2A551 Ure Questions For Volume 1 Of 3

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General Knowledge Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) What estimated percent of accidents are caused by nature?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is 2%. This means that only a small portion of accidents can be attributed to natural causes such as weather conditions or natural disasters. The majority of accidents are likely caused by human factors such as negligence, distraction, or reckless driving.

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  • 2. 

    (001) In the operational risk management process, the responsibility for identifying and controlling hazards rests with

    • A.

      Trainers

    • B.

      Everyone

    • C.

      Supervisors

    • D.

      Commanders

    Correct Answer
    B. Everyone
    Explanation
    In the operational risk management process, the responsibility for identifying and controlling hazards rests with everyone. This means that each individual within the organization, regardless of their role or position, is responsible for actively identifying potential hazards and taking appropriate measures to control and mitigate them. This inclusive approach ensures that everyone is actively engaged in risk management, promoting a safer and more secure work environment for all.

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  • 3. 

    (001) Which safety-training phase is an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new airmen?

    • A.

      Initial

    • B.

      General

    • C.

      Supervisor's

    • D.

      Sustained job safety

    Correct Answer
    A. Initial
    Explanation
    The initial safety-training phase is an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new airmen. This phase is the first step in introducing airmen to safety protocols and procedures, ensuring they have a solid foundation of knowledge and awareness. It helps them understand the importance of safety in their work and instills good safety habits from the beginning of their career. By starting with a comprehensive and engaging initial training, new airmen are more likely to prioritize safety throughout their time in the air force.

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  • 4. 

    (001) Responsibility for initiating a lost tool report rests with the

    • A.

      Expediter or production supervisor

    • B.

      Flight chief or flight commander

    • C.

      Person that was issued the tool

    • D.

      CTK support section

    Correct Answer
    C. Person that was issued the tool
    Explanation
    The person that was issued the tool is responsible for initiating a lost tool report. This makes sense because they are the one who had possession of the tool and therefore would be the first to notice if it was lost. By initiating the report, they can ensure that the loss is documented and appropriate actions can be taken to locate or replace the tool.

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  • 5. 

    (001) The lowest person authorized to clear ar red X when a lost tool cannot be located is

    • A.

      The crew chief

    • B.

      The aircraft engineer

    • C.

      The wing commander

    • D.

      An individual assigned to maintenance supervision

    Correct Answer
    D. An individual assigned to maintenance supervision
    Explanation
    The lowest person authorized to clear a red X when a lost tool cannot be located is an individual assigned to maintenance supervision. This means that someone who holds a position in maintenance supervision is responsible for authorizing the clearance of a red X in cases where a lost tool cannot be found. This individual is likely to have the necessary knowledge and authority to make such a decision.

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  • 6. 

    (001) The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the

    • A.

      Red markings

    • B.

      Black markings

    • C.

      Green markings

    • D.

      Orange markings

    Correct Answer
    C. Green markings
    Explanation
    The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the green markings. This indicates that the pressure is at an optimal level for effective use of the extinguisher. The red markings typically indicate that the pressure is too high, while the black markings may indicate that the pressure is too low. The orange markings may indicate a cautionary range. Therefore, the green markings are the correct indication of a safe operating pressure for a fire extinguisher.

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  • 7. 

    (001) Minimum requirements for positioning of fire extinguishers is listed in

    • A.

      TO 00-5-1

    • B.

      TO 00-25-172

    • C.

      AFOSHSTD 91 series

    • D.

      AFOSHSTD 127 series

    Correct Answer
    B. TO 00-25-172
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TO 00-25-172. This document contains the minimum requirements for positioning fire extinguishers. It provides guidance on where fire extinguishers should be located in order to effectively respond to fires and ensure the safety of personnel and property. The document likely includes information on the types of fire extinguishers required for different areas, the distance between fire extinguishers, and any specific requirements for certain types of hazards or environments.

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  • 8. 

    (002) Wearing dog tags, wristwatches, or other jewelry is expressly forbidden

    • A.

      During fuel servicing operations

    • B.

      During inspections of engine inlets

    • C.

      When you're servicing high-pressure air

    • D.

      When you're working on electrical equipment

    Correct Answer
    D. When you're working on electrical equipment
    Explanation
    Wearing dog tags, wristwatches, or other jewelry is expressly forbidden when you're working on electrical equipment because metal objects can conduct electricity and increase the risk of electrical shock or short circuit.

