2a551 Ure Questions For Volume 1 Of 3

100 Questions

Settings
General Knowledge Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (001) What estimated percent of accidents are caused by nature?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 2. 
    (001) In the operational risk management process, the responsibility for identifying and controlling hazards rests with
    • A. 

      Trainers

    • B. 

      Everyone

    • C. 

      Supervisors

    • D. 

      Commanders

  • 3. 
    (001) Which safety-training phase is an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new airmen?
    • A. 

      Initial

    • B. 

      General

    • C. 

      Supervisor's

    • D. 

      Sustained job safety

  • 4. 
    (001) Responsibility for initiating a lost tool report rests with the
    • A. 

      Expediter or production supervisor

    • B. 

      Flight chief or flight commander

    • C. 

      Person that was issued the tool

    • D. 

      CTK support section

  • 5. 
    (001) The lowest person authorized to clear ar red X when a lost tool cannot be located is
    • A. 

      The crew chief

    • B. 

      The aircraft engineer

    • C. 

      The wing commander

    • D. 

      An individual assigned to maintenance supervision

  • 6. 
    (001) The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the
    • A. 

      Red markings

    • B. 

      Black markings

    • C. 

      Green markings

    • D. 

      Orange markings

  • 7. 
    (001) Minimum requirements for positioning of fire extinguishers is listed in
    • A. 

      TO 00-5-1

    • B. 

      TO 00-25-172

    • C. 

      AFOSHSTD 91 series

    • D. 

      AFOSHSTD 127 series

  • 8. 
    (002) Wearing dog tags, wristwatches, or other jewelry is expressly forbidden
    • A. 

      During fuel servicing operations

    • B. 

      During inspections of engine inlets

    • C. 

      When you're servicing high-pressure air

    • D. 

      When you're working on electrical equipment

  • 9. 
    (002) Fall protection is required when it becomes necessary to perform required tasks where a worker can fall
    • A. 

      5 feet or more

    • B. 

      10 feet or more

    • C. 

      20 feet or more

    • D. 

      25 feet or more

  • 10. 
    (003) Radiation hazards are affected by
    • A. 

      Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather

    • B. 

      Strength of emission, time of day, and the input power

    • C. 

      Input power, weather, and number of personnel in the area

    • D. 

      Time of exposure, amount of training, and number of operating units

  • 11. 
    (003) The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly in to park the aircraft in an isolated location, then
    • A. 

      Spray with cold water

    • B. 

      Cool with forced air from a blower

    • C. 

      Cool with high-pressure compressed air

    • D. 

      Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air

  • 12. 
    (003) Normally, the safe distance behind an operating jet engine exhaust is
    • A. 

      125 feet

    • B. 

      150 feet

    • C. 

      175 feet

    • D. 

      200 feet

  • 13. 
    (003) How is a maintenance stand secured when placed near an operating propeller?
    • A. 

      Remove stand tow bar

    • B. 

      Place sand bags on top of stand

    • C. 

      Use chains to secure handrails to stand

    • D. 

      Wrap chains around each wheel individually

  • 14. 
    (003) Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue?
    • A. 

      Dizziness

    • B. 

      Emotional irritability

    • C. 

      A feeling of emptiness

    • D. 

      Impairment of mental concentration

  • 15. 
    (004) Any fuel spill not over 50 square feet and not continuous is classified as a
    • A. 

      Class I

    • B. 

      Class II

    • C. 

      Class III

    • D. 

      Class IV

  • 16. 
    (004) Individuals who are not directly involved in a nitrogen servicing operation should be outside a
    • A. 

      15 foot radius

    • B. 

      20 foot radius

    • C. 

      25 foot radius

    • D. 

      50 foot radius

  • 17. 
    (005) To ensure equipment is ready and available at the time of need, the Air Force uses
    • A. 

      Preventive maintenance

    • B. 

      Corrective maintenance

    • C. 

      Protective maintenance

    • D. 

      Unscheduled maintenance

  • 18. 
    (005) Responsibility for establishing a climate that promotes maintenance discipline rests with
    • A. 

