Z3dx7x Vol. 01 (Edit 1)

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Z3dx7x Vol. 01 (Edit 1) - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test?

    • A.

      Computer Systems Programming

    • B.

      Cyber Systems Operations

    • C.

      Cyber Transport Systems

    • D.

      Cyber Surety

    Correct Answer
    A. Computer Systems Programming
    Explanation
    The Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) that requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test is Computer Systems Programming. This test is likely a requirement for individuals in this specialty to ensure they have the necessary skills and knowledge in electronic data processing, which is crucial for their job in programming computer systems.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level?

    • A.

      Minimum rank of SSgt

    • B.

      6 months on-the-job training (OJT) for retrainees

    • C.

      Completion of the Air Force Specialty Code (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission

    • D.

      Completion of the Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses

    Correct Answer
    D. Completion of the Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses
    Explanation
    The completion of the Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level. This means that individuals can advance to the 7-skill level without completing these training courses.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a vaiety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?

    • A.

      Communications Focal Point

    • B.

      Unit Deployment Monitor

    • C.

      Enterprise Service Desk

    • D.

      Quality Assurance

    Correct Answer
    A. Communications Focal Point
    Explanation
    The Communications Focal Point function is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based on the unit mission. This means that while Client Systems personnel are primarily responsible for this function, individuals with different AFSCs may also be involved depending on the specific mission of the unit.

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  • 4. 

    What document directs the Communications Focal point key processes?

    • A.

      TO 00-5-15

    • B.

      MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA

    • C.

      Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory

    • D.

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) Part II

    Correct Answer
    B. MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA
    Explanation
    The document that directs the Communications Focal point key processes is MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA.

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  • 5. 

    Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized

    • A.

      At major command functional managers

    • B.

      At Headquarters Air Force (HAF)

    • C.

      At the Air Force Peronnel Center

    • D.

      With career field managers

    Correct Answer
    B. At Headquarters Air Force (HAF)
    Explanation
    The Air Force active component manpower planning and programming is centralized at Headquarters Air Force (HAF). This means that the decision-making and coordination for manpower planning and programming is done at the highest level of the Air Force organization. This centralized approach ensures that there is a consistent and coordinated effort in managing the manpower needs and resources across the Air Force.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is the offical source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions?

    • A.

      Program Element Code (PEC)

    • B.

      Unit Manpower Document (UMD)

    • C.

      Authorization Change Request (ACR)

    • D.

      Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)

    Correct Answer
    B. Unit Manpower Document (UMD)
    Explanation
    The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions. It provides detailed information about the authorized manpower positions within the organization, including job titles, ranks, and responsibilities. The UMD helps in tracking and managing the allocation of personnel resources, ensuring that the organization has the right number and types of positions filled to meet its operational needs. It is a crucial document for workforce planning and management within the organization.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?

    • A.

      Program Element Code (PEC)

    • B.

      Special Experience Identifier (SEI)

    • C.

      Authorization Change Request (ACR)

    • D.

      Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)

    Correct Answer
    A. Program Element Code (PEC)
    Explanation
    Program Element Code (PEC) is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function. It is a unique identifier assigned to specific elements within a program or project. PEC helps in tracking and managing costs associated with different components of a weapon system or support function. It allows for better budgeting, resource allocation, and cost estimation within the program.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)?

    • A.

      Construct career paths.

    • B.

      Manage skill-level training requirements.

    • C.

      Establish requirements for entry into the career field.

    • D.

      Distrubute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).

    Correct Answer
    D. Distrubute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).
    Explanation
    The responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is to oversee and manage various aspects of a specific career field within the Air Force. This includes constructing career paths, managing skill-level training requirements, and establishing requirements for entry into the career field. However, distributing personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM) is not a responsibility of the AFCFM. This task is typically handled by other personnel management positions within the Air Force.

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  • 9. 

    Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during carrer field Speciality Training Requirements Team (STRT) and utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

    • A.

      MAJCOM director of Communications (A6)

    • B.

      MAJCOM Functional Manager

    • C.

      Career Field Manager (CFM)

    • D.