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  • 9. 

    (002) Fall protection is required when it becomes necessary to perform required tasks where a worker can fall

    • A.

      5 feet or more

    • B.

      10 feet or more

    • C.

      20 feet or more

    • D.

      25 feet or more

    Correct Answer
    B. 10 feet or more
    Explanation
    Fall protection is required when it becomes necessary to perform tasks where a worker can fall 10 feet or more. This means that if there is a risk of falling from a height of 10 feet or greater, fall protection measures must be in place to ensure the safety of the worker. This could include the use of safety harnesses, guardrails, or other protective equipment to prevent falls and minimize the risk of injury.

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  • 10. 

    (003) Radiation hazards are affected by

    • A.

      Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather

    • B.

      Strength of emission, time of day, and the input power

    • C.

      Input power, weather, and number of personnel in the area

    • D.

      Time of exposure, amount of training, and number of operating units

    Correct Answer
    A. Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather
    Explanation
    The correct answer is strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather. Radiation hazards are affected by the strength of emission, which refers to the intensity or amount of radiation being emitted. The time of exposure is also a factor, as prolonged exposure to radiation can increase the risk of harm. Additionally, weather conditions can impact radiation hazards, as certain weather patterns can affect the dispersion and concentration of radiation in the environment.

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  • 11. 

    (003) The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly in to park the aircraft in an isolated location, then

    • A.

      Spray with cold water

    • B.

      Cool with forced air from a blower

    • C.

      Cool with high-pressure compressed air

    • D.

      Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air

    Correct Answer
    D. Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air
    Explanation
    The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air. This means that the aircraft should be parked in a location where it is isolated and there is no immediate danger, and then the brake assembly should be left alone to cool down naturally without any external intervention such as spraying with cold water, cooling with forced air from a blower, or cooling with high-pressure compressed air. This is the safest and most effective way to prevent any further damage or accidents caused by the overheated brake assembly.

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  • 12. 

    (003) Normally, the safe distance behind an operating jet engine exhaust is

    • A.

      125 feet

    • B.

      150 feet

    • C.

      175 feet

    • D.

      200 feet

    Correct Answer
    D. 200 feet
    Explanation
    The safe distance behind an operating jet engine exhaust is 200 feet. This distance is necessary to prevent individuals from being exposed to the high temperatures, strong winds, and potential debris that can be emitted from the engine. It ensures the safety of both personnel and equipment in the vicinity of the jet engine.

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  • 13. 

    (003) How is a maintenance stand secured when placed near an operating propeller?

    • A.

      Remove stand tow bar

    • B.

      Place sand bags on top of stand

    • C.

      Use chains to secure handrails to stand

    • D.

      Wrap chains around each wheel individually

    Correct Answer
    D. Wrap chains around each wheel individually
    Explanation
    When a maintenance stand is placed near an operating propeller, it needs to be secured to prevent any movement or potential accidents. Wrapping chains around each wheel individually ensures that the stand remains stable and prevents it from rolling or tipping over. This method provides a secure and reliable way to keep the stand in place and ensures the safety of the personnel working on the aircraft.

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  • 14. 

    (003) Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue?

    • A.

      Dizziness

    • B.

      Emotional irritability

    • C.

      A feeling of emptiness

    • D.

      Impairment of mental concentration

    Correct Answer
    C. A feeling of emptiness
    Explanation
    A feeling of emptiness is not a sign of noise fatigue. Noise fatigue refers to the physical and mental exhaustion caused by prolonged exposure to loud or excessive noise. Symptoms typically include dizziness, emotional irritability, and impairment of mental concentration. However, a feeling of emptiness is not commonly associated with noise fatigue and may be indicative of other factors or conditions.

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  • 15. 

    (004) Any fuel spill not over 50 square feet and not continuous is classified as a

    • A.

      Class I

    • B.

      Class II

    • C.

      Class III

    • D.

      Class IV

    Correct Answer
    B. Class II
    Explanation
    A fuel spill that is not over 50 square feet and is not continuous is classified as a class II spill. This means that it is a moderate spill that requires a moderate response. It is larger than a class I spill, but smaller than a class III or class IV spill.

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  • 16. 