      First sergeants

    • B. 

      Subordinate personnel

    • C. 

      Immediate supervisors

    • D. 

      Squadron commanders

  • 19. 
    (006) Prime contributors to dropped objects are
    • A. 

      Chaff/flare discharges

    • B. 

      Latches and fasteners

    • C. 

      Jettisoned fuel tanks

    • D. 

      Hung weapons

  • 20. 
    (007) The objectives of the maintenance data documtation system include
    • A. 

      Calling, saving, and reviewing base-level data

    • B. 

      Calling, storing, and retrieving base-level data

    • C. 

      Collecting, saving, and reviewing base-level data

    • D. 

      Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data

  • 21. 
    (007) The basic rules for the maintenance data documentation system are contained in TO
    • A. 

      00-5-1

    • B. 

      00-20-1

    • C. 

      00-20-2

    • D. 

      00-20-5

  • 22. 
    (008) The three phases of the operational events subsystem of the IMDS CDB are
    • A. 

      Input, output, and archive

    • B. 

      On-line, off-line, and update

    • C. 

      Data recording, tracking, and retrieval

    • D. 

      Mission recording, mission accomplishment, and analysis

  • 23. 
    (008) You can use the IMDS CDB Training Management Subsystem to monitor
    • A. 

      Upgrade training

    • B. 

      Optional training

    • C. 

      Specialty training

    • D. 

      Qualitative training

  • 24. 
    (009) After student graduation, how many days later is the technical school graduate assessment survey normally sent to organizations?
    • A. 

      45

    • B. 

      60

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      120

  • 25. 
    (009) Unsatisfactory comments on the graduate assessment survey are answered by
    • A. 

      The instructor of the student using an AETC Form 156

    • B. 

      A telephone call from the instructor of the student

    • C. 

      Electronic mail from the instructor of the student

    • D. 

      A letter from the instructor of the student

  • 26. 
    (010) Tasks that a person is expected to perform in a duty position or workcenter but are not included in the CFETP Part II or AFJQS are listed
    • A. 

      In the JQS

    • B. 

      In the CFETP

    • C. 

      On an AF Form 797

    • D. 

      In the AF Form 623a

  • 27. 
    (011) Who may standardize the arrangements of the forms binder?
    • A. 

      Flight chief

    • B. 

      Section chief

    • C. 

      MAJCOMs

    • D. 

      Wing commander

  • 28. 
    (011) to obtain billing information for fuel and oil on an aircraft, you would check the AFTO
    • A. 

      781 A

    • B. 

      781 F

    • C. 

      781 H

    • D. 

      781 J

  • 29. 
    (011) When must the AFTO Form 781 be removed fromthe forms binder?
    • A. 

      Before each thruflight

    • B. 

      Before the first flight of the day

    • C. 

      After each maintenance action with an assigned job control number

    • D. 

      After the IMDS CDB event number is entered at maintenance debriefing

  • 30. 
    (011) Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on the AFTO Form
    • A. 

      781 G

    • B. 

      781 J

    • C. 

      781 M

    • D. 

      781 P

  • 31. 
    (011) You would use the AFTO Form 781 K to document
    • A. 

      Engine data

    • B. 

      Daily flying time

    • C. 

      Replacement items

    • D. 

      Support general work

  • 32. 
    (012) the standards for the entries to be made in the AFTO 781 series forms are specified in the
    • A. 

      00-20 series of TOs

    • B. 

      00-25 series of TOs

    • C. 

      00-35 series of TOs

    • D. 

      00-110 series of TOs

  • 33. 
    (012) Which is the proper way to manually record a date in the 781 series forms?
    • A. 

      December 12, 2009

    • B. 

      12 Dec 09

    • C. 

      20091212

    • D. 

      12/12/09

  • 34. 
    (012) What action is necessary to clear an erroneous red diagonal symbol?
    • A. 

      Erase the incorrect symbol and replace with correct symbol

    • B. 

      An authorized individual will sign the "Inspected By" block and initial over the symbol

    • C. 

