taking offensive measures to track adversaries and correct damage to sensitive data.
- C. denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary’s ability to use cyberspace.
- D. allowing the adversaries to use the cyberspace domain so we can document the country they’re from.
Correct Answer

A. C. denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary’s ability to use cyberspace.

Explanation

Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary’s ability to use cyberspace. This means that the US takes offensive measures to hinder the adversary's capability to operate effectively in cyberspace. By doing so, they aim to weaken the adversary's ability to launch cyber attacks, gather intelligence, or carry out any malicious activities in the digital domain. This approach helps to protect sensitive data and maintain the security and integrity of US cyberspace.

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21.

(006) Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?
- A. Joint Operability network.
- B. Tactical data links network.
- C. Strategic data control network.
- D. Supervisory control and data acquisition.
Correct Answer

A. D. Supervisory control and data acquisition.

Explanation

Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) refers to centralized systems that monitor and control industrial sites or complexes of systems spread out over large areas. SCADA systems are used in various industries such as oil and gas, water and wastewater, and manufacturing to remotely monitor and control processes, collect data, and provide real-time information to operators. These systems help improve efficiency, safety, and productivity by allowing operators to monitor and control processes from a central location.

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22.

(007) Which center has the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks?
- A. Area Processing Center (APC).
- B. Network Control Center (NCC).
- C. Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).
- D. Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC).
Correct Answer

A. D. Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC).

Explanation

The Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC) is the correct answer because it is responsible for the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks. The I-NOSC is a centralized facility that monitors, manages, and protects the Air Force's network infrastructure and ensures its availability and security. It coordinates with other centers and units to respond to network incidents, implement security measures, and maintain the overall network operations. The I-NOSC plays a critical role in maintaining the integrity and effectiveness of Air Force networks.

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23.

(007) Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?
- A. Area Processing Center (APC).
- B. Network Control Center (NCC).
- C. Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).
- D. Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC).
Correct Answer

A. B. Network Control Center (NCC).

Explanation

The Network Control Center (NCC) is typically aligned under the base communications squadron and is responsible for providing Tier 3 (local level) on-site support. They are also responsible for implementing technical and physical network changes. The NCC is the central hub for monitoring and managing the local network infrastructure, ensuring its smooth operation and making necessary adjustments as needed.

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24.

(008) Which function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages?
- A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
- B. Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
- C. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).
- D. Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).
Correct Answer

A. C. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS). The mission of the Combat Communications Squadron is to provide small flyaway communication packages as well as rapidly deploy Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communication packages. This means that they are responsible for both portable communication solutions and larger, more permanent communication setups for deployment in various locations.

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25.

(008) Which function or organization was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF)?
- A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
- B. Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
- C. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).
- D. Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).
Correct Answer

A. D. Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).

Explanation

The Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS) was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF). This organization specializes in providing communication support in expeditionary environments and is responsible for setting up and maintaining communication networks for the AETF. They ensure that the AETF has reliable and secure communication capabilities to support their operations.

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26.

(008) Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter?
- A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
- B. Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
- C. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS).
- D. Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS).
Correct Answer

A. A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU). The ESU is responsible for managing AF core services within the AFNetOps community. Their goal is to reduce training and maintenance costs, increase operational flexibility, and enhance capacity for the warfighter. They work towards achieving these objectives by efficiently managing and delivering enterprise-level services to support the Air Force's network operations.

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27.

(009) Which document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States?
- A. Constitution.
- B. Bill of Rights.
- C. United States Title Code 10.
- D. Uniform Code of Military Justice.
Correct Answer

A. A. Constitution.

Explanation

The Constitution is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States. It is the supreme law of the land and provides the framework for the government and the rights and freedoms of its citizens. The Constitution outlines the powers and limitations of the three branches of government, establishes the system of checks and balances, and guarantees individual rights and liberties. It serves as the foundation for the entire legal system in the United States.

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28.

