2AX7X Volume 1

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2AX7X Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What program does the MXG/CC manage to ensure standardized inspection and maintenance procedures?
    • A. 

  • 2. 
    What authority is responsible for organizing the nuclear surety council?
    • A. 

  • 3. 
    Which column of the STS defines the "contract with the technical school?"
    • A. 

  • 4. 
    A proficiency code of "2b" in column 4 of the STS indicates task
    • A. 

  • 5. 
    When developing and AF Form 797, you do not list
    • A. 

  • 6. 
    What is the "base" of the JDD Subsystem?
    • A. 

  • 7. 
    What maintenance flight maintains, calibrates, and certifies equipment traceable to the National Institute of Standards and Technology?
    • A. 

      Avionics

    • B. 

      Accessory

    • C. 

      Propulsion

    • D. 

      TMDE

  • 8. 
    Which maintenance section provides hydrazine saftey training?
    • A. 

      Hydraulics

    • B. 

      Fuel systems

    • C. 

      Armament support

    • D. 

      Armamet Maintenance

  • 9. 
    What function allocates maintenance resources to meet mission requierments?
    • A. 

      Expediter

    • B. 

      WG/CC

    • C. 

      Pro Super

    • D. 

      MOC

  • 10. 
    What function is responsible for aerospace equipment maintenance and is required to ensure balance between sortie production and fleet management?
    • A. 

      Expediter

    • B. 

      Flight Chief

    • C. 

      Base CC

    • D. 

      MXG/CC

  • 11. 
    Which senior NCO directs the overall maintenance effort of thier unit
    • A. 

      Flight chief

    • B. 

      First sergeant

    • C. 

      SEA

    • D. 

      Pro Super

  • 12. 
    What function manages the maintenance production effort by assigning priorities to meet the flying and amintenance schedules?
    • A. 

      Expediter

    • B. 

      Techician

    • C. 

      Flight Chief

    • D. 

      Pro Super

  • 13. 
    Who ensures personnel are coded with appropriate SEIs on the UPMR?
    • A. 

      Expediter

    • B. 

      Technician

    • C. 

      Flight Chief

    • D. 

      Pro Super

  • 14. 
    Who is a first-line manager and supervisor of maintenance production and, as such, is the technical authority and advisor in that area?
    • A. 

      Expediter

    • B. 

      Technician

    • C. 

      Flight chief

    • D. 

      Section chief

  • 15. 
    Who ensures TMDE maintenance and calibratin requiermants are met?
    • A. 

      Expediter

    • B. 

      Technician

    • C. 

      Section chief

    • D. 

      Pro Super

  • 16. 
    Who has responsibility for updating the status of CANN actions on assigned aircraft?
    • A. 

      Expediter

    • B. 

      Technician

    • C. 

      Flight chief

    • D. 

      Pro Super

  • 17. 
    Who notifies the MOC when aircraft are ready for ER, flight (crew ready) and crew show, engine start, taxi, block-in, and aircraft configuration?
    • A. 

      Expediter

    • B. 

      Technician

    • C. 

      Flight chief

    • D. 

      Pro Super

  • 18. 
    Before a technician can be assigned as a DCC, the minimum number of months of experience the individual is required to have on the MDS is
    • A. 

      Three

    • B. 

      four

    • C. 

      Five

    • D. 

      Six

  • 19. 
    Who is selected and appointed in a ceremony hosted by the squadron CC, at which the individual is presented with cerificates?
    • A. 

      Expediter

    • B. 

      Technician

    • C. 

      DCC

    • D. 

      Pro Super

  • 20. 
    Who briefs the WG/CC monthly on DCC experience levels/grades and any need to waive requierments?
    • A. 

      MXG/CC

    • B. 

      Pro Super

    • C. 

      SEA

    • D. 

      First sergeant

  • 21. 
    To evaluate and measure the ability of units with wartime, contingency, or force sustainment missions to conduct thier operational missions, the Air Force uses
    • A. 

      CIs

    • B. 

      NSIs

    • C. 

      ORIs

    • D. 