      SAF/CIO A6

    Correct Answer
    B. MAJCOM Functional Manager
    Explanation
    The MAJCOM Functional Manager serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Speciality Training Requirements Team (STRT) and utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This individual is responsible for overseeing and managing the functional area within the MAJCOM, and therefore would be the appropriate person to represent the MAJCOM in these meetings and discussions. The MAJCOM director of Communications (A6) and SAF/CIO A6 may have related responsibilities, but the MAJCOM Functional Manager specifically focuses on the career field and training requirements. The Career Field Manager (CFM) may also have input and involvement, but the MAJCOM Functional Manager is the designated voting representative.

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  • 10. 

    Which segment of the utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/Speciality Trainning Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficency levels and training resourcing?

    • A.

      Segment 1

    • B.

      Segment 2

    • C.

      Segment 3

    • D.

      Segment 4

    Correct Answer
    B. Segment 2
    Explanation
    Segment 2 of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process focuses on training proficiency levels and training resourcing. This segment is dedicated to assessing the proficiency levels of individuals and identifying any gaps in their training. It also involves determining the resources required for training, such as trainers, facilities, and materials. By concentrating on these aspects, Segment 2 ensures that the training provided is effective and meets the needs of the individuals and the organization.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is not an action of the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

    • A.

      Draft and sign minutes.

    • B.

      Finalize part 1 of the career field eduation an training plan (CFETP).

    • C.

      Finalize Air Force Enlisted Classfication Directory (AFECD) specialty description.

    • D.

      Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.

    Correct Answer
    D. Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.
    Explanation
    The Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) is responsible for various actions related to training and education in the Air Force. These actions include drafting and signing minutes, finalizing part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and finalizing the Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description. However, finalizing Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses is not an action of the STRT.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

    • A.

      Air Education an Training Command (AETC)/Training Pipeline Manager (TPM).

    • B.

      AETC Career Development course (CDC) writer.

    • C.

      Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)

    • D.

      MAJCOM Functional Manager

    Correct Answer
    B. AETC Career Development course (CDC) writer.
    Explanation
    The AETC Career Development course (CDC) writer is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This implies that their presence is not mandatory but they have the option to attend the workshop if they choose to do so.

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  • 13. 

    What is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Speciality Training REquirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

    • A.

      Occupational Analysis Report (OAR)

    • B.

      Quality Training Pakage (QTP)

    • C.

      Subject Matter Experts (SME)

    • D.

      Job Quality Standards (JQS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Occupational Analysis Report (OAR)
    Explanation
    The starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW) is the Occupational Analysis Report (OAR). The OAR provides comprehensive information about the specific career field, including the tasks, knowledge, skills, and abilities required for successful performance. It serves as a foundation for developing the CFETP and STS, which outline the training and education requirements for individuals in that career field. The OAR ensures that the training and education provided align with the needs and demands of the job.

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  • 14. 

    What automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?

    • A.

      Remedy

    • B.

      Situational Report (SITREP)

    • C.

      Telephone Management System (TMS)

    • D.

      Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)

    Correct Answer
    D. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)
    Explanation
    The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is an automated Information System (AIS) that is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD). IMDS is specifically designed for the maintenance and management of assets, equipment, and systems. It allows users to track and record maintenance actions, generate reports, and monitor the status of items. Therefore, IMDS is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is not a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC)  monitor?

    • A.

      Review Integerated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) reports to ensure job status is reflected properly.

    • B.

      Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR).

    • C.

      Match reports with Open Incident Listing (OIL)

    • D.

      Schedule and distrubute daily maintenance actions.

    Correct Answer
    B. Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR)." This duty is not commonly performed by the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor. The other options, such as reviewing IMDS reports, matching reports with OIL, and scheduling and distributing daily maintenance actions, are common duties of the MDC monitor.

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  • 16. 

    Who established the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?

    • A.

      Communications Focal Point

    • B.

      Flight Commander/Chief

    • C.

      Production Controller

    • D.

      Commander

    Correct Answer
    B. Flight Commander/Chief
    Explanation
    The Flight Commander/Chief is responsible for establishing the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished. They oversee the maintenance operations and ensure that all inspections are conducted at the required intervals to maintain the safety and readiness of the aircraft. This includes setting up a system for scheduling and tracking inspections, assigning qualified personnel to perform the inspections, and ensuring that all necessary documentation and records are maintained. The Flight Commander/Chief plays a crucial role in maintaining the overall effectiveness and efficiency of the maintenance program.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the work center?

