2s071 Volume 1 DLM

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| By Dmcclelland

Dmcclelland

Community Contributor

Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 376

Questions: 50 | Attempts: 326 | Updated: Mar 21, 2023

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Questions and Answers

1.

What unit type code (UTC) provides mobility support and when required by the Expeditionary Theater Distribution Center (ETDC) augmentation to the combat supply activity at a main operation base (MOB)/forward operation site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL)?
- A.
  
  JFBDC - Deploy Computer Operations Support
- B.
  
  JFBMR - Superintendent Material Receiving
- C.
  
  JFBCW - Superintendent Mobility Support
- D.
  
  JFBMM - Material Control
Correct Answer
C. JFBCW - Superintendent Mobility Support

Explanation
The unit type code JFBCW - Superintendent Mobility Support provides mobility support when required by the Expeditionary Theater Distribution Center (ETDC) augmentation to the combat supply activity at a main operation base (MOB)/forward operation site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL).

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2.

What unit type code (UTC) provides supply expertise during initial beddown at a main operating base (MOB)/forward operation site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL)?
- A.
  
  JFBDC - Deploy Computer Operations Support
- B.
  
  JFBMR - Superintendent Material Receiving
- C.
  
  JFBCW - Superintendent Mobility Support
- D.
  
  JFBFM - Initial Supply Beddown Package
Correct Answer
D. JFBFM - Initial Supply Beddown Package

Explanation
The correct answer is JFBFM - Initial Supply Beddown Package. This unit type code provides supply expertise during the initial beddown at a main operating base (MOB), forward operation site (FOS), or cooperative security location (CSL). This means that they are responsible for coordinating and managing the initial supply of resources and materials needed for the establishment and operation of these sites.

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3.

What unit type code (UTC) provides material management support to accountable officers, responsible officers, and responsible persons, in the control and accountability of class IX and class VII at a main operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL)?
- A.
  
  JFBME - Superintendent Material Mgt Equipment
- B.
  
  JFBDC - Deploy Computer Operations Support
- C.
  
  JFBMR - Superintendent Material Receiving
- D.
  
  JFBCW - Superintendent Mobility Support
Correct Answer
A. JFBME - Superintendent Material Mgt Equipment

Explanation
The correct answer, JFBME - Superintendent Material Mgt Equipment, provides material management support to accountable officers, responsible officers, and responsible persons in the control and accountability of class IX and class VII at a main operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL). This unit type code is specifically responsible for managing and maintaining the equipment used for material management, ensuring that it is properly accounted for and controlled.

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4.

What unit type code (UTC) monitors the overall maintenance and supply interface and resolves supply support problems?
- A.
  
  JFBDC - Deploy Computer Operations Support
- B.
  
  JFBCW - Superintendent Mobility Support
- C.
  
  JFBSL - Maintenance Supply Liaison
- D.
  
  JFBMM - Material Control
Correct Answer
C. JFBSL - Maintenance Supply Liaison

Explanation
The correct answer is JFBSL - Maintenance Supply Liaison. This unit type code (UTC) is responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance and supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a liaison between the maintenance and supply departments, ensuring that the necessary materials and resources are available for maintenance operations.

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5.

When does the selection panel convene which is chaired by the 2S career field manager (CFM)?
- A.
  
  August/September
- B.
  
  July/August
- C.
  
  June/July
- D.
  
  May/June
Correct Answer
D. May/June

Explanation
The selection panel convenes in May/June and is chaired by the 2S career field manager (CFM). This suggests that during this time, the CFM is responsible for leading the panel in the selection process.

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6.

Who notifies the individual by message not later than 30 days after selection?
- A.
  
  Head Quarters Air Force Personnel Center Material Management Functional manager (HQ AFPC/DPAA)
- B.
  
  Air Force Material Command (AFMC) Air Logistics Center (ALC)
- C.
  
  Head Quarters United States Air Force (AHQ USAF)/A4R
- D.
  
  Major Command (MAJCOM)/A4R
Correct Answer
C. Head Quarters United States Air Force (AHQ USAF)/A4R

Explanation
The Head Quarters United States Air Force (AHQ USAF)/A4R notifies the individual by message not later than 30 days after selection.

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7.

What flight is responsible for the centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property?
- A.
  
  Squadron superintendent
- B.
  
