Z3dx7x Vol. 01 (Edit 1)

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1. The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government Is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title

Explanation

The correct answer is 10. The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title 10. This indicates that the authority for establishing the DOD as an executive component of the government is outlined in Title 10 of the United States Code.

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Z3dx7x Vol. 01 (Edit 1) - Quiz

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2. Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance then an attack?

Explanation

Spam is considered more of an annoyance rather than an attack because it involves the mass sending of unsolicited and unwanted messages or emails. While it can be a nuisance and cause inconvenience, it typically does not directly harm or compromise the security of a system or user's personal information. In contrast, viruses, spyware, and phishing attacks are designed to infiltrate and damage systems, steal sensitive data, or deceive users into revealing confidential information. Therefore, spam is generally seen as a bothersome but less serious threat vector compared to the others listed.

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3. Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the orginal code of a program?

Explanation

A patch is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program. It is used to fix vulnerabilities and bugs in the software, ensuring that it functions correctly and securely. Patches are regularly released by software developers to provide updates and improvements to their products, allowing users to stay protected from potential security threats and to enhance the overall performance of the software.

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4. Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?

Explanation

Biometrics is the identity management process that uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user. Biometric authentication involves the use of unique physical or behavioral characteristics, such as fingerprints, to verify the identity of an individual. In this case, a fingerprint is used as a biometric identifier to ensure that the person trying to access a system or device is the authorized user. This method is considered highly secure as fingerprints are difficult to forge or replicate, providing a reliable means of authentication.

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5. What class uses a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?

Explanation

Class A is the correct answer because it uses a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address. Class A addresses are designed for large networks and can support a maximum of 16 million hosts. The first bit in the first octet is always 0, indicating that it is a Class A address.

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6. What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions?

Explanation

Under normal conditions, Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover a maximum amount of $750,000 for minor construction projects.

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7. Which of the following is the offical source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions?

Explanation

The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions. It provides detailed information about the authorized manpower positions within the organization, including job titles, ranks, and responsibilities. The UMD helps in tracking and managing the allocation of personnel resources, ensuring that the organization has the right number and types of positions filled to meet its operational needs. It is a crucial document for workforce planning and management within the organization.

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8. Which transmission medium is the primary carrier of the voice communications?

Explanation

Twisted pair cable is the primary carrier of voice communications because it is a type of copper cable that consists of two insulated copper wires twisted together. This design helps to reduce electromagnetic interference and crosstalk, ensuring clear and reliable transmission of voice signals. Twisted pair cable is widely used in telephone networks and is suitable for short to medium distance communication. It is cost-effective, easy to install, and supports analog and digital voice transmission.

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9. What is the most common wireless networking standard?

Explanation

The most common wireless networking standard is 802.11. This standard is widely used for wireless local area networks (WLANs) and provides high-speed wireless connectivity. It supports various data rates and operates on different frequencies, allowing devices to connect to the network wirelessly. 802.11 is commonly known as Wi-Fi and is used in homes, offices, public spaces, and other environments to enable wireless internet access and network connectivity.

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10. What title status must National Guard Guardsmen be in to execute cyber operations?

Explanation

National Guard Guardsmen must be in Title 10 status to execute cyber operations. Title 10 refers to the section of the United States Code that outlines the role and responsibilities of the Armed Forces. It specifically pertains to the organization and administration of the military, including the National Guard. Being in Title 10 status means that Guardsmen are under federal control and can be called upon for federal missions, such as cyber operations.

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11. Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?

Explanation

Program Element Code (PEC) is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function. It is a unique identifier assigned to specific elements within a program or project. PEC helps in tracking and managing costs associated with different components of a weapon system or support function. It allows for better budgeting, resource allocation, and cost estimation within the program.

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12. Within the information enviroment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, in one"s favor?

Explanation

Information superiority refers to the advantage or imbalance in one's favor within the information environment. It means having superior access to, understanding of, and ability to use information to achieve a competitive edge. This term highlights the importance of effectively managing and leveraging information to gain a strategic advantage in various domains, such as military operations, business, or even personal decision-making.

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13. What are the two classifications of transport protocols?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented". These are the two classifications of transport protocols. Connection-oriented protocols establish a logical connection between the sender and receiver before transmitting data, ensuring reliable and ordered delivery. Connectionless-oriented protocols do not establish a connection and simply send data packets independently, without any guarantee of delivery or order.