    • A.

      Master Task List

    • B.

      Job Qualification Standard

    • C.

      Current Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

    • D.

      Milestones for tasks and Career Development Course (CDC) completion

    Correct Answer
    B. Job Qualification Standard
    Explanation
    The Job Qualification Standard is included in the Master Training Plan only if it is applicable to the work center. This means that the Job Qualification Standard is not a mandatory inclusion in the Master Training Plan, but rather it is included only if it is relevant to the specific work center. The Master Training Plan is designed to outline the training requirements and tasks necessary for personnel in a particular work center, and the inclusion of the Job Qualification Standard would depend on whether it is applicable to the specific job roles and responsibilities within that work center.

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  • 18. 

    Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equipment/system acceptance?

    • A.

      30

    • B.

      60

    • C.

      90

    • D.

      120

    Correct Answer
    D. 120
    Explanation
    Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within 120 days of new equipment/system acceptance. This means that once new equipment or a new system is accepted, a certain number of ARC personnel will be evaluated within 120 days to ensure they are properly trained and competent in operating the new equipment or system. This evaluation helps to ensure the readiness and effectiveness of the ARC personnel in utilizing the new technology.

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  • 19. 

    Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

    • A.

      Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while perserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.

    • B.

      Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integeral to the activity and mission.

    • C.

      Create an Air Force in which every leader, Airman and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all thei on- and off-duty activities.

    • D.

      Identify opportunities to decerse Air Force warfighting efectiveness on the battlefield and in the operatinal aerospace enviroment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.

    Correct Answer
    D. Identify opportunities to decerse Air Force warfighting efectiveness on the battlefield and in the operatinal aerospace enviroment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.
    Explanation
    The statement "Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost" is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM). ORM aims to enhance mission effectiveness, integrate risk assessment into decision-making processes, and train all leaders and employees to manage risk in their activities. The given statement contradicts the goal of increasing effectiveness and ensuring victory, while ORM focuses on minimizing risks and maximizing success.

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  • 20. 

    How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    C. 6
    Explanation
    Operational Risk Management (ORM) involves a systematic approach to identify, assess, and mitigate risks in an organization's operations. It typically consists of six steps. These steps include risk identification, risk assessment, risk prioritization, risk control implementation, risk monitoring, and risk review. Each step is crucial in effectively managing operational risks and ensuring the safety and efficiency of the organization's operations. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is 6.

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  • 21. 

    Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on

    • A.

      AF Form 55

    • B.

      AF Form 971

    • C.

      AF Form 623A

    • D.

      AF Form 623 A and AF Form 55

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 55
    Explanation
    Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on AF Form 55. This form is specifically designed for documenting safety training and is used by supervisors to keep a record of completed training. It is likely that the other forms mentioned (AF Form 971 and AF Form 623A) are not specifically intended for documenting safety training or may serve different purposes within the Air Force. Therefore, AF Form 55 is the correct choice for documenting and maintaining completed safety training.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis?

    • A.

      Job Safety Training (JST)

    • B.

      Job Hazard Analysis (JHA)

    • C.

      Task Hazard Analysis (THA)

    • D.

      Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Job Safety Training (JST)
    Explanation
    The term "Job Safety Training (JST)" is not a term for Job Safety Analysis. Job Safety Analysis (JHA), Task Hazard Analysis (THA), and Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA) are all recognized terms for the process of analyzing and identifying potential hazards and risks associated with a particular job or task. However, Job Safety Training (JST) refers specifically to the training provided to employees to ensure their safety while performing their job duties, rather than the analysis of those job duties themselves.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1?

    • A.

      Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures

    • B.

      Resources required to manage and use TOs

    • C.

      Infrastructure to manage and use TOs

    • D.

      Training to manage and use TOs

    Correct Answer
    A. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures
    Explanation
    The information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1 is Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.

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  • 24. 

    Recommeneded technical order (TO) changes are required to be submitted on

    • A.

      AFTO Form 673

    • B.

      AFTO Form 22

    • C.

      AF Form 673

    • D.