(009) Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of government and established all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?
- A. Constitution.
- B. Bill of Rights.
- C. United States Title Code 10.
- D. Uniform Code of Military Justice.
Correct Answer

A. C. United States Title Code 10.

Explanation

The United States Title Code 10 is the document that authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense as the executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. The Constitution and the Bill of Rights do not specifically address the creation of the Department of Defense or its subordinate agencies. The Uniform Code of Military Justice is a separate document that governs the military justice system.

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29.

(009) Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law?
- A. Constitution.
- B. Bill of Rights.
- C. United States Title Code 10.
- D. Uniform Code of Military Justice.
Correct Answer

A. D. Uniform Code of Military Justice.

Explanation

The Uniform Code of Military Justice serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breaches in binding instruction and law. It is a set of laws that govern the conduct of members of the United States military, ensuring discipline, order, and justice within the armed forces. The UCMJ outlines offenses and punishments, as well as the rights and responsibilities of military personnel. It is a crucial document that upholds the principles and values of the military and ensures accountability among its members.

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30.

(010) In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD?
- A. 1994.
- B. 1995.
- C. 1997.
- D. 1998.
Correct Answer

A. B. 1995.

Explanation

In 1995, the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD.

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31.

(010) In what year did the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in August of 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine?
- A. 1994.
- B. 1995.
- C. 1997.
- D. 1998.
Correct Answer

A. D. 1998.

Explanation

In August of 1998, the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine, while the Joint Staff also published its doctrine. Therefore, the correct answer is d. 1998.

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32.

(010) Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?
- A. Air Force Doctrines.
- B. Air Force Pamphlets.
- C. Air Force Instructions.
- D. Air Force Policy Directives.
Correct Answer

A. D. Air Force Policy Directives.

Explanation

Air Force Policy Directives are directive policy statements of the Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF that initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct within their specified areas of responsibility. These directives provide specific guidance and instructions for carrying out policies and procedures within the Air Force. Air Force Doctrines, Air Force Pamphlets, and Air Force Instructions may contain guidance and instructions as well, but they do not have the same level of authority as Air Force Policy Directives.

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33.

(010) Which publication type are informational publications which are “how to” documents?
- A. Air Force Pamphlets.
- B. Air Force Instructions.
- C. Air Force Publications.
- D. Air Force Policy Directives.
Correct Answer

A. A. Air Force Pamphlets.

Explanation

Air Force Pamphlets are informational publications that provide guidance on how to perform certain tasks or procedures. They are designed to be concise and easy to understand, providing step-by-step instructions or explanations on specific topics. Unlike other publication types such as Air Force Instructions or Air Force Policy Directives, which may cover broader policies or regulations, Air Force Pamphlets focus specifically on "how to" documents, making them the correct answer for this question.

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34.

(011) What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate?
- A. Broadcasts.
- B. Transmissions.
- C. Telecommunications.
- D. Voice over Internet Protocol.
Correct Answer

A. C. Telecommunications.

Explanation

Telecommunications refers to the transmission of information over significant geographical distances to communicate. It encompasses both analog and digital transmission of data, making it the correct answer for the question. Broadcasts and transmissions are more general terms that do not specifically address the conveyance of data over long distances. Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is a specific technology that allows voice communication over the internet, but it does not cover the transmission of data in general.

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35.

(011) What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location?
- A. myPay.
- B. E-publishing.
- C. Air Force Portal.
- D. virtual Military Personnel Flight.
Correct Answer

A. C. Air Force Portal.

Explanation

The Air Force Portal is the correct answer because it provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location. It serves as a centralized platform where Air Force personnel can access important information, documents, and tools necessary for their duties. It offers a wide range of resources, including news, career information, training materials, and communication tools, making it a valuable tool for the Air Force and its users.

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36.