      LNSIs

  • 22. 
    When it comes to a Ci, which numbered-tier grading is usually sufficient to assure adequate oversight of each common core compliance area?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 23. 
    Which IG inspection grading level indicates performance or operatin meets mission requierments?
    • A. 

      Excellent

    • B. 

      Satisfactory

    • C. 

      Marginal

    • D. 

      Unsatisfactory

  • 24. 
    When an issue is pervasive and of major importance Air Force-wide, or when assessing compliance in a specific area of concern, the Air Force uses
    • A. 

      INSIs

    • B. 

      Short-term SIIs

    • C. 

      NSIs

    • D. 

      long-term SIIs

  • 25. 
    In the MPI system, the primary means of transmitting all reports required by ACCI 21-118 is by
    • A. 

      Package

    • B. 

      Postal mail

    • C. 

      Overnight mail

    • D. 

      E-mail

  • 26. 
    For determining resource requierments and budget constraints, the MPI 9302 data reported from your base may impact decisions made by
    • A. 

      Squardron staff

    • B. 

      Wing personnel

    • C. 

      Base command staff

    • D. 

      Congress and the DOD

  • 27. 
    In the MPI program, the Monthly Aircraft Logistics Indicators report is used by intermediate and MAJCOM managers as
    • A. 

      An indicator of aircraft

    • B. 

      a comparsion base of aircraft systems

    • C. 

      An indication of what aircraft is on thier invetory

    • D. 

      The official source document for briefing HQ ACC

  • 28. 
    IAW the MPI OPLANs they are tasked to support, units are required to report on
    • A. 

      All aircraft

    • B. 

      Aircraft spares

    • C. 

      Code 1 aircraft

    • D. 

      Deployed aircraft

  • 29. 
    In the MPI program, each unit's MDSA section should identify in a deployment package the
    • A. 

      Deployment duration

    • B. 

      Analysis charts needed

    • C. 

      Number of deployed individuals

    • D. 

      Equipment and supplies needed for the deployment

  • 30. 
    Prior to each CAF commander's conference, the review process takes place as needed or at least every
    • A. 

      24 months

    • B. 

      36 months

    • C. 

      48 months

    • D. 

      50 months

  • 31. 
    Perhaps the best known yardstick by which we can measure an aircraft maintenance unit is the
    • A. 

      CANN rate

    • B. 

      MC rate

    • C. 

      Aircraft wash schedule

    • D. 

      Phase flow schedule

  • 32. 
    The appropriate landing status code for "Aircraft or system has suspected or known radiological, chemical, or biological contamination" is Code
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 33. 
    Which unit receives, inspects, marshals, and loads cargo for a mobility deployment?
    • A. 

      FC

    • B. 

      HC

    • C. 

      DCC

    • D. 

      CDF

  • 34. 
    Who as overall responsibility for ensuring each installation establishes a local deployment education program to ensure all personnel fully understand the deployment process?
    • A. 

      CDF

    • B. 

      DCC

    • C. 

      DPU

    • D. 

      IDO

  • 35. 
    The BS issues authority to begin preparation for mobility deployment by
    • A. 

      Giving a warning order

    • B. 

      Implementing the schedule of events

    • C. 

      Giving an "execute/deployment order" order

    • D. 

      Notifying the MOC

  • 36. 
    During a mobility operation, responsibility for actually moving people from point A to point B rests with the
    • A. 

      DCC

    • B. 

      CDF

    • C. 

      DPU

    • D. 

      PDF

  • 37. 
    The third step in the ORM process is to
    • A. 

      Assess the risk

    • B. 

      Identify the hazard

    • C. 

      Make control decisions

    • D. 

      Analyze risk control measures

  • 38. 
    The second step in the ORM process is to
    • A. 

      Assess the risk

    • B. 

      Identify the hazard

    • C. 

      Make control decisions

    • D. 

      Analyze the risk control

  • 39. 
    What Air Force ORM committe is co-chaired by the Air Force Assistant Vice Chief of Staff and the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Enviroment, Safety, and Occupational Health
    • A. 

      Steering

    • B. 

      Program

    • C. 