  Vehicle management flight
- C.
  
  Material Management flight
- D.
  
  Deployment and distribution flight
Correct Answer
D. Deployment and distribution flight

Explanation
The deployment and distribution flight is responsible for the centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property. This flight ensures that all resources and personnel are efficiently deployed and distributed to their designated locations, allowing for smooth and organized operations during wing deployment.

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8.

Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) flight is the primary liaison between customers and the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC)?
- A.
  
  Fuels Management Flight
- B.
  
  Vehicle Management Flight
- C.
  
  Material Management Flight
- D.
  
  Deployment and Distribution Flight
Correct Answer
C. Material Management Flight

Explanation
The Material Management Flight is the primary liaison between customers and the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC). This flight is responsible for managing and coordinating the flow of materials, supplies, and equipment to meet customer requirements. They work closely with customers to ensure timely delivery and proper inventory management.

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9.

Who is responsible for the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) unit control center (UCC) and also maintains the squadron's recall roster?
- A.
  
  Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Mobility Support
- B.
  
  Material Management Flight
- C.
  
  Squadron Readiness
- D.
  
  Logistics Manager
Correct Answer
C. Squadron Readiness

Explanation
Squadron Readiness is responsible for the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) unit control center (UCC) and also maintains the squadron's recall roster. This indicates that the Squadron Readiness team is in charge of managing and coordinating the operations and readiness of the LRS unit. They are responsible for ensuring that the unit is prepared for any potential recall or deployment, and they maintain the necessary records and information to facilitate this process.

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10.

Who serves as the material management liaison and equipment accountability authority for wing customers?
- A.
  
  Logistics readiness Squadron (LRS) Mobility Support
- B.
  
  Customer Support Section
- C.
  
  Squadron Readiness
- D.
  
  Logistics Manager
Correct Answer
B. Customer Support Section

Explanation
The Customer Support Section serves as the material management liaison and equipment accountability authority for wing customers. They are responsible for managing and coordinating the procurement, storage, and distribution of materials and equipment to meet the needs of the customers. They ensure that the customers have access to the necessary resources and are accountable for the proper use and maintenance of the equipment.

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11.

Who is responsible for providing supply support to maintenance activities?
- A.
  
  Logistics Readiness Squadron Commander (LRS/CC)
- B.
  
  Maintenance Supply Liaison
- C.
  
  Maintenance Officer
- D.
  
  Operations Officer
Correct Answer
A. Logistics Readiness Squadron Commander (LRS/CC)

Explanation
The Logistics Readiness Squadron Commander (LRS/CC) is responsible for providing supply support to maintenance activities. They oversee the logistics operations and ensure that the necessary supplies and resources are available for maintenance activities to be carried out effectively. This includes coordinating with maintenance personnel, managing inventory, and ensuring timely delivery of supplies.

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12.

Who coordinates maintenance and supply actions, manage supply transactions for their assigned maintenance activity, manage the production of assets in the repair cycle, resolve supply support problems and report aircraft part status to maintenance supervision?
- A.
  
  Maintenance officer
- B.
  
  Maintenance personnel
- C.
  
  Decentralized supply support personnel
- D.
  
  Logistics Readiness Squadron Commander (LRS/CC)
Correct Answer
C. Decentralized supply support personnel

Explanation
Decentralized supply support personnel are responsible for coordinating maintenance and supply actions, managing supply transactions for their assigned maintenance activity, managing the production of assets in the repair cycle, resolving supply support problems, and reporting aircraft part status to maintenance supervision. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the necessary supplies and equipment are available for maintenance activities and that any issues or problems are addressed promptly.

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13.

What is the central process driven initiative designed to ensure the success of the Expeditionary Logistics for the 21st Century (eLog21) campaign?
- A.
  
  Supply Chain Operation (SCO)
- B.
  
  Supply Chain Management (SCM)
- C.
  
  Air Force Material Command (AFMC)
- D.
  
  Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC)
Correct Answer
D. Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC)

Explanation
The central process driven initiative designed to ensure the success of the Expeditionary Logistics for the 21st Century (eLog21) campaign is the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC). This center is responsible for managing and coordinating the logistics operations of the Air Force, including supply chain management and support for expeditionary missions. It plays a critical role in ensuring the efficient and effective delivery of logistics support to the Air Force's global operations.

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14.

How many functions does the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC) perform?
- A.
  
