2AX7X Volume 1
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- 1.What program does the MXG/CC manage to ensure standardized inspection and maintenance procedures?
- A.
- 2.What authority is responsible for organizing the nuclear surety council?
- A.
- 3.Which column of the STS defines the "contract with the technical school?"
- A.
- 4.A proficiency code of "2b" in column 4 of the STS indicates task
- A.
- 5.When developing and AF Form 797, you do not list
- A.
- 6.What is the "base" of the JDD Subsystem?
- A.
- 7.What maintenance flight maintains, calibrates, and certifies equipment traceable to the National Institute of Standards and Technology?
- A.
Avionics
- B.
Accessory
- C.
Propulsion
- D.
TMDE
- 8.Which maintenance section provides hydrazine saftey training?
- A.
Hydraulics
- B.
Fuel systems
- C.
Armament support
- D.
Armamet Maintenance
- 9.What function allocates maintenance resources to meet mission requierments?
- A.
Expediter
- B.
WG/CC
- C.
Pro Super
- D.
MOC
- 10.What function is responsible for aerospace equipment maintenance and is required to ensure balance between sortie production and fleet management?
- A.
Expediter
- B.
Flight Chief
- C.
Base CC
- D.
MXG/CC
- 11.Which senior NCO directs the overall maintenance effort of thier unit
- A.
Flight chief
- B.
First sergeant
- C.
SEA
- D.
Pro Super
- 12.What function manages the maintenance production effort by assigning priorities to meet the flying and amintenance schedules?
- A.
Expediter
- B.
Techician
- C.
Flight Chief
- D.
Pro Super
- 13.Who ensures personnel are coded with appropriate SEIs on the UPMR?
- A.
Expediter
- B.
Technician
- C.
Flight Chief
- D.
Pro Super
- 14.Who is a first-line manager and supervisor of maintenance production and, as such, is the technical authority and advisor in that area?
- A.
Expediter
- B.
Technician
- C.
Flight chief
- D.
Section chief
- 15.Who ensures TMDE maintenance and calibratin requiermants are met?
- A.
Expediter
- B.
Technician
- C.
Section chief
- D.
Pro Super
- 16.Who has responsibility for updating the status of CANN actions on assigned aircraft?
- A.
Expediter
- B.
Technician
- C.
Flight chief
- D.
Pro Super
- 17.Who notifies the MOC when aircraft are ready for ER, flight (crew ready) and crew show, engine start, taxi, block-in, and aircraft configuration?
- A.
Expediter
- B.
Technician
- C.
Flight chief
- D.
Pro Super
- 18.Before a technician can be assigned as a DCC, the minimum number of months of experience the individual is required to have on the MDS is
- A.
Three
- B.
four
- C.
Five
- D.
Six
- 19.Who is selected and appointed in a ceremony hosted by the squadron CC, at which the individual is presented with cerificates?
- A.
Expediter
- B.
Technician
- C.
DCC
- D.
Pro Super
- 20.Who briefs the WG/CC monthly on DCC experience levels/grades and any need to waive requierments?
- A.
MXG/CC
- B.
Pro Super
- C.
SEA
- D.
First sergeant
- 21.To evaluate and measure the ability of units with wartime, contingency, or force sustainment missions to conduct thier operational missions, the Air Force uses
- A.
CIs
- B.
NSIs
- C.
ORIs
- D.
LNSIs
- 22.When it comes to a Ci, which numbered-tier grading is usually sufficient to assure adequate oversight of each common core compliance area?
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
5
- 23.Which IG inspection grading level indicates performance or operatin meets mission requierments?
- A.
Excellent
- B.
Satisfactory
- C.
Marginal
- D.
Unsatisfactory
- 24.When an issue is pervasive and of major importance Air Force-wide, or when assessing compliance in a specific area of concern, the Air Force uses
- A.
INSIs
- B.
Short-term SIIs
- C.
NSIs
- D.
long-term SIIs
- 25.In the MPI system, the primary means of transmitting all reports required by ACCI 21-118 is by
- A.
Package
- B.
Postal mail
- C.
Overnight mail
- D.
E-mail
- 26.For determining resource requierments and budget constraints, the MPI 9302 data reported from your base may impact decisions made by
- A.
Squardron staff
- B.
Wing personnel
- C.
Base command staff
- D.
