The Ultimate Military Maintenance Quiz: 2AX7X Volume 1

1. Which IG inspection grading level indicates performance or operatin meets mission requierments?

Excellent

Satisfactory

Marginal

Unsatisfactory

2. Which maintenance inspection is preformed on all newly assigned equipment?

Special

Operator

Servicing

Acceptance

3. How long is the AFTO Form 95 used used to track data for each turbin wheel assembly kept?

Two years

Four years

Six years

Entire life of the wheel

4. To evaluate and measure the ability of units with wartime, contingency, or force sustainment missions to conduct thier operational missions, the Air Force uses

CIs

NSIs

ORIs

LNSIs

5. When will individuals recieve HCP training?

At the five-year assignment point and whenever a new hazard is introduced into thier work area

Upon inital work area assignment and whenever a new hazard is introduced into thier work area

Upon inital work area assignment and whenever a new hazard is spilled or exposed into thier work area

At the five-year assignment point and whenever a new hazard is spilled or exposed into thier work area

6.

What maintenance flight maintains, calibrates, and certifies equipment traceable to the National Institute of Standards and Technology?

Avionics

Accessory

Propulsion

TMDE

7. Perhaps the best known yardstick by which we can measure an aircraft maintenance unit is the

CANN rate

MC rate

aircraft wash schedule

phase flow schedule

8. Awriten HAZCOM program must be maintained by

the local OSHA office

each workplace using or handling HAZMAT

each MAJCOM using or handling HAZMAT

the Air Division whose personnel use or handle HAZMAT

9. What form is used to submit HAZCOM requierments to the HAZMART?

AF Form 3952, Chemical Hazardous Material Request/Authorization

AF Form 3259, Work Activity Sheet

AF Form 2005, Issue/Turn-in Request

AF Form 9, Request for Purchase

10. Responsibility for developing and implementing safety, risk management, and health programs that intergrate hazards reduction and safety policy into all on- and- off duty operations and activities rests with the

Air Staff only

WG/CC only

MAJCOM only

commanders, supervisors, and functional managers

11. What is your most important trait when it comes to training?

Attitude

Experience

Knowledge

Performance

12. When filling out an occupational survey, it's important you answer the questions that apply to task you

did in the last six months

did in your last duty position

are currently doing in your job

are projected to do in the next six months

13.

Who briefs the WG/CC monthly on DCC experience levels/grades and any need to waive requierments?

MXG/CC

Pro Super

SEA

First sergeant

14. The FEQ asks the supervisor to rate

students' assessment of tasks in the CFETP/STS

how well the graduate performs tasks contained in the CFETP/STS based on training received

students' assessment of military standards

students' assessments of training recived

Submit

16.

In the MPI program, each unit's MDSA section should identify in a deployment package the

deployment duration

analysis charts needed

number of deployed individuals

equipment and supplies needed for the deployment

17. What publications provide technical instructions to modify and document all permenent modifications?

TCTO

Technical manuals

Checklists

Job guides

18. Who ensures workers, temporarily performing duties outside thier normal jobs, recieve the federal HAZCOM training prior rto beginning the activity?

Worker

CC

Supervisor of the activity

Federal HAZCOM officer

19. What are two common Air Force storm water pollution sources?

Water from the sinks at squadrons and the water from any water fountain

Spills or leaks exposed to storm water and the water from any water fountain

Water from the sinks at squadrons and stored materials exposed to precipitation

spills and leaks exposed to storm water and stored materials exposed to precipitation

20.

Before a technician can be assigned as a DCC, the minimum number of months of experience the individual is required to have on the MDS is

three

four

five

six

21. Who selects a team of highly qualified technicians dedicated to determine the cause of the problem that led to the impoundment?

Impoundment official

Isolation area coordinator

Base QA

MOC

22. What document is used for maintaining a permanent history of significant maintenance actions on end items equipment, including, but not limited, to aerospace equipment

AF Form 623

AF Form 988

AFTO Form 95

AFTO Form 1534

23. Which maintenance section provides hydrazine saftey training?

Hydraulics

Fuel systems

Armament support

Armamet Maintenance

24. Prior to using the CFETP, you should ensure it is

the latest edition

approved by your supervisor

required for your duty position

Listed on your UMD

25. The BS issues authority to begin preparation for mobility deployment by

giving a warning order

implementing the schedule of events

giving an "execute/deployment order" order

notifying the MOC

26. A mishap is classified based on

the class of the mishap

the severity of damage, injury, or occupational illness

wether the mishap involved an individual or equipment

wether the mishap was located in the CONUS or overseas

27. Personnel at what organization develop and/or revise formal resident, nonresident, and field and exportable training based on requierments established by the MAJCOMs?