  1
- B.
  
  2
- C.
  
  3
- D.
  
  4
Correct Answer
C. 3

Explanation
The Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC) performs three functions. This suggests that the AFGLSC is involved in multiple tasks or roles within the Air Force, indicating its importance and scope of responsibilities.

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15.

How many primary organizations comprise the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC)?
- A.
  
  1
- B.
  
  2
- C.
  
  3
- D.
  
  4
Correct Answer
C. 3

Explanation
The Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC) is comprised of three primary organizations. These organizations work together to provide logistics support to the Air Force.

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16.

What Air Force manual (AFMAN) governs Material Management?
- A.
  
  36-123, Supply Manual
- B.
  
  23-110, USAF Supply Manual
- C.
  
  36-2108, Enlisted Classification
- D.
  
  23-2308, Material Classification
Correct Answer
B. 23-110, USAF Supply Manual

Explanation
The correct answer is 23-110, USAF Supply Manual. This manual governs Material Management in the Air Force. It provides guidance and procedures for managing and controlling the supply of materials, ensuring that they are properly stored, distributed, and accounted for. It covers various aspects of material management, including inventory control, procurement, and disposal.

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17.

How often is the Air Force manual (AFMAN) 23-110, USAF Supply Manual, published?
- A.
  
  Annually
- B.
  
  Semi-annually
- C.
  
  Quarterly
- D.
  
  Monthly
Correct Answer
C. Quarterly

Explanation
The Air Force manual (AFMAN) 23-110, USAF Supply Manual, is published on a quarterly basis. This means that it is released every three months. This regular publication schedule ensures that the manual is kept up to date with any changes or updates in supply procedures and regulations within the Air Force. Publishing the manual quarterly allows for timely dissemination of information and helps to ensure that all personnel have access to the most current and accurate guidance for supply operations.

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18.

What are provided for each volume, part and chapter of Air Force manual (AFMAN) 23-110, USAF Supply Manual?
- A.
  
  Table of contents
- B.
  
  Search Tools
- C.
  
  Hyperlinks
- D.
  
  Find Tools
Correct Answer
A. Table of contents

Explanation
The table of contents is provided for each volume, part, and chapter of Air Force manual (AFMAN) 23-110, USAF Supply Manual. This allows users to easily navigate through the manual and locate specific information they are looking for. The table of contents provides an overview of the different sections and topics covered in the manual, making it easier for users to find the relevant information they need.

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19.

Which record retrieval code is used to obtain inquiry input on the repair cycle data?
- A.
  
  2
- B.
  
  3
- C.
  
  4
- D.
  
  5
Correct Answer
D. 5

Explanation
Record retrieval code 5 is used to obtain inquiry input on the repair cycle data. This code specifically retrieves information related to the repair cycle, allowing users to inquire about the status, progress, or any other relevant data regarding repairs.

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20.

What is an Air Mobility Command air transportations system that supports fixed, deployed, and mobile sites?
- A.
  
  Global transportation Network (GTN)
- B.
  
  Global Decision Support System (GDSS)
- C.
  
  Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS)
- D.
  
  Global Air Transportation execution System (GATES)
Correct Answer
D. Global Air Transportation execution System (GATES)

Explanation
The correct answer is Global Air Transportation execution System (GATES). GATES is an Air Mobility Command air transportation system that supports fixed, deployed, and mobile sites. It is responsible for coordinating and managing the global movement of personnel and cargo for the military. GATES ensures efficient and timely transportation of resources to various locations around the world, enabling the Air Mobility Command to fulfill its mission of providing rapid global mobility.

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21.

What is the Air Mobility Command's (AMC) force level command and control (C2) system supporting Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) execution authority for effective airlift mission management?
- A.
  
  Global Transportation Network (GTN)
- B.
  
  Global Decision Support System (GDSS)
- C.
  
  Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS)
- D.
  
  Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)
Correct Answer
B. Global Decision Support System (GDSS)

Explanation
The Air Mobility Command's (AMC) force level command and control (C2) system supporting Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) execution authority for effective airlift mission management is the Global Decision Support System (GDSS). GDSS provides real-time situational awareness, planning, and decision support capabilities for AMC's airlift operations. It helps in coordinating and managing the movement of personnel and cargo, optimizing mission planning, and ensuring efficient execution of airlift missions. GDSS enables effective communication and collaboration among various stakeholders involved in airlift operations, facilitating seamless coordination and enhancing mission effectiveness.