      Place the statement "Symbol entered in error," in the discrepancy block and sign the "Inspected By" block

    • D. 

      Place the statement "Symbol entered in error," in the discrepancy block and sign the "Corrected By" block

  • 35. 
    (012) During an aircraft inspection, you find a deteriorated insignia decal.  What symbol would you use in the aircraft forms?
    • A. 

      Red X

    • B. 

      Red dash

    • C. 

      Red diagonal

    • D. 

      None

  • 36. 
    (013) How many Air Force TO catalogs are there?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 37. 
    (014) Inspection workcards are known as
    • A. 

      Abbreviated TOs

    • B. 

      Technical manuals

    • C. 

      Methods and procedure TOs

    • D. 

      Scheduled inspection and maintenance requirements manuals

  • 38. 
    (014) which TCTO is identified by a series of red diagonals alternately spaced with red Xs (/ X / X / X) around the border of the first page?
    • A. 

      Record

    • B. 

      Urgent action

    • C. 

      Routine action

    • D. 

      Immediate action

  • 39. 
    (014) As a general rule, ITCTO are replaced by formal TOs within
    • A. 

      48 hours

    • B. 

      72 hours

    • C. 

      10 days

    • D. 

      15 days

  • 40. 
    (015) The procedures for the entries on an AFTO Form 22 are outlined in
    • A. 

      TO 00-5-1

    • B. 

      TO 00-1-01

    • C. 

      The 00-20 series TOs

    • D. 

      The 00-25 series TOs

  • 41. 
    (015) What type of TO improvement is issued for TCTO deficiencies?
    • A. 

      Emergency

    • B. 

      Urgent

    • C. 

      Routine

    • D. 

      Record

  • 42. 
    (016) Which type of directive publication is an extnsion of an instruction?
    • A. 

      Directory

    • B. 

      Pamphlet

    • C. 

      Manual

    • D. 

      Policy

  • 43. 
    (016) An example of something that should not be published in an OI would be
    • A. 

      Selection procedures for NCO of the Quarter

    • B. 

      CTK control procedures

    • C. 

      Cold weather procedures

    • D. 

      Installation traffic rules

  • 44. 
    (016) Publications are listed in AFIND2 in a
    • A. 

      Logical sequence

    • B. 

      Numerical sequence

    • C. 

      Alphabetical sequence

    • D. 

      Alphanumeric sequence

  • 45. 
    (017) A sequence chart used in aircraft maintenance best serves as
    • A. 

      A ready reference for determining the progress of the inspection

    • B. 

      An outline of the minimum requirements for controlling work assignments

    • C. 

      A control of work assignments for determining the type of equipment needed

    • D. 

      An outline of the minimum requirements for determining the type of personnel needed

  • 46. 
    (018) Which inspection is basically a flight preparedness check?
    • A. 

      Preflight

    • B. 

      Postflight

    • C. 

      Thruflight

    • D. 

      End-of-runway

  • 47. 
    (018) What inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems?
    • A. 

      Preflight

    • B. 

      Thruflight

    • C. 

      In progress

    • D. 

      End-of-runway

  • 48. 
    (018) If a basic postflight inspection is not required, the thru-flight inspection is normally performed
    • A. 

      Prior to an aircraft going on alert and again before a flight after completion of the alert period

    • B. 

      After flights when a turn-around sortie or a continuation flight is scheduled

    • C. 

      Immediately prior to a basic post flight inspection

    • D. 

      After the last flight of a specified flying period

  • 49. 
    (018) the basic postflight inspection is performed to
    • A. 

      Prepare the aircraft for another flight

    • B. 

      Determine the flight status of the aircraft

    • C. 

      Prepare the aircraft for the first flight of the day

    • D. 

      Determine if the aircraft is suitable for another flight

  • 50. 
    (018) Which is the most extensive inspection?
    • A. 

      Periodic

    • B. 

      Thruflight

    • C. 

      Basic postflight

    • D. 

      Hourly postflight

  • 51. 
    (018) The home station check is accomplished in conjunction with
    • A. 

