220-701 A+ Essentials Quiz

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  • 1/100 Questions

    How many concurrent connections can a Windows XP computer have established at any given time?

    • 5
    • 10
    • 15
    • 20
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About This Quiz

This 220-701 A+ essentials quiz assesses knowledge on various technical aspects such as Windows XP connections, graphics card ports, POST keyboard signals, laptop power management, power consumption states, and external hard drive connections.

220-701 A+ Essentials Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following ports is MOST likely used for high-end graphics cards?

    • PCI

    • PCIe

    • ISA

    • AGP

    Correct Answer
    A. PCIe
    Explanation
    PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) is the most likely port used for high-end graphics cards. PCIe provides faster data transfer rates and higher bandwidth compared to other ports like PCI, ISA, and AGP. It is specifically designed to handle high-performance devices such as graphics cards, allowing for better graphics processing and rendering capabilities. Therefore, PCIe is the preferred choice for high-end graphics cards due to its superior performance and compatibility with modern systems.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is indicated by repetitive flashing lights on a keyboard at POST?

    • A password is needed

    • An external peripheral error

    • A software error

    • A hardware error

    Correct Answer
    A. A hardware error
    Explanation
    Repetitive flashing lights on a keyboard at POST indicate a hardware error. During the Power-On Self Test (POST), the computer checks the hardware components for any issues. If there is a problem with the keyboard or its connection, the repetitive flashing lights serve as an indication of the hardware error. This helps the user identify and troubleshoot the issue before proceeding with the system startup.

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  • 4. 

    Why would the display dim on a laptop when the power supply from the electrical outlet is disconnected?

    • The laptop displays require a 60 hertz alternating power source.

    • Incorrect security settings on the laptop.

    • The power management settings on the laptop.

    • The laptop cannot use full brightness on battery power.

    Correct Answer
    A. The power management settings on the laptop.
    Explanation
    When the power supply from the electrical outlet is disconnected, the laptop switches to battery power. The power management settings on the laptop are responsible for optimizing the battery usage and conserving power. One of the power-saving measures is to dim the display when on battery power to reduce power consumption and extend battery life. Therefore, the display dims on a laptop when the power supply is disconnected due to the power management settings.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following states consumes the LEAST amount of power?

    • Sleep

    • Suspend

    • Standby

    • Hibernate

    Correct Answer
    A. Hibernate
    Explanation
    Hibernate consumes the least amount of power among the given options. In hibernate mode, the computer saves the current state to the hard drive and then shuts down completely. It uses no power while in hibernate mode, as opposed to sleep, suspend, and standby modes, which still consume a small amount of power to keep the system in a low-power state. Therefore, hibernate is the correct answer for the state that consumes the least amount of power.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following adapter cards would be the FASTEST for connecting an external hard drive?

    • Wide SCSI

    • FireWire 800

    • ESATA

    • USB 2.0

    Correct Answer
    A. ESATA
    Explanation
    The eSATA adapter card would be the fastest for connecting an external hard drive. eSATA stands for External Serial Advanced Technology Attachment and it provides a high-speed connection specifically designed for external storage devices. It offers faster data transfer rates compared to the other options listed, such as Wide SCSI, FireWire 800, and USB 2.0.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is the purpose of thermal compound?

    • To facilitate the transfer of heat from the CPU to the heat sink

    • To facilitate the adhesion of the CPU to the heat sink

    • To facilitate the reduction of heat to the heat sink

    • To assist in insulating the CPU from electrical damage

    Correct Answer
    A. To facilitate the transfer of heat from the CPU to the heat sink
    Explanation
    The purpose of thermal compound is to facilitate the transfer of heat from the CPU to the heat sink. Thermal compound is a substance that is applied between the CPU and the heat sink to fill in any microscopic gaps and improve the contact between the two surfaces. It helps to enhance the thermal conductivity and ensure efficient heat transfer, allowing the heat generated by the CPU to be effectively dissipated by the heat sink.

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  • 8. 

    Hyperthreading technology: A. only works on computer systems with multiple core CPUs. B. enables a processor to work with two independent computer instructions at once. C. enables two independent processors to work on the same task, simultaneously. D. allows a computer program to work on multiple tasks simultaneously.

