RCAC Flying Scholarship Exam 2

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RCAC Flying Scholarship Exam 2 - Quiz

Think you’ve got what it takes to take flight and earn a flying scholarship? Well, buckle up, because it’s time to put your money where your mouth is! Let’s see what you really know about flying!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A ______ is an adjustable tab either fixed or hinged to a control surface that helps the pilot by eliminating the need to exert excessive pressure on the flight controls during the various phases of flight.

    • A.

      Hinge tab

    • B.

      Cowl tab

    • C.

      Trim tab

    • D.

      Control tab

    Correct Answer
    C. Trim tab
    Explanation
    A trim tab is an adjustable tab either fixed or hinged to a control surface that helps the pilot by eliminating the need to exert excessive pressure on the flight controls during the various phases of flight. It allows the pilot to make small adjustments to the control surface position, effectively balancing the aircraft and reducing the workload on the pilot. This helps in maintaining a desired flight attitude and reduces the need for constant manual control inputs.

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  • 2. 

    The _____ run from the leading to the trailing edge. They are cambered to form an airfoil section and their purpose is to give the wing its shape and to provide a framework to which the covering is fastened.

    • A.

      Compression struts.

    • B.

      Drag wires.

    • C.

      Girders.

    • D.

      Ribs.

    Correct Answer
    D. Ribs.
    Explanation
    Ribs are the correct answer because they are the structural components of an aircraft wing that run from the leading to the trailing edge. They are cambered to form an airfoil section and provide the wing with its shape. Ribs also serve as a framework to which the covering of the wing is fastened, ensuring structural integrity and aerodynamic efficiency.

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  • 3. 

    Spoilers are devices fitted to the wing, which increase ______ is decrease______.

    • A.

      Drag, lift.

    • B.

      Lift, drag.

    • C.

      Weight, lift.

    • D.

      Speed, drag.

    Correct Answer
    A. Drag, lift.
    Explanation
    Spoilers are devices fitted to the wing, which increase drag and decrease lift. When spoilers are deployed, they disrupt the airflow over the wing, creating more drag and reducing the lift generated by the wing. This is useful in situations where the aircraft needs to reduce speed or descend rapidly. By increasing drag and decreasing lift, spoilers help to control and stabilize the aircraft's flight.

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  • 4. 

    An aircraft will stall at any airspeed or attitude if the _________ is exceeded.

    • A.

      Critical angle of attack.

    • B.

      Center of gravity.

    • C.

      Best lift / drag ratio.

    • D.

      Best angle of climb.

    Correct Answer
    A. Critical angle of attack.
    Explanation
    An aircraft will stall at any airspeed or attitude if the critical angle of attack is exceeded. The critical angle of attack is the angle at which the airflow over the wings becomes disrupted, causing a loss of lift and an increase in drag. When this angle is exceeded, the aircraft will lose its ability to maintain level flight and will enter a stall condition. The other options, center of gravity, best lift/drag ratio, and best angle of climb, are not directly related to stalling.

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  • 5. 

    Longitudinal stability is stability around the lateral axis of the airplane and is called pitch stability. The two principle factors which influence longitudinal stability are __________ and _______.

    • A.

      Size and position of the horizontal stabilizer, the position of the C of G.

    • B.

      Dihedral, the position of the C of G.

    • C.

      Sweepback, the position of the C of R.

    • D.

      Keel effect, the position of the fin.

    Correct Answer
    A. Size and position of the horizontal stabilizer, the position of the C of G.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the size and position of the horizontal stabilizer, and the position of the center of gravity (C of G). Longitudinal stability refers to the stability of the aircraft around its lateral axis, also known as pitch stability. The size and position of the horizontal stabilizer play a crucial role in maintaining this stability by providing the necessary aerodynamic forces. Additionally, the position of the center of gravity affects the longitudinal stability as it determines the balance of the aircraft.

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  • 6. 

    The only pitot static instrument that requires both a pitot pressure source and a static pressure source is the ______.

