3d052 Vol 1
Settings
3D052 VOL 1
- 1.
- A.
1.
- B.
2.
- C.
5.
- D.
10.
- 2.
- A.
Homogeneous network.
- B.
Internetwork.
- C.
Intranetwork.
- D.
Local area network (LAN).
- 3.
- A.
Internetwork.
- B.
Intranetwork.
- C.
Homogeneous network.
- D.
Heterogeneous network.
- 4.What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatibleequipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?
- A.
Internetwork.
- B.
Intranetwork.
- C.
Homogeneous network.
- D.
Heterogeneous network.
- 5.
- A.
Global area network (GAN).
- B.
Local area network (LAN).
- C.
Metropolitan area network. (MAN).
- D.
Wide area network. (WAN).
- 6.What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?
- A.
Global area network (GAN).
- B.
Local area network (LAN).
- C.
Metropolitan area network. (MAN).
- D.
Wide area network. (WAN).
- 7.What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over anunlimited geographical region?
- A.
Global area network (GAN).
- B.
Local area network (LAN).
- C.
Metropolitan area network. (MAN).
- D.
Wide area network. (WAN).
- 8.How many users are normally in a peer-to-peer network?
- A.
2-10.
- B.
10-50.
- C.
50-250.
- D.
250-1,000.
- 9.How many users are in a single-server network?
- A.
2-10.
- B.
10-50.
- C.
50-250.
- D.
250-1,000.
- 10.How many users are in a multi-server network?
- A.
2-10.
- B.
10-50.
- C.
50-250.
- D.
250-1,000.
- 11.How many users are in a multi-server high-speed backbone network?
- A.
2-10.
- B.
10-50.
- C.
50-250.
- D.
250-1,000.
- 12.What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other citiesor around the globe?
- A.
Local area network (LAN).
- B.
Metropolitan area network (MAN).
- C.
Multi-server high-speed backbone network.
- D.
Enterprise network.
- 13.What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?
- A.
Media access control address.
- B.
Network server name.
- C.
Subnet mask address.
- D.
Node serial number.
- 14.How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
- 15.What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?
- A.
01100000.
- B.
01100110.
- C.
00001100.
- D.
10000001.
- 16.What is the network id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
- A.
0.0.0.120.
- B.
0.10.230.0.
- C.
131.10.230.0.
- D.
255.255.255.0.
- 17.What is the host id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
- A.
0.0.0.120.
- B.
0.10.230.0.
- C.
131.10.230.0.
- D.
255.255.255.0.
- 18.
- A.
24
- B.
48
- C.
64
- D.
128
- 19.What series of Air Force instruction series covers communications and information?
- A.
10
- B.
29
- C.
30
- D.
33
- 20.What Air Force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force globalinformation grid (AF-GIG)?
- A.
AFPD 33–1.
- B.
AFI 33–112.
- C.
AFI 33–115v1.
- D.
AFI 29–2603v2.
- 21.According to the Air Force network structure, what tier is the Air Force network operationscenter (AFNOSC)?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
- 22.What network entity provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base levelcustomers?
- A.
Network control center (NCC).
- B.
Network control center-deployable (NCC-D).
- C.
Network operations center (NOSC).
- D.
Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC).
- 23.What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improvenetwork efficiency and productivity?
- A.
Fault management server.
- B.
Network management server.
- C.
Performance management server.
- D.
Security management server.
- 24.Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?
- A.
Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed.
- B.
Centralized, hybrid and distributed.
- C.
Centralized, hierarchical, and hybrid.
- D.
Hybrid, hierarchical, and distributed.
- 25.What network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system ata location that is responsible for all network management duties?
- A.
Centralized.
- B.
Distributed.
- C.
Hierarchical.
- D.
Hybrid.
- 26.What network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one systemacting as a central server and the others working as clients?
- A.
Centralized.
- B.
Distributed.
- C.
Hierarchical.
- D.
Hybrid.
- 27.What level of network management activity are you working at when you as the networkmanager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?
- A.
Inactive.
- B.
Interactive.
- C.
Proactive.
- D.
Reactive.
- 28.What level of network management activity are you working at when the automatedmonitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at-hand?
- A.
Inactive.
- B.
Reactive.
- C.
Interactive.
- D.
Proactive.
- 29.Performance management can be broke into what two separate functional categories?
- A.
Monitoring and analyzing.
- B.
Monitoring and replacing.
- C.
Monitoring and tuning.
- D.
Analyzing and tuning.
- 30.Which function of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities onthe network?
- A.
Tuning.
- B.