    • Only works on computer systems with multiple core CPUs.

    • Enables a processor to work with two independent computer instructions at once.

    • Enables two independent processors to work on the same task, simultaneously.

    • Allows a computer program to work on multiple tasks simultaneously.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enables a processor to work with two independent computer instructions at once.
    Explanation
    Hyperthreading technology enables a processor to work with two independent computer instructions at once. This means that the processor can handle multiple tasks simultaneously by dividing its resources and executing multiple threads at the same time. It improves overall performance and efficiency by utilizing idle execution units and increasing the utilization of the processor's resources. It does not require multiple core CPUs, as it can be implemented on single-core CPUs as well.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is the MOST secure method to use when setting up a wireless network?

    • WPA

    • WEP

    • Hidden SSID

    • WPA2

    Correct Answer
    A. WPA2
    Explanation
    WPA2 is the most secure method to use when setting up a wireless network. WPA2 provides stronger encryption and authentication protocols compared to WEP and WPA. WEP is an older and less secure method that can be easily cracked. Hidden SSID does not provide any additional security and can be easily discovered by attackers. Therefore, WPA2 is the recommended method for securing a wireless network.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following configuration changes can a user perform that will save the MOST energy?

    • Let the system blank the screen after five minutes of inactivity

    • Disable screen saver

    • Disable the hibernate mode

    • Enable a photo album screen saver

    Correct Answer
    A. Let the system blank the screen after five minutes of inactivity
    Explanation
    Letting the system blank the screen after five minutes of inactivity can save the most energy because it reduces the power consumption of the screen when it is not in use. Disabling the screen saver, disabling the hibernate mode, and enabling a photo album screen saver may also save some energy, but they are not as effective as simply blanking the screen after a short period of inactivity.

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  • 11. 

    When installing a wireless keyboard and mouse, which of the following should be installed in the laptop?

    • Digitizer

    • Infrared

    • Ethernet

    • Bluetooth

    Correct Answer
    A. Bluetooth
    Explanation
    When installing a wireless keyboard and mouse, Bluetooth should be installed in the laptop. Bluetooth technology allows for wireless communication between devices, such as the laptop and the keyboard/mouse. By installing Bluetooth on the laptop, it enables the laptop to connect and communicate with the wireless keyboard and mouse without the need for any physical cables or connections. This provides convenience and flexibility in using the keyboard and mouse, as they can be used from a distance without any wires restricting movement.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following describes a Quad Core processor?

    • A CPU with four direct channels to the FSB.

    • Four CPU cores operating off one CPU package.

    • A PC with four unique processors.

    • A CPU with four cache memory locations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Four CPU cores operating off one CPU package.
    Explanation
    A Quad Core processor refers to a CPU with four CPU cores operating off one CPU package. This means that the processor has four independent processing units within a single physical package, allowing it to handle multiple tasks simultaneously and improve overall performance. Each core can execute instructions independently, enabling efficient multitasking and faster processing speeds.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following default ports is used for Telnet?

    • 21

    • 22

    • 23

    • 25

    Correct Answer
    A. 23
    Explanation
    Telnet is a network protocol used to establish a remote connection between devices. The default port for Telnet is port 23. This means that when a Telnet session is initiated, it will use port 23 as the communication channel. Port 21 is used for FTP (File Transfer Protocol), port 22 is used for SSH (Secure Shell), and port 25 is used for SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol). Therefore, the correct answer is 23.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following memory types is the MOST current?

    • DDR

    • RAMBUS

    • DRAM

    • SDRAM

    Correct Answer
    A. DDR
    Explanation
    DDR (Double Data Rate) memory is the most current memory type among the options provided. DDR memory is an improved version of SDRAM (Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory) that allows data to be transferred on both the rising and falling edges of the clock signal, effectively doubling the data transfer rate compared to SDRAM. RAMBUS is an outdated memory type that was popular in the late 1990s and early 2000s, while DRAM (Dynamic Random Access Memory) is a generic term that encompasses various types of memory including SDRAM and DDR. SDRAM (Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory) is a previous generation memory type that has been superseded by DDR.

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  • 15. 