      Saftey and health

    • D. 

      Hazard prevention

  • 40. 
    The individual assigned as the foreign object damage (FOD) prevention program manager is the
    • A. 

      WG/CC

    • B. 

      WG/CV

    • C. 

      OG/CC

    • D. 

      Maintenance squadron CC

  • 41. 
    Awriten HAZCOM program must be maintained by
    • A. 

      The local OSHA office

    • B. 

      Each workplace using or handling HAZMAT

    • C. 

      Each MAJCOM using or handling HAZMAT

    • D. 

      The Air Division whose personnel use or handle HAZMAT

  • 42. 
    When will individuals recieve HCP training?
    • A. 

      At the five-year assignment point and whenever a new hazard is introduced into thier work area

    • B. 

      Upon inital work area assignment and whenever a new hazard is introduced into thier work area

    • C. 

      Upon inital work area assignment and whenever a new hazard is spilled or exposed into thier work area

    • D. 

      At the five-year assignment point and whenever a new hazard is spilled or exposed into thier work area

  • 43. 
    Who ensures workers, temporarily performing duties outside thier normal jobs, recieve the federal HAZCOM training prior rto beginning the activity?
    • A. 

      Worker

    • B. 

      CC

    • C. 

      Supervisor of the activity

    • D. 

      Federal HAZCOM officer

  • 44. 
    What form is used to submit HAZCOM requierments to the HAZMART?
    • A. 

      AF Form 3952, Chemical Hazardous Material Request/Authorization

    • B. 

      AF Form 3259, Work Activity Sheet

    • C. 

      AF Form 2005, Issue/Turn-in Request

    • D. 

      AF Form 9, Request for Purchase

  • 45. 
    What is your first response for a HAZMAT spill action?
    • A. 

      Think Safety

    • B. 

      Stop the Spill

    • C. 

      Contain the spilled material

    • D. 

      Protect drains and storm sewers

  • 46. 
    What are two common Air Force storm water pollution sources?
    • A. 

      Water from the sinks at squadrons and the water from any water fountain

    • B. 

      Spills or leaks exposed to storm water and the water from any water fountain

    • C. 

      Water from the sinks at squadrons and stored materials exposed to precipitation

    • D. 

      Spills and leaks exposed to storm water and stored materials exposed to precipitation

  • 47. 
    Which agency established the NPDES permit program?
    • A. 

      HQ ACC Enviromental Agency

    • B. 

      NSPA

    • C. 

      NFPA

    • D. 

      EPA

  • 48. 
    With what office does the responsibility for implementing the Mishap Prevention Program for all Air Force units on a base rest?
    • A. 

      Host safety

    • B. 

      Mishap prevention

    • C. 

      CE

    • D. 

      Base bioenviromental

  • 49. 
    Responsibility for developing and implementing safety, risk management, and health programs that intergrate hazards reduction and safety policy into all on- and- off duty operations and activities rests with the
    • A. 

      Air Staff only

    • B. 

      WG/CC only

    • C. 

      MAJCOM only

    • D. 

      Commanders, supervisors, and functional managers

  • 50. 
    Mishap rates are calculated using
    • A. 

      A number of events against fatalities

    • B. 

      The USAF mishaps against foreign mishaps

    • C. 

      The USAF mishaps against the other services

    • D. 

      Number of events against some kind of exposure

  • 51. 
    You can locate instructions on mishap reporting, safety discipline, mishap type, and follow-up actions in
    • A. 

      Local procedures

    • B. 

      TOs

    • C. 

      AFIs

    • D. 

      AFPDs

  • 52. 
    A mishap is classified based on
    • A. 

      The class of the mishap

    • B. 

      The severity of damage, injury, or occupational illness

    • C. 

      Wether the mishap involved an individual or equipment

    • D. 

      Wether the mishap was located in the CONUS or overseas

  • 53. 
    What is considered a result of a class A aircraft mishap?
    • A. 

      Damage to Air Force aircraft only

    • B. 

      Reportable damage of $1,000 or less

    • C. 

      A fatality or permanent total disability

    • D. 

