Z3dx7x Vol. 01 (Edit 1)

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Z3dx7x Vol. 01 (Edit 1) - Quiz
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  • 2. 

    What class uses a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?

    • Class A

    • Class B

    • Class C

    • Class D

    Correct Answer
    A. Class A
    Explanation
    Class A is the correct answer because it uses a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address. Class A addresses are designed for large networks and can support a maximum of 16 million hosts. The first bit in the first octet is always 0, indicating that it is a Class A address.

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  • 3. 

    Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance then an attack?

    • Virus

    • Spam

    • Spyware

    • Phishing

    Correct Answer
    A. Spam
    Explanation
    Spam is considered more of an annoyance rather than an attack because it involves the mass sending of unsolicited and unwanted messages or emails. While it can be a nuisance and cause inconvenience, it typically does not directly harm or compromise the security of a system or user's personal information. In contrast, viruses, spyware, and phishing attacks are designed to infiltrate and damage systems, steal sensitive data, or deceive users into revealing confidential information. Therefore, spam is generally seen as a bothersome but less serious threat vector compared to the others listed.

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  • 4. 

    Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the orginal code of a program?

    • Patches

    • Antivirus

    • Software removal

    • Vulnerability scanner

    Correct Answer
    A. Patches
    Explanation
    A patch is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program. It is used to fix vulnerabilities and bugs in the software, ensuring that it functions correctly and securely. Patches are regularly released by software developers to provide updates and improvements to their products, allowing users to stay protected from potential security threats and to enhance the overall performance of the software.

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  • 5. 

    Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?

    • Token

    • Biometrics

    • Multifactor

    • Knowledge-based

    Correct Answer
    A. Biometrics
    Explanation
    Biometrics is the identity management process that uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user. Biometric authentication involves the use of unique physical or behavioral characteristics, such as fingerprints, to verify the identity of an individual. In this case, a fingerprint is used as a biometric identifier to ensure that the person trying to access a system or device is the authorized user. This method is considered highly secure as fingerprints are difficult to forge or replicate, providing a reliable means of authentication.

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  • 6. 

    Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test?

    • Computer Systems Programming

    • Cyber Systems Operations

    • Cyber Transport Systems

    • Cyber Surety

    Correct Answer
    A. Computer Systems Programming
    Explanation
    The Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) that requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test is Computer Systems Programming. This test is likely a requirement for individuals in this specialty to ensure they have the necessary skills and knowledge in electronic data processing, which is crucial for their job in programming computer systems.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a vaiety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?

    • Communications Focal Point

    • Unit Deployment Monitor

    • Enterprise Service Desk

    • Quality Assurance

    Correct Answer
    A. Communications Focal Point
    Explanation
    The Communications Focal Point function is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based on the unit mission. This means that while Client Systems personnel are primarily responsible for this function, individuals with different AFSCs may also be involved depending on the specific mission of the unit.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is the offical source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions?

    • Program Element Code (PEC)

    • Unit Manpower Document (UMD)

    • Authorization Change Request (ACR)

    • Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit Manpower Document (UMD)
    Explanation
    The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions. It provides detailed information about the authorized manpower positions within the organization, including job titles, ranks, and responsibilities. The UMD helps in tracking and managing the allocation of personnel resources, ensuring that the organization has the right number and types of positions filled to meet its operational needs. It is a crucial document for workforce planning and management within the organization.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?

    • Program Element Code (PEC)

    • Special Experience Identifier (SEI)

    • Authorization Change Request (ACR)

    • Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)

    Correct Answer
    A. Program Element Code (PEC)
    Explanation
    Program Element Code (PEC) is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function. It is a unique identifier assigned to specific elements within a program or project. PEC helps in tracking and managing costs associated with different components of a weapon system or support function. It allows for better budgeting, resource allocation, and cost estimation within the program.

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  • 10. 

    Who established the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?

