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2w051b V2
100 Questions
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By Parallelchild | Updated: Dec 6, 2013
| Attempts: 139
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1.
What is a requirement for military explosives ?
Raw materials must be cheap
Raw materials must be nonhygroscopic
Raw materials must be common to America
Raw materials must be vital to the war effort
Submit
Start Quiz
About This Quiz
2W051B Vol. 2 URE Questions
2.
What first name or nickname would you like us to use?
You may optionally provide this to label your report, leaderboard, or certificate.
2.
Name two types of effects for signals.
Fire and flash.
Heat and flash.
Smoke and heat.
Light and smoke.
Submit
3.
What is the largest caliber ammunition that we classify as "small arms"?
Caliber .38.
Caliber .50.
5.56 millimeter.
7.62 millimeter.
Submit
4.
What are the components of a typical small-arms cartridge?
Cartridge case, primer, bullet, and propellant.
Cartridge case, primer, bullet, and detonator.
Cartridge case, shot pellets, and propellant.
Cartridge case, propellant, and tracer.
Submit
5.
For what purpose do we use a shaped charge?
Bring down walls and collapse roofs.
No practical application in the munitions field.
Ignite rocket motors equipped with electric squibs.
To produce an explosive penetration of a solid object.
Submit
6.
What hazard is involved in using blank ammunition?
Ejection of the primer.
The wad can cause injury
There is no significant hazard.
Fragmentation of the projectile.
Submit
7.
What substance is the M112 demo block made of?
Ammonia.
Black powder.
Composition C–4.
Nitroglycerin.
Submit
8.
What does HOF stand for on the FZU–39/B proximity sensor?
Hour of flight.
Hour of function.
Height of function.
Height of fragmentation.
Submit
9.
What is the M129 bomb used for?
Destroy hardened aircraft shelters.
Destroy columns of armored vehicles
Penetrate and destroy runway surfaces and enemy bunkers.
Deliver propaganda leaflets used to persuade the enemy to surrender.
Submit
10.
What major aircraft systems carry countermeasure flares?
Bomber and reconnaissance aircraft.
Tactical and reconnaissance aircraft.
Close air support and bomber aircraft.
All major tactical, bomber and cargo aircraft.
Submit
11.
The four factors that control the visibility of pyrotechnics are candlepower, color, weather, and
Light.
Altitude.
Humidity.
Chemical composition
Submit
12.
What shotgun round is the exception to the gauging principle?
10.
12.
28.
410.
Submit
13.
The main types of fuze actions are impact, time, and
Electrical.
Hydraulic.
Proximity.
Inertia.
Submit
14.
The identifying information on a 20 millimeter (mm) round of ammunition is marked on the
Bourrelet.
Projectile.
Fuze.
Primer.
Submit
15.
Volatility is the tendency of a substance to produce
Pressure.
Energy.
Vapors.
Heat.
Submit
16.
The tendency of a substance to burn with a rapid and sparkling combustion is called
Detonation.
Disposition.
Deflagration.
Decomposition.
Submit
17.
Where is a proximity fuze placed on the bomb?
Nose.
Tail.
Nose and tail.
Between the lugs.
Submit
18.
Where are proximity sensors/fuzes installed on a bomb?
Nose.
Tail.
Nose and tail.
Between the lugs.
Submit
19.
What is the purpose of the 30 millimeter (mm) dummy ammunition?
Ballast.
Target practice on small ranges.
Use in static displays and award presentations.
Familiarization training and mechanical cycling of the gun system.
Submit
20.
What adapter booster is used with the M904 fuze?
T44.
T45.
T46.
FZU–2/B.
Submit
21.
With electrical fuzes, what device is used in place of arming wire?
Bungee cord.
Battery-firing device.
Linear-shaped charge.
Target-detecting device.
Submit
22.
The LUU–2 series aircraft flare produces
500,000 candlepower for an average burn time of three minutes.
300,000 candlepower for an average burn time of two minutes.