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22.

What is an automated logistics decision support tool which predicts the combat Capabilities of tactical, strategic, and airlift weapon systems for a given set of operations plans, logistics assets and logistics performance factors?
- A.
  
  Sustainability Assessment Module (SAM)
- B.
  
  Weapon System Management Information System (WSMIS)
- C.
  
  Requirement/Execution Availability Logistics Module (REALM)
- D.
  
  Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System (EXPRESS)
Correct Answer
A. Sustainability Assessment Module (SAM)

Explanation
The correct answer is Sustainability Assessment Module (SAM). This tool is an automated logistics decision support tool that predicts the combat capabilities of tactical, strategic, and airlift weapon systems based on a given set of operations plans, logistics assets, and logistics performance factors. It helps in assessing the sustainability and effectiveness of weapon systems in combat scenarios, allowing for better decision-making and resource allocation in logistics operations.

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23.

What provides the capability to compute whole engine requirements for the maintenance community?
- A.
  
  TRACKER
- B.
  
  Propulsion Requirements System (PRS)
- C.
  
  Weapon System Management Information System (WSMIS)
- D.
  
  Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System (EXPRESS)
Correct Answer
B. Propulsion Requirements System (PRS)

Explanation
The correct answer is Propulsion Requirements System (PRS). The PRS provides the capability to compute whole engine requirements for the maintenance community. It is a system specifically designed to manage and track the maintenance and repair needs of propulsion systems. It helps in determining the necessary resources, parts, and manpower required for the maintenance and repair of engines. By using the PRS, the maintenance community can effectively plan and prioritize their tasks, ensuring that the engines are properly maintained and serviced.

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24.

Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problems include system loops, lost audit trails, and incorrect accountable record updating?
- A.
  
  I
- B.
  
  II
- C.
  
  III
- D.
  
  IV
Correct Answer
A. I

Explanation
Category I is assigned when problems include system loops, lost audit trails, and incorrect accountable record updating. This category indicates the highest level of difficulty and severity of the reported issues.

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25.

Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problem stops the computer from processing input, but it does not cause looping or destroy accountable records?
- A.
  
  I
- B.
  
  II
- C.
  
  III
- D.
  
  IV
Correct Answer
B. II

Explanation
Category II is assigned when a problem stops the computer from processing input, but it does not cause looping or destroy accountable records. This means that the problem is severe enough to interrupt the normal functioning of the computer, but it does not cause any permanent damage or loss of data.

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26.

A category III difficulty report (DIREP) does not stop processing and is corrected
- A.
  
  Over the telephone with the material management system control center
- B.
  
  On an Air Force suggestion form
- C.
  
  In the next scheduled release
- D.
  
  As workload permits
Correct Answer
C. In the next scheduled release

Explanation
The correct answer suggests that a category III difficulty report (DIREP) does not halt the processing and is instead addressed in the next scheduled release. This means that the report is not considered urgent or critical enough to be immediately corrected. Instead, it will be addressed and resolved during the next planned release or update of the system.

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27.

How often are surveillance visits to all material management functions scheduled?
- A.
  
  Monthly
- B.
  
  Quarterly
- C.
  
  Semiannually
- D.
  
  Annually
Correct Answer
D. Annually

Explanation
Surveillance visits to all material management functions are scheduled annually. This means that these visits occur once a year. During these visits, the material management functions are monitored and evaluated to ensure that they are operating efficiently and effectively. This frequency allows for regular assessments and adjustments to be made, while still providing enough time for any necessary improvements to be implemented before the next visit.

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28.

Which is a basic ground rule for conduction a surveillance visit to an accountable officer function?
- A.
  
  Check in and out with flight chief
- B.
  
  Submit a written report within 15 workdays of the exit briefing
- C.
  
  Follow the standard Air Force directive for conducting such a visit
- D.
  
  Bypass areas that have not had deficiencies within the past three years
Correct Answer
A. Check in and out with flight chief

Explanation
When conducting a surveillance visit to an accountable officer function, it is important to check in and out with the flight chief. This ensures that the visit is properly documented and that the accountable officer is aware of the visit. Checking in and out with the flight chief also allows for coordination and communication throughout the visit, ensuring that any necessary information or assistance can be provided. This step helps to maintain accountability and transparency during the surveillance visit.