      Minor and major inspections

    • B. 

      Phased and periodic inspections

    • C. 

      Preflight and periodic inspections

    • D. 

      Hourly postflight and basic postflight inspections

  • 52. 
    (018) What aircraft inspection requires skills, equipment, or facilities not normally possessed by operating locations?
    • A. 

      Major maintenance

    • B. 

      Consolidated maintenance

    • C. 

      Organizational maintenance

    • D. 

      Programmed depot maintenance

  • 53. 
    (018) What symbol is entered on the forms if an aircraft exceeds the programmed depot maintenance cycle by 90 days and an extension is not granted?
    • A. 

      Red X

    • B. 

      Red dash

    • C. 

      Red diagonal

    • D. 

      No symbol required

  • 54. 
    (018) What type of inspection is used to ensure the completeness of historical documents?
    • A. 

      Phase

    • B. 

      Special

    • C. 

      Calendar

    • D. 

      Acceptance

  • 55. 
    (019) Why are aluminum alloy washers used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in low-torque applications?
    • A. 

      Reduce shearing

    • B. 

      Prevent vibration

    • C. 

      Prevent corrosion

    • D. 

      Reduce shimming

  • 56. 
    (019) What bolt is used where heavy tension or lengthwise stress must be sustained?
    • A. 

      Stud

    • B. 

      Clevis

    • C. 

      Eyebolt

    • D. 

      Hexhead

  • 57. 
    (019) which bolt has a recessed head and is used in high-tension applications?
    • A. 

      Stud

    • B. 

      Eyebolt

    • C. 

      Hexhead

    • D. 

      Internal wrenching

  • 58. 
    (019) At least how many threads must be showing through a self-locking nut for maximum locking effect?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 59. 
    (019) to use .032 gauge safety wire properly, there should be how many turns per inch?
    • A. 

      7-12

    • B. 

      8-10

    • C. 

      8-12

    • D. 

      10-13

  • 60. 
    (019) If the manufacturer's brochure is not available, prior to using a torque wrench, you should cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the
    • A. 

      Lowest setting and at least four times

    • B. 

      Maximum setting and at least four times

    • C. 

      Lowest setting and at least six times

    • D. 

      Maximum setting and at least six times

  • 61. 
    (020) Aircraft cable size is determined by its
    • A. 

      Length

    • B. 

      Radius

    • C. 

      Diameter

    • D. 

      Circumference

  • 62. 
    (020) A 7 X 19 cable has
    • A. 

      7 strands with 19 wires per strand

    • B. 

      7 wires with 19 strands per wire

    • C. 

      133 wires per strand

    • D. 

      133 strands per wire

  • 63. 
    (020) Normally, pressure seals are constructed of
    • A. 

      Soft rubber

    • B. 

      A phenolic mix

    • C. 

      Nonmagnetic materials

    • D. 

      Thermosetting plastic materials

  • 64. 
    (020) To check the engagement of a push-pull rod end, you would
    • A. 

      Use a depth gauge to check end play

    • B. 

      Ensure no lateral movement exists

    • C. 

      Use an inside caliper to check the rod end bearing

    • D. 

      Insert a piece of safety wire into the hole in the end of the terminal

  • 65. 
    (021) Aircraft tubing can be constructed of
    • A. 

      Aluminum-alloy and stainless-steel

    • B. 

      Aluminum-alloy and galvanized-steel

    • C. 

      Stainless-steel and chromium-alloy

    • D. 

      Galvanized-steel and chromium-alloy

  • 66. 
    (021) Generally, low-pressure hoses are used for pressures of what pounds psi and below?
    • A. 

      200

    • B. 

      300

    • C. 

      500

    • D. 

      1000

  • 67. 
    (022) What parts of a cannon plug complete the electrical circuit?
    • A. 

      Metal shells

    • B. 

      Connector halves

    • C. 

      Dielectric contacts

    • D. 

      Pin-and-socket contacts

  • 68. 
    (022) What can you use to tighten cannon plugs?
    • A. 

