Civil Services- UPSC Scholarship Sample Test

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  • 1/517 Questions

    The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the Union List of Legislative Powers rests with (2003)

    • The President of India
    • The Chief Justice of India
    • The Parliament
    • The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs
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About This Quiz

The UPSC is responsible for appointments and examinations for All India services and group A & group B for Central services. If you wish to be given a scholarship, you must prove that you know the commission and why you deserve the scholarship. Do you think you are ready for the scholarship test? Take the test below and refresh your See morememory.

Civil Services- UPSC Scholarship Sample Test - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    How many times the preamble of the Constitution has been amended?

    • Once

    • Twice

    • Thrice

    • Never

    Correct Answer
    A. Once
    Explanation
    The preamble of the Constitution has been amended only once so far through the 42nd Constitution Amendment Act, 1976.The words secular, socialist and integrity were added.

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  • 3. 

    For the first time in 1934, the idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was put forward by which of the following eminent?

    • Jawaharlal Nehru

    • Motilal Nehru

    • Subhash Chandra Bose

    • M. N. Roy

    Correct Answer
    A. M. N. Roy
    Explanation
    The first time in 1934, the idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was put forward by M. N. Roy.

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  • 4. 

    Elections for the Constituent Assembly were held for the first time under which plan?

    • Cabinet mission plan

    • Mountbatten plan

    • August offer

    • None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. Cabinet mission plan
    Explanation
    Elections for the Constituent Assembly were held for the first time under Cabinet mission plan

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is true about caretaker government in India

    • It is a constitutional mechanism to ensure continuity in governance

    • The provision of caretaker government is for both centre and state level.

    • Caretaker government enjoys all powers like normal government

    • There is no provision in the constitution for caretaker government

    Correct Answer
    A. There is no provision in the constitution for caretaker government
    Explanation
    Caretaker governments may be put in peace when a government in a parliamentary system is defeated in a motion of no confidence or in the case when the house to which the government is responsible is dissolved, to rule the country for an interim period until an election is held and a new government is formed. In India there is no provision in the constitution for caretaker government

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  • 6. 

    In case of which of the following bill, governor must reserve the bill for president’s consideration

    • Money bill

    • Finance bill

    • Bill related to giving effect for directive principle of state policy

    • Which relate to imposition of taxes on water or electricity in certain cases

    Correct Answer
    A. Which relate to imposition of taxes on water or electricity in certain cases
    Explanation
    Governor must reserve the bill for president’s consideration which relate to imposition of taxes on water or electricity in certain cases

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following statement/s is/are true? 1. President of India can nominate 12 members to Lok Sabha. 2. President of India can nominate 2 members to Rajya Sabha. Choose the correct answers from the given code:

    • Only 1

    • Only 2

    • Both 1 and 2

    • Neither 1 nor 2

    Correct Answer
    A. Neither 1 nor 2
    Explanation
    President of India can nominate 12 members to Rajya Sabha and 2 to Lok Sabha

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following was the first intervention of the British government to regulate the affairs of the East India Co.?

    • Pitts India Act

    • Regulating Act

    • Charter Act, 1833

    • Charter Act, 1858

    Correct Answer
    A. Regulating Act
    Explanation
    Regulating Act, 1773 was the first intervention of the British government to regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India

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  • 9. 

    Indian Councils Act 1909 was also known as-

    • Montague -Chelmsford Act

    • Morley-Minto Reforms

    • Dicky bird plan

    • None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. Morley-Minto Reforms
    Explanation
    The Indian Councils Act 1909 was also known as Morley-Minto reforms.

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  • 10. 