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14. Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a vaiety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?

Explanation

The Communications Focal Point function is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based on the unit mission. This means that while Client Systems personnel are primarily responsible for this function, individuals with different AFSCs may also be involved depending on the specific mission of the unit.

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15. What regulates how much information passes over a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection before the recieving host must send an acknowledgement?

Explanation

The sliding window regulates how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. The sliding window is a mechanism that allows the sender to transmit a certain amount of data without waiting for an acknowledgement from the receiver. It helps in optimizing the flow of data by adjusting the window size based on network conditions and ensuring efficient transmission.

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16. Who established the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?

Explanation

The Flight Commander/Chief is responsible for establishing the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished. They oversee the maintenance operations and ensure that all inspections are conducted at the required intervals to maintain the safety and readiness of the aircraft. This includes setting up a system for scheduling and tracking inspections, assigning qualified personnel to perform the inspections, and ensuring that all necessary documentation and records are maintained. The Flight Commander/Chief plays a crucial role in maintaining the overall effectiveness and efficiency of the maintenance program.

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17. What are the inclusive dates for Secetary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards?

Explanation

The inclusive dates for the Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards are from 01 October to 30 September. This means that the awards cover a period of one year, starting in October and ending in September of the following year.

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18. When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called

Explanation

When a person uses their position for private or personal gain, it is considered a misuse of position. This means that the individual is taking advantage of their authority or influence for their own benefit, rather than acting in the best interest of the organization or the public. This behavior is unethical and can lead to various consequences, including legal actions and damage to one's reputation.

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19. What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?

Explanation

A keyboard is a device that consists of a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board. These switches, known as key switches, are responsible for registering the input when a key is pressed. The circuit board connects the switches to the computer, allowing the user to input characters and commands. Therefore, the correct answer is keyboard.

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20. A modem is a device that

Explanation

A modem is a device that modulates and demodulates data signals. Modulation is the process of converting digital data into analog signals that can be transmitted over a communication channel, while demodulation is the process of converting the received analog signals back into digital data. Modems are commonly used to connect computers or other devices to the internet or other networks by converting digital data into a format that can be transmitted over telephone lines, cable lines, or other communication channels.

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21. Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test?

Explanation

The Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) that requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test is Computer Systems Programming. This test is likely a requirement for individuals in this specialty to ensure they have the necessary skills and knowledge in electronic data processing, which is crucial for their job in programming computer systems.

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22. What is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the DoD called?

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency. The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the Department of Defense (DoD). DISA provides a wide range of IT services and capabilities to support the communication and information needs of the military. It is responsible for managing and operating the Defense Information Systems Network (DISN), which is the primary data network used by the DoD. DISA plays a crucial role in ensuring secure and reliable communication and information exchange within the military.

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23. Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?

Explanation

Military Construction (MILCON) funds cover the cost of relocating facilities. MILCON funds are specifically allocated for the construction, renovation, and expansion of military facilities and infrastructure. This includes the relocation of existing facilities to new locations. MILCON funds are separate from other types of funds, such as Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds, which cover day-to-day operational expenses. Therefore, MILCON is the correct answer for covering the cost of relocating facilities.

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24. How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

Explanation

Operational Risk Management (ORM) involves a systematic approach to identify, assess, and mitigate risks in an organization's operations. It typically consists of six steps. These steps include risk identification, risk assessment, risk prioritization, risk control implementation, risk monitoring, and risk review. Each step is crucial in effectively managing operational risks and ensuring the safety and efficiency of the organization's operations. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is 6.

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25. Who must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service?

Explanation

The customer must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service. This means that it is the responsibility of the customer to ensure that they have the necessary encryption devices in place in order to connect to the service securely. The other options, such as the Security Manager, National Security Agency, and Communications Squadron, do not have the primary responsibility for providing encryption devices in this context.

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26. Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on

Explanation

Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on AF Form 55. This form is specifically designed for documenting safety training and is used by supervisors to keep a record of completed training. It is likely that the other forms mentioned (AF Form 971 and AF Form 623A) are not specifically intended for documenting safety training or may serve different purposes within the Air Force. Therefore, AF Form 55 is the correct choice for documenting and maintaining completed safety training.

