3d052 Vol 1

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 382

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3d052 Quizzes & Trivia

3D052 VOL 1


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      5.

    • D. 

      10.

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      Homogeneous network.

    • B. 

      Internetwork.

    • C. 

      Intranetwork.

    • D. 

      Local area network (LAN).

  • 3. 
    • A. 

      Internetwork.

    • B. 

      Intranetwork.

    • C. 

      Homogeneous network.

    • D. 

      Heterogeneous network.

  • 4. 
    What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatibleequipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?
    • A. 

      Internetwork.

    • B. 

      Intranetwork.

    • C. 

      Homogeneous network.

    • D. 

      Heterogeneous network.

  • 5. 
    • A. 

      Global area network (GAN).

    • B. 

      Local area network (LAN).

    • C. 

      Metropolitan area network. (MAN).

    • D. 

      Wide area network. (WAN).

  • 6. 
    What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?
    • A. 

      Global area network (GAN).

    • B. 

      Local area network (LAN).

    • C. 

      Metropolitan area network. (MAN).

    • D. 

      Wide area network. (WAN).

  • 7. 
    What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over anunlimited geographical region?
    • A. 

      Global area network (GAN).

    • B. 

      Local area network (LAN).

    • C. 

      Metropolitan area network. (MAN).

    • D. 

      Wide area network. (WAN).

  • 8. 
    How many users are normally in a peer-to-peer network?
    • A. 

      2-10.

    • B. 

      10-50.

    • C. 

      50-250.

    • D. 

      250-1,000.

  • 9. 
    How many users are in a single-server network?
    • A. 

      2-10.

    • B. 

      10-50.

    • C. 

      50-250.

    • D. 

      250-1,000.

  • 10. 
    How many users are in a multi-server network?
    • A. 

      2-10.

    • B. 

      10-50.

    • C. 

      50-250.

    • D. 

      250-1,000.

  • 11. 
    How many users are in a multi-server high-speed backbone network?
    • A. 

      2-10.

    • B. 

      10-50.

    • C. 

      50-250.

    • D. 

      250-1,000.

  • 12. 
    What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other citiesor around the globe?
    • A. 

      Local area network (LAN).

    • B. 

      Metropolitan area network (MAN).

    • C. 

      Multi-server high-speed backbone network.

    • D. 

      Enterprise network.

  • 13. 
    What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?
    • A. 

      Media access control address.

    • B. 

      Network server name.

    • C. 

      Subnet mask address.

    • D. 

      Node serial number.

  • 14. 
    How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 15. 
    What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?
    • A. 

      01100000.

    • B. 

      01100110.

    • C. 

      00001100.

    • D. 

      10000001.

  • 16. 
    What is the network id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
    • A. 

      0.0.0.120.

    • B. 

      0.10.230.0.

    • C. 

      131.10.230.0.

    • D. 

      255.255.255.0.

  • 17. 
    What is the host id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
    • A. 

      0.0.0.120.

    • B. 

      0.10.230.0.

    • C. 

      131.10.230.0.

    • D. 

      255.255.255.0.

  • 18. 
    • A. 

      24

    • B. 

      48

    • C. 

      64

    • D. 

      128

  • 19. 
    What series of Air Force instruction series covers communications and information?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      29

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      33

  • 20. 
    What Air Force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force globalinformation grid (AF-GIG)?
    • A. 

      AFPD 33–1.

    • B. 

      AFI 33–112.

    • C. 

      AFI 33–115v1.

    • D. 

      AFI 29–2603v2.

  • 21. 
    According to the Air Force network structure, what tier is the Air Force network operationscenter (AFNOSC)?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 22. 
    What network entity provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base levelcustomers?
    • A. 

      Network control center (NCC).

    • B. 

      Network control center-deployable (NCC-D).

    • C. 

      Network operations center (NOSC).

    • D. 

      Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC).

  • 23. 
    What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improvenetwork efficiency and productivity?
    • A. 

      Fault management server.

    • B. 

      Network management server.

    • C. 

      Performance management server.

    • D. 

      Security management server.

  • 24. 
    Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?
    • A. 

      Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed.

    • B. 

      Centralized, hybrid and distributed.

    • C. 

      Centralized, hierarchical, and hybrid.

    • D. 

      Hybrid, hierarchical, and distributed.