    Consider the following statement about constitutional amendment bill: 1. State legislatures can also initiate constitutional amendment bill. 2. The option of joint session is not available for constitutional amendment bill.3. The president is bound to give his/her assent to constitutional amendment bill. 4. State legislatures have no role to play in constitutional amendments. Which of the above statements are correct? Choose from the following codes:

    • 2 and 3 only

    • 2, 3 and 4 only

    • 2 only

    • 1, 2 and 3 only

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 and 3 only
    Explanation
    (State legislatures cannot initiate a constitutional amendment bill. State legislatures do play a role in some of the constitutional amendments. It is required to get assent of 50% of the states in constitutional amendment bills related to federal structure, election of president, bills related to supreme court and high courts etc)

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following veto power is not available to Indian president

    • Absolute veto

    • Suspensive veto

    • Qualified veto

    • Pocket veto

    Correct Answer
    A. Qualified veto
    Explanation
    (A veto is qualified when it can be overridden by an extraordinary majority of the legislature and the bill can be enacted as law with such majority vote, overriding the executive veto. American President has the power of qualified veto.)

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  • 12. 

    Consider the following statements about pardoning power of executive in India: 1. Exercise of pardoning power by president of India cannot be challenged in any circumstance. 2. President and Governor both have the authority for pardoning a sentence of death. 3. The pardoning power is exercised by president alone and there is no role of council of ministers. Which of the above statements are true? Choose from following codes.

    • 1 only

    • 1 and 2 only

    • 2 only

    • None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. None of the above.
    Explanation
    (The only authority for pardoning a death sentence is president and pardoning power is open for judicial review if it is irrational, mala fide, arbitrary and discriminatory).

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  • 13. 

    Consider the following statements: 1. The tropic of Cancer and the tropic of Capricorn are rich in diversity of plants and animal life because of the warm and humid regions of the earth. 2. Brazil, Ecuador, Zaire, Indonesia and China are known as region of mega diversity. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • Only 1

    • Only 2

    • Both 1 and 2

    • None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both 1 and 2
    Explanation
    The warm and humid tropical regions of the earth, between the tropic of Cancer and the tropic of Capricorn, are rich in diversity of plant and animal life. This is called the region of mega diversity.Brazil, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Mexico, Zaire, Madagascar, Australia, China, India, Indonesia and Malaysia are the examples of mega diversity regions.

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  • 14. 

    Consider the following statements: 1. Bacteria, blue-green algae or cyanobacteria, and mycoplasma are come under Monera group of classification. 2. Unicellular algae, diatoms and protozoan are come under Protista group of classification. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • Only 1

    • Only 2

    • Both 1 and 2

    • None of these.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both 1 and 2
    Explanation
    There are five characteristics of classification according to Whittaker: Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia. Bacteria, blue-green algae or cyanobacteria, and mycoplasma are come under Monera group of classification. Unicellular algae, diatoms and protozoan are come under Protista group of classification.

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  • 15. 

    In which law of motion, it states that an object remains in a state of rest or of uniform motion in a straight line unless compelled to change that state by an applied force.

    • First law of motion.

    • Second law of motion.

    • Third law of motion.

    • Law of inertia.

    Correct Answer
    A. First law of motion.
    Explanation
    The first law of motion is stated as: An object remains in a state of rest or of uniform motion in a straight line unless compelled to change that state by an applied force.

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  • 16. 

    Which law of motion states that the rate of change of momentum of an object is proportional to the applied unbalanced force in the direction of force.

    • First law of motion.

    • Second law of motion.

    • Third law of motion.

    • Law of inertia.

    Correct Answer
    A. Second law of motion.
    Explanation
    The second law of motion states that the rate of change of momentum of an object is proportional to the applied unbalanced force in the direction of force

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  • 17. 

    Consider the following statements: 1. The motion of the moon around the Earth is due to the centripetal force. 2. If there were no such force, the moon would pursue a uniform straight line motion. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • Only 1

    • Only 2

    • Both 1 and 2

    • None of these.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both 1 and 2
    Explanation
    The motion of the moon around the earth is due to the centripetal force. The centripetal force is provided by the force of attraction of the earth. If there were no such force, the moon would pursue a uniform straight line motion.

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  • 18. 