    • Communications Focal Point

    • Flight Commander/Chief

    • Production Controller

    • Commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight Commander/Chief
    Explanation
    The Flight Commander/Chief is responsible for establishing the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished. They oversee the maintenance operations and ensure that all inspections are conducted at the required intervals to maintain the safety and readiness of the aircraft. This includes setting up a system for scheduling and tracking inspections, assigning qualified personnel to perform the inspections, and ensuring that all necessary documentation and records are maintained. The Flight Commander/Chief plays a crucial role in maintaining the overall effectiveness and efficiency of the maintenance program.

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  • 11. 

    When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called

    • Misuse of position

    • A covered relationship

    • Non-public information

    • Personal conflict of interest

    Correct Answer
    A. Misuse of position
    Explanation
    When a person uses their position for private or personal gain, it is considered a misuse of position. This means that the individual is taking advantage of their authority or influence for their own benefit, rather than acting in the best interest of the organization or the public. This behavior is unethical and can lead to various consequences, including legal actions and damage to one's reputation.

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  • 12. 

    What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions?

    • $100,000

    • $250,000

    • $750,000

    • $1,000,000

    Correct Answer
    A. $750,000
    Explanation
    Under normal conditions, Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover a maximum amount of $750,000 for minor construction projects.

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  • 13. 

    What are the inclusive dates for Secetary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards?

    • 01 October - 30 September

    • 1 January - 31 December

    • 1 April - 31 March

    • 1 July - 30 June

    Correct Answer
    A. 01 October - 30 September
    Explanation
    The inclusive dates for the Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards are from 01 October to 30 September. This means that the awards cover a period of one year, starting in October and ending in September of the following year.

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  • 14. 

    What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?

    • Monitor

    • Scanner

    • Keyboard

    • Graphics card

    Correct Answer
    A. Keyboard
    Explanation
    A keyboard is a device that consists of a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board. These switches, known as key switches, are responsible for registering the input when a key is pressed. The circuit board connects the switches to the computer, allowing the user to input characters and commands. Therefore, the correct answer is keyboard.

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  • 15. 

    What is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the DoD called?

    • Defense Intelligence Agency

    • Defense Information Systems Agency

    • Defense Information Systems Network

    • Department of Defense Information Networks

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Information Systems Agency
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency. The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the Department of Defense (DoD). DISA provides a wide range of IT services and capabilities to support the communication and information needs of the military. It is responsible for managing and operating the Defense Information Systems Network (DISN), which is the primary data network used by the DoD. DISA plays a crucial role in ensuring secure and reliable communication and information exchange within the military.

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  • 16. 

    What are the two classifications of transport protocols?

    • Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented

    • Classful and Connectionless Oriented

    • Conectionless Oriented and Classless

    • Classful and Classless

    Correct Answer
    A. Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented". These are the two classifications of transport protocols. Connection-oriented protocols establish a logical connection between the sender and receiver before transmitting data, ensuring reliable and ordered delivery. Connectionless-oriented protocols do not establish a connection and simply send data packets independently, without any guarantee of delivery or order.

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  • 17. 

    What regulates how much information passes over a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection before the recieving host must send an acknowledgement?

    • Data recieve message

    • Sliding window

    • Buffer

    • Socket

    Correct Answer
    A. Sliding window
    Explanation
    The sliding window regulates how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. The sliding window is a mechanism that allows the sender to transmit a certain amount of data without waiting for an acknowledgement from the receiver. It helps in optimizing the flow of data by adjusting the window size based on network conditions and ensuring efficient transmission.

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  • 18. 

    A modem is a device that

    • Transmits on every link attached to it

    • Modulates and demodulates data signals

    • Uses algorithms to determine optimal path to end destination

    • Operates on the Network layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model

    Correct Answer
    A. Modulates and demodulates data signals
    Explanation
    A modem is a device that modulates and demodulates data signals. Modulation is the process of converting digital data into analog signals that can be transmitted over a communication channel, while demodulation is the process of converting the received analog signals back into digital data. Modems are commonly used to connect computers or other devices to the internet or other networks by converting digital data into a format that can be transmitted over telephone lines, cable lines, or other communication channels.