  • 25. 
    What network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system ata location that is responsible for all network management duties?
    • A. 

      Centralized.

    • B. 

      Distributed.

    • C. 

      Hierarchical.

    • D. 

      Hybrid.

  • 26. 
    What network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one systemacting as a central server and the others working as clients?
    • A. 

      Centralized.

    • B. 

      Distributed.

    • C. 

      Hierarchical.

    • D. 

      Hybrid.

  • 27. 
    What level of network management activity are you working at when you as the networkmanager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?
    • A. 

      Inactive.

    • B. 

      Interactive.

    • C. 

      Proactive.

    • D. 

      Reactive.

  • 28. 
    What level of network management activity are you working at when the automatedmonitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at-hand?
    • A. 

      Inactive.

    • B. 

      Reactive.

    • C. 

      Interactive.

    • D. 

      Proactive.

  • 29. 
    Performance management can be broke into what two separate functional categories?
    • A. 

      Monitoring and analyzing.

    • B. 

      Monitoring and replacing.

    • C. 

      Monitoring and tuning.

    • D. 

      Analyzing and tuning.

  • 30. 
    Which function of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities onthe network?
    • A. 

      Tuning.

    • B. 

      Analyzing.

    • C. 

      Gathering.

    • D. 

      Monitoring.

  • 31. 
    What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?
    • A. 

      Configuration.

    • B. 

      Performance.

    • C. 

      Accounting.

    • D. 

      Security.

  • 32. 
    What is the established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range andexcessive errors because of a fault?
    • A. 

      Fault parameters.

    • B. 

      Tolerance parameters.

    • C. 

      Low-level software alarms.

    • D. 

      Low-level hardware alarms.

  • 33. 
    Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer ofthe operational system interface (OSI) model?
    • A. 

      Session.

    • B. 

      Transport.

    • C. 

      Presentation.

    • D. 

      Application.

  • 34. 
    What is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management informationavailable from network devices?
    • A. 

      Object identifier.

    • B. 

      Network device map.

    • C. 

      Network protocol list.

    • D. 

      Management information base.

  • 35. 
    What area of the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structure is reservedfor vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment?
    • A. 

      Management.

    • B. 

      Private.

    • C. 

      Directory.

    • D. 

      Experimental.

  • 36. 
    What simple network management protocol (SNMP) node is responsible for monitoring,collecting and reporting management data to the management system?
    • A. 

      Primary domain controller (PDC).

    • B. 

      Backup domain controller.

    • C. 

      Manager.

    • D. 

      Agent.

  • 37. 
    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message asks for aspecific instance of management information?
    • A. 

      Get.

    • B. 

      Set.

    • C. 

      Trap.

    • D. 

      GetNext.

  • 38. 
    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to retrievemultiple pieces of information with minimal overhead?
    • A. 

      Get.

    • B. 

      Set.

    • C. 

      Trap.

    • D. 

      GetNext.

  • 39. 
    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to modifythe value of one or more instances of management information?
    • A. 

      Get.

    • B. 

      Set.

    • C. 

      Trap.

    • D. 

      GetNext.

  • 40. 
    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is an unsolicitedmessage from an agent to the manager?
    • A. 

      Get.

    • B. 

      Set.

    • C. 

      Trap.

    • D. 

      GetNext.

  • 41. 
    What is the type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information usingproprietary topology management information bases (MIB)?
    • A. 

      Virtual local area network (VLAN) probe.

    • B. 

      Neighbor probe.

    • C. 

      Containment probe.

    • D. 

      System information probe.

  • 42. 
    What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system(SMARTS) application?
    • A. 

      Broker.

    • B. 

      Clients.

    • C. 

      Map console.

    • D. 

      Domain manager.

  • 43. 
    What component of the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS)application contains knowledge of available domain managers?
    • A. 

      Broker.

    • B. 

      Clients.

    • C. 

      Probes.

    • D. 

      Consoles.

  • 44. 
    What are the three types of systems management automated report tracking system(SMARTS) notifications?
    • A. 

      Compound events, alarm, and trend.

    • B. 

      Compound events, problems, and network.

    • C. 

      Auto-discovery, compound, and symptomatic events.

    • D. 

      Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events.

  • 45. 
    What color on the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS)alarm log indicates one or more events?
    • A. 

      Blue.

    • B. 

      Orange.

    • C. 