Two million candlepower for an average burn time of five minutes.
One million candlepower for an average burn time of five minutes.
Submit
23.
What pyrotechnic effect is produced by the AN–MK13 signal?
Noise only.
Flare and noise.
Smoke and flare.
Smoke and noise.
Submit
24.
What will not cause the electric primer in 20 millimeter (mm) ammunition to be fired accidentally?
Proper handling.
Static electricity.
Rough handling.
Electromagnetic energy.
Submit
25.
How can you increase the penetration effect of a shaped charge?
Decrease standoff distance.
Increase standoff distance.
Decrease explosive charge.
Increase explosive charge.
Submit
26.
How do we classify 20 millimeter (mm) ammunition?
According to its purpose.
As combat or noncombat ammunition.
By the type of gun system in which it is used.
By the method of its initiation (electric or percussion).
Submit
27.
What M505-series fuze safety feature prevents accidental arming during handling?
Fuze is bore safe.
M505-series fuze is inertia armed.
Rotor assembly is safety pinned until loading.
M505-series fuze does not have a safety, but it does require very careful handling.
Submit
28.
How far in front of an M18A1 mine do we consider inside the danger zone?
50 meters.
100 meters.
250 meters.
300 meters.
Submit
29.
What device is used to initiate time fuse?
M60 Igniter.
Firing Wire.
Galvanometer.
Blasting machine.
Submit
30.
The design of which safety feature is to prevent movement of the arming heads, arming stems, and strikers while the fuze is being handled?
Seal wires.
Cotter pins.
Safety blocks.
“Detonator safe” feature.
Submit
31.
Which part of the target practice 20 millimeter (mm) round is inert?
Primer.
Cartridge.
Projectile.
Cartridge filler.
Submit
32.
Name the components of a 40 millimeter (mm) round.
Ignition booster, cartridge case, and projectile.
Propellant, cartridge case, and ignition booster
Propellant, cartridge case, ignition booster, and fuze.
Primer, cartridge case, propellant charge, projectile, and fuze.
Submit
33.
What are the components of the 105 millimeter (mm) round?
Cartridge case, propellant charge, primer, projectile, and fuze.
Primer, igniter, cartridge case, and propellant charge.
Projectile, igniter, and cartridge case.
Igniter, projectile, and fuze.
Submit
34.
What are initiators designed to do?
Supply gas pressure to operate other cartridge-activated devices.
Supply gas pressure to remove aircraft canopies.
Eject external stores.
Eject seats.
Submit
35.
What substance is the explosive filler for the M30 practice grenade?
Inert powder.
Black powder.
Composition B.
White phosphorus.
Submit
36.
What material is the 30 millimeter (mm) cartridge case made of?
Steel.
Brass.
Metal.
Aluminum.
Submit
37.
What mortar can be broken down into several smaller loads for easier carrying?
Short.
Light.
Heavy.
Medium.
Submit
38.
What component is used to adapt a nose fuze for an M-series bomb?
Fuze adapter.
Bomb adapter.
Adapter booster.
Adapter burster.
Submit
39.
What is one significant difference in 20 millimeter (mm) ammunition compared to other cannon ammunition?
The bourrelet.
The propellant.
The point detonating fuze.
The electrically fired primer.
Submit
40.
Which mine do we commonly call the "claymore"?
M14.
M18A1
M27A1
M28A1.
Submit
41.
The major physical difference between the CBU–87/B and the CBU–89/B cluster bombs is the
Height of arming.
Method of arming.
CBU–89/B uses the MK339 fuze.
CBU–89/B does not have canted fins.
Submit
42.
What are catapults used for?
Ejecting external stores from an aircraft.
Removing a canopy and seat from an aircraft.
Positioning a seat and crew member for ejection.
Ejecting a seat and crew member safely from an aircraft.
Submit
43.
The rate of transformation for high explosives is between
3,200 and 25,000 feet per second.
3,200 and 28,000 feet per second.
3,200 and 31,000 feet per second.