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29.

If you find deficiencies during a surveillance visit to a function, you must furnish a detailed written report to the flight chief within
- A.
  
  15 days after checking in
- B.
  
  Five days after checking in
- C.
  
  15 workdays after the exit briefing
- D.
  
  Five workdays after the exit briefing
Correct Answer
D. Five workdays after the exit briefing

Explanation
After conducting a surveillance visit to a function, it is necessary to provide a detailed written report to the flight chief within five workdays after the exit briefing. This timeframe allows for a prompt evaluation and assessment of the deficiencies observed during the visit, ensuring that corrective actions can be taken in a timely manner. The report serves as a formal record of the findings and recommendations, enabling the flight chief to address any issues identified and implement necessary improvements promptly.

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30.

A function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply within how many days of the date on the surveillance report?
- A.
  
  7
- B.
  
  10
- C.
  
  15
- D.
  
  30
Correct Answer
C. 15

Explanation
The function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply within 15 days of the date on the surveillance report. This time frame allows for a reasonable amount of time to review the report and provide a timely response. Waiting longer than 15 days may result in delays and potential issues with addressing any concerns or issues raised in the report.

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31.

Who is the primary point of contact (POC) for special topics designated by the material management officer or Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander?
- A.
  
  Procedures element
- B.
  
  Customer service
- C.
  
  Computer operations
- D.
  
  Receiving section
Correct Answer
A. Procedures element

Explanation
The Procedures element is the primary point of contact (POC) for special topics designated by the material management officer or Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander. They are responsible for ensuring that all procedures and protocols related to special topics are followed and implemented correctly. They act as a liaison between the material management officer or LRS commander and other departments or individuals involved in the special topics. They provide guidance, support, and coordination to ensure smooth execution of the designated tasks.

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32.

An effective analysis program must be based on
- A.
  
  Mission requirements
- B.
  
  Management seminars
- C.
  
  Organizational objectives
- D.
  
  The analysis of operating instructions
Correct Answer
C. Organizational objectives

Explanation
An effective analysis program must be based on organizational objectives because these objectives provide the overall direction and purpose for the organization. By aligning the analysis program with the organizational objectives, it ensures that the analysis efforts are focused on areas that are important and relevant to the organization's success. This helps in identifying and addressing any gaps or issues that may hinder the achievement of these objectives, and allows for the development of strategies and actions that are in line with the organization's goals. Additionally, basing the analysis program on organizational objectives helps in measuring the effectiveness and impact of the program in contributing towards the desired outcomes.

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33.

Experience and standards data are factors used in which type of analysis?
- A.
  
  Trend
- B.
  
  Problem
- C.
  
  Important
- D.
  
  Performance
Correct Answer
A. Trend

Explanation
Experience and standards data are factors used in trend analysis. Trend analysis involves examining historical data to identify patterns or trends over time. By analyzing experience and standards data, one can identify and understand the direction and magnitude of changes in a particular variable or phenomenon. This analysis helps in making predictions and forecasting future outcomes based on past trends.

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34.

A basic ingredient of any analysis program is
- A.
  
  Charts
- B.
  
  Opinions
- C.
  
  A database
- D.
  
  Reliable and valid data
Correct Answer
D. Reliable and valid data

Explanation
A basic ingredient of any analysis program is reliable and valid data because without accurate and trustworthy information, any analysis conducted would be flawed and unreliable. Charts, opinions, and a database may be helpful in the analysis process, but they are not sufficient on their own. It is crucial to have data that is both reliable, meaning it is accurate and consistent, and valid, meaning it measures what it is intended to measure. Only with reliable and valid data can an analysis program provide meaningful insights and make informed decisions.

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35.

You should request "as required" computer products by using the
- A.
  
  AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request
- B.
  
  AF Form 20115, Issue/Turn-in Request
- C.
  
  DD Form 1530, Supply Request
- D.
  
  Telephone or message only
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request

Explanation
The correct answer is AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request. This form is specifically designed for requesting computer products as required. It is the appropriate document to use when requesting such items from the base supply. The other options, AF Form 20115, Issue/Turn-in Request, and DD Form 1530, Supply Request, do not specifically mention computer products and may not be suitable for this purpose. Additionally, the option of requesting by telephone or message only may not provide the necessary documentation and accountability for the request.