    During troubleshooting, the technician determines the cause of the problem. Which of the following is the NEXT step in the troubleshooting theory? A. Document findings, actions, and outcomes. B. Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures. C. Establish a theory of probable cause. D. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solutions.

    • Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

    • Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures.

    • Establish a theory of probable cause.

    • Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solutions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solutions.
    Explanation
    After determining the cause of the problem, the next step in the troubleshooting theory is to establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solutions. This involves creating a step-by-step plan to address the issue and deciding on the appropriate solutions to implement. It is important to have a clear plan in place to ensure that the problem is effectively resolved and that the necessary actions are taken to prevent it from recurring in the future.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following hard drives would BEST meet the MINIMUM system requirements for installing Windows Vista Business 64-bit?

    • 160GB HDD with 10GB free space

    • 20GB HDD with 15GB free space

    • 40GB HDD with 15GB free space

    • 80GB HDD with 10GB free space

    Correct Answer
    A. 40GB HDD with 15GB free space
    Explanation
    The best hard drive that would meet the minimum system requirements for installing Windows Vista Business 64-bit is the 40GB HDD with 15GB free space. This is because Windows Vista Business 64-bit requires a minimum of 40GB of hard drive space, and having an additional 15GB of free space ensures that there is enough room for the operating system and any additional software or files.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following commands is used to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server?

    • Ipconfig /renew

    • Ping -t

    • Nslookup

    • Msconfig

    Correct Answer
    A. Ipconfig /renew
    Explanation
    The command "ipconfig /renew" is used to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server. When this command is executed, it sends a request to the DHCP server to renew the IP address lease. The DHCP server then assigns a new IP address to the device, allowing it to connect to the network. This command is commonly used when troubleshooting network connectivity issues or when a device needs to obtain a new IP address.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is the MOST secure way to destroy sensitive data?

    • Use the command line delete on the data.

    • Use a program that rewrites over the data several times.

    • Move the data into the Recycle Bin and then empty it.

    • Move the data onto a portable drive and then destroy the drive.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use a program that rewrites over the data several times.
    Explanation
    Using a program that rewrites over the data several times is the most secure way to destroy sensitive data. This method ensures that the original data is overwritten with random characters multiple times, making it extremely difficult to recover any information from the destroyed data. Simply using the command line delete or moving the data into the Recycle Bin and emptying it may not completely remove the data from the storage device, as it can still be recovered using specialized software. Destroying the drive itself is also secure, but it may not be practical in all situations.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is another name for an RS-232 connection?

    • Serial

    • USB

    • IEEE 1394

    • Ethernet

    Correct Answer
    A. Serial
    Explanation
    An RS-232 connection is commonly referred to as "Serial" because it is a standard communication interface that transmits data serially, one bit at a time. RS-232 is widely used for connecting devices such as computers, modems, and printers. It uses a specific set of electrical signals to transmit and receive data, making it suitable for long-distance communication. The other options, USB, IEEE 1394 (FireWire), and Ethernet, are different types of connections that have their own specifications and uses.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following printers requires a specialized paper in order to operate?

    • Thermal

    • Laser

    • Inkjet

    • Impact

    Correct Answer
    A. Thermal
    Explanation
    Thermal printers require a specialized paper in order to operate because they use heat to create images on the paper. The paper used for thermal printing has a special coating that reacts to heat, allowing the printer to create high-quality prints. Without the specialized paper, the thermal printer would not be able to produce the desired results.

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  • 21. 

    While changing a toner cartridge in a printer, a user spilled some toner. A technician noticed and offered to help clean it up. Which of the following tools would be MOST appropriate?

    • Damp cloth

    • Lint free cloth

    • Computer vacuum

    • Compressed air

    Correct Answer
    A. Computer vacuum
    Explanation
    A computer vacuum would be the most appropriate tool to clean up spilled toner in a printer. Toner is a fine powder that can easily spread and become airborne, making it difficult to clean with a damp or lint-free cloth. Using compressed air may also cause the toner to spread further. A computer vacuum is specifically designed to safely remove dust and debris from electronic devices, making it the best choice for cleaning up toner without causing further damage.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is a common protocol used to send email?