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27. The design of communications network is known as

Explanation

The design of communications network refers to the overall structure and organization of the network, including the layout of its components, protocols, and technologies used. This encompasses various aspects such as the arrangement of devices, the flow of data, and the overall framework that governs how the network operates. Therefore, "network architecture" is the most appropriate term to describe the design of a communications network.

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28. What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) reserved address is used for loop back?

Explanation

The IPv4 reserved address used for loopback is 127.0.0.1. This address is commonly referred to as the loopback address and is used to test network connectivity on a local machine. When a packet is sent to this address, it is immediately looped back to the sender without being transmitted over the network. This allows for testing and troubleshooting of network applications without the need for an external network connection.

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29. What kind of network interconnects users with computer resources in geographic area or region like a city?

Explanation

A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is a type of network that interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic area or region, such as a city. It covers a larger area than a Local Area Network (LAN) but smaller than a Wide Area Network (WAN). MANs are typically used by organizations or institutions that have multiple locations within a city and need to connect their computer systems and resources together. MANs provide high-speed connections and can support a large number of users.

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30. Which operations center monitors and controls Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity to provide situational awreness, and report suspicious/malicious activity?

Explanation

The Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC) is responsible for monitoring and controlling Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity. It provides situational awareness by constantly monitoring the network for any suspicious or malicious activity. The I-NOSC also reports any such activity to ensure the security of the Air Force network.

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31. Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)?

Explanation

The responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is to oversee and manage various aspects of a specific career field within the Air Force. This includes constructing career paths, managing skill-level training requirements, and establishing requirements for entry into the career field. However, distributing personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM) is not a responsibility of the AFCFM. This task is typically handled by other personnel management positions within the Air Force.

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32. What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?

Explanation

A star topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component, typically a switch or a hub. In this topology, all the computers are connected to the central component, which acts as a central point for data communication. Each computer has its own dedicated cable, which simplifies troubleshooting and allows for easy addition or removal of devices without affecting the rest of the network.

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33. Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during carrer field Speciality Training Requirements Team (STRT) and utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

Explanation

The MAJCOM Functional Manager serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Speciality Training Requirements Team (STRT) and utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This individual is responsible for overseeing and managing the functional area within the MAJCOM, and therefore would be the appropriate person to represent the MAJCOM in these meetings and discussions. The MAJCOM director of Communications (A6) and SAF/CIO A6 may have related responsibilities, but the MAJCOM Functional Manager specifically focuses on the career field and training requirements. The Career Field Manager (CFM) may also have input and involvement, but the MAJCOM Functional Manager is the designated voting representative.

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34. Dynamic routing automatically calculated the best path between how many nodes?

Explanation

Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between two nodes. It analyzes various factors such as network congestion, link quality, and shortest distance to determine the optimal route for data transmission. By dynamically adjusting the routing tables, it ensures efficient and reliable communication between the source and destination nodes. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

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35. Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year?

Explanation

After the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year, the selections are reviewed by the Air Force Chief of Staff. This is the highest-ranking officer in the Air Force and holds the authority to review and approve the selections made by the board. The Air Force Chief of Staff plays a crucial role in ensuring that the selection process is fair and in line with the standards and values of the Air Force.

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36. Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented?

Explanation

The highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented is at the Wing level. This is because the Wing is a higher organizational unit than Group, Squadron, and major command. Quarterly awards are typically given to recognize outstanding performance and achievements, and they are usually presented at the highest level within an organization to ensure that the recognition is given to individuals or groups who have made significant contributions.

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37. Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?

Explanation

Norton Utilities is the correct answer because it is a software application that provides tools to assist in recovering lost files and protecting against computer failure. It offers features such as disk optimization, file recovery, system diagnostics, and data protection. These tools help users to retrieve deleted or corrupted files, optimize system performance, and prevent potential computer failures. Acrobat Reader, Virus Scan, and WinZip do not provide these specific functionalities.

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38. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?

Explanation

The correct answer is Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). The IEEE divides the OSI Data Link Layer into these two sublayers. The LLC sublayer is responsible for error checking, flow control, and sequencing of frames. The MAC sublayer is responsible for controlling access to the physical media and handling collisions. These two sublayers work together to ensure reliable and efficient data communication between network devices.

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39. Which of the following is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

Explanation

The AETC Career Development course (CDC) writer is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This implies that their presence is not mandatory but they have the option to attend the workshop if they choose to do so.

