3d052 Vol 1: The Ultimate Cyber Systems Operation Quiz
In the Air force, the enlisted officers, airmen, and health care professionals enjoy great opportunities. Do you want to enter into the Air force? If yes, hows your knowledge about cyber systems operations? Check out our online quiz to test your knowledge and learn more.
- 1.
What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?
- A.
1.
- B.
2.
- C.
5.
- D.
10.
Correct Answer
B. 2. -
- 2.
What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel iscalled?
- A.
Homogeneous network.
- B.
Internetwork.
- C.
Intranetwork.
- D.
Local area network (LAN).
Correct Answer
C. Intranetwork. -
- 3.
What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?
- A.
Internetwork.
- B.
Intranetwork.
- C.
Homogeneous network.
- D.
Heterogeneous network.
Correct Answer
D. Heterogeneous network. -
- 4.
What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatibleequipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?
- A.
Internetwork.
- B.
Intranetwork.
- C.
Homogeneous network.
- D.
Heterogeneous network.
Correct Answer
C. Homogeneous network. -
- 5.
What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?
- A.
Global area network (GAN).
- B.
Local area network (LAN).
- C.
Metropolitan area network. (MAN).
- D.
Wide area network. (WAN).
Correct Answer
B. Local area network (LAN). -
- 6.
What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?
- A.
Global area network (GAN).
- B.
Local area network (LAN).
- C.
Metropolitan area network. (MAN).
- D.
Wide area network. (WAN).
Correct Answer
D. Wide area network. (WAN). -
- 7.
What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over anunlimited geographical region?
- A.
Global area network (GAN).
- B.
Local area network (LAN).
- C.
Metropolitan area network. (MAN).
- D.
Wide area network. (WAN).
Correct Answer
A. Global area network (GAN). -
- 8.
How many users are normally in a peer-to-peer network?
- A.
2-10.
- B.
10-50.
- C.
50-250.
- D.
250-1,000.
Correct Answer
A. 2-10. -
- 9.
How many users are in a single-server network?
- A.
2-10.
- B.
10-50.
- C.
50-250.
- D.
250-1,000.
Correct Answer
B. 10-50. -
- 10.
How many users are in a multi-server network?
- A.
2-10.
- B.
10-50.
- C.
50-250.
- D.
250-1,000.
Correct Answer
C. 50-250. -
- 11.
How many users are in a multi-server high-speed backbone network?
- A.
2-10.
- B.
10-50.
- C.
50-250.
- D.
250-1,000.
Correct Answer
D. 250-1,000. -
- 12.
What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other citiesor around the globe?
- A.
Local area network (LAN).
- B.
Metropolitan area network (MAN).
- C.
Multi-server high-speed backbone network.
- D.
Enterprise network.
Correct Answer
D. Enterprise network. -
- 13.
What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?
- A.
Media access control address.
- B.
Network server name.
- C.
Subnet mask address.
- D.
Node serial number.
Correct Answer
A. Media access control address. -
- 14.
How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
Correct Answer
B. 4 -
- 15.
What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?
- A.
01100000.
- B.
01100110.
- C.
00001100.
- D.
10000001.
Correct Answer
A. 01100000. -
- 16.
What is the network id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
- A.
0.0.0.120.
- B.
0.10.230.0.
- C.
131.10.230.0.
- D.
255.255.255.0.
Correct Answer
C. 131.10.230.0. -
- 17.
What is the host id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
- A.
0.0.0.120.
- B.
0.10.230.0.
- C.
131.10.230.0.
- D.
255.255.255.0.
Correct Answer
A. 0.0.0.120. -
- 18.
How many bits are typically covered in an internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask?
- A.
24
- B.
48
- C.
64
- D.
128
Correct Answer
D. 128 -
- 19.
What series of Air Force instruction series covers communications and information?
- A.
10
- B.
29
- C.
30
- D.
33
Correct Answer
D. 33 -
- 20.
What Air Force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force globalinformation grid (AF-GIG)?
- A.
AFPD 33–1.
- B.
AFI 33–112.
- C.
AFI 33–115v1.
- D.
AFI 29–2603v2.
Correct Answer
C. AFI 33–115v1. -
- 21.
According to the Air Force network structure, what tier is the Air Force network operationscenter (AFNOSC)?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
A. 1 -
- 22.
What network entity provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base levelcustomers?
- A.
Network control center (NCC).
- B.
Network control center-deployable (NCC-D).
- C.
Network operations center (NOSC).
- D.
Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC).
Correct Answer
A. Network control center (NCC). -
- 23.
What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improvenetwork efficiency and productivity?
- A.
Fault management server.
- B.
Network management server.
- C.
Performance management server.
- D.
Security management server.
Correct Answer
B. Network management server. -
- 24.
Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?
- A.
Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed.
- B.
Centralized, hybrid and distributed.
- C.
Centralized, hierarchical, and hybrid.
- D.
Hybrid, hierarchical, and distributed.
Correct Answer
A. Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed. -
- 25.
What network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system ata location that is responsible for all network management duties?
- A.
Centralized.
- B.
Distributed.
- C.
Hierarchical.
- D.
Hybrid.
Correct Answer
A. Centralized. -
- 26.
What network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one systemacting as a central server and the others working as clients?
- A.
Centralized.
- B.
Distributed.
- C.
Hierarchical.
- D.
Hybrid.
Correct Answer
C. Hierarchical. -
- 27.
What level of network management activity are you working at when you as the networkmanager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?
- A.
Inactive.
- B.
Interactive.
- C.
Proactive.
- D.
Reactive.
Correct Answer
B. Interactive. -
- 28.
What level of network management activity are you working at when the automatedmonitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at-hand?
- A.