      AF Form 22

    Correct Answer
    B. AFTO Form 22
    Explanation
    Explantion: The correct answer is AFTO Form 22. This form is used for submitting recommended technical order (TO) changes. AFTO Form 673 and AF Form 673 are not the correct forms for this purpose.

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  • 25. 

    Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment?

    • A.

      Library Custodian

    • B.

      Flight commander/chief

    • C.

      Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO)

    • D.

      Technical Order Distrution Account (TODA)

    Correct Answer
    B. Flight commander/chief
    Explanation
    The flight commander/chief determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment. They have the authority and responsibility to ensure that all necessary procedures and documentation are in place for the safe and efficient operation of the equipment. This includes determining if local checklists and work cards are needed to provide specific instructions and guidance for the maintenance and operation of the equipment.

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  • 26. 

    Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)?

    • A.

      Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)

    • B.

      American National Standard Institute (ANSI)

    • C.

      Information and Communications Technology (ICT)

    • D.

      Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA)

    Correct Answer
    B. American National Standard Institute (ANSI)
    Explanation
    ANSI provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).

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  • 27. 

    Who develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

    • A.

      Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)

    • B.

      American National Standard Institute (ANSI)

    • C.

      Information and Communications Technology (ICT)

    • D.

      Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA)

    Correct Answer
    D. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). ECIA develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards. They play a crucial role in establishing industry-wide standards for these components, ensuring compatibility and quality across different manufacturers and suppliers.

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  • 28. 

    Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Offical?

    • A.

      The authoring Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR)

    • B.

      Commander/director responsible for the guidance

    • C.

      The authoring OPR's supervisor.

    • D.

      Publications Manager

    Correct Answer
    C. The authoring OPR's supervisor.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the authoring OPR's supervisor. The AF Form 673 is a performance feedback form in the United States Air Force. The authoring OPR is responsible for completing the form, but it must be endorsed by their supervisor before it is considered valid. The supervisor is in a position of authority and oversight, making them the appropriate person to certify the form. The other options, such as the authoring OPR or the Publications Manager, do not have the same level of responsibility for endorsing the form.

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  • 29. 

    What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintanable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems?

    • A.

      Air Force Network Operating Instructions (AFNOI)

    • B.

      Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)

    • C.

      Commerical Off-The-Shelf (COTS)

    • D.

      Military only

    Correct Answer
    C. Commerical Off-The-Shelf (COTS)
    Explanation
    Commerical Off-The-Shelf (COTS) systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems. COTS refers to software or hardware products that are commercially available and can be purchased and used by multiple organizations. These systems are designed to be easily understood, maintained, and defended, making them suitable for use in various domains. Unlike specialized or custom-built systems, COTS systems are widely used and have established standards and practices, ensuring compatibility and interoperability across different systems.

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  • 30. 

    The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government Is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      15

    • C.

      37

    • D.

      50

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 10. The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title 10. This indicates that the authority for establishing the DOD as an executive component of the government is outlined in Title 10 of the United States Code.

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  • 31. 

    Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      18

    • C.

      32

    • D.

      37

    Correct Answer
    C. 32
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 32 because Title 32 of the United States Code (USC) outlines the procedures and circumstances under which Congress can order units into active Federal duty. This title specifically pertains to the National Guard and provides guidelines for the activation and deployment of National Guard units in response to emergencies or other situations requiring their assistance.

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  • 32. 

    Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites?

    • A.

      Wing Commander

    • B.

      Numbered Air Force Commander

    • C.

      Communications Squadron Commander

    • D.

      Cyber Readiness Squadron Commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing Commander
    Explanation
    The Wing Commander is responsible for appointing Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites.

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  • 33. 

    When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called

    • A.

      Misuse of position

    • B.

      A covered relationship

    • C.

      Non-public information

    • D.

      Personal conflict of interest

    Correct Answer
    A. Misuse of position
    Explanation
    When a person uses their position for private or personal gain, it is considered a misuse of position. This means that the individual is taking advantage of their authority or influence for their own benefit, rather than acting in the best interest of the organization or the public. This behavior is unethical and can lead to various consequences, including legal actions and damage to one's reputation.

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  • 34. 

    Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?

    • A.