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40. What is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Speciality Training REquirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

Explanation

The starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW) is the Occupational Analysis Report (OAR). The OAR provides comprehensive information about the specific career field, including the tasks, knowledge, skills, and abilities required for successful performance. It serves as a foundation for developing the CFETP and STS, which outline the training and education requirements for individuals in that career field. The OAR ensures that the training and education provided align with the needs and demands of the job.

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41. What document directs the Communications Focal point key processes?

Explanation

The document that directs the Communications Focal point key processes is MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA.

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42. Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized

Explanation

The Air Force active component manpower planning and programming is centralized at Headquarters Air Force (HAF). This means that the decision-making and coordination for manpower planning and programming is done at the highest level of the Air Force organization. This centralized approach ensures that there is a consistent and coordinated effort in managing the manpower needs and resources across the Air Force.

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43. What kind of network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area?

Explanation

A Local Area Network (LAN) is a network that connects computers and devices within a small geographic area, such as a home, office, or building. It allows for the sharing of resources, such as files and printers, and enables communication between devices. LANs are typically faster and more secure than other types of networks, as they are confined to a small area and can be easily managed and controlled. Therefore, a LAN is the most suitable network for a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area.

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44. Which Electronic Warfare capability uses jamming to reduce the adversary's use of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS)?

Explanation

Electronic attack is the correct answer because it involves the use of jamming to disrupt or deny the adversary's use of the electromagnetic spectrum. This capability aims to degrade or neutralize the enemy's electronic systems, such as communication, radar, or navigation, by emitting electromagnetic energy to interfere with their operation. By doing so, electronic attack reduces the effectiveness of the adversary's electronic warfare capabilities and hampers their ability to gather information or communicate effectively.

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45. Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites?

Explanation

The Wing Commander is responsible for appointing Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites.

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46. In a connection-oriented protocol, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), what must happen before data is transmitted between clients?

Explanation

In a connection-oriented protocol like TCP, connection establishment must occur before data can be transmitted between clients. This process involves the exchange of control messages between the client and server to establish a reliable connection. During this phase, both parties agree on communication parameters, such as sequence numbers and window sizes, to ensure data integrity and flow control. Once the connection is established, the clients can then start transmitting data.

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47. Which identity anagement process uses a password to authenticate a user?

Explanation

The knowledge-based identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user. In this process, the user is required to provide a specific password that they have previously set up and only they should know. This password is then compared to the stored password in the system to verify the user's identity.

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48. The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to

Explanation

A FireWire bus can support a maximum of 63 devices. FireWire, also known as IEEE 1394, is a high-speed serial bus technology used for connecting devices such as computers, cameras, and external hard drives. It allows for daisy-chaining devices, where multiple devices can be connected in a series using a single FireWire port. Each device on the bus requires a unique identifier, and the maximum number of unique identifiers that can be assigned is 63. Therefore, the maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is 63.

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49. Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

Explanation

Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at the Transport layer of the OSI model. The Transport layer is responsible for ensuring reliable and orderly delivery of data between end systems. It establishes a virtual circuit, which is a logical connection between two endpoints, and manages the flow control and error recovery mechanisms. The Network layer is responsible for routing and addressing, the Physical layer deals with the actual transmission of bits, and the Data Link layer handles framing and error detection.

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50. Which of these lists the fields in the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) segment?

Explanation

The correct answer is Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data. The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) segment consists of these fields. The Source Port field identifies the sending port number, while the Destination Port field identifies the receiving port number. The Length field indicates the length of the UDP segment. The Checksum field is used for error detection. Finally, the Data field contains the actual data being transmitted.

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51. Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

Explanation

The statement "Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost" is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM). ORM aims to enhance mission effectiveness, integrate risk assessment into decision-making processes, and train all leaders and employees to manage risk in their activities. The given statement contradicts the goal of increasing effectiveness and ensuring victory, while ORM focuses on minimizing risks and maximizing success.

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52. What automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?

Explanation

The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is an automated Information System (AIS) that is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD). IMDS is specifically designed for the maintenance and management of assets, equipment, and systems. It allows users to track and record maintenance actions, generate reports, and monitor the status of items. Therefore, IMDS is the correct answer for this question.