Congress and the DOD
- 27.In the MPI program, the Monthly Aircraft Logistics Indicators report is used by intermediate and MAJCOM managers as
- A.
An indicator of aircraft
- B.
a comparsion base of aircraft systems
- C.
An indication of what aircraft is on thier invetory
- D.
The official source document for briefing HQ ACC
- 28.IAW the MPI OPLANs they are tasked to support, units are required to report on
- A.
All aircraft
- B.
Aircraft spares
- C.
Code 1 aircraft
- D.
Deployed aircraft
- 29.In the MPI program, each unit's MDSA section should identify in a deployment package the
- A.
Deployment duration
- B.
Analysis charts needed
- C.
Number of deployed individuals
- D.
Equipment and supplies needed for the deployment
- 30.Prior to each CAF commander's conference, the review process takes place as needed or at least every
- A.
24 months
- B.
36 months
- C.
48 months
- D.
50 months
- 31.Perhaps the best known yardstick by which we can measure an aircraft maintenance unit is the
- A.
CANN rate
- B.
MC rate
- C.
Aircraft wash schedule
- D.
Phase flow schedule
- 32.The appropriate landing status code for "Aircraft or system has suspected or known radiological, chemical, or biological contamination" is Code
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
- 33.Which unit receives, inspects, marshals, and loads cargo for a mobility deployment?
- A.
FC
- B.
HC
- C.
DCC
- D.
CDF
- 34.Who as overall responsibility for ensuring each installation establishes a local deployment education program to ensure all personnel fully understand the deployment process?
- A.
CDF
- B.
DCC
- C.
DPU
- D.
IDO
- 35.The BS issues authority to begin preparation for mobility deployment by
- A.
Giving a warning order
- B.
Implementing the schedule of events
- C.
Giving an "execute/deployment order" order
- D.
Notifying the MOC
- 36.During a mobility operation, responsibility for actually moving people from point A to point B rests with the
- A.
DCC
- B.
CDF
- C.
DPU
- D.
PDF
- 37.The third step in the ORM process is to
- A.
Assess the risk
- B.
Identify the hazard
- C.
Make control decisions
- D.
Analyze risk control measures
- 38.The second step in the ORM process is to
- A.
Assess the risk
- B.
Identify the hazard
- C.
Make control decisions
- D.
Analyze the risk control
- 39.What Air Force ORM committe is co-chaired by the Air Force Assistant Vice Chief of Staff and the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Enviroment, Safety, and Occupational Health
- A.
Steering
- B.
Program
- C.
Saftey and health
- D.
Hazard prevention
- 40.The individual assigned as the foreign object damage (FOD) prevention program manager is the
- A.
WG/CC
- B.
WG/CV
- C.
OG/CC
- D.
Maintenance squadron CC
- 41.Awriten HAZCOM program must be maintained by
- A.
The local OSHA office
- B.
Each workplace using or handling HAZMAT
- C.
Each MAJCOM using or handling HAZMAT
- D.
The Air Division whose personnel use or handle HAZMAT
- 42.When will individuals recieve HCP training?
- A.
At the five-year assignment point and whenever a new hazard is introduced into thier work area
- B.
Upon inital work area assignment and whenever a new hazard is introduced into thier work area
- C.
Upon inital work area assignment and whenever a new hazard is spilled or exposed into thier work area
- D.
At the five-year assignment point and whenever a new hazard is spilled or exposed into thier work area
- 43.Who ensures workers, temporarily performing duties outside thier normal jobs, recieve the federal HAZCOM training prior rto beginning the activity?
- A.
Worker
- B.
CC
- C.
Supervisor of the activity
- D.
Federal HAZCOM officer
- 44.What form is used to submit HAZCOM requierments to the HAZMART?
- A.
AF Form 3952, Chemical Hazardous Material Request/Authorization
- B.
AF Form 3259, Work Activity Sheet
- C.
AF Form 2005, Issue/Turn-in Request
- D.
AF Form 9, Request for Purchase
- 45.What is your first response for a HAZMAT spill action?
- A.
Think Safety
- B.
Stop the Spill
- C.
Contain the spilled material
- D.
Protect drains and storm sewers
- 46.What are two common Air Force storm water pollution sources?
- A.
Water from the sinks at squadrons and the water from any water fountain
- B.