    (004) Individuals who are not directly involved in a nitrogen servicing operation should be outside a

    • A.

      15 foot radius

    • B.

      20 foot radius

    • C.

      25 foot radius

    • D.

      50 foot radius

    Correct Answer
    B. 20 foot radius
    Explanation
    Individuals who are not directly involved in a nitrogen servicing operation should be outside a 20-foot radius. This distance ensures their safety by keeping them at a safe distance from any potential hazards or accidents that may occur during the operation. Being outside this radius reduces the risk of injury or exposure to nitrogen, which can be harmful.

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  • 17. 

    (005) To ensure equipment is ready and available at the time of need, the Air Force uses

    • A.

      Preventive maintenance

    • B.

      Corrective maintenance

    • C.

      Protective maintenance

    • D.

      Unscheduled maintenance

    Correct Answer
    A. Preventive maintenance
    Explanation
    Preventive maintenance is the correct answer because it refers to the systematic inspection, detection, and correction of potential equipment issues before they cause equipment failure or downtime. By regularly conducting preventive maintenance, the Air Force can ensure that equipment is in optimal condition and ready to be used when needed. This proactive approach helps to prevent unexpected breakdowns, reduces repair costs, and increases the overall reliability and availability of equipment.

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  • 18. 

    (005) Responsibility for establishing a climate that promotes maintenance discipline rests with

    • A.

      First sergeants

    • B.

      Subordinate personnel

    • C.

      Immediate supervisors

    • D.

      Squadron commanders

    Correct Answer
    C. Immediate supervisors
    Explanation
    Immediate supervisors are responsible for establishing a climate that promotes maintenance discipline. They are in direct contact with the subordinate personnel and have the authority to set expectations, provide guidance, and enforce discipline. They play a crucial role in creating a work environment that fosters accountability, professionalism, and adherence to maintenance standards. Squadron commanders have overall responsibility for the unit's mission and may delegate certain responsibilities to immediate supervisors, who are closer to the day-to-day operations and can directly influence the maintenance discipline.

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  • 19. 

    (006) Prime contributors to dropped objects are

    • A.

      Chaff/flare discharges

    • B.

      Latches and fasteners

    • C.

      Jettisoned fuel tanks

    • D.

      Hung weapons

    Correct Answer
    B. Latches and fasteners
    Explanation
    Latches and fasteners can be prime contributors to dropped objects. When not properly secured, they can become loose or detached, causing objects to fall. This is especially true in aircraft or other high-speed vehicles where vibrations and turbulence can further loosen these components. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that latches and fasteners are securely fastened to prevent accidents and potential damage.

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  • 20. 

    (007) The objectives of the maintenance data documtation system include

    • A.

      Calling, saving, and reviewing base-level data

    • B.

      Calling, storing, and retrieving base-level data

    • C.

      Collecting, saving, and reviewing base-level data

    • D.

      Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data

    Correct Answer
    D. Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data
    Explanation
    The objectives of the maintenance data documentation system include collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data. This means that the system is designed to gather information, store it in a secure and organized manner, and make it easily accessible for future reference or analysis. By collecting data, the system ensures that all relevant information is captured. Storing the data ensures that it is kept in a secure and reliable location. Lastly, retrieving the data allows users to access the information whenever they need it, enabling efficient decision-making and analysis.

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  • 21. 

    (007) The basic rules for the maintenance data documentation system are contained in TO

    • A.

      00-5-1

    • B.

      00-20-1

    • C.

      00-20-2

    • D.

      00-20-5

    Correct Answer
    C. 00-20-2
    Explanation
    The basic rules for the maintenance data documentation system are contained in TO 00-20-2.

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  • 22. 

    (008) The three phases of the operational events subsystem of the IMDS CDB are

    • A.

      Input, output, and archive

    • B.

      On-line, off-line, and update

    • C.

      Data recording, tracking, and retrieval

    • D.

      Mission recording, mission accomplishment, and analysis

    Correct Answer
    D. Mission recording, mission accomplishment, and analysis
    Explanation
    The operational events subsystem of the IMDS CDB is responsible for recording, tracking, and retrieving mission-related data. This includes recording the details of missions, documenting the accomplishment of missions, and analyzing the data collected. This subsystem does not involve input, output, and archive processes, or on-line, off-line, and update activities. Therefore, the correct answer is mission recording, mission accomplishment, and analysis.