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53. Which of the following is not an action of the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

Explanation

The Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) is responsible for various actions related to training and education in the Air Force. These actions include drafting and signing minutes, finalizing part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and finalizing the Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description. However, finalizing Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses is not an action of the STRT.

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54. Two basic routing activites are determining optimal routing paths and

Explanation

The correct answer is "transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork". This is because routing activities involve determining the optimal paths for packets to travel through a network in order to reach their destination. This process ensures that packets are efficiently transported from one network to another, allowing for effective communication between devices connected to the internetwork.

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55. Which type of cable is associated with the orignal designs of the Ethernet standard?

Explanation

Coaxial cable is associated with the original designs of the Ethernet standard because it was the type of cable used in the early implementations of Ethernet. Coaxial cable consists of a central conductor surrounded by a layer of insulation, a metallic shield, and an outer insulating layer. It was commonly used for networking in the past but has been largely replaced by twisted-pair cables.

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56. What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) class address is used for multicast addressing?

Explanation

Class D is the correct answer because it is the designated class for multicast addressing in IPv4. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 and are used to send data to a group of hosts on a network. Multicast addresses are used for applications such as video streaming, online gaming, and audio conferencing, where data needs to be sent to multiple recipients simultaneously.

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57. Which 802.11 standard is designed to operate at both 2.4 Ghz and 5 GHz?

Explanation

802.11n is designed to operate at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. It is a Wi-Fi standard that supports multiple-input and multiple-output (MIMO) technology, allowing for faster and more reliable wireless connections. This standard provides improved range and throughput compared to previous standards such as 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g. By operating on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequencies, 802.11n can offer greater flexibility and compatibility with various devices and network environments.

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58. Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title

Explanation

The correct answer is 32 because Title 32 of the United States Code (USC) outlines the procedures and circumstances under which Congress can order units into active Federal duty. This title specifically pertains to the National Guard and provides guidelines for the activation and deployment of National Guard units in response to emergencies or other situations requiring their assistance.

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59. What topology defines the layout of a network's devices and media?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Physical." The physical topology defines the layout of a network's devices and media, referring to the physical arrangement of devices, cables, and other components. It describes how devices are connected physically and the physical paths that data takes through the network. This includes the physical location of devices, the types of cables used, and the overall structure of the network.

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60. Which common port contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) servers and proxies?

Explanation

Port 8080 is commonly used for HTTP servers and proxies. While port 80 is the default port for HTTP, port 8080 is often used as an alternative to avoid conflicts with other services running on port 80. It allows HTTP traffic to be directed to a specific server or proxy, enabling the transfer of hypertext documents and web content. Port 110 is used for POP3 email retrieval, and port 443 is used for secure HTTP (HTTPS) connections.

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61. A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers?

Explanation

A workgroup is a simple grouping of computers that is designed for small-scale networks. It is typically used in small businesses or home networks. The answer "No more than 20" implies that a workgroup can consist of a maximum of 20 computers. This means that if there are more than 20 computers, a different networking solution, such as a domain, may be more suitable.

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62. How many bits are in an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address?

Explanation

An Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address is made up of 32 bits. This means that there are a total of 2^32 possible IPv4 addresses, which is approximately 4.3 billion unique addresses. Each bit in the address represents a binary value of either 0 or 1, allowing for a wide range of possible combinations. The 32-bit address format is used to identify and locate devices on a network, enabling communication between them.

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63. What Internet Prototcol version 4 (IPv4) class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes?

Explanation

Class C is the correct answer because it is the class of IPv4 addresses that is typically used for networks with around 250 nodes. Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which allows for up to 254 usable host addresses. This makes it suitable for small to medium-sized networks. Class D is used for multicast addresses, Class E is reserved for experimental purposes, and Class F is not defined in the IPv4 addressing scheme.

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64. What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintanable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems?

Explanation

Commerical Off-The-Shelf (COTS) systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems. COTS refers to software or hardware products that are commercially available and can be purchased and used by multiple organizations. These systems are designed to be easily understood, maintained, and defended, making them suitable for use in various domains. Unlike specialized or custom-built systems, COTS systems are widely used and have established standards and practices, ensuring compatibility and interoperability across different systems.

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65. Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis?