      Fingers

    • B. 

      Strap wrench

    • C. 

      Padded conduit pliers

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 69. 
    (023) Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is
    • A. 

      Painted

    • B. 

      Heat treated

    • C. 

      Chemically treated

    • D. 

      Exhausted or salvaged

  • 70. 
    (023) What is the most severe type of corrosion, because it's hard to detect without some type of nondestructive test?
    • A. 

      Filiform

    • B. 

      Exfoliation

    • C. 

      Intergranular

    • D. 

      Corrosion fatigue

  • 71. 
    (023) which type of corrosion appears as corroded cracks in a metal?
    • A. 

      Stress

    • B. 

      Intergranular

    • C. 

      Oxygen concentration cell

    • D. 

      Metal ion concentration cell

  • 72. 
    (023) To reduce corrosion, what procedure do you follow when working on aerospace equipment?
    • A. 

      Do not mark on any metal structural component with a graphite pencil

    • B. 

      Do not degrade or scratch any surface unless it is an authorized procedure

    • C. 

      Do not use graphite as a lubricant for any component located in a high-heat area

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 73. 
    (024) The optimum temperature used to cool sealants that were mixed in an automatic mixing machine is
    • A. 

      70 degrees F

    • B. 

      75 degrees F

    • C. 

      80 degrees F

    • D. 

      85 degrees F

  • 74. 
    (024) What advantage is gained by using accelerators to speed up an adhesive curing process?
    • A. 

      Application time is reduced

    • B. 

      Fewer chemicals are required

    • C. 

      Machine mixing is not necessary

    • D. 

      Air isn't required to affect a cure

  • 75. 
    (025) For the most part, the frequency of cleaning an aircraft exterior varies depending on the
    • A. 

      Structural design

    • B. 

      Mission of the aircraft

    • C. 

      Environmental conditions

    • D. 

      Corrosion treatments available

  • 76. 
    (025) What type of cleaners are not very effective on grease, but are excellent for lightly soiled areas, plastics, and instrument glass covers in the interior of an aircraft?
    • A. 

      Alkaline cleaners

    • B. 

      Solvent cleaners

    • C. 

      Detergent cleaners

    • D. 

      Solvent emulsion cleaners

  • 77. 
    (025) What solution is used to treat areas that have been affected with electrolyte froma lead-acid battery?
    • A. 

      Boric acid

    • B. 

      Aluminum hydroxide

    • C. 

      Sodium bicarbonate and water

    • D. 

      Potassium hydroxide and water

  • 78. 
    (025) Which statement is not a good lubrication tip?
    • A. 

      Heat lubricants to make them easier to apply

    • B. 

      Never apply lubricants to a corroded surface

    • C. 

      Force grease into fittings until new grease is evident

    • D. 

      Filter all oils procured in containers larger than 1-gallon size

  • 79. 
    (026) Under ideal conditions, an aircraft is operationally ready when
    • A. 

      The aircraft forms are checked

    • B. 

      It is released by production scheduling

    • C. 

      All minor discrepancies are complete

    • D. 

      The required inspection and servicing are complete

  • 80. 
    (026) responsibility for accomplishing the -1 preflight check rests with
    • A. 

      The aircrew

    • B. 

      The ground crew

    • C. 

      Operations personnel

    • D. 

      Maintenance supervision

  • 81. 
    (026) Which condition is most likely to cause aircraft damage?
    • A. 

      Tornadoes

    • B. 

      Hurricanes

    • C. 

      Sudden local storms

    • D. 

      Predicted heavy storms

  • 82. 
    (026) What type of jack would you use to raise an aircraft strut prior to a tire change?
    • A. 

      Axle

    • B. 

      Tripod

    • C. 

      Fuselage

    • D. 

      Fixed-height

  • 83. 
    (027) The F-2 lifting bag is designed to lift
    • A. 

      22,000 pounds to a maximum height of 6 feet

    • B. 

      22,000 pounds to a maximum height of 8 feet

    • C. 