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  • 23. 

    (008) You can use the IMDS CDB Training Management Subsystem to monitor

    • A.

      Upgrade training

    • B.

      Optional training

    • C.

      Specialty training

    • D.

      Qualitative training

    Correct Answer
    A. Upgrade training
    Explanation
    The IMDS CDB Training Management Subsystem can be used to monitor upgrade training. This means that the system allows for tracking and overseeing the progress and completion of training programs that are aimed at enhancing or improving an individual's skills and knowledge in a particular area. Upgrade training is typically provided to individuals who already have a certain level of expertise or experience and is designed to further develop their abilities in a specific field or role.

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  • 24. 

    (009) After student graduation, how many days later is the technical school graduate assessment survey normally sent to organizations?

    • A.

      45

    • B.

      60

    • C.

      90

    • D.

      120

    Correct Answer
    C. 90
    Explanation
    The technical school graduate assessment survey is typically sent to organizations 90 days after the student's graduation. This allows for a sufficient amount of time for the student to settle into their new job or career and for the organization to assess their performance and skills.

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  • 25. 

    (009) Unsatisfactory comments on the graduate assessment survey are answered by

    • A.

      The instructor of the student using an AETC Form 156

    • B.

      A telephone call from the instructor of the student

    • C.

      Electronic mail from the instructor of the student

    • D.

      A letter from the instructor of the student

    Correct Answer
    B. A telephone call from the instructor of the student
    Explanation
    Unsatisfactory comments on the graduate assessment survey are addressed by the instructor of the student through a telephone call. This method allows for direct communication between the instructor and the student, which can help clarify any issues or concerns raised in the survey. It also provides an opportunity for the instructor to gather more detailed feedback and discuss potential solutions or improvements. A telephone call is a more personal and interactive approach compared to other options such as using a form, email, or letter, as it allows for immediate conversation and the opportunity for both parties to ask questions and provide further explanations.

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  • 26. 

    (010) Tasks that a person is expected to perform in a duty position or workcenter but are not included in the CFETP Part II or AFJQS are listed

    • A.

      In the JQS

    • B.

      In the CFETP

    • C.

      On an AF Form 797

    • D.

      In the AF Form 623a

    Correct Answer
    C. On an AF Form 797
    Explanation
    Tasks that a person is expected to perform in a duty position or workcenter but are not included in the CFETP Part II or AFJQS are listed on an AF Form 797. This form is used to document additional duties or responsibilities that are specific to a particular position or workcenter. It serves as a supplement to the CFETP and AFJQS, providing a comprehensive list of all the tasks that an individual is expected to perform in their role.

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  • 27. 

    (011) Who may standardize the arrangements of the forms binder?

    • A.

      Flight chief

    • B.

      Section chief

    • C.

      MAJCOMs

    • D.

      Wing commander

    Correct Answer
    C. MAJCOMs
    Explanation
    MAJCOMs, or Major Commands, have the authority to standardize the arrangements of the forms binder. They are responsible for overseeing specific functional areas within the Air Force and have the power to establish policies and procedures. By standardizing the arrangements of the forms binder, MAJCOMs ensure consistency and efficiency in the use of forms across different units and sections. Flight chiefs, section chiefs, and wing commanders may have some level of authority within their respective units, but the ultimate authority to standardize the forms binder lies with the MAJCOMs.

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  • 28. 

    (011) to obtain billing information for fuel and oil on an aircraft, you would check the AFTO

    • A.

      781 A

    • B.

      781 F

    • C.

      781 H

    • D.

      781 J

    Correct Answer
    B. 781 F
    Explanation
    To obtain billing information for fuel and oil on an aircraft, you would check the AFTO 781 F. This form is specifically used for recording fuel and oil transactions and is commonly used for billing purposes. The other options (A, H, and J) are different versions of the AFTO 781 form that serve different purposes and are not applicable for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil.

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  • 29. 

    (011) When must the AFTO Form 781 be removed fromthe forms binder?

    • A.

      Before each thruflight

    • B.

      Before the first flight of the day

    • C.

      After each maintenance action with an assigned job control number

    • D.