    Consider the following statements: 1. When an object moves in a circle its speed remains constant. 2. The velocity changes with the changing direction. 3. Velocity has size and direction whereas speed only has size. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • Only 1

    • 1 and 3

    • 2 and 3

    • 1, 2 and 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1, 2 and 3
    Explanation
    When an object moves in a circle its speed remains constant but as the direction is constantly changing so is its velocity. This is because velocity has size and direction whereas speed only has size.

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  • 19. 

    Consider the following statements: 1. The mass of an object does not change on the moon or in the outer space. 2. The weight of an object changes according to gravitational force. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • Only 1

    • Only 2

    • Both 1 and 2

    • None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both 1 and 2
    Explanation
    The mass of an object does not change on the moon or in the outer space. The weight of an object changes according to gravitational force.

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  • 20. 

    Consider the following statements: 1. Object in motion is known as kinetic energy. 2. The energy transferred to an object is stored as potential energy if it is not used to cause a change in the velocity or speed of the object. 3. The work done in raising it from the ground to that point against gravity is known as gravitational kinetic energy. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • 1 and 2

    • 2 and 3

    • 1 and 3

    • 1, 2 and 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 and 2
    Explanation
    The work done in raising it from the ground to that point against gravity is known as gravitational potential energy.

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  • 21. 

    Consider the following statements: 1. Electrical energy is energy stored in chemical bonds by separating atoms. 2. Potential energy is energy with respect to some reference point. 3. Chemical energy given off heat. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    • 1 and 2

    • Only 2

    • 1 and 3

    • 1, 2 and 3

    Correct Answer
    A. Only 2
    Explanation
    1.      Kinetic energy - energy of motion 2. Potential energy - energy of ``location'' with respect to some reference point. 3. Chemical energy - energy stored in chemical bonds, which can be released in reactions. 4. Electrical energy - energy created by separating charges; energy stored in a battery, for example.5. Thermal energy - energy given off as heat, such as friction.

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  • 22. 

    Sun pillars as seen during the setting of sun is caused by

    • Reflection of light

    • Refraction of light

    • Diffraction of light

    • Total internal reflection of light

    Correct Answer
    A. Reflection of light
    Explanation
    Sun Pillars occur when the setting sun reflects off high, icy clouds at different layers. It creates a pillar of light that reaches high into the sky.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following statements about the Melghat Reserve is/are incorrect? 1. It is a part of Project Tiger.2. Tapti river forms the boundary of the reserve. 3. It is located on the Gawilgarh hills.

    • 2 only

    • 3 only

    • 1,2

    • None

    Correct Answer
    A. None
    Explanation
    All the statements are correct.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following statements about the Gir Forest national park is/are correct? 1. It is drained by Hiran and Shetrunji rivers. 2. Kamleshwar dam is located within the park. 3. Mainly dry evergreen trees are found in this forest.

    • 1 only

    • 1,2

    • 2,3

    • 1,2,3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,2
    Explanation
    Mainly dry deciduous trees are found.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following statements about Simlipal national park is/are incorrect? 1. It is part of Mayurbhanj elephant reserve. 2. It is famous for red sandalwood trees found abundantly in the area. 3. It has kakolat waterfall within its territory. 4. It is listed in the UNESCO’s list of biosphere reserves.

    • 2 only

    • 1,2

    • 2,3

    • 1,2,4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2,3
    Explanation
    It is famous for red silk cotton trees. Kakolat waterfall is in Bihar

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following statements about the Subarnrekha river are correct? 1. It flows through Jharkhand, Odisha, Bihar and West Bengal. 2. Kharkai is its major tributary. 3. Hundru Falls is created on the course of the Subarnarekha.

    • 1,2

    • 2,3

    • 1,3

    • 1,2,3

    Correct Answer
    A. 2,3
    Explanation
    Subarnrekha does not pass through Bihar.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following waterfalls are located in Madhya Pradesh? 1. Chachai Falls 2. Dhuandhar Falls 3. Pandav Falls 4. Keoti Falls 5. Chitrakote Falls

    • 1,2

    • 1,2,3

    • 2,4,5

    • 1,2,3,4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,2,3,4
    Explanation
    The Chitrakote Falls  is a natural waterfall located to the west of Jagdalpur, in Bastar district in the Indian state of Chhattisgarh on the Indravati River.