      24,000 pounds to a maximum height of 6 feet

    • D. 

      24,000 pounds to a maximum height of 8 feet

  • 84. 
    (027) During crash recovery, what method of aircraft hoisting is confined to emergencies when no other method is available?
    • A. 

      Cribbing

    • B. 

      Lifting bags

    • C. 

      Crane hoisting

    • D. 

      Aircraft jacking

  • 85. 
    • A. 

      15-day usage

    • B. 

      30-day usage

    • C. 

      60-day usage

    • D. 

      90-day usage

  • 86. 
    (028) The maintenance activities that have the option to develop and maintain quick reference lists are those with how many or more aircraft of the same mission, design, and series?
    • A. 

      Three

    • B. 

      Six

    • C. 

      Nine

    • D. 

      Twelve

  • 87. 
    (028) To issue an item of equipment for short specified periods, used the
    • A. 

      AF Form 2005

    • B. 

      AF Form 2413

    • C. 

      AF Form 1297

    • D. 

      DD Form 1348-6

  • 88. 
    (028) Critical items are generally small numbers of items that cause the largest number of
    • A. 

      Mission delays

    • B. 

      On-time takeoffs

    • C. 

      NRTS conditions

    • D. 

      NMCS conditoins

  • 89. 
    (028) The base critical items list is maintained by
    • A. 

      The critical item monitor and the Chief of Supply

    • B. 

      Personnel in the MAJCOMs and Base Supply

    • C. 

      Personnel in the MAJCOMs and MSL

    • D. 

      Personnel in Base Supply in coordination with MSL

  • 90. 
    (028) Internal control of repairable items within maintenance is accomplished through the use of the DIFM notice and the
    • A. 

      DD Form 1131

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 341

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 350

    • D. 

      DD Form 1348-6

  • 91. 
    (028) What copy of the DD Form 1348-1 is retained by the individual who receives an item from supply?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 92. 
    (028) What form is used to report accomplishment of TCTO?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1348-6

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 349

    • C. 

      AF Form 2413

    • D. 

      AF Form 2005

  • 93. 
    (028) Red margins and letters are used to allow you to easily identify the DD Form
    • A. 

      1574 and DD Form 1574-1

    • B. 

      15751 and DD Form 1575-1

    • C. 

      1576 and DD Form 1576-1

    • D. 

      1577 and DD Form 1577-1

  • 94. 
    (028) Green margins and letters are used to allow you to easily identify the DD Form
    • A. 

      1577-2 and 1577-3

    • B. 

      1576 and DD Form 1576-1

    • C. 

      1574 and DD Form 1574-1

    • D. 

      1575 and DD Form 1575-1

  • 95. 
    (029) To report quality deficiencies attributed to errors in workmanship, use a Category
    • A. 

      I DR

    • B. 

      II DR

    • C. 

      III DR

    • D. 

      IV DR

  • 96. 
    (029) Submission of a Category II deficiency report is required within how many calendar days?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      11

    • C. 

      12

    • D. 

      13

  • 97. 
    (029) Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in workmanship for the first
    • A. 

      100 hours of operation or six months from the date of receipt

    • B. 

      100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt

    • C. 

      200 hours of operation or six months from the date of receipt

    • D. 

      200 hours of operation or one month from the date of receipt

  • 98. 
    (030) A commander assures that property is receiving proper care and is being properly safeguarded by
    • A. 

      Inspecting the property on issue

    • B. 

      Inspecting the property on turn-in

    • C. 

      Making frequent visits to base activities

    • D. 

      Obtaining written reports from supervisors

  • 99. 
    (030) What type of responsibility is assumed by an individual who has acquired physical possession of government property?
    • A. 

      Personal

    • B. 

      Custodial

    • C. 

      Command

    • D. 

      Supervisory

  • 100. 
    (030) When pecuniary liability is not involved, an individual may be relieved of property responsibility
    • A. 

      By a report of survey

    • B. 

      By turn-in or by transfer

    • C. 

      Only upon supervisor's recommendation

    • D. 

      Only upon commander's recommendation