      After the IMDS CDB event number is entered at maintenance debriefing

    Correct Answer
    D. After the IMDS CDB event number is entered at maintenance debriefing
    Explanation
    The AFTO Form 781 must be removed from the forms binder after the IMDS CDB event number is entered at maintenance debriefing. This suggests that the form should be kept in the binder until all necessary information has been recorded in the IMDS (Integrated Maintenance Data System) and the maintenance debriefing has taken place. Removing the form after this step ensures that all relevant data has been properly documented and recorded.

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  • 30. 

    (011) Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on the AFTO Form

    • A.

      781 G

    • B.

      781 J

    • C.

      781 M

    • D.

      781 P

    Correct Answer
    B. 781 J
    Explanation
    Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on the AFTO Form 781 J.

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  • 31. 

    (011) You would use the AFTO Form 781 K to document

    • A.

      Engine data

    • B.

      Daily flying time

    • C.

      Replacement items

    • D.

      Support general work

    Correct Answer
    A. Engine data
    Explanation
    The AFTO Form 781 K is used to document engine data. This form is specifically designed for recording and tracking information related to aircraft engines, such as maintenance and inspection data, engine performance data, and any repairs or replacements done on the engine. It serves as a comprehensive record for engine maintenance and helps in tracking the overall health and performance of the engine over time.

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  • 32. 

    (012) the standards for the entries to be made in the AFTO 781 series forms are specified in the

    • A.

      00-20 series of TOs

    • B.

      00-25 series of TOs

    • C.

      00-35 series of TOs

    • D.

      00-110 series of TOs

    Correct Answer
    A. 00-20 series of TOs
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the 00-20 series of TOs. The AFTO 781 series forms are used for recording and documenting maintenance actions on aircraft. The standards for the entries to be made in these forms are specified in the 00-20 series of Technical Orders (TOs). These TOs provide detailed instructions and guidelines for properly completing the AFTO 781 forms, ensuring consistency and accuracy in the documentation of maintenance actions.

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  • 33. 

    (012) Which is the proper way to manually record a date in the 781 series forms?

    • A.

      December 12, 2009

    • B.

      12 Dec 09

    • C.

      20091212

    • D.

      12/12/09

    Correct Answer
    C. 20091212
    Explanation
    The proper way to manually record a date in the 781 series forms is to use the format 20091212. This format follows the YYYYMMDD order, which is commonly used in official documents and ensures consistency and clarity in recording dates.

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  • 34. 

    (012) What action is necessary to clear an erroneous red diagonal symbol?

    • A.

      Erase the incorrect symbol and replace with correct symbol

    • B.

      An authorized individual will sign the "Inspected By" block and initial over the symbol

    • C.

      Place the statement "Symbol entered in error," in the discrepancy block and sign the "Inspected By" block

    • D.

      Place the statement "Symbol entered in error," in the discrepancy block and sign the "Corrected By" block

    Correct Answer
    D. Place the statement "Symbol entered in error," in the discrepancy block and sign the "Corrected By" block
    Explanation
    To clear an erroneous red diagonal symbol, the correct action is to place the statement "Symbol entered in error" in the discrepancy block and sign the "Corrected By" block. This indicates that an error was made and the symbol has been corrected.

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  • 35. 

    (012) During an aircraft inspection, you find a deteriorated insignia decal.  What symbol would you use in the aircraft forms?

    • A.

      Red X

    • B.

      Red dash

    • C.

      Red diagonal

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    D. None
    Explanation
    If a deteriorated insignia decal is found during an aircraft inspection, the correct symbol to use in the aircraft forms would be "None". This indicates that there is no specific symbol or marking required for the deteriorated decal.

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  • 36. 

    (013) How many Air Force TO catalogs are there?

    • A.

      One

    • B.

      Two

    • C.

      Three

    • D.

      Four

    Correct Answer
    A. One
    Explanation
    There is only one Air Force TO catalog available.

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  • 37. 

    (014) Inspection workcards are known as

    • A.

      Abbreviated TOs

    • B.

      Technical manuals

    • C.

      Methods and procedure TOs

    • D.

      Scheduled inspection and maintenance requirements manuals

    Correct Answer
    A. Abbreviated TOs
    Explanation
    Inspection workcards are known as abbreviated TOs because they provide a condensed version of the technical manuals. These workcards contain specific instructions and procedures for conducting inspections, making them a quick reference guide for maintenance personnel. Unlike comprehensive technical manuals, abbreviated TOs focus solely on the inspection and maintenance requirements, allowing technicians to efficiently carry out their tasks without having to sift through lengthy documents.