(011) What tool is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces?
- A. myPay.
- B. E-publishing.
- C. Air Force Portal.
- D. virtual Military Personnel Flight.
Correct Answer

A. C. Air Force Portal.

Explanation

The Air Force Portal is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces. It provides a centralized location for Air Force personnel to access information, resources, and tools necessary for their tasks. It allows for efficient communication, collaboration, and information sharing among members of the Air Force, making it an essential tool for the organization.

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37.

(012) Which Air Force Portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to all applications with no further log-in requirement?
- A. my base.
- B. Single-sign-on.
- C. Community of practice.
- D. virtual Military Personnel Flight.
Correct Answer

A. B. Single-sign-on.

Explanation

Single-sign-on is the correct answer because it allows authorized users to enter their passwords once and gain access to all applications without needing to log in again. This feature streamlines the login process and improves efficiency for users by eliminating the need to remember multiple passwords for different applications.

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38.

(012) Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal?
- A. my base.
- B. Single-sign-on.
- C. Community of practice.
- D. virtual Military Personnel Flight.
Correct Answer

A. D. virtual Military Personnel Flight.

Explanation

The virtual Military Personnel Flight is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal because it allows Air Force personnel to access and manage their personnel and career information online. This feature provides convenience and efficiency as it eliminates the need for in-person visits to the Military Personnel Flight office, saving time and resources. It also allows for quick and easy access to important documents, forms, and updates related to personnel and career management.

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39.

(012) Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems?
- A. my base.
- B. Single-sign-on.
- C. Community of practice.
- D. virtual Military Personnel Flight.
Correct Answer

A. C. Community of practice.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Community of practice. A community of practice is a feature on the Air Force Portal that provides a secure, web-based collaborative environment for a specific task or topic. It allows members of a group to share information and tools, manage projects, and solve group problems together. This feature promotes knowledge sharing and collaboration among individuals with similar professional interests or goals.

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40.

(013) Which document would you reference for guidance on “Web management and Internet use?”
- A. AFI 33-118.
- B. AFI 33-119.
- C. AFI 33-127.
- D. AFI 33-129.
Correct Answer

A. D. AFI 33-129.

Explanation

AFI 33-129 is the document that provides guidance on "Web management and Internet use." It is the most relevant document to reference for information on this topic. AFI 33-118, AFI 33-119, and AFI 33-127 may cover related subjects, but they do not specifically address web management and internet use.

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41.

(013) Prior to posting web content on an Air Force web page; which document would you reference regarding compliance of local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites?
- A. AFI 33-127.
- B. AFI 33-129.
- C. AFI 35-101.
- D. AFI 35-108.
Correct Answer

A. C. AFI 35-101.
42.

(013) When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette?
- A. Keep emails brief and to the point.
- B. Read your email out loud to yourself.
- C. Consistently use the “Reply-to-All” feature.
- D. Ensure attachments are appropriate to supplement your message.
Correct Answer

A. C. Consistently use the “Reply-to-All” feature.
43.

(014) Which document is not considered an official government record?
- A. Published doctrines.
- B. Geographical base maps.
- C. Photographs of a retreat ceremony.
- D. Library reference or museum exhibitions.
Correct Answer

A. D. Library reference or museum exhibitions.

Explanation

Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are not created or maintained by government agencies for the purpose of documenting official activities or information. They are often curated by libraries or museums for educational or entertainment purposes, rather than as official records of government operations. Published doctrines, geographical base maps, and photographs of a retreat ceremony, on the other hand, are examples of official government records that are created and maintained by government agencies for specific purposes such as disseminating information, providing geographical data, or documenting official ceremonies.

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44.

(014) Records that are considered to be in draft format
- A. can be altered and are not officially released.
- B. can’t be altered, but are officially released.
- C. can’t be altered and are officially signed.
- D. officially signed and officially released.
Correct Answer

A. A. can be altered and are not officially released.

Explanation

Records that are considered to be in draft format can be altered and are not officially released. This means that these records are still in the process of being finalized and may undergo changes before they are officially released. They have not yet been approved or signed off on, so they are not considered official documents.