    • POP3

    • FTP

    • SFTP

    • SMTP

    Correct Answer
    A. SMTP
    Explanation
    SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is a common protocol used to send email. It is responsible for transmitting email messages between servers and is widely used for sending outgoing mail from a mail client to a mail server. POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) is used for receiving email, FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is used for transferring files, and SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) is a secure version of FTP used for secure file transfers. However, none of these protocols are primarily used for sending email like SMTP.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following will dissipate heat and requires no moving parts?

    • Liquid cooling system

    • Motherboard riser

    • Case fan

    • Heat sink

    Correct Answer
    A. Heat sink
    Explanation
    A heat sink is a device that dissipates heat from a hot surface, such as a computer processor, without the need for any moving parts. It is typically made of metal and has a large surface area to efficiently transfer heat to the surrounding environment. Heat sinks work through a process called conduction, where heat is transferred from the hot surface to the cooler metal of the heat sink. The heat is then dissipated into the air through convection, without the need for any fans or other moving parts. Therefore, a heat sink is the correct answer as it dissipates heat without any moving parts.

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  • 24. 

    A system administrator has multiple computers, of the same make and model that will remotely turn on using Wake-On-LAN (WOL). All but two systems wake correctly. Which of the following is the MOST likely problem with the two systems?

    • WOL is not enabled in the BIOS.

    • The computers do not support WOL functionality.

    • The network card settings in Windows are incorrect.

    • Power settings are incorrect in the BIOS.

    Correct Answer
    A. WOL is not enabled in the BIOS.
    Explanation
    The most likely problem with the two systems is that WOL is not enabled in the BIOS. This is because Wake-On-LAN (WOL) is a feature that allows a computer to be powered on remotely, and it requires the BIOS of the computer to have WOL enabled. Since all the computers are of the same make and model, it is unlikely that the issue is with the computers not supporting WOL functionality or the network card settings in Windows being incorrect. Additionally, power settings being incorrect in the BIOS would not prevent the computers from waking correctly. Therefore, the most likely problem is that WOL is not enabled in the BIOS.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following are the BEST means of ensuring that data is not lost? (Select TWO).

    • Ensure all preventative maintenance tasks are being performed

    • Deploy a RAID system

    • Schedule regular system backups

    • Ensure that all servers are in secured areas

    • Deploy all OS and security updates

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Deploy a RAID system
    A. Schedule regular system backups
    Explanation
    Deploying a RAID system and scheduling regular system backups are the best means of ensuring that data is not lost. A RAID system provides redundancy by distributing data across multiple drives, so if one drive fails, the data can still be accessed from the remaining drives. Regular system backups create copies of data that can be restored in case of data loss due to hardware failure, software corruption, or other issues. By combining these two measures, data can be protected from both hardware failures and accidental deletion or corruption.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following utilities is used for troubleshooting video issues?

    • REGEDIT

    • DXDIAG

    • DCDIAG

    • MSCONFIG

    Correct Answer
    A. DXDIAG
    Explanation
    DXDIAG is the correct answer because it is a utility specifically designed for diagnosing and troubleshooting video and audio issues on Windows operating systems. It provides detailed information about the computer's hardware and drivers, including video card information, display settings, and DirectX diagnostics. By using DXDIAG, users can identify and resolve video problems such as display resolution, color depth, driver compatibility, and other related issues.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following cable types can transmit data the LONGEST distance without the use of a repeater?

    • UTP

    • Coaxial

    • Fiber

    • STP

    Correct Answer
    A. Fiber
    Explanation
    Fiber optic cables can transmit data over the longest distance without the use of a repeater. This is because fiber optic cables use light signals to transmit data, which can travel much farther without losing signal strength compared to electrical signals used in UTP and STP cables. Coaxial cables can transmit data over longer distances than UTP and STP cables, but they still have limitations compared to fiber optic cables. Therefore, fiber optic cables are the best choice for long-distance data transmission without the need for repeaters.

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  • 28. 

    A Windows XP computer, without a floppy drive, is producing a Non system disk error at startup. Which of the following Recovery Console commands could be used to correct this error?