      Reportable damage of $100,000 or less

  • 54. 
    What is considered a result of a Class C aircraft mishap?
    • A. 

      Reportable damage between $20,000 and $200,000

    • B. 

      Reportable damage between $200,000 and $400,000

    • C. 

      An injury resulting in a lost workday case involving 2-4 hours

    • D. 

      An injury resulting in a lost workday case involving 4-6 hours

  • 55. 
    What is considered a result of a Class D aircraft mishap?
    • A. 

      A fatal injury involvong no mor than one person

    • B. 

      A fatal injury involving at least one or more personnel

    • C. 

      Total cost of $2,000 or more property damage, but less than $20,000

    • D. 

      Total cost of $20,000 or more property damage, but less than $50,000

  • 56. 
    Who designates in writing those personnel with the authority to impound aircraft or equipment?
    • A. 

      Crew Chief

    • B. 

      Base safety officer

    • C. 

      Impoundment

    • D. 

      GP/CC

  • 57. 
    Who selects a team of highly qualified technicians dedicated to determine the cause of the problem that led to the impoundment?
    • A. 

      Impoundment official

    • B. 

      Isolation area coordinator

    • C. 

      Base QA

    • D. 

      MOC

  • 58. 
    Which inspection is a subelement of the ISO concept?
    • A. 

      PH

    • B. 

      PE

    • C. 

      PLI

    • D. 

      HSC

  • 59. 
    What inspection is a final visual and/or operational check of designated aircraft systems and components?
    • A. 

      Calendar

    • B. 

      PR

    • C. 

      EOR

    • D. 

      HSC

  • 60. 
    Under the ISO concept, flying hours are translated into calendar periods and are expressed in
    • A. 

      Days

    • B. 

      Weeks

    • C. 

      Months

    • D. 

      Years

  • 61. 
    Which maintenance inspection is basically an equipment condition inspection outlined by equipment workcards or checklists?
    • A. 

      Servicing

    • B. 

      Calendar

    • C. 

      Operator

    • D. 

      Special

  • 62. 
    Which maintenance inspection is preformed on all newly assigned equipment?
    • A. 

      Special

    • B. 

      Operator

    • C. 

      Servicing

    • D. 

      Acceptance

  • 63. 
    What TO is used to report nuclear weapon system TO procedural deficienicies or inadequacies?
    • A. 

      00-5-1, AF Technical Order System

    • B. 

      00-5-15, AT Time Compliance Technical Order Process

    • C. 

      00-20-2, Maintenance Data Documemntation

    • D. 

      00-35D-54, USAF Material Deficiency Reporting and Investigating System

  • 64. 
    What is your most important trait when it comes to training?
    • A. 

      Attitude

    • B. 

      Experience

    • C. 

      Knowledge

    • D. 

      Performance

  • 65. 
    Which type of training does an AFSC-awarding course fall under?
    • A. 

      Resident

    • B. 

      Exportable

    • C. 

      Nonresident

    • D. 

      FTD

  • 66. 
    Responsibility for determining the overall direction of training within an AFS rests with the
    • A. 

      AFS manager

    • B. 

      AFCFM

    • C. 

      Air E&T manager

    • D. 

      MFM

  • 67. 
    You can best evaluate the effectiveness of training received by technical school graduates by using the
    • A. 

      AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS

    • B. 

      AFJQS

    • C. 

      CJQS

    • D. 

      STS

  • 68. 
    The FEQ asks the supervisor to rate
    • A. 

      Students' assessment of tasks in the CFETP/STS

    • B. 

      How well the graduate performs tasks contained in the CFETP/STS based on training received

    • C. 

      Students' assessment of military standards

    • D. 

      Students' assessments of training recived

  • 69. 
    After the student graduates from technical school, within how many months does a supervisor receive a FEQ on the graduate?
    • A. 

      1 to 3

    • B. 

      4 to 6

    • C. 

      6 to 8

    • D. 

      8 to 10

  • 70. 
    What organization is responsible for sending out the GAS?
    • A. 

      Training group

    • B. 

      Training squadron

    • C. 

      MAJCOM

    • D. 