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45.

(014) Records that are considered to be in final format have which characteristic?
- A. Officially signed and not released.
- B. Officially signed and officially released.
- C. Can be altered and are not officially released.
- D. Can’t be altered, but are not officially released.
Correct Answer

A. B. Officially signed and officially released.

Explanation

Records that are considered to be in final format have the characteristic of being officially signed and officially released. This means that the records have gone through the necessary approval process and have been authorized for public release. They are no longer subject to alterations and are considered to be the official version of the records.

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46.

(015) Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?
- A. Base records manager.
- B. Chief of Office of Records.
- C. Command records manager.
- D. Functional area records manager.
Correct Answer

A. C. Command records manager.

Explanation

The command records manager is responsible for establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers. This role ensures that these managers are equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to effectively manage records at the base level. The command records manager understands the specific requirements and processes within the command and can tailor the training programs accordingly. This ensures consistency and adherence to records management policies and procedures throughout the command.

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47.

(015) Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?
- A. Base records manager.
- B. Chief of Office of Records.
- C. Command records manager.
- D. Functional area records manager.
Correct Answer

A. A. Base records manager.

Explanation

The duties mentioned in the question, such as providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training, are typically performed by a base records manager. This role is responsible for overseeing the organization and maintenance of records within a specific base or location. The base records manager ensures that records are properly stored, accessible, and maintained according to established protocols. They may also provide support and training to other staff members regarding record-keeping procedures.

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48.

(015) Who is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?
- A. Base records manager.
- B. Chief of Office of Records.
- C. Command records manager.
- D. Functional area records manager.
Correct Answer

A. D. Functional area records manager.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Functional area records manager. This individual is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization, or contractor to perform records management. This means they are responsible for managing and maintaining records within a specific functional area, ensuring that records are properly organized, stored, and accessible when needed. They may also be responsible for developing and implementing records management policies and procedures within their area of responsibility.

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49.

(015) Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?
- A. Base records manager.
- B. Chief of Office of Records.
- C. Command records manager.
- D. Functional area records manager.
Correct Answer

A. B. Chief of Office of Records.

Explanation

The Chief of Office of Records has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record. This individual is responsible for overseeing the management and maintenance of records within the office and has the power to designate custodians who will be responsible for the proper handling and storage of the records. The Chief of Office of Records plays a crucial role in ensuring that records are properly managed and maintained within the organization.

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Apr 26, 2012

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3DX5X Cyber Support Journeyman Volume 1. Support To The Cyberspace Mission

(001) Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201,Classifying Military Personnel(Officer and Enlisted)?

Quiz Preview

(001) Which enlisted training element is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?

(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and “hands-on” maintenance actions?

(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems?

(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

(002) Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

(002) Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

(002) Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

(002) What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

(002) What is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

(003) Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on “Material Handling and Storage Equipment?”

(003) Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on “Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems?”

(003) The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard

(003) From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?

(004) Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk?

(004) Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capability?

(004) Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?

(005) Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by

(006) Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?

(007) Which center has the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks?

(007) Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?

(008) Which function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages?

(008) Which function or organization was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF)?

(008) Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter?

(009) Which document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States?

(009) Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of government and established all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

(009) Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law?

(010) In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD?

(010) In what year did the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in August of 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine?

(010) Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?

(010) Which publication type are informational publications which are “how to” documents?

(011) What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate?

(011) What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location?

(011) What tool is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces?

(012) Which Air Force Portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to all applications with no further log-in requirement?

(012) Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal?

(012) Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems?

(013) Which document would you reference for guidance on “Web management and Internet use?”

(013) Prior to posting web content on an Air Force web page; which document would you reference regarding compliance of local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites?

(013) When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette?

(014) Which document is not considered an official government record?

(014) Records that are considered to be in draft format

(014) Records that are considered to be in final format have which characteristic?

(015) Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?

(015) Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?

(015) Who is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?

(015) Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?