Explanation

The term "Job Safety Training (JST)" is not a term for Job Safety Analysis. Job Safety Analysis (JHA), Task Hazard Analysis (THA), and Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA) are all recognized terms for the process of analyzing and identifying potential hazards and risks associated with a particular job or task. However, Job Safety Training (JST) refers specifically to the training provided to employees to ensure their safety while performing their job duties, rather than the analysis of those job duties themselves.

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66. Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1?

Explanation

The information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1 is Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.

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67. Routers operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

Explanation

Routers operate at the network layer of the OSI model. This layer is responsible for logical addressing and routing of data packets across different networks. Routers use this layer to make decisions on the most efficient path for data transmission, based on the destination IP address. They also perform functions such as packet forwarding, routing table management, and network traffic control.

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68. What Data Link Layer network device logically seperates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?

Explanation

A bridge is a Data Link Layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks. It does this by examining the destination MAC address of each incoming frame and selectively forwarding it to the appropriate segment. By doing so, a bridge helps to reduce collisions and improve network performance by isolating traffic within individual segments. Unlike a hub, which simply broadcasts incoming frames to all connected devices, a bridge intelligently manages network traffic and enhances network efficiency.

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69. At the installation level which office is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program?

Explanation

The Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC) is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring of the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program at the installation level. They oversee the day-to-day operations of the program, ensure compliance with regulations and policies, provide training to cardholders and approving officials, and monitor card usage to identify any potential misuse or fraud. The A/OPC acts as a liaison between the installation and higher-level program management offices, providing guidance and support to ensure the effective and efficient use of the GPC Program.

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70. What is critical to motigating unintended or undesirable effecs, on either our behaf or the adversary's, and maximizing cyberspace superiority?

Explanation

Careful planning is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects and maximizing cyberspace superiority. With careful planning, one can anticipate potential risks and threats, develop effective strategies, and ensure that actions taken are well thought out and aligned with desired outcomes. By considering various scenarios and potential consequences, careful planning allows for proactive measures to be taken, minimizing the likelihood of unintended or undesirable effects. It also enables the development of comprehensive and coordinated approaches, enhancing the effectiveness of operations in cyberspace.

Submit
71. Which of the following is a true statement about Electronic Warfare (EW) and Computer Network Operations (CNO)?

Explanation

Electronic Warfare (EW) involves the use of electromagnetic energy to control the electromagnetic spectrum and exploit or deny the enemy's use of it. This includes actions such as jamming enemy communications, intercepting signals, and protecting friendly systems from electronic attacks. The statement that "EW concerns radiated energy" is true because it refers to the use of electromagnetic energy in various forms for offensive or defensive purposes. Computer Network Operations (CNO), on the other hand, involve actions taken in and through the cyberspace domain to disrupt, deny, degrade, or manipulate the adversary's information and computer systems. Therefore, the statement that "CNO concerns radiated energy" is incorrect.

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72. Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)?

Explanation

ANSI provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).

Submit
73. Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equipment/system acceptance?

Explanation

Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within 120 days of new equipment/system acceptance. This means that once new equipment or a new system is accepted, a certain number of ARC personnel will be evaluated within 120 days to ensure they are properly trained and competent in operating the new equipment or system. This evaluation helps to ensure the readiness and effectiveness of the ARC personnel in utilizing the new technology.

Submit
74. Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level?

Explanation

The completion of the Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level. This means that individuals can advance to the 7-skill level without completing these training courses.

Submit
75. In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels is found in Air Force Instruction (AFI)

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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76. Which 802.11 standard has a throughput of 11 Mbps and runs at the 2.4 GHz frequency?

Explanation

The correct answer is 802.11b. This standard has a throughput of 11 Mbps and operates at the 2.4 GHz frequency. 802.11a operates at a higher frequency of 5 GHz, 802.11g has a higher throughput of 54 Mbps, and 802.11n has even higher throughput and operates at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequencies.

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77. The range of well-known port numbers is

Explanation

The range of well-known port numbers is from 0 to 1023. Well-known ports are used by commonly used protocols and services, such as HTTP (port 80) and POP3 (port 110). These ports are reserved for specific purposes and are standardized by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA). Ports from 1024 onwards are considered registered or dynamic ports, which can be used by applications as needed. However, ports below 1024 are generally restricted and require administrative privileges to be used.