    • DISKPART

    • RECOVER

    • FIXBOOT

    • FORMAT

    Correct Answer
    A. FIXBOOT
    Explanation
    FIXBOOT is the correct command that could be used to correct the Non system disk error on a Windows XP computer without a floppy drive. This command is used to write a new boot sector to the system partition, which can help resolve boot-related issues. It is likely that the current boot sector on the computer is corrupted or missing, causing the error message. By using the FIXBOOT command, the computer can create a new boot sector and potentially fix the issue.

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  • 29. 

    The portion of a disk or drive that contains the MBR is known as the:

    • Boot sector

    • Primary partition

    • Extended partition

    • Boot partition

    Correct Answer
    A. Boot sector
    Explanation
    The boot sector is the portion of a disk or drive that contains the Master Boot Record (MBR). The MBR is a small program that is responsible for booting the operating system. It is located in the boot sector and contains information about the disk's partition table and the location of the operating system's boot loader. Therefore, the correct answer is boot sector.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following BEST describes the differences between a switch and a router?

    • A router broadcasts all data packets that are sent on the network, and a switch transmits data directly to the device.

    • A switch interconnects one or more networks, where a router interconnects devices on a network.

    • A switch interconnects devices on the same network to be able to communicate, where a router interconnects one or more networks.

    • A switch broadcasts all data packets that are sent on the network, and a router transmits data directly to the device.

    Correct Answer
    A. A switch interconnects devices on the same network to be able to communicate, where a router interconnects one or more networks.
    Explanation
    A switch interconnects devices on the same network to allow them to communicate, while a router interconnects one or more networks. Switches operate at the data link layer of the OSI model and can transmit data directly to the intended device. On the other hand, routers operate at the network layer and are responsible for forwarding data between different networks. They make decisions about the best path for data to travel across networks based on network protocols and routing tables. This option accurately describes the main differences between switches and routers.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following is an example of a Class C IP address?

    • 127.0.0.1

    • 192.168.1.100

    • 255.255.255.0

    • 225.225.225.1

    Correct Answer
    A. 192.168.1.100
    Explanation
    The IP address 192.168.1.100 is an example of a Class C IP address. In Class C, the first three octets (192.168.1) represent the network portion, while the last octet (100) represents the host portion. Class C addresses are typically used for small to medium-sized networks. The other options, 127.0.0.1, 255.255.255.0, and 225.225.225.1, are not Class C IP addresses.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following wireless technology standards has the GREATEST indoor range?

    • 802.11a

    • 802.11b

    • 802.11g

    • 802.11n

    Correct Answer
    A. 802.11n
    Explanation
    802.11n has the greatest indoor range among the given wireless technology standards. This is because 802.11n operates on both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands, allowing for better signal penetration through walls and other obstacles. Additionally, 802.11n utilizes multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO) technology, which uses multiple antennas to improve both range and signal quality. Therefore, 802.11n provides a longer range and better coverage in indoor environments compared to the other options.

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  • 33. 

    A user reports that their computer is very loud and occasionally turns itself off. The computer is located under a desk on carpet. Which of the following steps should the technician perform to BEST remedy the situation? (Select TWO).

    • Replace the power cord.

    • Install a new hard drive.

    • Remove the computer from the floor.

    • Clean the inside of the computer.

    • Wipe the computer with a cloth.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Remove the computer from the floor.
    A. Wipe the computer with a cloth.
    Explanation
    The computer being located under a desk on carpet can cause several issues. The loud noise could be due to poor ventilation, as the carpet can block the air vents and cause the computer to overheat. Removing the computer from the floor will help improve airflow and reduce the noise. Additionally, cleaning the inside of the computer with a cloth can help remove any dust or debris that may be causing the noise or interfering with the components.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following wireless technology standards can operate at a MAXIMUM of 11Mbps?

    • 802.11a

    • 802.11b

    • 802.11g

    • 802.11n

    Correct Answer
    A. 802.11b
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 802.11b. This wireless technology standard can operate at a maximum of 11Mbps. It was the first widely adopted Wi-Fi standard and operates in the 2.4GHz frequency range. Although it has slower speeds compared to newer standards like 802.11n or 802.11ac, it still provides sufficient bandwidth for basic internet browsing and email.

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  • 35. 