Inactive.
- B.
Reactive.
- C.
Interactive.
- D.
Proactive.
Correct Answer
D. Proactive. -
- 29.
Performance management can be broke into what two separate functional categories?
- A.
Monitoring and analyzing.
- B.
Monitoring and replacing.
- C.
Monitoring and tuning.
- D.
Analyzing and tuning.
Correct Answer
C. Monitoring and tuning. -
- 30.
Which function of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities onthe network?
- A.
Tuning.
- B.
Analyzing.
- C.
Gathering.
- D.
Monitoring.
Correct Answer
D. Monitoring. -
- 31.
What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?
- A.
Configuration.
- B.
Performance.
- C.
Accounting.
- D.
Security.
Correct Answer
D. Security. -
- 32.
What is the established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range andexcessive errors because of a fault?
- A.
Fault parameters.
- B.
Tolerance parameters.
- C.
Low-level software alarms.
- D.
Low-level hardware alarms.
Correct Answer
B. Tolerance parameters. -
- 33.
Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer ofthe operational system interface (OSI) model?
- A.
Session.
- B.
Transport.
- C.
Presentation.
- D.
Application.
Correct Answer
A. Session. -
- 34.
What is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management informationavailable from network devices?
- A.
Object identifier.
- B.
Network device map.
- C.
Network protocol list.
- D.
Management information base.
Correct Answer
D. Management information base. -
- 35.
What area of the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structure is reservedfor vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment?
- A.
Management.
- B.
Private.
- C.
Directory.
- D.
Experimental.
Correct Answer
B. Private. -
- 36.
What simple network management protocol (SNMP) node is responsible for monitoring,collecting and reporting management data to the management system?
- A.
Primary domain controller (PDC).
- B.
Backup domain controller.
- C.
Manager.
- D.
Agent.
Correct Answer
D. Agent. -
- 37.
What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message asks for aspecific instance of management information?
- A.
Get.
- B.
Set.
- C.
Trap.
- D.
GetNext.
Correct Answer
A. Get. -
- 38.
What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to retrievemultiple pieces of information with minimal overhead?
- A.
Get.
- B.
Set.
- C.
Trap.
- D.
GetNext.
Correct Answer
D. GetNext. -
- 39.
What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to modifythe value of one or more instances of management information?
- A.
Get.
- B.
Set.
- C.
Trap.
- D.
GetNext.
Correct Answer
B. Set. -
- 40.
What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is an unsolicitedmessage from an agent to the manager?
- A.
Get.
- B.
Set.
- C.
Trap.
- D.
GetNext.
Correct Answer
C. Trap. -
- 41.
What is the type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information usingproprietary topology management information bases (MIB)?
- A.
Virtual local area network (VLAN) probe.
- B.
Neighbor probe.
- C.
Containment probe.
- D.
System information probe.
Correct Answer
B. Neighbor probe. -
- 42.
What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system(SMARTS) application?
- A.
Broker.
- B.
Clients.
- C.
Map console.
- D.
Domain manager.
Correct Answer
D. Domain manager. -
- 43.
What component of the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS)application contains knowledge of available domain managers?
- A.
Broker.
- B.
Clients.
- C.
Probes.
- D.
Consoles.
Correct Answer
A. Broker. -
- 44.
What are the three types of systems management automated report tracking system(SMARTS) notifications?
- A.
Compound events, alarm, and trend.
- B.
Compound events, problems, and network.
- C.
Auto-discovery, compound, and symptomatic events.
- D.
Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events.
Correct Answer
D. Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events. -
- 45.
What color on the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS)alarm log indicates one or more events?
- A.
Blue.
- B.
Orange.
- C.
Purple.
- D.
Yellow.
Correct Answer
C. Purple. -
- 46.
How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide youabout your network?
- A.
7
- B.
14
- C.
19
- D.
21
Correct Answer
D. 21 -
- 47.
What device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developingcommunications software?
- A.
Systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS).
- B.
Protocol analyzer.
- C.
Network root router.
- D.
Windows advanced server.
Correct Answer
B. Protocol analyzer. -
- 48.
What provides information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that arerelated to a specific protocol?
- A.
Media access control (MAC) node statistics.
- B.
Connection statistics.
- C.
Protocol statistics.
- D.
Node discovery.
Correct Answer
C. Protocol statistics. -
- 49.
What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence(FCS), short frames, and jabbers?
- A.
Media access control (MAC) node statistics.
- B.
Connection statistics.
- C.
Protocol statistics.
- D.
Node discovery.
Correct Answer
A. Media access control (MAC) node statistics. -
- 50.
What automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application isactivated?
- A.
Media access control (MAC)
- B.
Connection statistics.
- C.
Protocol statistics.
- D.
Node discovery.
Correct Answer
D. Node discovery. -
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Jun 03, 2021Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Dec 07, 2016Quiz Created by
Dinstaar2a6x2
- 1W0510 Quizzes
- 2A251 Quizzes
- 2A552 Quizzes
- 2A652 Quizzes
- 2A654 Quizzes
- 2A656 Quizzes
- 2A671 Quizzes
- 2A672 Quizzes
- 2A6X1 Quizzes
- 2A753 Quizzes
- 2A852 Quizzes
- 2AX5X Quizzes
- 2AX7X Quizzes
- 2s071 Quizzes
- 2T251 Quizzes
- 3d054 Quizzes
- 3D151 Quizzes
- 3D152 Quizzes
- 3D153 Quizzes
- 3d1x3 Quizzes
- 3e451 Quizzes
- 3e6x1 Quizzes
- 4a051 Quizzes
- 5j0x1 Quizzes
- Z3D153 Quizzes
- Z3p051 Quizzes
Back to top