      Military Personnel (MILPERS)

    • B.

      Military Construction (MILCON)

    • C.

      Operation and Maintenance (O&M)

    • D.

      Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E)

    Correct Answer
    B. Military Construction (MILCON)
    Explanation
    Military Construction (MILCON) funds cover the cost of relocating facilities. MILCON funds are specifically allocated for the construction, renovation, and expansion of military facilities and infrastructure. This includes the relocation of existing facilities to new locations. MILCON funds are separate from other types of funds, such as Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds, which cover day-to-day operational expenses. Therefore, MILCON is the correct answer for covering the cost of relocating facilities.

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  • 35. 

    What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions?

    • A.

      $100,000

    • B.

      $250,000

    • C.

      $750,000

    • D.

      $1,000,000

    Correct Answer
    C. $750,000
    Explanation
    Under normal conditions, Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover a maximum amount of $750,000 for minor construction projects.

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  • 36. 

    In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels is found in Air Force Instruction (AFI)

    • A.

      10-401

    • B.

      33-360

    • C.

      38-101

    • D.

      64-117

    Correct Answer
    D. 64-117
  • 37. 

    At the installation level which office is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program?

    • A.

      Approval Official (AO)

    • B.

      Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC)

    • C.

      DoD Purchase Card Program Management Office (PCPMO)

    • D.

      Office of the Deputy Secretary of the Air Force for Acquisition Contracting (SAF/AQC)

    Correct Answer
    B. Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC)
    Explanation
    The Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC) is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring of the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program at the installation level. They oversee the day-to-day operations of the program, ensure compliance with regulations and policies, provide training to cardholders and approving officials, and monitor card usage to identify any potential misuse or fraud. The A/OPC acts as a liaison between the installation and higher-level program management offices, providing guidance and support to ensure the effective and efficient use of the GPC Program.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders?

    • A.

      Making authorized transactions

    • B.

      Reconciling transactions

    • C.

      Logging transactions

    • D.

      Funds accountability

    Correct Answer
    D. Funds accountability
    Explanation
    The responsibility of funds accountability is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders. GPC cardholders are responsible for making authorized transactions, reconciling transactions, and logging transactions. However, funds accountability is typically the responsibility of the financial management office or department within the government organization. They are responsible for ensuring that the funds allocated for purchases through the GPC are properly accounted for and managed.

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  • 39. 

    Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in

    • A.

      Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10-201

    • B.

      Joint Publication 1-02

    • C.

      Joint Publication 1-03

    • D.

      AFI 10-401

    Correct Answer
    D. AFI 10-401
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFI 10-401. This is because the question asks for the detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request, and AFI 10-401 is specifically mentioned as one of the sources where these instructions can be found. The other sources listed (AFI 10-201, Joint Publication 1-02, and Joint Publication 1-03) may contain relevant information, but they are not specifically mentioned as sources for the detailed instructions on submitting a reclama or shortfall request.

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  • 40. 

    Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year?

    • A.

      Air Force Chief of Staff

    • B.

      Secretary of the Air Force

    • C.

      Selected major command Command Chiefs

    • D.

      Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Chief of Staff
    Explanation
    After the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year, the selections are reviewed by the Air Force Chief of Staff. This is the highest-ranking officer in the Air Force and holds the authority to review and approve the selections made by the board. The Air Force Chief of Staff plays a crucial role in ensuring that the selection process is fair and in line with the standards and values of the Air Force.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented?

    • A.

      Wing

    • B.

      Group

    • C.

      Squadron

    • D.

      Major command

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing
    Explanation
    The highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented is at the Wing level. This is because the Wing is a higher organizational unit than Group, Squadron, and major command. Quarterly awards are typically given to recognize outstanding performance and achievements, and they are usually presented at the highest level within an organization to ensure that the recognition is given to individuals or groups who have made significant contributions.

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  • 42. 

    Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in Air Force instruction

    • A.

      36-2604

    • B.

      36-2803

    • C.

      36-2805

    • D.

      36-2845

    Correct Answer
    D. 36-2845
    Explanation
    Air Force instruction 36-2845 provides guidance specifically for awards in the Cyber community. This instruction outlines the criteria, eligibility, and procedures for awarding individuals in the Cyber field. It is the go-to resource for understanding the awards process and requirements for Cyber professionals in the Air Force.