3,200 and 32,000 feet per second.
Submit
44.
How do we classify explosive train primers?
By the size of the primer.
According to their location.
By the way they are initiated.
According to their functioning
Submit
45.
How much light does the M127A1 signal produce?
50,000 candlepower.
100,000 candlepower.
1,000,000 candlepower.
2,000,000 candlepower.
Submit
46.
What color is the most common for military safety fuze?
Red.
Green.
Purple.
Orange.
Submit
47.
How can you tell when an FMU–124A/B fuze is armed?
You see only the green background through the window.
The safety pin is removed and the release shaft is extended.
The safety pin is removed and the release shaft is detracted.
You see a white “S” on a green background through the window.
Submit
48.
What is the weight of the BDU–33 series practice bomb?
10 pounds.
20 pounds.
25 pounds.
45 pounds.
Submit
49.
What does the SD–206 infrared flare do?
Provides less heat than the M206 flare.
Provides more heat than the M206 flare.
Provides more flexibility due to its smaller size.
Provides smoke to simulate a flare for training purposes
Submit
50.
Name three classifications of Air Force grenades.
Combat, practice, and training.
Dummy, training, and service.
Service, practice, and training.
Chemical, practice, and service.
Submit
51.
Where in a bomb body is the M905 fuze installed?
Either the nose or the tail.
The nose fuze well.
The tail fuze well.
Between the lugs.
Submit
52.
What component provides the electrical power needed to operate the FMU–139A/B fuze?
FZU–39/B sensor.
FZU–48/B initiator.
Battery-firing device.
MK32 Mod 1 arming device.
Submit
53.
What is the net explosive weight (NEW) of the BLU–126/B?
92 pounds.
192 pounds.
27 pounds.
270 pounds.
Submit
54.
How do you set the firing delay times in a mechanically timed M904 nose fuze?
Changing the delay element.
By rotating the timing lock.
By adjusting the calibrated dial.
The firing delay time is fixed and cannot be changed.
Submit
55.
Which submunitions are loaded into a CBU–87 cluster bomb?
BLU–61 bomblets.
BLU–63 bomblets.
BLU–97 bomblets.
MK118 bomblets.
Submit
56.
How many different types of bomblets are loaded into a single CBU–89/B cluster bomb at one time?
One.
Two.
Three.
Four.
Submit
57.
Against what types of targets is the CBU–97/B primarily used?
Anti-personnel.
Runways.
Facilities.
Tanks.
Submit
58.
What device holds the ball rotor of the 30 millimeter (mm) M505A3 impact fuze in an unarmed position until it is fired?
Lock ring.
Split latch.
Safety block.
Detonator safety latch.
Submit
59.
The FMU–54-series tail fuzes are used in
Laser-guided bomb series.
BLU–109/B-series guided bombs.
MK80- and M-series general-purpose bombs with conical fins.
MK80-series general-purpose bombs with an air inflatable retarder.
Submit
60.
What do we mean when we say the 105 millimeter (mm) is "fixed" ammunition?
It must be fired as a single shot round.
The propellant charge is not adjustable.
Its application is limited to one purpose.
The projectile can be fired from only one cannon.
Submit
61.
What are the two types of impulse cartridges?
Electric and gas.
Explosive and gas.
Percussion and electric.
Explosive and non-explosive.
Submit
62.
Approximately how many fragments will the high fragmentation PGU–45/B projectile produce?
300.
1,300.
3,300.
13,000.
Submit
63.
What are the detonation products?
Deflagration and spontaneous ignition.
Spontaneous ignition, heat, and light.
Heat, light, gases, and pressure.
Volatility and deflagration.
Submit
64.
How is the A/P25S–5A distress signal kit ignited?
Electric igniter.
Percussion primer.
Electric stab firing pin
Nonelectric stab firing pin.
Submit
65.
Which sensor is a radio-frequency radar ranging system used with the suspension utility unit (SUU)–64/B, SUU–65/B, and SUU–66/B dispensers?