Spills or leaks exposed to storm water and the water from any water fountain
- C.
Water from the sinks at squadrons and stored materials exposed to precipitation
- D.
Spills and leaks exposed to storm water and stored materials exposed to precipitation
- 47.Which agency established the NPDES permit program?
- A.
HQ ACC Enviromental Agency
- B.
NSPA
- C.
NFPA
- D.
EPA
- 48.With what office does the responsibility for implementing the Mishap Prevention Program for all Air Force units on a base rest?
- A.
Host safety
- B.
Mishap prevention
- C.
CE
- D.
Base bioenviromental
- 49.Responsibility for developing and implementing safety, risk management, and health programs that intergrate hazards reduction and safety policy into all on- and- off duty operations and activities rests with the
- A.
Air Staff only
- B.
WG/CC only
- C.
MAJCOM only
- D.
Commanders, supervisors, and functional managers
- 50.Mishap rates are calculated using
- A.
A number of events against fatalities
- B.
The USAF mishaps against foreign mishaps
- C.
The USAF mishaps against the other services
- D.
Number of events against some kind of exposure
- 51.You can locate instructions on mishap reporting, safety discipline, mishap type, and follow-up actions in
- A.
Local procedures
- B.
TOs
- C.
AFIs
- D.
AFPDs
- 52.A mishap is classified based on
- A.
The class of the mishap
- B.
The severity of damage, injury, or occupational illness
- C.
Wether the mishap involved an individual or equipment
- D.
Wether the mishap was located in the CONUS or overseas
- 53.What is considered a result of a class A aircraft mishap?
- A.
Damage to Air Force aircraft only
- B.
Reportable damage of $1,000 or less
- C.
A fatality or permanent total disability
- D.
Reportable damage of $100,000 or less
- 54.What is considered a result of a Class C aircraft mishap?
- A.
Reportable damage between $20,000 and $200,000
- B.
Reportable damage between $200,000 and $400,000
- C.
An injury resulting in a lost workday case involving 2-4 hours
- D.
An injury resulting in a lost workday case involving 4-6 hours
- 55.What is considered a result of a Class D aircraft mishap?
- A.
A fatal injury involvong no mor than one person
- B.
A fatal injury involving at least one or more personnel
- C.
Total cost of $2,000 or more property damage, but less than $20,000
- D.
Total cost of $20,000 or more property damage, but less than $50,000
- 56.Who designates in writing those personnel with the authority to impound aircraft or equipment?
- A.
Crew Chief
- B.
Base safety officer
- C.
Impoundment
- D.
GP/CC
- 57.Who selects a team of highly qualified technicians dedicated to determine the cause of the problem that led to the impoundment?
- A.
Impoundment official
- B.
Isolation area coordinator
- C.
Base QA
- D.
MOC
- 58.Which inspection is a subelement of the ISO concept?
- A.
PH
- B.
PE
- C.
PLI
- D.
HSC
- 59.What inspection is a final visual and/or operational check of designated aircraft systems and components?
- A.
Calendar
- B.
PR
- C.
EOR
- D.
HSC
- 60.Under the ISO concept, flying hours are translated into calendar periods and are expressed in
- A.
Days
- B.
Weeks
- C.
Months
- D.
Years
- 61.Which maintenance inspection is basically an equipment condition inspection outlined by equipment workcards or checklists?
- A.
Servicing
- B.
Calendar
- C.
Operator
- D.
Special
- 62.Which maintenance inspection is preformed on all newly assigned equipment?
- A.
Special
- B.
Operator
- C.
Servicing
- D.
Acceptance
- 63.What TO is used to report nuclear weapon system TO procedural deficienicies or inadequacies?
- A.
00-5-1, AF Technical Order System
- B.
00-5-15, AT Time Compliance Technical Order Process
- C.
00-20-2, Maintenance Data Documemntation
- D.
00-35D-54, USAF Material Deficiency Reporting and Investigating System
- 64.What is your most important trait when it comes to training?
- A.
Attitude
- B.
Experience
- C.
Knowledge
- D.
Performance
- 65.Which type of training does an AFSC-awarding course fall under?
- A.
Resident
- B.
Exportable
- C.
Nonresident
- D.
FTD
- 66.Responsibility for determining the overall direction of training within an AFS rests with the
- A.