Analyzing.
- C.
Gathering.
- D.
Monitoring.
- 31.What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?
- A.
Configuration.
- B.
Performance.
- C.
Accounting.
- D.
Security.
- 32.What is the established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range andexcessive errors because of a fault?
- A.
Fault parameters.
- B.
Tolerance parameters.
- C.
Low-level software alarms.
- D.
Low-level hardware alarms.
- 33.Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer ofthe operational system interface (OSI) model?
- A.
Session.
- B.
Transport.
- C.
Presentation.
- D.
Application.
- 34.What is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management informationavailable from network devices?
- A.
Object identifier.
- B.
Network device map.
- C.
Network protocol list.
- D.
Management information base.
- 35.What area of the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structure is reservedfor vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment?
- A.
Management.
- B.
Private.
- C.
Directory.
- D.
Experimental.
- 36.What simple network management protocol (SNMP) node is responsible for monitoring,collecting and reporting management data to the management system?
- A.
Primary domain controller (PDC).
- B.
Backup domain controller.
- C.
Manager.
- D.
Agent.
- 37.What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message asks for aspecific instance of management information?
- A.
Get.
- B.
Set.
- C.
Trap.
- D.
GetNext.
- 38.What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to retrievemultiple pieces of information with minimal overhead?
- A.
Get.
- B.
Set.
- C.
Trap.
- D.
GetNext.
- 39.What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to modifythe value of one or more instances of management information?
- A.
Get.
- B.
Set.
- C.
Trap.
- D.
GetNext.
- 40.What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is an unsolicitedmessage from an agent to the manager?
- A.
Get.
- B.
Set.
- C.
Trap.
- D.
GetNext.
- 41.What is the type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information usingproprietary topology management information bases (MIB)?
- A.
Virtual local area network (VLAN) probe.
- B.
Neighbor probe.
- C.
Containment probe.
- D.
System information probe.
- 42.What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system(SMARTS) application?
- A.
Broker.
- B.
Clients.
- C.
Map console.
- D.
Domain manager.
- 43.What component of the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS)application contains knowledge of available domain managers?
- A.
Broker.
- B.
Clients.
- C.
Probes.
- D.
Consoles.
- 44.What are the three types of systems management automated report tracking system(SMARTS) notifications?
- A.
Compound events, alarm, and trend.
- B.
Compound events, problems, and network.
- C.
Auto-discovery, compound, and symptomatic events.
- D.
Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events.
- 45.What color on the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS)alarm log indicates one or more events?
- A.
Blue.
- B.
Orange.
- C.
Purple.
- D.
Yellow.
- 46.How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide youabout your network?
- A.
7
- B.
14
- C.
19
- D.
21
- 47.What device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developingcommunications software?
- A.
Systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS).
- B.
Protocol analyzer.
- C.
Network root router.
- D.
Windows advanced server.
- 48.What provides information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that arerelated to a specific protocol?
- A.
Media access control (MAC) node statistics.
- B.
Connection statistics.
- C.
Protocol statistics.
- D.
Node discovery.
- 49.What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence(FCS), short frames, and jabbers?
- A.
Media access control (MAC) node statistics.
- B.
Connection statistics.
- C.
Protocol statistics.
- D.
Node discovery.
- 50.What automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application isactivated?
- A.
Media access control (MAC)
- B.
Connection statistics.
- C.
Protocol statistics.
- D.
Node discovery.
- 51.What provides information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number ofconnections that are related to specific nodes?
- A.
Media access control (MAC)
- B.
Connection statistics.
- C.
Protocol statistics.
- D.
Node discovery.
- 52.What is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject toaccess certain information?
- A.
Authentication.
- B.
Recertification.
- C.
Accreditation.
- D.
Identification.
- 53.What are three primary ways to authenticate one-self?
- A.
Finger and voiceprints, or retinal scans.
- B.
Passwords, finger prints, or identification cards.
- C.
Passwords, fortezza cards, or identification cards.
- D.
Something you know, something you have, or something are.
- 54.Knowledge-based identification and authentication methods require the user to providesomething you
- A.
Know.
- B.
Have.
- C.
Need.
- D.
Read.
- 55.The Air Force requires a network password to be at least how many characters long?
- A.
6
- B.
7
- C.
8
- D.
9
- 56.Storage media that retains data after power is removed is considered
- A.
Classified.
- B.
Volatile.
- C.
Sensitive.
- D.
Sanitized.
- 57.Which standard form is used to annotate storage media has been sanitized?
- A.
700.
- B.
701.
- C.