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  • 19. 

    Which transmission medium is the primary carrier of the voice communications?

    • Twisted pair cable

    • Fiber optic cable

    • Coaxial cable

    • Twinax cable

    Correct Answer
    A. Twisted pair cable
    Explanation
    Twisted pair cable is the primary carrier of voice communications because it is a type of copper cable that consists of two insulated copper wires twisted together. This design helps to reduce electromagnetic interference and crosstalk, ensuring clear and reliable transmission of voice signals. Twisted pair cable is widely used in telephone networks and is suitable for short to medium distance communication. It is cost-effective, easy to install, and supports analog and digital voice transmission.

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  • 20. 

    What is the most common wireless networking standard?

    • 802.3

    • 802.9

    • 802.11

    • 802.14

    Correct Answer
    A. 802.11
    Explanation
    The most common wireless networking standard is 802.11. This standard is widely used for wireless local area networks (WLANs) and provides high-speed wireless connectivity. It supports various data rates and operates on different frequencies, allowing devices to connect to the network wirelessly. 802.11 is commonly known as Wi-Fi and is used in homes, offices, public spaces, and other environments to enable wireless internet access and network connectivity.

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  • 21. 

    What title status must National Guard Guardsmen be in to execute cyber operations?

    • Title 10

    • Title 30

    • Title 50

    • Title 52

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10
    Explanation
    National Guard Guardsmen must be in Title 10 status to execute cyber operations. Title 10 refers to the section of the United States Code that outlines the role and responsibilities of the Armed Forces. It specifically pertains to the organization and administration of the military, including the National Guard. Being in Title 10 status means that Guardsmen are under federal control and can be called upon for federal missions, such as cyber operations.

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  • 22. 

    Within the information enviroment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, in one"s favor?

    • Information Management

    • Network-centric warfare

    • Information Superiority

    • Information Operations

    Correct Answer
    A. Information Superiority
    Explanation
    Information superiority refers to the advantage or imbalance in one's favor within the information environment. It means having superior access to, understanding of, and ability to use information to achieve a competitive edge. This term highlights the importance of effectively managing and leveraging information to gain a strategic advantage in various domains, such as military operations, business, or even personal decision-making.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)?

    • Construct career paths.

    • Manage skill-level training requirements.

    • Establish requirements for entry into the career field.

    • Distrubute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Distrubute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).
    Explanation
    The responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is to oversee and manage various aspects of a specific career field within the Air Force. This includes constructing career paths, managing skill-level training requirements, and establishing requirements for entry into the career field. However, distributing personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM) is not a responsibility of the AFCFM. This task is typically handled by other personnel management positions within the Air Force.

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  • 24. 

    Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during carrer field Speciality Training Requirements Team (STRT) and utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

    • MAJCOM director of Communications (A6)

    • MAJCOM Functional Manager

    • Career Field Manager (CFM)

    • SAF/CIO A6

    Correct Answer
    A. MAJCOM Functional Manager
    Explanation
    The MAJCOM Functional Manager serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Speciality Training Requirements Team (STRT) and utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This individual is responsible for overseeing and managing the functional area within the MAJCOM, and therefore would be the appropriate person to represent the MAJCOM in these meetings and discussions. The MAJCOM director of Communications (A6) and SAF/CIO A6 may have related responsibilities, but the MAJCOM Functional Manager specifically focuses on the career field and training requirements. The Career Field Manager (CFM) may also have input and involvement, but the MAJCOM Functional Manager is the designated voting representative.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

    • Air Education an Training Command (AETC)/Training Pipeline Manager (TPM).

    • AETC Career Development course (CDC) writer.

    • Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)

    • MAJCOM Functional Manager

    Correct Answer
    A. AETC Career Development course (CDC) writer.
    Explanation
    The AETC Career Development course (CDC) writer is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This implies that their presence is not mandatory but they have the option to attend the workshop if they choose to do so.

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  • 26. 

    How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    Operational Risk Management (ORM) involves a systematic approach to identify, assess, and mitigate risks in an organization's operations. It typically consists of six steps. These steps include risk identification, risk assessment, risk prioritization, risk control implementation, risk monitoring, and risk review. Each step is crucial in effectively managing operational risks and ensuring the safety and efficiency of the organization's operations. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is 6.

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  • 27. 

    Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on

    • AF Form 55

    • AF Form 971

    • AF Form 623A

    • AF Form 623 A and AF Form 55

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 55
    Explanation
    Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on AF Form 55. This form is specifically designed for documenting safety training and is used by supervisors to keep a record of completed training. It is likely that the other forms mentioned (AF Form 971 and AF Form 623A) are not specifically intended for documenting safety training or may serve different purposes within the Air Force. Therefore, AF Form 55 is the correct choice for documenting and maintaining completed safety training.

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  • 28. 

    Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?

    • Military Personnel (MILPERS)

    • Military Construction (MILCON)

    • Operation and Maintenance (O&M)

    • Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E)

    Correct Answer
    A. Military Construction (MILCON)
    Explanation
    Military Construction (MILCON) funds cover the cost of relocating facilities. MILCON funds are specifically allocated for the construction, renovation, and expansion of military facilities and infrastructure. This includes the relocation of existing facilities to new locations. MILCON funds are separate from other types of funds, such as Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds, which cover day-to-day operational expenses. Therefore, MILCON is the correct answer for covering the cost of relocating facilities.

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  • 29. 

    Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year?

    • Air Force Chief of Staff

    • Secretary of the Air Force

    • Selected major command Command Chiefs

    • Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Chief of Staff
    Explanation
    After the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year, the selections are reviewed by the Air Force Chief of Staff. This is the highest-ranking officer in the Air Force and holds the authority to review and approve the selections made by the board. The Air Force Chief of Staff plays a crucial role in ensuring that the selection process is fair and in line with the standards and values of the Air Force.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented?

    • Wing

    • Group

    • Squadron

    • Major command

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing
    Explanation
    The highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented is at the Wing level. This is because the Wing is a higher organizational unit than Group, Squadron, and major command. Quarterly awards are typically given to recognize outstanding performance and achievements, and they are usually presented at the highest level within an organization to ensure that the recognition is given to individuals or groups who have made significant contributions.

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  • 31. 

    Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?

    • Norton Utilites

    • Acrobat Reader

    • Virus Scan

    • WinZip

    Correct Answer
    A. Norton Utilites
    Explanation
    Norton Utilities is the correct answer because it is a software application that provides tools to assist in recovering lost files and protecting against computer failure. It offers features such as disk optimization, file recovery, system diagnostics, and data protection. These tools help users to retrieve deleted or corrupted files, optimize system performance, and prevent potential computer failures. Acrobat Reader, Virus Scan, and WinZip do not provide these specific functionalities.

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  • 32. 

    The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?

    • High Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC)

    • Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC)

    • Distance Vector and Link State

    • RS-232 and RS-530

    Correct Answer
    A. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). The IEEE divides the OSI Data Link Layer into these two sublayers. The LLC sublayer is responsible for error checking, flow control, and sequencing of frames. The MAC sublayer is responsible for controlling access to the physical media and handling collisions. These two sublayers work together to ensure reliable and efficient data communication between network devices.

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  • 33. 

    Who must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service?

    • The customer

    • Security Manager

    • National Security Agency

    • Communications Squadron

    Correct Answer
    A. The customer
    Explanation
    The customer must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service. This means that it is the responsibility of the customer to ensure that they have the necessary encryption devices in place in order to connect to the service securely. The other options, such as the Security Manager, National Security Agency, and Communications Squadron, do not have the primary responsibility for providing encryption devices in this context.