      Purple.

    • D. 

      Yellow.

  • 46. 
    How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide youabout your network?
    • A. 

      7

    • B. 

      14

    • C. 

      19

    • D. 

      21

  • 47. 
    What device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developingcommunications software?
    • A. 

      Systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS).

    • B. 

      Protocol analyzer.

    • C. 

      Network root router.

    • D. 

      Windows advanced server.

  • 48. 
    What provides information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that arerelated to a specific protocol?
    • A. 

      Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

    • B. 

      Connection statistics.

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics.

    • D. 

      Node discovery.

  • 49. 
    What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence(FCS), short frames, and jabbers?
    • A. 

      Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

    • B. 

      Connection statistics.

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics.

    • D. 

      Node discovery.

  • 50. 
    What automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application isactivated?
    • A. 

      Media access control (MAC)

    • B. 

      Connection statistics.

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics.

    • D. 

      Node discovery.

  • 51. 
    What provides information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number ofconnections that are related to specific nodes?
    • A. 

      Media access control (MAC)

    • B. 

      Connection statistics.

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics.

    • D. 

      Node discovery.

  • 52. 
    What is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject toaccess certain information?
    • A. 

      Authentication.

    • B. 

      Recertification.

    • C. 

      Accreditation.

    • D. 

      Identification.

  • 53. 
    What are three primary ways to authenticate one-self?
    • A. 

      Finger and voiceprints, or retinal scans.

    • B. 

      Passwords, finger prints, or identification cards.

    • C. 

      Passwords, fortezza cards, or identification cards.

    • D. 

      Something you know, something you have, or something are.

  • 54. 
    Knowledge-based identification and authentication methods require the user to providesomething you
    • A. 

      Know.

    • B. 

      Have.

    • C. 

      Need.

    • D. 

      Read.

  • 55. 
    The Air Force requires a network password to be at least how many characters long?
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      7

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      9

  • 56. 
    Storage media that retains data after power is removed is considered
    • A. 

      Classified.

    • B. 

      Volatile.

    • C. 

      Sensitive.

    • D. 

      Sanitized.

  • 57. 
    Which standard form is used to annotate storage media has been sanitized?
    • A. 

      700.

    • B. 

      701.

    • C. 

      711.

    • D. 

      712.

  • 58. 
    What regulation covers remanence security?
    • A. 

      AFPD 33–2.

    • B. 

      AFSSI 8580

    • C. 

      AFSSI 5020

    • D. 

      AFI 33–115v1.

  • 59. 
    Who can declassify storage media that has been sanitized?
    • A. 

      Information assurance officer (IAO).

    • B. 

      Designated approval authority (DAA).

    • C. 

      Information system security officer.

    • D. 

      Information owner.

  • 60. 
    What is the process of physically damaging the media to render it unusable in a computerand render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods?
    • A. 

      Destroying.

    • B. 

      Degaussing.

    • C. 

      Sanitizing.

    • D. 

      Overwriting.

  • 61. 
    What is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zeroby applying a reverse magnetizing field?
    • A. 

      Degausser.

    • B. 

      Degaussing.

    • C. 

      Destroying.

    • D. 

      Sanitizing.

  • 62. 
    What is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic media?
    • A. 

      Degaussing.

    • B. 

      Overwriting.

    • C. 

      Formatting.

    • D. 

      Deleting.

  • 63. 
    What is a comprehensive evaluation and validation of an Air Force information system (IS)to establish the degree to which it complies with assigned information assurance (IA) controls based on standardized procedures?
    • A. 

      Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP).

    • B. 

      Plan of action & milestones (POA&M).

    • C. 

      Accreditation.

    • D. 

      Certification.

  • 64. 
    What is a formal declaration by a designated approving official (DAA) that an informationsystem is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards at an acceptable level of risk?
    • A. 

      Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP).

    • B. 

      Plan of action & milestones (POA&M).

    • C. 

      Accreditation.

    • D. 

      Certification.

  • 65. 
    What is the Department of Defense process for certifying and accrediting informationsystems to operate on the global information grid (GIG)?
    • A. 

      Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR).

    • B. 

      Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU).

    • C. 

      Department of Defense Information Technology System Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP).

    • D. 

      Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP).

  • 66. 
    What documentation is required to permanently connect to the global information grid(GIG) system?
    • A. 