    • A.

      Vertical speed indicator.

    • B.

      Airspeed indicator.

    • C.

      Altimeter.

    • D.

      Attitude indicator.

    Correct Answer
    B. Airspeed indicator.
    Explanation
    The airspeed indicator is the only pitot static instrument that requires both a pitot pressure source and a static pressure source. The pitot pressure is used to measure the dynamic pressure of the airspeed, while the static pressure is used as a reference to measure the static pressure of the atmosphere. This combination of pressures allows the airspeed indicator to accurately display the aircraft's airspeed. The vertical speed indicator uses only the static pressure source, while the altimeter and attitude indicator use only the pitot pressure source.

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  • 7. 

    Induced drag _______ as the speed of an aircraft increases.

    • A.

      Decreases

    • B.

      Remains the same.

    • C.

      Increases.

    • D.

      None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreases
    Explanation
    As the speed of an aircraft increases, the induced drag decreases. Induced drag is caused by the generation of lift, and at higher speeds, the wings create more lift with less drag. This is because the higher speed allows the aircraft to generate lift more efficiently, reducing the amount of drag produced. Therefore, as the speed increases, the induced drag decreases.

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  • 8. 

    The tendency of an airplane in flight to remain in straight, level, upright flight and return to this attitude if displaced without the corrective action of the pilot is called _____.

    • A.

      Balance.

    • B.

      Equilibrium.

    • C.

      Acceleration.

    • D.

      Stability.

    Correct Answer
    D. Stability.
    Explanation
    Stability refers to the tendency of an airplane in flight to maintain its straight, level, and upright flight. It also means that the airplane will naturally return to this attitude if it is displaced from its original position. This characteristic is crucial for safe and controlled flight, as stability allows the pilot to have better control and maneuverability of the aircraft.

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  • 9. 

    When thrust and drag are equal and opposite, the airplane is said to be in a state of _____.

    • A.

      Balance.

    • B.

      Equilibrium.

    • C.

      Acceleration.

    • D.

      Stability.

    Correct Answer
    B. Equilibrium.
    Explanation
    When thrust and drag are equal and opposite, the airplane is said to be in a state of equilibrium. Equilibrium refers to a state of balance where all forces acting on an object are balanced, resulting in no net force and no change in motion. In this case, the equal and opposite forces of thrust (generated by the engines) and drag (resistance caused by the motion of the airplane through the air) cancel each other out, creating a state of equilibrium.

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  • 10. 

    As air passes over the wing towards the trailing edge, the air moves not only rearward but downward as well. this downward flow is called _______.

    • A.

      Drag.

    • B.

      Assymetric thrust.

    • C.

      Downwash.

    • D.

      Down flow.

    Correct Answer
    C. Downwash.
    Explanation
    As air passes over the wing towards the trailing edge, it not only moves rearward but also downward. This downward flow of air is known as downwash. Downwash is an important concept in aerodynamics as it affects the lift and stability of the aircraft. It is caused by the pressure difference between the upper and lower surfaces of the wing, resulting in a downward deflection of the air.

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  • 11. 

    If an aircraft is rolling to the right, aileron drag will cause the aircraft to yaw to the _____.

    • A.

      Left.

    • B.

      Right.

    • C.

      No adverse yaw will be present.

    • D.

      None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. Left.
    Explanation
    When an aircraft is rolling to the right, aileron drag will cause the aircraft to yaw to the left. This is because the downward deflected aileron on the right wing increases the drag on that wing, which causes it to slow down and generate less lift compared to the left wing. As a result, the aircraft yaws to the left due to the imbalance in lift and drag between the wings.

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  • 12. 

    To relieve back stick pressure in a nose high attitude the trim tab must be in the _______ position.

    • A.

      Up.

    • B.

      Neutral.

    • C.

      Retracted.

    • D.

      Down.