711.
- D.
712.
- 58.What regulation covers remanence security?
- A.
AFPD 33–2.
- B.
AFSSI 8580
- C.
AFSSI 5020
- D.
AFI 33–115v1.
- 59.Who can declassify storage media that has been sanitized?
- A.
Information assurance officer (IAO).
- B.
Designated approval authority (DAA).
- C.
Information system security officer.
- D.
Information owner.
- 60.What is the process of physically damaging the media to render it unusable in a computerand render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods?
- A.
Destroying.
- B.
Degaussing.
- C.
Sanitizing.
- D.
Overwriting.
- 61.What is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zeroby applying a reverse magnetizing field?
- A.
Degausser.
- B.
Degaussing.
- C.
Destroying.
- D.
Sanitizing.
- 62.What is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic media?
- A.
Degaussing.
- B.
Overwriting.
- C.
Formatting.
- D.
Deleting.
- 63.What is a comprehensive evaluation and validation of an Air Force information system (IS)to establish the degree to which it complies with assigned information assurance (IA) controls based on standardized procedures?
- A.
Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP).
- B.
Plan of action & milestones (POA&M).
- C.
Accreditation.
- D.
Certification.
- 64.What is a formal declaration by a designated approving official (DAA) that an informationsystem is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards at an acceptable level of risk?
- A.
Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP).
- B.
Plan of action & milestones (POA&M).
- C.
Accreditation.
- D.
Certification.
- 65.What is the Department of Defense process for certifying and accrediting informationsystems to operate on the global information grid (GIG)?
- A.
Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR).
- B.
Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU).
- C.
Department of Defense Information Technology System Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP).
- D.
Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP).
- 66.What documentation is required to permanently connect to the global information grid(GIG) system?
- A.
Denial of authorization to operation (DATO).
- B.
Interim authorization to operate (IATO).
- C.
Authorization to operate (ATO).
- D.
Interim authorization to test (IATT).
- 67.What documentation signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the globalinformation grid (GIG)?
- A.
Denial of authorization to operation (DATO).
- B.
Interim authorization to operate (IATO).
- C.
Authorization to operate (ATO).
- D.
Interim authorization to test (IATT).
- 68.
- A.
Information technology (IT) lean reengineering.
- B.
Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR).
- C.
Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU).
- D.
Department of Defense information assurance certification and accreditation process (DIACAP).
- 69.What do you call the consolidated list of requirements that a program office must adhere towhen fielding a system?
- A.
Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR).
- B.
Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU).
- C.
Department of Defense Information Technology System Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP).
- D.
Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP).
- 70.What is the database of record for registering all systems and applications?
- A.
Security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability (SISSU).
- B.
Enterprise information technology data repository (EITDR).
- C.
Department of Defense Information Technology System Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP).
- D.
Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP).
- 71.What is a collection of computing environments connected by one or more internalnetworks under the control of a single approval authority and security policy?
- A.
Enclave.
- B.
Bastion.
- C.
Circuits.
- D.
Base.
- 72.
- A.
15
- B.
16
- C.
32
- D.
36
- 73.Which agency must approve all information protection tools prior to their use?
- A.
Defense Information System Agency (DISA).
- B.
Air Force Communication Agency (AFCA).
- C.
Air Force computer emergency response team (AFCERT).
- D.
Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF).
- 74.What device is placed outside the boundary protection mechanism to monitor all attemptedattacks?
- A.
Intrusion detection system (IDS).
- B.
De-militarized zone (DMZ).
- C.
Vulnerability scanner.
- D.
Firewall.
- 75.What are examples of network attacks that bypass the firewall?
- A.
Identification spoofing and tunneling.
- B.
Tunneling and application-based attacks.
- C.
Second message encryption and identification spoofing.
- D.
Application-based attacks and second message encryption.
- 76.What is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by thefirewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall?
- A.
Tunneling.
- B.
Identification spoofing.
- C.
Application-based attacks.
- D.
Second message encryption.
- 77.A base web-server that interfaces with the public must be placed in what area of a basenetwork?
- A.
At the core.
- B.
None are allowed
- C.
Outside the base network.
- D.
De-militarized zone (DMZ).
- 78.What is the simplest and least expensive way to stop inappropriate network addresses?
- A.
Proxy.
- B.
Bastion host.
- C.
Packet filtering.
- D.
Intrusion detection.
- 79.What type of firewall consists of a screening router and a set of rules that accept or reject amessage based on information in the message’s header (a packet): the source address, thedestination address, and the port?
- A.
Proxy.
- B.
Bastion host.