AETC

AFMC

USAFE

PACAF

28. Who is selected and appointed in a ceremony hosted by the squadron CC, at which the individual is presented with cerificates?

Expediter

Technician

DCC

Pro Super

29. Prior to each CAF commander's conference, the review process takes place as needed or at least every

24 months

36 months

48 months

50 months

30. What is considered a result of a class A aircraft mishap?

Damage to Air Force aircraft only

Reportable damage of $1,000 or less

A fatality or permanent total disability

Reportable damage of $100,000 or less

31. Under the ISO concept, flying hours are translated into calendar periods and are expressed in

days

weeks

months

years

32. IAW the MPI OPLANs they are tasked to support, units are required to report on

all aircraft

aircraft spares

Code 1 aircraft

deployed aircraft

33. What inspection is a final visual and/or operational check of designated aircraft systems and components?

Calendar

PR

EOR

HSC

34. Who ensures personnel are coded with appropriate SEIs on the UPMR?

Expediter

Technician

Flight Chief

Pro Super

35.

Who notifies the MOC when aircraft are ready for ER, flight (crew ready) and crew show, engine start, taxi, block-in, and aircraft configuration?

Expediter

Technician

Flight chief

Pro Super

36.

For determining resource requierments and budget constraints, the MPI 9302 data reported from your base may impact decisions made by

squardron staff

wing personnel

base command staff

Congress and the DOD

37. What is considered a result of a Class D aircraft mishap?

A fatal injury involvong no mor than one person

A fatal injury involving at least one or more personnel

total cost of $2,000 or more property damage, but less than $20,000

total cost of $20,000 or more property damage, but less than $50,000

38.

What function manages the maintenance production effort by assigning priorities to meet the flying and amintenance schedules?

Expediter

Techician

Flight Chief

Pro Super

39.

In the MPI system, the primary means of transmitting all reports required by ACCI 21-118 is by

package

postal mail

overnight mail

E-mail

40. What is your first response for a HAZMAT spill action?

Think Safety

Stop the Spill

Contain the spilled material

Protect drains and storm sewers

41. What is considered a result of a Class C aircraft mishap?

Reportable damage between $20,000 and $200,000

Reportable damage between $200,000 and $400,000

An injury resulting in a lost workday case involving 2-4 hours

An injury resulting in a lost workday case involving 4-6 hours

42. The individual assigned as the foreign object damage (FOD) prevention program manager is the

WG/CC

WG/CV

OG/CC

Maintenance squadron CC

43. Who designates in writing those personnel with the authority to impound aircraft or equipment?

Crew Chief

Base safety officer

Impoundment

GP/CC

44. The second step in the ORM process is to

assess the risk

identify the hazard

make control decisions

analyze the risk control

45. Which maintenance inspection is basically an equipment condition inspection outlined by equipment workcards or checklists?

Servicing

Calendar

Operator

Special

46. What function is responsible for aerospace equipment maintenance and is required to ensure balance between sortie production and fleet management?

Expediter

Flight Chief

Base CC

MXG/CC

47. Which system is designed to provide the AMC with both maintenance management system and a logistics command and control system for the different aircraft in AMC inventory?

G081 system

SBSS

CEMS

REMIS

48.