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  • 34. 

    What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) reserved address is used for loop back?

    • 0.0.0.0

    • 127.0.0.1

    • 207.55.157.255

    • 255.255.255.255

    Correct Answer
    A. 127.0.0.1
    Explanation
    The IPv4 reserved address used for loopback is 127.0.0.1. This address is commonly referred to as the loopback address and is used to test network connectivity on a local machine. When a packet is sent to this address, it is immediately looped back to the sender without being transmitted over the network. This allows for testing and troubleshooting of network applications without the need for an external network connection.

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  • 35. 

    The design of communications network is known as

    • An internet suite

    • The physical layer

    • Network architecture

    • Network implementation

    Correct Answer
    A. Network architecture
    Explanation
    The design of communications network refers to the overall structure and organization of the network, including the layout of its components, protocols, and technologies used. This encompasses various aspects such as the arrangement of devices, the flow of data, and the overall framework that governs how the network operates. Therefore, "network architecture" is the most appropriate term to describe the design of a communications network.

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  • 36. 

    What kind of network interconnects users with computer resources in geographic area or region like a city?

    • Local Area Network (LAN)

    • Wide Area Network (WAN)

    • Virtual Private Network (VPN)

    • Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
    Explanation
    A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is a type of network that interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic area or region, such as a city. It covers a larger area than a Local Area Network (LAN) but smaller than a Wide Area Network (WAN). MANs are typically used by organizations or institutions that have multiple locations within a city and need to connect their computer systems and resources together. MANs provide high-speed connections and can support a large number of users.

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  • 37. 

    What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?

    • Bus

    • Star

    • Ring

    • Hybrid

    Correct Answer
    A. Star
    Explanation
    A star topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component, typically a switch or a hub. In this topology, all the computers are connected to the central component, which acts as a central point for data communication. Each computer has its own dedicated cable, which simplifies troubleshooting and allows for easy addition or removal of devices without affecting the rest of the network.

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  • 38. 

    Dynamic routing automatically calculated the best path between how many nodes?

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between two nodes. It analyzes various factors such as network congestion, link quality, and shortest distance to determine the optimal route for data transmission. By dynamically adjusting the routing tables, it ensures efficient and reliable communication between the source and destination nodes. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

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  • 39. 

    Which operations center monitors and controls Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity to provide situational awreness, and report suspicious/malicious activity?

    • Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC)

    • Base Defense Operations Center

    • 624th Operations Center

    • Air Operations Center

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC)
    Explanation
    The Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC) is responsible for monitoring and controlling Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity. It provides situational awareness by constantly monitoring the network for any suspicious or malicious activity. The I-NOSC also reports any such activity to ensure the security of the Air Force network.

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  • 40. 

    What document directs the Communications Focal point key processes?

    • TO 00-5-15

    • MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA

    • Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory

    • Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) Part II

    Correct Answer
    A. MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA
    Explanation
    The document that directs the Communications Focal point key processes is MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA.

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  • 41. 

    Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized

    • At major command functional managers

    • At Headquarters Air Force (HAF)

    • At the Air Force Peronnel Center

    • With career field managers

    Correct Answer
    A. At Headquarters Air Force (HAF)
    Explanation
    The Air Force active component manpower planning and programming is centralized at Headquarters Air Force (HAF). This means that the decision-making and coordination for manpower planning and programming is done at the highest level of the Air Force organization. This centralized approach ensures that there is a consistent and coordinated effort in managing the manpower needs and resources across the Air Force.

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  • 42. 

    What is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Speciality Training REquirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

    • Occupational Analysis Report (OAR)

    • Quality Training Pakage (QTP)

    • Subject Matter Experts (SME)

    • Job Quality Standards (JQS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Occupational Analysis Report (OAR)
    Explanation
    The starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW) is the Occupational Analysis Report (OAR). The OAR provides comprehensive information about the specific career field, including the tasks, knowledge, skills, and abilities required for successful performance. It serves as a foundation for developing the CFETP and STS, which outline the training and education requirements for individuals in that career field. The OAR ensures that the training and education provided align with the needs and demands of the job.