      Denial of authorization to operation (DATO).

    • B. 

      Interim authorization to operate (IATO).

    • C. 

      Authorization to operate (ATO).

    • D. 

      Interim authorization to test (IATT).

  • 67. 
    What documentation signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the globalinformation grid (GIG)?
    • A. 

      Denial of authorization to operation (DATO).

    • B. 

      Interim authorization to operate (IATO).

    • C. 

      Authorization to operate (ATO).

    • D. 

      Interim authorization to test (IATT).

  • 68. 
    • A. 

      Information technology (IT) lean reengineering.

    • B. 

      Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR).

    • C. 

      Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU).

    • D. 

      Department of Defense information assurance certification and accreditation process (DIACAP).

  • 69. 
    What do you call the consolidated list of requirements that a program office must adhere towhen fielding a system?
    • A. 

      Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR).

    • B. 

      Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU).

    • C. 

      Department of Defense Information Technology System Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP).

    • D. 

      Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP).

  • 70. 
    What is the database of record for registering all systems and applications?
    • A. 

      Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU).

    • B. 

      Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR).

    • C. 

      Department of Defense Information Technology System Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP).

    • D. 

      Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP).

  • 71. 
    What is a collection of computing environments connected by one or more internalnetworks under the control of a single approval authority and security policy?
    • A. 

      Enclave.

    • B. 

      Bastion.

    • C. 

      Circuits.

    • D. 

      Base.

  • 72. 
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      16

    • C. 

      32

    • D. 

      36

  • 73. 
    Which agency must approve all information protection tools prior to their use?
    • A. 

      Defense Information System Agency (DISA).

    • B. 

      Air Force Communication Agency (AFCA).

    • C. 

      Air Force computer emergency response team (AFCERT).

    • D. 

      Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF).

  • 74. 
    What device is placed outside the boundary protection mechanism to monitor all attemptedattacks?
    • A. 

      Intrusion detection system (IDS).

    • B. 

      De-militarized zone (DMZ).

    • C. 

      Vulnerability scanner.

    • D. 

      Firewall.

  • 75. 
    What are examples of network attacks that bypass the firewall?
    • A. 

      Identification spoofing and tunneling.

    • B. 

      Tunneling and application-based attacks.

    • C. 

      Second message encryption and identification spoofing.

    • D. 

      Application-based attacks and second message encryption.

  • 76. 
    What is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by thefirewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall?
    • A. 

      Tunneling.

    • B. 

      Identification spoofing.

    • C. 

      Application-based attacks.

    • D. 

      Second message encryption.

  • 77. 
    A base web-server that interfaces with the public must be placed in what area of a basenetwork?
    • A. 

      At the core.

    • B. 

      None are allowed

    • C. 

      Outside the base network.

    • D. 

      De-militarized zone (DMZ).

  • 78. 
    What is the simplest and least expensive way to stop inappropriate network addresses?
    • A. 

      Proxy.

    • B. 

      Bastion host.

    • C. 

      Packet filtering.

    • D. 

      Intrusion detection.

  • 79. 
    What type of firewall consists of a screening router and a set of rules that accept or reject amessage based on information in the message’s header (a packet): the source address, thedestination address, and the port?
    • A. 

      Proxy.

    • B. 

      Bastion host.

    • C. 

      Packet filtering.

    • D. 

      Intrusion detection.

  • 80. 
    What type of firewall is used to separate secure sites, networks, or network segments fromless secure areas?
    • A. 

      Proxy.

    • B. 

      Bastion host.

    • C. 

      Packet filtering

    • D. 

      Intrusion detection.

  • 81. 
    What type of firewall generates audit trails of all network-related activity for monitoringand intrusion detection purposes?
    • A. 

      Intrusion detection.

    • B. 

      Packet filtering.

    • C. 

      Bastion host.

    • D. 

      Proxy.

  • 82. 
    What network device performs rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknessesthat might allow security violations?
    • A. 

      Network management software.

    • B. 

      Intrusion detection devices.

    • C. 

      Vulnerability scanners.

    • D. 

      Firewalls.

  • 83. 
    What action represents one of the greatest vulnerabilities to internal networks?
    • A. 

      Personnel that continue to misuse the network by surfing the web.

    • B. 

      Access to the network through backdoors left by system administrators.

    • C. 

      Network-connected desktop systems with modems that make calls to the public-switched network.