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  • 28. 

    Choose the correct statement/s about Indravati river: 1. It is a tributary of the Krishna river. 2. It originates from Dandkaranya range of Eastern Ghats. 3. It flows through Maharashtra, Chattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh.

    • 2 only

    • 2,3

    • 1,3

    • 1,2,3

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 only
    Explanation
    Indravati river is a tributary of Godavari river and flows through Maharashtra and Chattisgarh

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  • 29. 

    Consider the following statement 1) Carbon sequestration describes long-term storage of carbon dioxide or other forms of carbon to either mitigate or defer global warming. 2) Carbon cycle was popularized by Joseph Priestley and Antoine Lavoisier 3) Ocean contains the largest active pool of carbon. Which of this statement is/are correct?

    • Only 1

    • Only 2 and 3

    • Only 1 and 3

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Only 1 and 3
    Explanation
    ( carbon cycle was discovered by Joseph Priestly and Antoine Lavoisier and popularized by Humphrey Devy)

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following statements is/are incorrect? 1. Rajatarangini, written by Kalhana in Pali was Kashmir’s first historical text. 2. Kalhana was a contemporary of king Harsha of Kashmir

    • Only 1

    • Only 2

    • Both 1 and 2

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Only 1
    Explanation
    It was written in Sanskrit.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following languages was/were not found in Satavahana coins? 1. Tamil 2. Kannada 3. Telugu

    • Only 1

    • Only 2 and 3

    • All of the above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. None of the above
    Explanation
    The Satavahanas are the first native Indian rulers to issue their own coins with portraits of their rulers, starting with king Gautamiputra Satakarni, a practice derived from that of theWestern Satraps he defeated, itself originating with the Indo-Greek kings to the northwest.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following were the consequences of 1857 revolt? 1) The reformist zeal of the English increased many folds. 2) Racial segregation became more pronounced 3) The rule of East India Company formally ended 4) Queen Victoria was vested with sovereignty of India.

    • Only 1,2 3

    • Only 2,3,4

    • Only 1, 3 and 4

    • Only 1, 2 and 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Only 2,3,4
    Explanation
    After the 1857 rebellion the reformist zeal by which the English were trying to reform the "savage" Indians took a back seat, and the Indian were branded as racially inferior and beyond reform.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following statements is/are incorrect? 1. According to Buddhist text Ashokavadana , Pushyamitra Sunga gave patronage to Buddhism. 2. Patanjali’s Mahabhasya was composed during the Sunga period. 3. The script used by the Sunga empire was Kharoshti and the language Pali.

    • Only 1

    • Only 1 and 3

    • Only 2 and 3

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Only 1 and 3
    Explanation
    Pushyamitra persecuted Buddhists. The script used was a variant of Brahmi and the language was Sanskrit.

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  • 34. 

    Choose the incorrect statement/s: 1. The percentage of gold in Indian coins under the reign of Gupta rulers showed a steady increase from the times of Chandragupta to Skandgupta due to their increasing trade with the Romans. 2. The coins of various Rajput princess during medieval times were mainly of silver.

    • Only 1

    • Only 2

    • Both 1 and 2

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Both 1 and 2
    Explanation
    The percentage of gold in Indian coins under the reign of Gupta rulers showed a steady financial decline over the centuries as it decreases from 90% pure gold under Chandragupta I (319-335 CE) to a mere 75-80% under Skandagupta (467 CE). The coins of various Rajput princess ruling in Hindustan and Central India were usually of gold, copper or billon, very rarely silver.

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  • 35. 

    Choose the correct statement/s: 1. The Guptas are the first Indian rulers to issue their own coins with portraits of their rulers. 2. Satavahanas issued mainly lead and copper coins. 3. The gateways and the balustrade of Sanchi Stupa were commissioned by the Guptas.