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  • 43. 

    What are the inclusive dates for Secetary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards?

    • A.

      01 October - 30 September

    • B.

      1 January - 31 December

    • C.

      1 April - 31 March

    • D.

      1 July - 30 June

    Correct Answer
    A. 01 October - 30 September
    Explanation
    The inclusive dates for the Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards are from 01 October to 30 September. This means that the awards cover a period of one year, starting in October and ending in September of the following year.

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  • 44. 

    The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to

    • A.

      53

    • B.

      63

    • C.

      73

    • D.

      83

    Correct Answer
    B. 63
    Explanation
    A FireWire bus can support a maximum of 63 devices. FireWire, also known as IEEE 1394, is a high-speed serial bus technology used for connecting devices such as computers, cameras, and external hard drives. It allows for daisy-chaining devices, where multiple devices can be connected in a series using a single FireWire port. Each device on the bus requires a unique identifier, and the maximum number of unique identifiers that can be assigned is 63. Therefore, the maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is 63.

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  • 45. 

    What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?

    • A.

      Monitor

    • B.

      Scanner

    • C.

      Keyboard

    • D.

      Graphics card

    Correct Answer
    C. Keyboard
    Explanation
    A keyboard is a device that consists of a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board. These switches, known as key switches, are responsible for registering the input when a key is pressed. The circuit board connects the switches to the computer, allowing the user to input characters and commands. Therefore, the correct answer is keyboard.

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  • 46. 

    A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers?

    • A.

      At least 5

    • B.

      No more than 10

    • C.

      No more than 20

    • D.

      20 or more

    Correct Answer
    C. No more than 20
    Explanation
    A workgroup is a simple grouping of computers that is designed for small-scale networks. It is typically used in small businesses or home networks. The answer "No more than 20" implies that a workgroup can consist of a maximum of 20 computers. This means that if there are more than 20 computers, a different networking solution, such as a domain, may be more suitable.

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  • 47. 

    Which is not a type of UNIX pathname?

    • A.

      Simple

    • B.

      Relative

    • C.

      Positive

    • D.

      Absolute

    Correct Answer
    C. Positive
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Positive" because it is not a type of UNIX pathname. In UNIX, there are four types of pathnames: Simple, Relative, Absolute, and Null. A Simple pathname is a relative pathname that does not begin with a slash (/). A Relative pathname specifies a location relative to the current directory. An Absolute pathname specifies the exact location of a file or directory from the root directory. However, "Positive" is not a recognized type of UNIX pathname.

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  • 48. 

    Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?

    • A.

      Norton Utilites

    • B.

      Acrobat Reader

    • C.

      Virus Scan

    • D.

      WinZip

    Correct Answer
    A. Norton Utilites
    Explanation
    Norton Utilities is the correct answer because it is a software application that provides tools to assist in recovering lost files and protecting against computer failure. It offers features such as disk optimization, file recovery, system diagnostics, and data protection. These tools help users to retrieve deleted or corrupted files, optimize system performance, and prevent potential computer failures. Acrobat Reader, Virus Scan, and WinZip do not provide these specific functionalities.

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  • 49. 

    The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?

    • A.

      High Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC)

    • B.

      Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC)

    • C.

      Distance Vector and Link State

    • D.

      RS-232 and RS-530

    Correct Answer
    B. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). The IEEE divides the OSI Data Link Layer into these two sublayers. The LLC sublayer is responsible for error checking, flow control, and sequencing of frames. The MAC sublayer is responsible for controlling access to the physical media and handling collisions. These two sublayers work together to ensure reliable and efficient data communication between network devices.

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  • 50. 

    Network switches and bridges operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

    • A.

      Network

    • B.

      Physical

    • C.

      Data Link

    • D.

      Transport

    Correct Answer
    C. Data Link
    Explanation
    Network switches and bridges operate at the Data Link layer of the OSI model. This layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between two network nodes connected by a physical layer. Switches and bridges use MAC addresses to forward data packets within a local area network (LAN). They examine the destination MAC address in the data frame and forward it only to the appropriate port, improving network efficiency and reducing collisions.

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