    When working within large computer networks, which of the following is the disadvantage of using NETBEUI over TCP/IP? (Select TWO).

    • NETBEUI is designed to be used on small size LANs.

    • NETBEUI is unavailable on non-Windows operating systems.

    • NETBEUI can only be used on pre-Windows NT networks.

    • NETBEUI is not a routable protocol.

    • NETBEUI can only be used with DHCP.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. NETBEUI is designed to be used on small size LANs.
    A. NETBEUI is not a routable protocol.
    Explanation
    NETBEUI is designed to be used on small size LANs, which means it may not be suitable for large computer networks where scalability is important. Additionally, NETBEUI is not a routable protocol, meaning it cannot be used to communicate across different networks or over the internet.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following command prompt utilities displays the current version of Windows XP and any Service Packs that are installed?

    • CHECKVER.EXE

    • VERSION.EXE

    • SIGVERIF.EXE

    • WINVER.EXE

    Correct Answer
    A. WINVER.EXE
    Explanation
    WINVER.EXE is the correct answer because it is a command prompt utility that displays the current version of Windows XP and any Service Packs that are installed. This utility provides information about the installed version of Windows XP, including the build number and service pack level.

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  • 37. 

    A technician determines through testing that their probable cause theory is correct. Which of the following is the NEXT step in the troubleshooting process?

    • Question the user and identify any user changes to the computer.

    • Verify full system functionality.

    • Leave a list of instructions for the user to implement.

    • Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.

    Correct Answer
    A. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.
    Explanation
    Once a technician has determined through testing that their probable cause theory is correct, the next step in the troubleshooting process is to establish a plan of action to resolve the problem. This involves creating a detailed plan that outlines the steps and procedures needed to fix the issue at hand. This plan will guide the technician in implementing the necessary solutions and ensure that the problem is resolved effectively and efficiently.

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  • 38. 

    A technician dropped a screw in the case of a desktop computer. Which of the following tools should be used to retrieve the screws?

    • Computer vacuum

    • Plastic tweezers

    • Canned air

    • Screwdriver with magnetized tip

    Correct Answer
    A. Plastic tweezers
    Explanation
    Plastic tweezers should be used to retrieve the screws because they are non-conductive and will not cause any damage to the computer components. The technician can safely use the plastic tweezers to carefully pick up the screw without risking any electrical short circuits or other potential damage.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following would be used to increase the efficiency in which programs execute?

    • Disk Cleanup

    • Task Manager

    • Task Scheduler

    • Defrag

    Correct Answer
    A. Defrag
    Explanation
    Defrag, short for defragmentation, is a process that rearranges fragmented data on a computer's hard drive, making it more organized and improving the efficiency of program execution. Fragmentation occurs when files are broken into pieces and scattered across different locations on the disk, leading to slower read and write speeds. By defragmenting the hard drive, files are consolidated and placed contiguously, reducing the time it takes for the computer to access and retrieve data. This ultimately enhances the overall performance and execution speed of programs.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following memory modules is a DDR3 chip?

    • PC3200

    • PC4800

    • PC5300

    • PC8000

    Correct Answer
    A. PC8000
    Explanation
    PC8000 is the correct answer because it is the only memory module listed that matches the DDR3 specification. The other options, PC3200, PC4800, and PC5300, do not correspond to DDR3 chips.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following broadband technologies would typically have a different uplink and downlink speed?

    • T-1

    • Fiber

    • SDSL

    • ADSL

    Correct Answer
    A. ADSL
    Explanation
    ADSL (Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line) is the correct answer because it is a broadband technology that typically has different uplink and downlink speeds. ADSL is designed to provide faster download speeds (downlink) compared to upload speeds (uplink). This is because most internet users consume more data by downloading content (such as streaming videos or browsing websites) rather than uploading data. Therefore, ADSL is optimized for asymmetric speeds to cater to the typical internet usage patterns of users.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following speeds is the maximum transmission rate of the USB 2.0 interface?

    • 400Mbps

    • 480Mbps

    • 800Mbps

    • 1280Mbps

    Correct Answer
    A. 480Mbps
    Explanation
    The maximum transmission rate of the USB 2.0 interface is 480Mbps. This is the correct answer because USB 2.0 is capable of transferring data at a maximum speed of 480Mbps, which is equivalent to 60 megabytes per second.