    • Only 1

    • Only 2

    • Only 1 and 3

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Only 2
    Explanation
    The Satavahanas were the first Indian rulers who issued coins with portraits of their rulers. The gateways and the balustrade of Sanchi Stupa were commissioned by the Satavahanas.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following pair is wrong?

    • August Offer-1941

    • Cripps mission-1942

    • Individual Satyagraha-1940

    • Rajagopalachari Formula-1944

    Correct Answer
    A. August Offer-1941
    Explanation
    Viceroy Linlithgow offered a set of proposals to congress for securing its cooperation in war in August 1940 known as August proposal

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  • 37. 

    Choose the incorrect statement/s: 1. The writings of medieval European travelers such as Domingo Paes, Fernão Nunes and Niccolò Da Conti describe the administration of Aurangzeb. 2. Fatawa-e-Alamgiri is a Persian version of Manusmriti. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both D. None

    • Only 1

    • Only 2

    • Both 1 and 2

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. None of the above
    Explanation
    The writings of medieval European travelers such as Domingo Paes, Fernão Nunes and Niccolò Da Conti describe the administration of Vijayanagar empire. Fatawa-e-Alamgiri (also known as Fatawa-i-Hindiya and Fatawa-i Hindiyya) is a compilation of law created at instance of the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb (who was also known as Alamgir). This compilation is based on Sunni Hanafi Islam's Sharia law, and was the work of many scholars, principally from the Hanafi school.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following were grown during the times of Vijayanagar empire? 1. Betel leaves 2. Arecanut 3. Pepper 4. Cardamom 5. Ginger

    • Only 1 and 2

    • Only 2 , 3 and 4

    • Only 1,3,4,and 5

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Betel leaves, areca (for chewing), and coconut were the principal cash crops, and large scale cotton production supplied the weaving centers of the empire's vibrant textile industry. Spices such as turmeric, pepper, cardamom and ginger grew in the remote Malnad hill region and were transported to the city for trade.

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  • 39. 

    Choose the incorrect statement/s: 1. Untouchability was not practiced in the Vijayanagar empire. 2. The practice of Sati was prevalent and practiced by the upper classes.

    • Only 1

    • Only 2

    • Both 1 and 2

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Only 1
    Explanation
    Untouchability was part of the caste system and these communities were represented by leaders (Kaivadadavaru).

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  • 40. 

    Choose the correct statement/s about Lingayatism: 1. It propounds dualism. 2. It rejects the authority of caste system. 3. It is influenced by the Vedas. 4. It believes in reincarnation and karma.

    • Only 1,2,3

    • Only 2 and 4

    • Only 1,3,and 4

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Only 2 and 4
    Explanation
    Lingayatism is a distinct Shaivite denomination practiced in Karnataka India. They are mainly found in the central & north Karnataka districts . It makes several departures from mainstream Hinduism and propounds monotheism through worship centered on Lord Shiva in the form of linga universal God or Ishtalinga. It also rejects the authority of the Vedas, the caste system. However they do have Hindu beliefs such as reincarnation and karma.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following temples were destroyed by Aurangzeb? 1. Kashi Vishwanath Temple 2. Kesava Deo Temple 3. Somnath Temple

    • Only 1 and 2

    • Only 1 and 3

    • Only 2 and 3

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Among the Hindu temples he demolished were the three most sacred: the Kashi Vishwanath temple, Kesava Deo temple and Somnath temple. He built large mosques in their place. In 1679, he ordered destruction of several prominent temples that had become associated with his enemies: these included the temples of Khandela, Udaipur, Chittor and Jodhpur.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following traders came to trade in the Vijayanagar empire? 1. Chinese 2. Arabs 3. Palestinian 4. Persian 5. Romans 6. Spanish

    • Only1,2,3,5

    • Only 2,4,5

    • Only 1,2,3,4,5

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Only 1,2,3,4,5
    Explanation
    Traders of many nationalities (Arabs, Persians, Guzerates,Khorassanians) settled in Calicut, drawn by the thriving trade business Ships sailed to the Red Sea ports of Aden and Mecca with Vijayanagara goods sold as far away as Venice. Cotton yarn was shipped to Burma and indigo to Persia. Chief imports from Palestine were copper, quicksilver (mercury), vermilion, coral, saffron, coloured velvets, rose water, knives, coloured camlets, gold and silver.