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78. Which is not a type of UNIX pathname?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Positive" because it is not a type of UNIX pathname. In UNIX, there are four types of pathnames: Simple, Relative, Absolute, and Null. A Simple pathname is a relative pathname that does not begin with a slash (/). A Relative pathname specifies a location relative to the current directory. An Absolute pathname specifies the exact location of a file or directory from the root directory. However, "Positive" is not a recognized type of UNIX pathname.

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79. Over a single pair cable, Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is capable of transmission rates of 

Explanation

ISDN stands for Integrated Services Digital Network, which is a digital telecommunications network that allows for the transmission of voice, data, and video over a single pair cable. It is capable of transmission rates of 144 Kbps, as stated in the answer. This means that it can transmit data at a rate of 144 kilobits per second.

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80. What system monitoring concept uses log trend analysis of network devices and is performed in order to identify future constraints with results incorporated into future technical baselines?

Explanation

Capacity planning is a system monitoring concept that involves analyzing log trends of network devices. This analysis helps in identifying future constraints, allowing organizations to anticipate and address potential issues before they become critical. The results of capacity planning are then incorporated into future technical baselines, ensuring that the system can handle the expected workload efficiently. This process helps organizations optimize their resources and ensure smooth operations by proactively managing capacity requirements.

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81. Which of the following is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the work center?

Explanation

The Job Qualification Standard is included in the Master Training Plan only if it is applicable to the work center. This means that the Job Qualification Standard is not a mandatory inclusion in the Master Training Plan, but rather it is included only if it is relevant to the specific work center. The Master Training Plan is designed to outline the training requirements and tasks necessary for personnel in a particular work center, and the inclusion of the Job Qualification Standard would depend on whether it is applicable to the specific job roles and responsibilities within that work center.

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82. The technical solution for a communications and information system requirement summarizes

Explanation

The technical solution for a communications and information system requirement includes both the full cost and the recommended course of action. This means that the solution provides a comprehensive analysis of the expenses involved in implementing the system, as well as the suggested steps to be taken. By considering both these factors, decision-makers can make informed choices about the most suitable approach to address the requirement. The solution does not mention security requirements, so it can be inferred that they are not included in the summary.

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83. Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment?

Explanation

The flight commander/chief determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment. They have the authority and responsibility to ensure that all necessary procedures and documentation are in place for the safe and efficient operation of the equipment. This includes determining if local checklists and work cards are needed to provide specific instructions and guidance for the maintenance and operation of the equipment.

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84. Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders?

Explanation

The responsibility of funds accountability is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders. GPC cardholders are responsible for making authorized transactions, reconciling transactions, and logging transactions. However, funds accountability is typically the responsibility of the financial management office or department within the government organization. They are responsible for ensuring that the funds allocated for purchases through the GPC are properly accounted for and managed.

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85. Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in

Explanation

The correct answer is AFI 10-401. This is because the question asks for the detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request, and AFI 10-401 is specifically mentioned as one of the sources where these instructions can be found. The other sources listed (AFI 10-201, Joint Publication 1-02, and Joint Publication 1-03) may contain relevant information, but they are not specifically mentioned as sources for the detailed instructions on submitting a reclama or shortfall request.

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86. Which segment of the utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/Speciality Trainning Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficency levels and training resourcing?

Explanation

Segment 2 of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process focuses on training proficiency levels and training resourcing. This segment is dedicated to assessing the proficiency levels of individuals and identifying any gaps in their training. It also involves determining the resources required for training, such as trainers, facilities, and materials. By concentrating on these aspects, Segment 2 ensures that the training provided is effective and meets the needs of the individuals and the organization.

Submit
87. What type of encryption is applied to each end of a communications line in a distributed network, and ensures all information flowing is unintelligible to an unathorized intruder?

Explanation

Link encryption is the correct answer because it refers to the type of encryption applied to each end of a communications line in a distributed network. Link encryption ensures that all information flowing through the line is unintelligible to an unauthorized intruder. This type of encryption is specifically designed to protect the data while it is being transmitted over the network, making it secure from potential eavesdropping or interception.

Submit
88. What are the three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations?

Explanation

The three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations are law, authority, and policy. Law refers to the legal framework and regulations that govern cyberspace activities. Authority relates to the allocation of power and responsibility within cyberspace operations. Policy involves the guidelines and procedures that dictate how cyberspace operations should be conducted. These three considerations are crucial in ensuring the effective and lawful management of cyberspace activities.

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89. Insted of using binary, how are the Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?