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36.

What forms can management indicators take?
- A.
  
  Subjective and informational
- B.
  
  Informational and available
- C.
  
  Quantitative and qualitative
- D.
  
  Available or subjective
Correct Answer
C. Quantitative and qualitative

Explanation
Management indicators can take the form of both quantitative and qualitative measures. Quantitative indicators are numerical and measurable, such as financial data or performance metrics. They provide objective and quantifiable information about the organization's performance. On the other hand, qualitative indicators are descriptive and subjective, focusing on the quality or characteristics of a process or outcome. They provide a more holistic and nuanced understanding of the organization's performance. By utilizing both quantitative and qualitative indicators, management can gain a comprehensive view of various aspects of the organization's operations and make informed decisions.

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37.

Stockage effectiveness is the basic measure of
- A.
  
  Issue effectiveness
- B.
  
  Supply support to the customer
- C.
  
  Supply support to the contractor
- D.
  
  How often an item was requested
Correct Answer
B. Supply support to the customer

Explanation
Stockage effectiveness is the basic measure of supply support to the customer. This means that it is a way to assess how well the supply chain is able to meet the needs and demands of the customer. It evaluates the efficiency and effectiveness of storing and delivering the necessary items to the customer in a timely manner. By measuring stockage effectiveness, organizations can identify any gaps or areas for improvement in their supply support to ensure that the customer's requirements are met satisfactorily.

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38.

How is a decision normally made on whether to give a customer a refund for the turn-in of property?
- A.
  
  Automatically by the automated general support operating program (AGSOP)
- B.
  
  Automatically under the Material Management System program control
- C.
  
  Externally by the accountable officer
- D.
  
  Externally by the flight chief
Correct Answer
B. Automatically under the Material Management System program control

Explanation
A decision on whether to give a customer a refund for the turn-in of property is normally made automatically under the Material Management System program control. This suggests that the refund process is automated and follows certain criteria set within the program. The system likely evaluates factors such as the condition of the property, any applicable warranties or return policies, and other relevant information to determine if a refund should be granted. This automation helps ensure consistency and efficiency in the refund process.

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39.

What product does the Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG) manager use to review non-reimbursable issues from the SMAG?
- A.
  
  R01
- B.
  
  Q07
- C.
  
  D18
- D.
  
  D20
Correct Answer
D. D20

Explanation
The SMAG manager uses D20 to review non-reimbursable issues from the SMAG.

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40.

Who must approve the use of credit code "Y" in the material management system program control before processing a stock fund turn-in?
- A.
  
  Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG) manager
- B.
  
  Maintenance or supply inspector
- C.
  
  Division SMAG officer
- D.
  
  Accounting and finance
Correct Answer
A. Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG) manager

Explanation
The correct answer is the Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG) manager. This individual is responsible for approving the use of credit code "Y" in the material management system program control before processing a stock fund turn-in.

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41.

Who will be held liable for the loss, damage, or destruction of government property caused by negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use?
- A.
  
  Logistics readiness Squadron/Commander (LRS/CC)
- B.
  
  All Air Force member and employees
- C.
  
  Management and systems flight
- D.
  
  Maintenance officer
Correct Answer
B. All Air Force member and employees

Explanation
All Air Force members and employees will be held liable for the loss, damage, or destruction of government property caused by negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use. This means that anyone working in the Air Force, regardless of their specific role or position, can be held accountable for any harm caused to government property due to their actions or lack of action. It emphasizes the importance of responsible behavior and careful handling of government assets by all personnel.

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42.

What can be assessed if it appears that an individual's actions, or failure to act, constituted negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use?
- A.
  
  Letter of counseling
- B.
  
  Financial liability
- C.
  
  Letter of reprimand
- D.
  
  Fine
Correct Answer
B. Financial liability

Explanation
If it appears that an individual's actions or failure to act constituted negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use, the individual may be assessed with financial liability. This means that they may be held responsible for any financial damages or losses that resulted from their actions. This could include having to pay for repairs, replacements, or compensation to affected parties. Financial liability serves as a consequence for their actions and emphasizes the importance of acting responsibly and within the boundaries of authorized use.

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43.

Where all of the suspense files of the Supply Discrepancy Reports (SDR) kept?
- A.
  
  Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)
- B.
  
  Stock Control
- C.
  