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  • 38. 

    (014) which TCTO is identified by a series of red diagonals alternately spaced with red Xs (/ X / X / X) around the border of the first page?

    • A.

      Record

    • B.

      Urgent action

    • C.

      Routine action

    • D.

      Immediate action

    Correct Answer
    B. Urgent action
    Explanation
    The TCTO identified by a series of red diagonals alternately spaced with red Xs (/ X / X / X) around the border of the first page is categorized as "Urgent action." This means that immediate attention and action are required in order to address the issue or problem outlined in the TCTO. The red diagonals and Xs serve as visual indicators to quickly identify the urgency of the action needed.

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  • 39. 

    (014) As a general rule, ITCTO are replaced by formal TOs within

    • A.

      48 hours

    • B.

      72 hours

    • C.

      10 days

    • D.

      15 days

    Correct Answer
    C. 10 days
    Explanation
    As a general rule, ITCTO (Interim Travel Control and Tracking Officer) positions are replaced by formal TOs (Travel Officers) within 10 days. This means that the interim travel control and tracking officer is expected to hold the position for a maximum of 10 days before being replaced by a formal travel officer.

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  • 40. 

    (015) The procedures for the entries on an AFTO Form 22 are outlined in

    • A.

      TO 00-5-1

    • B.

      TO 00-1-01

    • C.

      The 00-20 series TOs

    • D.

      The 00-25 series TOs

    Correct Answer
    A. TO 00-5-1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TO 00-5-1. This technical order provides the procedures for the entries on an AFTO Form 22. It is the specific document that outlines the guidelines and instructions for filling out this form accurately and correctly.

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  • 41. 

    (015) What type of TO improvement is issued for TCTO deficiencies?

    • A.

      Emergency

    • B.

      Urgent

    • C.

      Routine

    • D.

      Record

    Correct Answer
    B. Urgent
    Explanation
    Urgent TO improvements are issued for TCTO deficiencies. This suggests that the deficiencies require immediate attention and action to prevent any potential hazards or risks. Urgent TO improvements are typically prioritized over routine or record TO improvements, indicating the critical nature of the deficiencies.

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  • 42. 

    (016) Which type of directive publication is an extnsion of an instruction?

    • A.

      Directory

    • B.

      Pamphlet

    • C.

      Manual

    • D.

      Policy

    Correct Answer
    C. Manual
    Explanation
    A manual is a type of directive publication that provides detailed instructions and guidance on how to perform a specific task or operate a particular system or equipment. It is an extension of an instruction because it goes beyond just giving a brief explanation or overview, but rather provides step-by-step procedures, diagrams, and other relevant information to help the reader understand and carry out the instructions effectively. Therefore, a manual is the correct answer as it aligns with the description provided.

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  • 43. 

    (016) An example of something that should not be published in an OI would be

    • A.

      Selection procedures for NCO of the Quarter

    • B.

      CTK control procedures

    • C.

      Cold weather procedures

    • D.

      Installation traffic rules

    Correct Answer
    D. Installation traffic rules
    Explanation
    Installation traffic rules should not be published in an OI because they are typically specific to a particular installation and may not be applicable or relevant to other locations. OIs are typically used to provide general guidance and procedures that are applicable across multiple locations or units. Publishing installation-specific rules in an OI could lead to confusion and potential violations if individuals from other installations or units try to apply those rules in their own contexts. Therefore, it is best to keep installation traffic rules separate and specific to each installation's local regulations and procedures.

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  • 44. 

    (016) Publications are listed in AFIND2 in a

    • A.

      Logical sequence

    • B.

      Numerical sequence

    • C.

      Alphabetical sequence

    • D.

      Alphanumeric sequence

    Correct Answer
    B. Numerical sequence
    Explanation
    The correct answer is numerical sequence. This means that publications are listed in a specific order based on numbers. This could be either ascending or descending order, depending on the system being used. This sequence allows for easy organization and retrieval of publications based on their assigned numbers.

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  • 45. 

    (017) A sequence chart used in aircraft maintenance best serves as

    • A.