- C.
Packet filtering.
- D.
Intrusion detection.
- 80.What type of firewall is used to separate secure sites, networks, or network segments fromless secure areas?
- A.
Proxy.
- B.
Bastion host.
- C.
Packet filtering
- D.
Intrusion detection.
- 81.What type of firewall generates audit trails of all network-related activity for monitoringand intrusion detection purposes?
- A.
Intrusion detection.
- B.
Packet filtering.
- C.
Bastion host.
- D.
Proxy.
- 82.What network device performs rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknessesthat might allow security violations?
- A.
Network management software.
- B.
Intrusion detection devices.
- C.
Vulnerability scanners.
- D.
Firewalls.
- 83.What action represents one of the greatest vulnerabilities to internal networks?
- A.
Personnel that continue to misuse the network by surfing the web.
- B.
Access to the network through backdoors left by system administrators.
- C.
Network-connected desktop systems with modems that make calls to the public-switched network.
- D.
Network-connected computer systems with modems that make calls to and accept calls from the public-switched network.
- 84.What do you call a current and perceived capability, intention, or attack, directed to causedenial of service?
- A.
Vulnerability.
- B.
Threat.
- C.
Compromise.
- D.
Tunneling.
- 85.An information system on your network that is not set to require the use of a commonaccess card (CAC) or password would be considered a
- A.
Threat.
- B.
Vulnerability.
- C.
Compromise.
- D.
Risk.
- 86.A program that replicates by attaching itself to a program is a
- A.
Virus.
- B.
Trojan horse
- C.
Worm.
- D.
Bot.
- 87.What type of malicious logic can form large networks that can be used to launch a varietyof attacks without an information system owner’s knowledge?
- A.
Virus.
- B.
Trojan horse.
- C.
Worm.
- D.
Bot.
- 88.What type of malicious logic can become active on an information system without the needto infect a file?
- A.
Virus.
- B.
Trojan horse.
- C.
Worm.
- D.
Bot.
- 89.What is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that makes possible secureelectronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between relative strangers?
- A.
Public key cryptography.
- B.
Public key infrastructure (PKI).
- C.
Key distribution center.
- D.
Asymmetric key infrastructure.
- 90.What can be used to encrypt a message so that it can only be decrypted by the recipient?
- A.
Token.
- B.
Public key.
- C.
Private key.
- D.
Public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate.
- 91.What is a file that is kept with you and will allow you to decrypt files encrypted specificallyfor you using your openly available encryption code?
- A.
Token.
- B.
Public key.
- C.
Private key.
- D.
Public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate.
- 92.What is an electronic document that officially links together a user’s identity with his publickey?
- A.
Token.
- B.
Public key.
- C.
Private key.
- D.
Public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate.
- 93.Which component of the public key infrastructure (PKI) is responsible for establishing,authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates?
- A.
Certificate policy manager.
- B.
Registration authority.
- C.
Certificate authority.
- D.
Certificate repository.
- 94.The two ways key establishment can occur are key
- A.
Transfer and agreement.
- B.
Transfer and interchange.
- C.
Generation and agreement.
- D.
Generation and interchange.
- 95.Which public key algorithm is exclusively a key establishment protocol?
- A.
Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA).
- B.
Diffie and Hellman.
- C.
Elliptic curve digital signature algorithm (ECDSA).
- D.
Elliptic curve Diffie-Hellman (ECDH).
- 96.What is the primary unclassified public key infrastructure (PKI) token for individual PKIkeys and certificates in the Air Force?
- A.
Hardware token.
- B.
Software token.
- C.
Common access card.
- D.
Identification (ID) key.
- 97.Which team provides a communication link between forces securing the area and setting up support facilities?
- A.
Open system standards teams.
- B.
Combat integrated system teams.
- C.
Initial communications support teams.
- D.
Sustained communications support teams
- 98.Sustained communications support becomes a part of the deployment if it exceeds
- A.
15 days.
- B.
30 days.
- C.
45 days.
- D.
90 days.
- 99.Who provides uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field and in-garrisonunits for the duration of a contingency?
- A.
Open system standards teams.
- B.
Combat integrated system teams.
- C.
Initial communications support teams.
- D.
Sustained communications support teams.
- 100.What program is known as a state of the art ground-to-ground communicationsinfrastructure designed to provide base level full spectrum communications to the commander and all agencies on base?
- A.
Commercial-off-the-shelf (COTS).
- B.
Combat integrated systems.
- C.
Theater deployable communications (TDC).
- D.
Integrated communications access package (ICAP).
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