  Receiving
- D.
  
  Inspection
Correct Answer
B. Stock Control

Explanation
The correct answer is Stock Control. In the context of Supply Discrepancy Reports (SDR), the suspense files are kept in the Stock Control department. This department is responsible for managing and controlling the inventory of supplies and materials. By keeping the suspense files in Stock Control, it ensures that any discrepancies or issues with the supply can be properly tracked, investigated, and resolved.

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44.

Who is responsible for evaluating and controlling all incoming Supply Discrepancy Reports (SDR) from activities that receive discrepant shipments from your material management account?
- A.
  
  Procedures
- B.
  
  Stock Control
- C.
  
  Receiving
- D.
  
  Inspection
Correct Answer
A. Procedures

Explanation
Procedures are responsible for evaluating and controlling all incoming Supply Discrepancy Reports (SDR) from activities that receive discrepant shipments from your material management account. This means that there are specific procedures in place to handle and address any discrepancies in the supply chain. These procedures ensure that the appropriate actions are taken to resolve any issues and maintain the integrity of the material management account.

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45.

What system prepares data reports for off-base distribution?
- A.
  
  Automated Data Reports Submission System (ADRSS)
- B.
  
  Supply Interface System (SIFS)
- C.
  
  ADRSS II
- D.
  
  User
Correct Answer
A. Automated Data Reports Submission System (ADRSS)

Explanation
The correct answer is Automated Data Reports Submission System (ADRSS). ADRSS is a system that is specifically designed to prepare data reports for off-base distribution. It automates the process of submitting and distributing data reports, making it more efficient and accurate. This system ensures that the reports are generated and delivered to the appropriate recipients in a timely manner, saving time and resources. It eliminates the need for manual preparation and distribution of reports, reducing the chances of errors or delays. ADRSS streamlines the entire process, making it the ideal system for preparing data reports for off-base distribution.

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46.

Who must review the residue portion of the supply interface system end-of-day report to ensure users clear residue images in a timely manner?
- A.
  
  Accountable officer
- B.
  
  Individual flight chiefs
- C.
  
  Procedures and accountability
- D.
  
  Management and system officer
Correct Answer
C. Procedures and accountability

Explanation
The residue portion of the supply interface system end-of-day report needs to be reviewed by the Procedures and Accountability department to ensure that users clear residue images in a timely manner. This department is responsible for establishing and enforcing procedures related to the supply interface system and ensuring that users are accountable for their actions. The accountable officer, individual flight chiefs, and management and system officer may have other responsibilities, but they are not specifically mentioned in relation to reviewing the residue portion of the report.

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47.

Who maintains accountability by validating all transactions images have processed?
- A.
  
  Post post control team (PPCT) Chief
- B.
  
  Procedures and Accountability
- C.
  
  Individual flight chiefs
- D.
  
  PPCT member
Correct Answer
A. Post post control team (PPCT) Chief

Explanation
The Post Post Control Team (PPCT) Chief maintains accountability by validating all transaction images that have been processed. This means that the PPCT Chief is responsible for ensuring that all transactions are accurately recorded and accounted for. They review and verify the processed images to ensure that there are no errors or discrepancies. By doing so, the PPCT Chief ensures that the organization maintains accurate records and can be held accountable for all transactions.

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48.

How often is long term performed?
- A.
  
  Monthly
- B.
  
  Quarterly
- C.
  
  Semiannually
- D.
  
  Annually
Correct Answer
D. Annually

Explanation
Long term is performed annually because it is a strategy or plan that is implemented over a longer period of time, typically a year or more. This allows for a more comprehensive and in-depth analysis of the situation, as well as the ability to make more informed decisions and adjustments. Performing long term activities annually also allows for better tracking and evaluation of progress and outcomes.

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49.

Who may force delete rejects using the reject processor program?
- A.
  
  Accountable officer
- B.
  
  Reject monitors
- C.
  
  Procedures and Analysis
- D.
  
  Management and system officer
Correct Answer
B. Reject monitors

Explanation
Reject monitors may force delete rejects using the reject processor program. This implies that reject monitors have the authority and responsibility to delete rejected items using the reject processor program. They are likely to be trained in using this program and have the necessary permissions to perform such actions. The other options, such as the accountable officer, procedures and analysis, and management and system officer, do not necessarily have the specific role or authority to force delete rejects using the reject processor program.