      A ready reference for determining the progress of the inspection

    • B.

      An outline of the minimum requirements for controlling work assignments

    • C.

      A control of work assignments for determining the type of equipment needed

    • D.

      An outline of the minimum requirements for determining the type of personnel needed

    Correct Answer
    A. A ready reference for determining the progress of the inspection
    Explanation
    A sequence chart used in aircraft maintenance best serves as a ready reference for determining the progress of the inspection. This means that the chart provides a visual representation of the steps and tasks involved in the inspection process, allowing maintenance personnel to easily track and monitor the progress of the inspection. It helps ensure that all necessary tasks are completed in the correct order and provides a clear overview of the inspection status at any given time.

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  • 46. 

    (018) Which inspection is basically a flight preparedness check?

    • A.

      Preflight

    • B.

      Postflight

    • C.

      Thruflight

    • D.

      End-of-runway

    Correct Answer
    A. Preflight
    Explanation
    The preflight inspection is a flight preparedness check that is conducted before every flight. It involves a thorough examination of the aircraft's systems, controls, and overall condition to ensure that it is safe and ready for flight. This inspection includes checking the fuel levels, engine oil, tires, control surfaces, and other critical components. It is essential to identify any potential issues or discrepancies before takeoff to prevent any in-flight emergencies or malfunctions.

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  • 47. 

    (018) What inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems?

    • A.

      Preflight

    • B.

      Thruflight

    • C.

      In progress

    • D.

      End-of-runway

    Correct Answer
    D. End-of-runway
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "End-of-runway". This inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems. It is done to ensure that all systems are functioning properly and that the aircraft is ready for takeoff. This inspection is important for the safety of the flight and to prevent any issues during the takeoff process.

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  • 48. 

    (018) If a basic postflight inspection is not required, the thru-flight inspection is normally performed

    • A.

      Prior to an aircraft going on alert and again before a flight after completion of the alert period

    • B.

      After flights when a turn-around sortie or a continuation flight is scheduled

    • C.

      Immediately prior to a basic post flight inspection

    • D.

      After the last flight of a specified flying period

    Correct Answer
    B. After flights when a turn-around sortie or a continuation flight is scheduled
    Explanation
    The correct answer is after flights when a turn-around sortie or a continuation flight is scheduled. This is because a thru-flight inspection is a less comprehensive inspection compared to a postflight inspection. It is performed to ensure that the aircraft is safe to continue flying without any immediate maintenance or repair needs. Therefore, it makes sense to perform the thru-flight inspection after flights when a turn-around sortie or a continuation flight is scheduled, as this allows for a quick turnaround and ensures the aircraft is ready for the next flight.

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  • 49. 

    (018) the basic postflight inspection is performed to

    • A.

      Prepare the aircraft for another flight

    • B.

      Determine the flight status of the aircraft

    • C.

      Prepare the aircraft for the first flight of the day

    • D.

      Determine if the aircraft is suitable for another flight

    Correct Answer
    D. Determine if the aircraft is suitable for another flight
    Explanation
    The basic postflight inspection is performed to determine if the aircraft is suitable for another flight. This inspection involves checking various components and systems of the aircraft to ensure that they are in proper working condition and meet the necessary safety standards. By conducting this inspection, pilots and maintenance personnel can identify any potential issues or damage that may have occurred during the previous flight. Based on the findings of the inspection, a decision can be made on whether the aircraft is safe and ready for another flight or if further maintenance or repairs are required.

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  • 50. 

    (018) Which is the most extensive inspection?

    • A.

      Periodic

    • B.

      Thruflight

    • C.

      Basic postflight

    • D.

      Hourly postflight

    Correct Answer
    A. Periodic
    Explanation
    Periodic inspection is the most extensive inspection because it involves a comprehensive examination of the aircraft's systems, components, and structure. It is typically conducted at regular intervals, as specified by the aircraft manufacturer or regulatory authorities, to ensure the aircraft's airworthiness and identify any potential issues or maintenance requirements. This inspection involves a detailed inspection of all major components, including engines, landing gear, control surfaces, electrical systems, and structural elements. It may also involve functional tests, lubrication, and servicing of various systems. The periodic inspection is more comprehensive and time-consuming compared to other types of inspections, making it the most extensive.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 06, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Beede1984
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