    • D. 

      Network-connected computer systems with modems that make calls to and accept calls from the public-switched network.

  • 84. 
    What do you call a current and perceived capability, intention, or attack, directed to causedenial of service?
    • A. 

      Vulnerability.

    • B. 

      Threat.

    • C. 

      Compromise.

    • D. 

      Tunneling.

  • 85. 
    An information system on your network that is not set to require the use of a commonaccess card (CAC) or password would be considered a
    • A. 

      Threat.

    • B. 

      Vulnerability.

    • C. 

      Compromise.

    • D. 

      Risk.

  • 86. 
    A program that replicates by attaching itself to a program is a
    • A. 

      Virus.

    • B. 

      Trojan horse

    • C. 

      Worm.

    • D. 

      Bot.

  • 87. 
    What type of malicious logic can form large networks that can be used to launch a varietyof attacks without an information system owner’s knowledge?
    • A. 

      Virus.

    • B. 

      Trojan horse.

    • C. 

      Worm.

    • D. 

      Bot.

  • 88. 
    What type of malicious logic can become active on an information system without the needto infect a file?
    • A. 

      Virus.

    • B. 

      Trojan horse.

    • C. 

      Worm.

    • D. 

      Bot.

  • 89. 
    What is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that makes possible secureelectronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between relative strangers?
    • A. 

      Public key cryptography.

    • B. 

      Public key infrastructure (PKI).

    • C. 

      Key distribution center.

    • D. 

      Asymmetric key infrastructure.

  • 90. 
    What can be used to encrypt a message so that it can only be decrypted by the recipient?
    • A. 

      Token.

    • B. 

      Public key.

    • C. 

      Private key.

    • D. 

      Public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate.

  • 91. 
    What is a file that is kept with you and will allow you to decrypt files encrypted specificallyfor you using your openly available encryption code?
    • A. 

      Token.

    • B. 

      Public key.

    • C. 

      Private key.

    • D. 

      Public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate.

  • 92. 
    What is an electronic document that officially links together a user’s identity with his publickey?
    • A. 

      Token.

    • B. 

      Public key.

    • C. 

      Private key.

    • D. 

      Public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate.

  • 93. 
    Which component of the public key infrastructure (PKI) is responsible for establishing,authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates?
    • A. 

      Certificate policy manager.

    • B. 

      Registration authority.

    • C. 

      Certificate authority.

    • D. 

      Certificate repository.

  • 94. 
    The two ways key establishment can occur are key
    • A. 

      Transfer and agreement.

    • B. 

      Transfer and interchange.

    • C. 

      Generation and agreement.

    • D. 

      Generation and interchange.

  • 95. 
    Which public key algorithm is exclusively a key establishment protocol?
    • A. 

      Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA).

    • B. 

      Diffie and Hellman.

    • C. 

      Elliptic curve digital signature algorithm (ECDSA).

    • D. 

      Elliptic curve Diffie-Hellman (ECDH).

  • 96. 
    What is the primary unclassified public key infrastructure (PKI) token for individual PKIkeys and certificates in the Air Force?
    • A. 

      Hardware token.

    • B. 

      Software token.

    • C. 

      Common access card.

    • D. 

      Identification (ID) key.

  • 97. 
    Which team provides a communication link between forces securing the area and setting up support facilities?
    • A. 

      Open system standards teams.

    • B. 

      Combat integrated system teams.

    • C. 

      Initial communications support teams.

    • D. 

      Sustained communications support teams

  • 98. 
    Sustained communications support becomes a part of the deployment if it exceeds
    • A. 

      15 days.

    • B. 

      30 days.

    • C. 

      45 days.

    • D. 

      90 days.

  • 99. 
    Who provides uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field and in-garrisonunits for the duration of a contingency?
    • A. 

      Open system standards teams.

    • B. 

      Combat integrated system teams.

    • C. 

      Initial communications support teams.

    • D. 

      Sustained communications support teams.

  • 100. 
    What program is known as a state of the art ground-to-ground communicationsinfrastructure designed to provide base level full spectrum communications to the commander and all agencies on base?
    • A. 

      Commercial-off-the-shelf (COTS).

    • B. 

      Combat integrated systems.

    • C. 

      Theater deployable communications (TDC).

    • D. 

      Integrated communications access package (ICAP).