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50.

What listing shows all rejects cleared by the monitor?
- A.
  
  D818
- B.
  
  D04
- C.
  
  D11
- D.
  
  D20
Correct Answer
D. D20

Explanation
The listing that shows all rejects cleared by the monitor is D20.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

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Current Version
Mar 21, 2023

Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
Oct 29, 2015

Quiz Created by
Dmcclelland

2s071 Volume 1 DLM

What unit type code (UTC) provides mobility support and when required by the Expeditionary Theater Distribution Center (ETDC) augmentation to the combat supply activity at a main operation base (MOB)/forward operation site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL)?

What unit type code (UTC) provides supply expertise during initial beddown at a main operating base (MOB)/forward operation site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL)?

What unit type code (UTC) provides material management support to accountable officers, responsible officers, and responsible persons, in the control and accountability of class IX and class VII at a main operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL)?

What unit type code (UTC) monitors the overall maintenance and supply interface and resolves supply support problems?

When does the selection panel convene which is chaired by the 2S career field manager (CFM)?

Who notifies the individual by message not later than 30 days after selection?

What flight is responsible for the centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property?

Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) flight is the primary liaison between customers and the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC)?

Who is responsible for the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) unit control center (UCC) and also maintains the squadron's recall roster?

Who serves as the material management liaison and equipment accountability authority for wing customers?

Who is responsible for providing supply support to maintenance activities?

Who coordinates maintenance and supply actions, manage supply transactions for their assigned maintenance activity, manage the production of assets in the repair cycle, resolve supply support problems and report aircraft part status to maintenance supervision?

What is the central process driven initiative designed to ensure the success of the Expeditionary Logistics for the 21st Century (eLog21) campaign?

How many functions does the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC) perform?

How many primary organizations comprise the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC)?

What Air Force manual (AFMAN) governs Material Management?

How often is the Air Force manual (AFMAN) 23-110, USAF Supply Manual, published?

What are provided for each volume, part and chapter of Air Force manual (AFMAN) 23-110, USAF Supply Manual?

Which record retrieval code is used to obtain inquiry input on the repair cycle data?

What is an Air Mobility Command air transportations system that supports fixed, deployed, and mobile sites?

What is the Air Mobility Command's (AMC) force level command and control (C2) system supporting Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) execution authority for effective airlift mission management?

What is an automated logistics decision support tool which predicts the combat Capabilities of tactical, strategic, and airlift weapon systems for a given set of operations plans, logistics assets and logistics performance factors?

What provides the capability to compute whole engine requirements for the maintenance community?

Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problems include system loops, lost audit trails, and incorrect accountable record updating?

Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problem stops the computer from processing input, but it does not cause looping or destroy accountable records?

A category III difficulty report (DIREP) does not stop processing and is corrected

How often are surveillance visits to all material management functions scheduled?

Which is a basic ground rule for conduction a surveillance visit to an accountable officer function?

If you find deficiencies during a surveillance visit to a function, you must furnish a detailed written report to the flight chief within

A function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply within how many days of the date on the surveillance report?

Who is the primary point of contact (POC) for special topics designated by the material management officer or Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander?

An effective analysis program must be based on

Experience and standards data are factors used in which type of analysis?

A basic ingredient of any analysis program is

You should request "as required" computer products by using the

What forms can management indicators take?

Stockage effectiveness is the basic measure of

How is a decision normally made on whether to give a customer a refund for the turn-in of property?

What product does the Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG) manager use to review non-reimbursable issues from the SMAG?

Who must approve the use of credit code "Y" in the material management system program control before processing a stock fund turn-in?

Who will be held liable for the loss, damage, or destruction of government property caused by negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use?

What can be assessed if it appears that an individual's actions, or failure to act, constituted negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use?

Where all of the suspense files of the Supply Discrepancy Reports (SDR) kept?

Who is responsible for evaluating and controlling all incoming Supply Discrepancy Reports (SDR) from activities that receive discrepant shipments from your material management account?

What system prepares data reports for off-base distribution?

Who must review the residue portion of the supply interface system end-of-day report to ensure users clear residue images in a timely manner?

Who maintains accountability by validating all transactions images have processed?

How often is long term performed?

Who may force delete rejects using the reject processor program?

What listing shows all rejects cleared by the monitor?