Which senior NCO directs the overall maintenance effort of thier unit

Flight chief

First sergeant

SEA

Pro Super

49. The appropriate landing status code for "Aircraft or system has suspected or known radiological, chemical, or biological contamination" is Code

1

2

3

4

50. Mishap rates are calculated using

a number of events against fatalities

the USAF mishaps against foreign mishaps

the USAF mishaps against the other services

number of events against some kind of exposure

51. Which type of training does an AFSC-awarding course fall under?

Resident

Exportable

Nonresident

FTD

Submit

53. Which agency established the NPDES permit program?

HQ ACC Enviromental Agency

NSPA

NFPA

EPA

54. You can locate instructions on mishap reporting, safety discipline, mishap type, and follow-up actions in

local procedures

TOs

AFIs

AFPDs

55. Which AFMAN provides the requierments for awarding an enlisted AFSC and respective skill level?

36-2621, Volume 2, Aif Force Training Management System

36-2234, Instructional system Development

36-2108, Enlisted Classification

36-505, Skill Coding

Submit

57. Prior to a U&TW, what is sent out to MAJCOM personnel for thier review?

TE

OSR

Strawman STS

CJQS

58. T-1 modifications temporarily change, add, or remove equipment to provide increased capability for

combat

alert duty

deployment

special missions

59. Who ensures TMDE maintenance and calibratin requiermants are met?

Expediter

Technician

Section chief

Pro Super

60. How many days in advance do most units forecast or project ancillary training?

30

45

60

90

61.

In the MPI program, the Monthly Aircraft Logistics Indicators report is used by intermediate and MAJCOM managers as

an indicator of aircraft

a comparsion base of aircraft systems

an indication of what aircraft is on thier invetory

the official source document for briefing HQ ACC

62. Which unit receives, inspects, marshals, and loads cargo for a mobility deployment?

FC

HC

DCC

CDF

63. With what office does the responsibility for implementing the Mishap Prevention Program for all Air Force units on a base rest?

Host safety

Mishap prevention

CE

Base bioenviromental

64. Which inspection is a subelement of the ISO concept?

PH

PE

PLI

HSC

65. Maintenance data documentation has how many major characteristics?

Three

Four

Five

Six

Submit

67. When an issue is pervasive and of major importance Air Force-wide, or when assessing compliance in a specific area of concern, the Air Force uses

INSIs

short-term SIIs

NSIs

long-term SIIs

68. The third step in the ORM process is to

assess the risk

identify the hazard

make control decisions

analyze risk control measures

69. To what function has the AFMC SM delegated approval authority for T-2 modifications?

Test center CC

Program test manager

Base CC

Unit CC

70. What Air Force Form is used during a situation, scuh as deployment, when you cannot update the CEMS with the current engine status?

1522

1528

1529

1534

71. What Air Force ORM committe is co-chaired by the Air Force Assistant Vice Chief of Staff and the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Enviroment, Safety, and Occupational Health

Steering

Program

Saftey and health

Hazard prevention

72. MAJCOMs, FOAs, and other authorized users can check aircraft status by using the

SAS

MIS

IMDS

REMIS

73. What provides for the recording, monitoring, and data collection of maintenance discrepancies?

LOGFOR Packing Subsystem

IMDS

JDD Subsystem

MIS

74.

During a mobility operation, responsibility for actually moving people from point A to point B rests with the

DCC

CDF

DPU

PDF

75. What TO is used to report nuclear weapon system TO procedural deficienicies or inadequacies?

00-5-1, AF Technical Order System

00-5-15, AT Time Compliance Technical Order Process

00-20-2, Maintenance Data Documemntation

00-35D-54, USAF Material Deficiency Reporting and Investigating System

76. Responsibility for determining the overall direction of training within an AFS rests with the

AFS manager

AFCFM

Air E&T manager

MFM

77. Who has responsibility for updating the status of CANN actions on assigned aircraft?

Expediter

Technician

Flight chief

Pro Super

78.

What function allocates maintenance resources to meet mission requierments?

Expediter

WG/CC

Pro Super

MOC

79.

Who is a first-line manager and supervisor of maintenance production and, as such, is the technical authority and advisor in that area?

Expediter

Technician

Flight chief

Section chief

Submit

81. After the student graduates from technical school, within how many months does a supervisor receive a FEQ on the graduate?

1 to 3

4 to 6

6 to 8

8 to 10

82. Where is information about career progession in an AFS found in the CFETP?

Part I

Part II

Attachment I

Attachment II

83. Which standard is a comprehensive task list prepared by AFCFMs to discribe a particular jod type or duty position?

Training standard

CJQS

STS

AFJQS

84. What organization is responsible for sending out the GAS?

Training group

Training squadron

MAJCOM

AETC

85. Who as overall responsibility for ensuring each installation establishes a local deployment education program to ensure all personnel fully understand the deployment process?

CDF

DCC

DPU

IDO