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  • 43. 

    A customer reports the printer has an error message showing on the display and the printer is not printing any of the jobs in the queue. The technician arrives and finds the printer is online but there are not any lights on the network card. The NEXT step to evaluate the problem is to:

    • Check the printer for paper jams in the path.

    • Replace the network card in the printer.

    • Cycle the power on the printer and observe the boot process.

    • Power off the printer, have the customer clear the print queue and reboot.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cycle the power on the printer and observe the boot process.
    Explanation
    The technician should cycle the power on the printer and observe the boot process as the next step to evaluate the problem. This is because the printer is online but there are no lights on the network card. By power cycling the printer, it can help reset any potential issues with the network card and allow the technician to observe if the boot process resolves the error message and enables printing of the jobs in the queue.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following are unique video card interfaces? (Select TWO). A. ISA B. AMR C. AGP D. VLBus E. PCI

    • ISA

    • AMR

    • AGP

    • VLBus

    • PCI

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. AGP
    A. VLBus
    Explanation
    AGP and VLBus are the unique video card interfaces among the given options. ISA, AMR, and PCI are not unique video card interfaces as they are commonly used for various other devices as well. AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port) is a high-speed interface specifically designed for graphics cards, providing faster data transfer rates. VLBus (VESA Local Bus) is an older interface that was used for video cards and offered higher bandwidth compared to the ISA bus.

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  • 45. 

    An outside user is attempting to access company secured files by collecting information during a phone conversation. Which of the following BEST describes this practice?

    • Data mining

    • Social engineering

    • Intrusion detection

    • Hacking

    Correct Answer
    A. Social engineering
    Explanation
    Social engineering is the practice of manipulating individuals to gain unauthorized access to confidential information or protected systems. In this scenario, the outside user is using the phone conversation to collect information, suggesting that they are attempting to deceive or manipulate someone into giving them access to the company's secured files. This aligns with the concept of social engineering, making it the best description for the practice described in the question.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following ports should be left open on the firewall to enable default Internet browsing?

    • 21

    • 25

    • 80

    • 443

    Correct Answer
    A. 80
    Explanation
    Port 80 should be left open on the firewall to enable default Internet browsing. Port 80 is the default port for HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol), which is the protocol used for transmitting web pages and other web content over the internet. By leaving port 80 open, the firewall allows incoming and outgoing HTTP traffic, allowing users to access websites and browse the internet.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following is the MOST important piece of information required for a wireless client to connect to a specific wireless network?

    • MAC address

    • BSID

    • Channel number

    • SSID

    Correct Answer
    A. Channel number
    Explanation
    The channel number is the most important piece of information required for a wireless client to connect to a specific wireless network. The channel number determines the frequency band on which the wireless network operates, and the client needs to be tuned to the same channel in order to establish a connection. The MAC address is a unique identifier for the client device, the BSID is the unique identifier for the access point, and the SSID is the name of the wireless network, but none of these pieces of information are as crucial as the channel number for establishing a connection.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following keys is used to change laptop hardware settings?

    • Function

    • Shift

    • Numeric

    • Control

    Correct Answer
    A. Control
    Explanation
    The Control key is used to change laptop hardware settings. This key is often found in the bottom left corner of the keyboard and is used in combination with other keys to perform various functions. Pressing the Control key along with another key can allow users to access specific settings and make adjustments to the hardware configuration of their laptop.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following log files would reference third party software specific error messages?

    • Application Logs

    • Security Logs

    • Archive Logs

    • System Logs

    Correct Answer
    A. Application Logs
    Explanation
    Application Logs are the most likely log files to reference third-party software-specific error messages. These logs are specifically designed to capture information related to the functioning of applications and any errors or issues encountered while running them. Therefore, it is expected that these logs would contain error messages related to third-party software, as it is an integral part of the application's functioning. On the other hand, Security Logs focus on security-related events, Archive Logs store historical data, and System Logs record information about the operating system and hardware, making them less likely to contain third-party software-specific error messages.

    Rate this question:

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 13, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 13, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 30, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Tmede212

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