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  • 43. 

    Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

    • Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while perserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.

    • Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integeral to the activity and mission.

    • Create an Air Force in which every leader, Airman and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all thei on- and off-duty activities.

    • Identify opportunities to decerse Air Force warfighting efectiveness on the battlefield and in the operatinal aerospace enviroment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify opportunities to decerse Air Force warfighting efectiveness on the battlefield and in the operatinal aerospace enviroment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.
    Explanation
    The statement "Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost" is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM). ORM aims to enhance mission effectiveness, integrate risk assessment into decision-making processes, and train all leaders and employees to manage risk in their activities. The given statement contradicts the goal of increasing effectiveness and ensuring victory, while ORM focuses on minimizing risks and maximizing success.

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  • 44. 

    Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites?

    • Wing Commander

    • Numbered Air Force Commander

    • Communications Squadron Commander

    • Cyber Readiness Squadron Commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing Commander
    Explanation
    The Wing Commander is responsible for appointing Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites.

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  • 45. 

    The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to

    • 53

    • 63

    • 73

    • 83

    Correct Answer
    A. 63
    Explanation
    A FireWire bus can support a maximum of 63 devices. FireWire, also known as IEEE 1394, is a high-speed serial bus technology used for connecting devices such as computers, cameras, and external hard drives. It allows for daisy-chaining devices, where multiple devices can be connected in a series using a single FireWire port. Each device on the bus requires a unique identifier, and the maximum number of unique identifiers that can be assigned is 63. Therefore, the maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is 63.

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  • 46. 

    Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

    • Network

    • Physical

    • Data Link

    • Transport

    Correct Answer
    A. Transport
    Explanation
    Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at the Transport layer of the OSI model. The Transport layer is responsible for ensuring reliable and orderly delivery of data between end systems. It establishes a virtual circuit, which is a logical connection between two endpoints, and manages the flow control and error recovery mechanisms. The Network layer is responsible for routing and addressing, the Physical layer deals with the actual transmission of bits, and the Data Link layer handles framing and error detection.

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  • 47. 

    In a connection-oriented protocol, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), what must happen before data is transmitted between clients?

    • Authorization

    • Connection establishment

    • Establishment of a clear channel

    • End-to-end connectivity between host applications

    Correct Answer
    A. Connection establishment
    Explanation
    In a connection-oriented protocol like TCP, connection establishment must occur before data can be transmitted between clients. This process involves the exchange of control messages between the client and server to establish a reliable connection. During this phase, both parties agree on communication parameters, such as sequence numbers and window sizes, to ensure data integrity and flow control. Once the connection is established, the clients can then start transmitting data.

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  • 48. 

    Which of these lists the fields in the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) segment?

    • Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data

    • Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Windowing, Data

    • Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Acknowledgement, Data

    • Channel Clear, Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data

    Correct Answer
    A. Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data. The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) segment consists of these fields. The Source Port field identifies the sending port number, while the Destination Port field identifies the receiving port number. The Length field indicates the length of the UDP segment. The Checksum field is used for error detection. Finally, the Data field contains the actual data being transmitted.

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  • 49. 

    What kind of network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area?

    • Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

    • Virtual Private Network (VPN)

    • Local Area Network (LAN)

    • Wide Area Network (WAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Local Area Network (LAN)
    Explanation
    A Local Area Network (LAN) is a network that connects computers and devices within a small geographic area, such as a home, office, or building. It allows for the sharing of resources, such as files and printers, and enables communication between devices. LANs are typically faster and more secure than other types of networks, as they are confined to a small area and can be easily managed and controlled. Therefore, a LAN is the most suitable network for a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Sep 4, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

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  • Sep 04, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Jul 12, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Kenedeez
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