FZU–39/B.
FMU–56/B.
FMU–110/B.
FMU–124/B.
Submit
66.
What is the total number of rounds can the MK1 ammunition box hold?
36.
24.
20.
16.
Submit
67.
What type of explosive filler does an M26 fragmentation grenade have?
Composition B.
Composition C.
Black powder.
Cyclonite (RDX).
Submit
68.
What type of bomb is the BLU–113?
2,000-pound general-purpose bomb.
2,000-pound penetrator bomb.
4,000-pound general-purpose bomb.
4,000-pound penetrator bomb.
Submit
69.
What type of explosive is loaded in the projectile of the 105 millimeter (mm) highexplosive round?
Comp B.
Comp C.
Cyclonite (RDX).
Pentaerythritol Tetranitrate PETN.
Submit
70.
How many lot numbers can you expect to find on a 30 millimeter (mm) round of ammunition?
Four.
Three.
Two.
One.
Submit
71.
What output does the LUU–5/B target marker produce?
Red light.
Green light.
White light.
Yellow light.
Submit
72.
What air inflatable retarder (AIR) is used on the MK84 bomb?
BSU–49/B.
BSU–50/B.
BSU–92.
BSU–93/B.
Submit
73.
What is the factory set height of burst (HOB) for the FMU–160/B fuze to optimize lethality?
15-foot.
30-foot.
32-foot.
42-foot.
Submit
74.
Which chemical filler is used in the AN–M8 smoke grenade?
Chloroacetophenone.
Hexachloroethane
White phosphorus.
Composition B.
Submit
75.
What aircraft cannon fires the 25 millimeter (mm) round?
GAU–2.
GAU–8.
GAU–12.
GAU–18.
Submit
76.
When 25 millimeter (mm) ammunition is bulk-packed, how many rounds you expect to find in a CNU–405 container?
80 or 100.
150 or 175.
200 or 250.
275 or 300.
Submit
77.
The gas pressure produced by the impulse in an SUU–25 ejects the flare at a speed of approximately
50 feet per second.
60 feet per second
65 feet per second.
75 feet per second.
Submit
78.
What bomb is filled a thermobaric explosive?
BLU–113.
BLU–118.
BLU–122.
BLU–126.
Submit
79.
What are removers designed to do?
Remove obstacles from the ejecting pilot’s path.
Remove the aircraft seat from the aircraft.
Eject crew members safely.
Eject aircraft canopy.
Submit
80.
What impulse cartridge supplies the gas pressure to launch the flares from the SUU–25E/A dispenser?
ARD 446–1.
ARD 863–1.
MK2 Mod 0.
MK107 Mod 0.
Submit
81.
The BDU–48/B resembles the ballistics of the
MK82 high-drag munition.
MK82 low-drag munition.
M117 high-drag munition.
MK84 low-drag munition.
Submit
82.
How much force is required to function the M14 anti-personnel mine?
5 to 10 pounds.
10 to 15 pounds.
20 to 30 pounds.
20 to 35 pounds.
Submit
83.
What is the weight of the BDU–48 series practice bomb?
10 pounds.
20 pounds.
25 pounds.
45 pounds.
Submit
84.
According to figure 2–48, the cluster bomb unit (CBU)–89A/B with a wind-corrected munitions dispenser kit is converted to a
CBU–104/B.
CBU–104A/B.
CBU–105/B.
CBU–105A/B.
Submit
85.
What provides the electrical power needed to operate the FMU–143 series fuze?
FZU–39/B sensor.
FZU–48/B initiator.
FZU–55 series fuze initiator.
FZU–32 series fuze initiator.
Submit
86.
Which component is part of the ALE–50 series towed decoy system?
Launch initiator.
Launch controller.
Gas grain generator.
Battery-firing device.
Submit
87.
What fuze is used in 30 (mm) high-explosive incendiary ammunition?
M505.
M505A1.
M505A2.
M505A3.
Submit
88.