AFS manager
- B.
AFCFM
- C.
Air E&T manager
- D.
MFM
- 67.You can best evaluate the effectiveness of training received by technical school graduates by using the
- A.
AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS
- B.
AFJQS
- C.
CJQS
- D.
STS
- 68.The FEQ asks the supervisor to rate
- A.
Students' assessment of tasks in the CFETP/STS
- B.
How well the graduate performs tasks contained in the CFETP/STS based on training received
- C.
Students' assessment of military standards
- D.
Students' assessments of training recived
- 69.After the student graduates from technical school, within how many months does a supervisor receive a FEQ on the graduate?
- A.
1 to 3
- B.
4 to 6
- C.
6 to 8
- D.
8 to 10
- 70.What organization is responsible for sending out the GAS?
- A.
Training group
- B.
Training squadron
- C.
MAJCOM
- D.
AETC
- 71.How many days in advance do most units forecast or project ancillary training?
- A.
30
- B.
45
- C.
60
- D.
90
- 72.Which AFMAN provides the requierments for awarding an enlisted AFSC and respective skill level?
- A.
36-2621, Volume 2, Aif Force Training Management System
- B.
36-2234, Instructional system Development
- C.
36-2108, Enlisted Classification
- D.
36-505, Skill Coding
- 73.Where is information about career progession in an AFS found in the CFETP?
- A.
Part I
- B.
Part II
- C.
Attachment I
- D.
Attachment II
- 74.Prior to using the CFETP, you should ensure it is
- A.
The latest edition
- B.
Approved by your supervisor
- C.
Required for your duty position
- D.
Listed on your UMD
- 75.Personnel at what organization develop and/or revise formal resident, nonresident, and field and exportable training based on requierments established by the MAJCOMs?
- A.
AETC
- B.
AFMC
- C.
USAFE
- D.
PACAF
- 76.Which standard is a comprehensive task list prepared by AFCFMs to discribe a particular jod type or duty position?
- A.
Training standard
- B.
CJQS
- C.
STS
- D.
AFJQS
- 77.When filling out an occupational survey, it's important you answer the questions that apply to task you
- A.
Did in the last six months
- B.
Did in your last duty position
- C.
Are currently doing in your job
- D.
Are projected to do in the next six months
- 78.Prior to a U&TW, what is sent out to MAJCOM personnel for thier review?
- A.
TE
- B.
OSR
- C.
Strawman STS
- D.
CJQS
- 79.What Air Force Form is used during a situation, scuh as deployment, when you cannot update the CEMS with the current engine status?
- A.
1522
- B.
1528
- C.
1529
- D.
1534
- 80.Which system is designed to provide the AMC with both maintenance management system and a logistics command and control system for the different aircraft in AMC inventory?
- A.
G081 system
- B.
SBSS
- C.
CEMS
- D.
REMIS
- 81.Maintenance data documentation has how many major characteristics?
- A.
Three
- B.
Four
- C.
Five
- D.
Six
- 82.How long is the AFTO Form 95 used used to track data for each turbin wheel assembly kept?
- A.
Two years
- B.
Four years
- C.
Six years
- D.
Entire life of the wheel
- 83.What document is used for maintaining a permanent history of significant maintenance actions on end items equipment, including, but not limited, to aerospace equipment
- A.
AF Form 623
- B.
AF Form 988
- C.
AFTO Form 95
- D.
AFTO Form 1534
- 84.MAJCOMs, FOAs, and other authorized users can check aircraft status by using the
- A.
SAS
- B.
MIS
- C.
IMDS
- D.
REMIS
- 85.What provides for the recording, monitoring, and data collection of maintenance discrepancies?
- A.
LOGFOR Packing Subsystem
- B.
IMDS
- C.
JDD Subsystem
- D.
MIS
- 86.T-1 modifications temporarily change, add, or remove equipment to provide increased capability for
- A.
Combat
- B.
Alert duty
- C.
Deployment
- D.
Special missions
- 87.To what function has the AFMC SM delegated approval authority for T-2 modifications?
- A.
Test center CC
- B.
Program test manager
- C.
Base CC
- D.
Unit CC
- 88.What publications provide technical instructions to modify and document all permenent modifications?
- A.
TCTO
- B.
Technical manuals
- C.
Checklists
- D.
Job guides
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