Explanation

IPv6 addresses are expressed in a colon hexadecimal format to make them more user-friendly. This format replaces consecutive zeros with a double colon (::), reducing the length of the address. Additionally, it uses hexadecimal digits (0-9 and A-F) instead of binary, which makes it easier for humans to read and remember. The colon hexadecimal format simplifies the representation of IPv6 addresses, allowing for easier configuration and management of network devices.

Submit
90. Which Cyberspace Defense Weapon System sub-dicipline determine the extent of intrusions, develops courses of action required to mitigate threats, and determines and executes response actions?

Explanation

Incident Response is the correct answer because it involves determining the extent of intrusions, developing courses of action to mitigate threats, and executing response actions. This sub-discipline focuses on effectively responding to and managing cybersecurity incidents, such as cyberattacks or data breaches. It includes activities like identifying and containing the incident, investigating the cause, restoring systems and data, and implementing measures to prevent future incidents.

Submit
91. Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem connects to sensors in the process, converting sensor signals to digital data?

Explanation

The Remote Terminal Unit (RTU) connects to sensors in the process and converts sensor signals to digital data. It acts as an interface between the sensors and the supervisory system, allowing for data collection and control of the process. The RTU is responsible for acquiring and transmitting data from the field devices to the supervisory system, making it an essential component of a SCADA system.

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92. Who develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). ECIA develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards. They play a crucial role in establishing industry-wide standards for these components, ensuring compatibility and quality across different manufacturers and suppliers.

Submit
93. Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Offical?

Explanation

The correct answer is the authoring OPR's supervisor. The AF Form 673 is a performance feedback form in the United States Air Force. The authoring OPR is responsible for completing the form, but it must be endorsed by their supervisor before it is considered valid. The supervisor is in a position of authority and oversight, making them the appropriate person to certify the form. The other options, such as the authoring OPR or the Publications Manager, do not have the same level of responsibility for endorsing the form.

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94. Who provides the formal decelaration that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards and acceptable risk?

Explanation

The Authorizing Official (AO) is responsible for providing the formal declaration that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards and acceptable risk. This individual has the authority to make decisions regarding the system's security and is accountable for ensuring that the necessary safeguards are in place. The AO plays a crucial role in the authorization process and is typically a senior-level official within an organization.

Submit
95. Network switches and bridges operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

Explanation

Network switches and bridges operate at the Data Link layer of the OSI model. This layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between two network nodes connected by a physical layer. Switches and bridges use MAC addresses to forward data packets within a local area network (LAN). They examine the destination MAC address in the data frame and forward it only to the appropriate port, improving network efficiency and reducing collisions.

Submit
96. Recommeneded technical order (TO) changes are required to be submitted on

Explanation

Explantion: The correct answer is AFTO Form 22. This form is used for submitting recommended technical order (TO) changes. AFTO Form 673 and AF Form 673 are not the correct forms for this purpose.

Submit
97. Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem gathers data on the process and sends commands to the processor?

Explanation

The supervisory system is the SCADA subsystem that gathers data on the process and sends commands to the processor. It acts as the central control unit, collecting information from various remote terminal units and human machine interfaces, and then issuing commands to the programmable logic controller to control the process.

Submit
98. Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in Air Force instruction

Explanation

Air Force instruction 36-2845 provides guidance specifically for awards in the Cyber community. This instruction outlines the criteria, eligibility, and procedures for awarding individuals in the Cyber field. It is the go-to resource for understanding the awards process and requirements for Cyber professionals in the Air Force.

Submit
99. Which Intranet Control Weapon System sub-discipline conducts continous monitoring to ensure timely delivery of critical information?

Explanation

Proactive Defense is the correct answer because it refers to the sub-discipline that conducts continuous monitoring to ensure timely delivery of critical information in the Intranet Control Weapon System. Proactive Defense involves actively identifying and mitigating potential threats and vulnerabilities before they can cause harm or disrupt the network. This approach focuses on preventing attacks and ensuring the smooth flow of information, making it the most suitable sub-discipline for the given scenario.

Submit
100. Which of the following is not a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC)  monitor?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR)." This duty is not commonly performed by the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor. The other options, such as reviewing IMDS reports, matching reports with OIL, and scheduling and distributing daily maintenance actions, are common duties of the MDC monitor.

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