Which impulse cartridge does the RR–170 chaff cartridge use?
BBU–35/B.
BBU–36/B.
BBU–45/B.
BBU–46/B.
Submit
89.
What effects do the booby-trap simulators provide?
Flash, smoke, and a whistling sound.
Flash, illumination, and a whistling sound.
Flash, illumination, and an explosive sound.
Smoke, illumination, and an explosive sound
Submit
90.
What suspension utility unit (SUU) does the PDU–5/B utilize?
SUU–64/B.
SUU–65/B.
SUU–66/B.
SUU–76C/B.
Submit
91.
Which fin provides a high-drag, low-altitude bombing capability for the M117 bomb?
BSU–50/B.
BSU–49/B.
BSU–93/B.
MAU–103.
Submit
92.
The BLU–126/B is identical to the
M117, 750-pound bomb.
MK82, 500-pound bomb.
MK84, 2,000-pound bomb.
BLU–109, 2,000-pound bomb.
Submit
93.
Which suspension utility unit (SUU) dispenser does the CBU–97 cluster bomb use?
SUU–66.
SUU–65.
SUU–64.
SUU–30.
Submit
94.
In an electronically timed fuze, what component replaces the arming vanes used in mechanically timed fuzes?
Battery-firing device.
Arming lanyard assembly.
Electric charging assembly.
Electronically timed sensor.
Submit
95.
Which proximity fuze has a height-of-burst (HOB) setting built into the fuze at the time of manufacture?
FZU–39/B.
FMU–56/B.
FMU–110/B.
FMU–113/B.
Submit
96.
What setting causes the FMU–139A/B fuze to abort and not arm?
“LOW-DRAG ARM TIME” knob set to the “X” position.
“HIGH-DRAG ARM TIME” knob set to the “X” position.
“LOW-DRAG ARM TIME” knob set to other than the “X” position.
“HIGH-DRAG ARM TIME” knob set to other than the “X” position.
Submit
97.
According to figure 2–48, the CBU–103/B is converted to a wind-corrected munitions dispenser (WCMD) from what cluster bomb unit (CBU)?
CBU–87/B.
CBU–87A/B.
CBU–87B/B.
CBU–87C/B.
Submit
98.
Which impulse cartridge initiates the MJU–7/B flare?
BBU–35/B.
BBU–36/B.
BBU–46/B.
BBU–47/B.
Submit
99.
Which bomb is not classified as a penetrator?
BLU–113.
BLU–118.
BLU–122.
BLU–126.
Submit
100.
What bomb is used as the warhead in the GBU–28C/B?
BLU–113.
BLU–118.
BLU–122.
BLU–126.
Submit
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All (100)
Unanswered (
)
Answered (
)
What is a requirement for military explosives ?
Name two types of effects for signals.
What is the largest caliber ammunition that we classify as "small...
What are the components of a typical small-arms cartridge?
For what purpose do we use a shaped charge?
What hazard is involved in using blank ammunition?
What substance is the M112 demo block made of?
What does HOF stand for on the FZU–39/B proximity sensor?
What is the M129 bomb used for?
What major aircraft systems carry countermeasure flares?
The four factors that control the visibility of pyrotechnics are...
What shotgun round is the exception to the gauging principle?
The main types of fuze actions are impact, time, and
The identifying information on a 20 millimeter (mm) round of...
Volatility is the tendency of a substance to produce
The tendency of a substance to burn with a rapid and sparkling...
Where is a proximity fuze placed on the bomb?
Where are proximity sensors/fuzes installed on a bomb?
What is the purpose of the 30 millimeter (mm) dummy ammunition?
What adapter booster is used with the M904 fuze?
With electrical fuzes, what device is used in place of arming wire?
The LUU–2 series aircraft flare produces
What pyrotechnic effect is produced by the AN–MK13 signal?
What will not cause the electric primer in 20 millimeter (mm)...
How can you increase the penetration effect of a shaped charge?
How do we classify 20 millimeter (mm) ammunition?