      AETC

  • 71. 
    How many days in advance do most units forecast or project ancillary training?
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      45

    • C. 

      60

    • D. 

      90

  • 72. 
    Which AFMAN provides the requierments for awarding an enlisted AFSC and respective skill level?
    • A. 

      36-2621, Volume 2, Aif Force Training Management System

    • B. 

      36-2234, Instructional system Development

    • C. 

      36-2108, Enlisted Classification

    • D. 

      36-505, Skill Coding

  • 73. 
    Where is information about career progession in an AFS found in the CFETP?
    • A. 

      Part I

    • B. 

      Part II

    • C. 

      Attachment I

    • D. 

      Attachment II

  • 74. 
    Prior to using the CFETP, you should ensure it is
    • A. 

      The latest edition

    • B. 

      Approved by your supervisor

    • C. 

      Required for your duty position

    • D. 

      Listed on your UMD

  • 75. 
    Personnel at what organization develop and/or revise formal resident, nonresident, and field and exportable training based on requierments established by the MAJCOMs?
    • A. 

      AETC

    • B. 

      AFMC

    • C. 

      USAFE

    • D. 

      PACAF

  • 76. 
    Which standard is a comprehensive task list prepared by AFCFMs to discribe a particular jod type or duty position?
    • A. 

      Training standard

    • B. 

      CJQS

    • C. 

      STS

    • D. 

      AFJQS

  • 77. 
    When filling out an occupational survey, it's important you answer the questions that apply to task you
    • A. 

      Did in the last six months

    • B. 

      Did in your last duty position

    • C. 

      Are currently doing in your job

    • D. 

      Are projected to do in the next six months

  • 78. 
    Prior to a U&TW, what is sent out to MAJCOM personnel for thier review?
    • A. 

      TE

    • B. 

      OSR

    • C. 

      Strawman STS

    • D. 

      CJQS

  • 79. 
    What Air Force Form is used during a situation, scuh as deployment, when you cannot update the CEMS with the current engine status?
    • A. 

      1522

    • B. 

      1528

    • C. 

      1529

    • D. 

      1534

  • 80. 
    Which system is designed to provide the AMC with both maintenance management system and a logistics command and control system for the different aircraft in AMC inventory?
    • A. 

      G081 system

    • B. 

      SBSS

    • C. 

      CEMS

    • D. 

      REMIS

  • 81. 
    Maintenance data documentation has how many major characteristics?
    • A. 

      Three

    • B. 

      Four

    • C. 

      Five

    • D. 

      Six

  • 82. 
    How long is the AFTO Form 95 used used to track data for each turbin wheel assembly kept?
    • A. 

      Two years

    • B. 

      Four years

    • C. 

      Six years

    • D. 

      Entire life of the wheel

  • 83. 
    What document is used for maintaining a permanent history of significant maintenance actions on end items equipment, including, but not limited, to aerospace equipment
    • A. 

      AF Form 623

    • B. 

      AF Form 988

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 95

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 1534

  • 84. 
    MAJCOMs, FOAs, and other authorized users can check aircraft status by using the
    • A. 

      SAS

    • B. 

      MIS

    • C. 

      IMDS

    • D. 

      REMIS

  • 85. 
    What provides for the recording, monitoring, and data collection of maintenance discrepancies?
    • A. 

      LOGFOR Packing Subsystem

    • B. 

      IMDS

    • C. 

      JDD Subsystem

    • D. 

      MIS

  • 86. 
    T-1 modifications temporarily change, add, or remove equipment to provide increased capability for
    • A. 

      Combat

    • B. 

      Alert duty

    • C. 

      Deployment

    • D. 

      Special missions

  • 87. 
    To what function has the AFMC SM delegated approval authority for T-2 modifications?
    • A. 

      Test center CC

    • B. 

      Program test manager

    • C. 

      Base CC

    • D. 

      Unit CC

  • 88. 
    What publications provide technical instructions to modify and document all permenent modifications?
    • A. 

      TCTO

    • B. 

      Technical manuals

    • C. 

      Checklists

    • D. 

      Job guides