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  • 43. 

    Consider the following statements- 1) Inflation redistributes wealth from creditors to debtors. 2) Because of inflation, direct tax burden of the tax-payers increases. Which statement is/are true about inflation?

    • Only 1

    • Only 2

    • Both 1 and 2

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Both 1 and 2
    Explanation
    Inflation redistributes wealth from creditors to debtors, i.e. lenders suffer and borrowers benefit out of
    inflation. The opposite effect takes place when inflation falls (i.e. deflation).
    Due to inflation, direct tax (income tax, interest tax, etc.) burden of the tax payers increases as
    tax-payers also increases as tax payer’s gross income moves to the upward slabs of official tax buckets
    (But the real value of money does not increase due to inflation; in fact, it falls).

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is kind of capital expenditure?

    • Defense expenditure by the governments

    • Salaries, Pension and Provident fund paid by the government to government employees

    • Subsidies forwarded to all sectors

    • Loan repayments by the Government of the borrowings made in the past.

    Correct Answer
    A. Loan repayments by the Government of the borrowings made in the past.
    Explanation
    Loan repayment consists of only the capital part of the loan repayment as the element of interest on loans is shown as a part of the revenue expenditure.

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  • 45. 

    What will happen if budget is not passed by the parliament?

    • Council of Ministers will prepare it again.

    • Joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha will be called.

    • Council of Ministers will have to resign.

    • Only those proposals will be cancelled which do not have approval.

    Correct Answer
    A. Council of Ministers will have to resign.
    Explanation
    Council of Ministers will always have to secure confidence in Lok Sabha and if budget is not passed it means Council of Ministers has lost confidence in Lok Sabha. Hence the whole Council of Ministers will have to resign.

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  • 46. 

    To reduce inflationary pressure RBI would-

    • Increase repo rate and decrease reverse repo rate.

    • Purchase government securities from market.

    • Increase CRR and SLR.

    • None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. None of the above.
    Explanation
    The CRR is the ratio of the total deposits of a bank in India which is kept with the RBI in the form of cash so increase in this (CRR) sucks money from the economy which will decrease demands from market which has rised due to increase in money supply in market or economy, the SLR is the ratio of the total deposits of a bank with itself in non-cash form prescribed by the government, increase in SLR will also suck money from economy.

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  • 47. 

    Consider the following statements- (a) Repo rate is the interest rate at which only SBI borrow money from RBI. (b) By selective credit control RBI fixes Foreign Exchange Rate. (c) RBI uses Quantitative tools only to control inflation. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

    • (a) and (b)

    • Only (b)

    • All of these

    • None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. None of these
    Explanation
    Not only SBI but all the banks can borrow from RBI under Repo Rate, selective credit control in this method the central bank controls the quantity of credit given by commercial banks by using the following weapons such as open market operation, Bank Rate, RBI use quantitative tools for regulating and controlling the volume of bank in economy.

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  • 48. 

    Grants in aid is provided to the states for-

    • Improving the Centre-State relationship.

    • Improving the development of rural area

    • Reducing the regional imbalance

    • Implementing various development programs and rehabilitation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Implementing various development programs and rehabilitation.
    Explanation
    Grants in aid provided for states for implementing various development programs and rehabilitation.

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  • 49. 

    Consider the following statements: 1. The interaction where one species is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed is called commensalism. 2. In amensalism one species is harmed whereas the other is unaffected. Which of these statements is/are correct?

    • Only 1

    • Only 2

    • Both 1 and 2

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Both 1 and 2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. Statement 1 correctly defines commensalism as an interaction where one species benefits and the other is neither benefited nor harmed. Statement 2 correctly defines amensalism as an interaction where one species is harmed while the other is unaffected. Therefore, both statements are correct.

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  • Apr 09, 2024
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  • Jul 12, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Anil

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