What M505-series fuze safety feature prevents accidental arming during...
How far in front of an M18A1 mine do we consider inside the danger...
What device is used to initiate time fuse?
The design of which safety feature is to prevent movement of the...
Which part of the target practice 20 millimeter (mm) round is inert?
Name the components of a 40 millimeter (mm) round.
What are the components of the 105 millimeter (mm) round?
What are initiators designed to do?
What substance is the explosive filler for the M30 practice grenade?
What material is the 30 millimeter (mm) cartridge case made of?
What mortar can be broken down into several smaller loads for easier...
What component is used to adapt a nose fuze for an M-series bomb?
What is one significant difference in 20 millimeter (mm) ammunition...
Which mine do we commonly call the "claymore"?
The major physical difference between the CBU–87/B and the...
What are catapults used for?
The rate of transformation for high explosives is between
How do we classify explosive train primers?
How much light does the M127A1 signal produce?
What color is the most common for military safety fuze?
How can you tell when an FMU–124A/B fuze is armed?
What is the weight of the BDU–33 series practice bomb?
What does the SD–206 infrared flare do?
Name three classifications of Air Force grenades.
Where in a bomb body is the M905 fuze installed?
What component provides the electrical power needed to operate the...
What is the net explosive weight (NEW) of the BLU–126/B?
How do you set the firing delay times in a mechanically timed M904...
Which submunitions are loaded into a CBU–87 cluster bomb?
How many different types of bomblets are loaded into a single...
Against what types of targets is the CBU–97/B primarily used?
What device holds the ball rotor of the 30 millimeter (mm) M505A3...
The FMU–54-series tail fuzes are used in
What do we mean when we say the 105 millimeter (mm) is "fixed"...
What are the two types of impulse cartridges?
Approximately how many fragments will the high fragmentation...
What are the detonation products?
How is the A/P25S–5A distress signal kit ignited?
Which sensor is a radio-frequency radar ranging system used with the...
What is the total number of rounds can the MK1 ammunition box hold?
What type of explosive filler does an M26 fragmentation grenade have?
What type of bomb is the BLU–113?
What type of explosive is loaded in the projectile of the 105...
How many lot numbers can you expect to find on a 30 millimeter (mm)...
What output does the LUU–5/B target marker produce?
What air inflatable retarder (AIR) is used on the MK84 bomb?
What is the factory set height of burst (HOB) for the FMU–160/B...
Which chemical filler is used in the AN–M8 smoke grenade?
What aircraft cannon fires the 25 millimeter (mm) round?
When 25 millimeter (mm) ammunition is bulk-packed, how many rounds you...
The gas pressure produced by the impulse in an SUU–25 ejects the...
What bomb is filled a thermobaric explosive?
What are removers designed to do?
What impulse cartridge supplies the gas pressure to launch the flares...
The BDU–48/B resembles the ballistics of the
How much force is required to function the M14 anti-personnel mine?
What is the weight of the BDU–48 series practice bomb?
According to figure 2–48, the cluster bomb unit...
What provides the electrical power needed to operate the FMU–143...
Which component is part of the ALE–50 series towed decoy system?
What fuze is used in 30 (mm) high-explosive incendiary ammunition?
Which impulse cartridge does the RR–170 chaff cartridge use?
What effects do the booby-trap simulators provide?
What suspension utility unit (SUU) does the PDU–5/B utilize?
Which fin provides a high-drag, low-altitude bombing capability for...
The BLU–126/B is identical to the
Which suspension utility unit (SUU) dispenser does the CBU–97...
In an electronically timed fuze, what component replaces the arming...
Which proximity fuze has a height-of-burst (HOB) setting built into...
What setting causes the FMU–139A/B fuze to abort and not arm?
According to figure 2–48, the CBU–103/B is converted to a...
Which impulse cartridge initiates the MJU–7/B flare?
Which bomb is not classified as a penetrator?
What bomb is used as the warhead in the GBU–28C/B?
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