    Correct Answer
    D. Down.
    Explanation
    To relieve back stick pressure in a nose high attitude, the trim tab must be in the down position. This is because the trim tab helps to balance the control forces on the aircraft. When the nose of the aircraft is pitched up, there is increased back stick pressure, meaning the pilot needs to exert more force to keep the nose level. By moving the trim tab down, it creates a downward force that helps to counteract the back stick pressure, making it easier for the pilot to maintain control and relieve the pressure on the back stick.

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  • 13. 

    As an aircraft climbs and altitude increases, the stalling speed (IAS) of an aircraft _______.

    • A.

      Remains the same.

    • B.

      Increases.

    • C.

      Decreases.

    • D.

      Depends on the indicated airspeed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Remains the same.
    Explanation
    As an aircraft climbs and altitude increases, the stalling speed (IAS) of an aircraft remains the same. This is because the stalling speed is primarily determined by the angle of attack, which is the angle between the wing's chord line and the oncoming airflow. Altitude does not directly affect the angle of attack, so the stalling speed remains constant. However, it is important to note that the true airspeed (TAS) does increase with altitude due to the decrease in air density, but this does not affect the stalling speed.

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  • 14. 

    The propeller usually rotates clockwise as seen from the pilots seat. The reaction to the spinning propeller causes the aircraft to rotate counter clockwise to the left. This left turning tendency is refered to as ______.

    • A.

      Asymmetric thrust.

    • B.

      Slipstream.

    • C.

      Torque.

    • D.

      Precession.

    Correct Answer
    C. Torque.
    Explanation
    When the propeller rotates clockwise, it creates a reaction force that causes the aircraft to rotate counter clockwise. This phenomenon is known as torque. Torque refers to the twisting force that occurs when a force is applied off-center or in a rotational motion. In this case, the torque is caused by the spinning propeller and results in the left turning tendency of the aircraft.

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  • 15. 

    _____ is movement about the vertical or normal axis and is controlled by _____.

    • A.

      Yaw, rudder.

    • B.

      Roll, aileron.

    • C.

      Pitch, elevator.

    • D.

      Sideslip, elevator.

    Correct Answer
    A. Yaw, rudder.
    Explanation
    Yaw is the movement about the vertical or normal axis, which is controlled by the rudder. The rudder is a control surface located on the vertical stabilizer of an aircraft, and it is used to control the yawing motion of the aircraft. By deflecting the rudder, the pilot can induce a yawing motion, causing the aircraft to turn left or right around its vertical axis. Therefore, the correct answer is Yaw, rudder.

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  • 16. 

    The _____ is the angle that each wing makes with the horizontal. The purpose of this angle is to improve lateral stability.

    • A.

      Angle of incidence.

    • B.

      Dihedral angle.

    • C.

      Sweepback angle.

    • D.

      Dynamic angle.

    Correct Answer
    B. Dihedral angle.
    Explanation
    The dihedral angle is the angle that each wing makes with the horizontal. This angle is designed to improve lateral stability. By angling the wings upwards, the dihedral angle creates a natural tendency for the aircraft to roll back to level flight if it starts to tilt to one side. This helps to prevent the aircraft from entering into an unstable or dangerous flight condition.

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  • 17. 

    _____ is movement about the longitudinal axis and is controlled by _________.

    • A.

      Yaw, rudder.

    • B.

      Roll, aileron.

    • C.

      Pitch, elevator.

    • D.

      Sideslip, elevator.

    Correct Answer
    B. Roll, aileron.
    Explanation
    Roll is the movement about the longitudinal axis of an aircraft, which is controlled by the aileron. The ailerons are hinged control surfaces on the trailing edge of the wings that move in opposite directions to create a difference in lift between the two wings, causing the aircraft to roll. This allows the aircraft to bank and turn.

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  • 18. 

    The _____ is the angle at which the wing is permanently inclined to the longitudinal axis of the airplane.

    • A.

      Angle of incidence.

    • B.

      Dihedral angle.

    • C.

      Angle of attack.

    • D.

      Deviation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Angle of incidence.
    Explanation
    The angle of incidence refers to the angle at which the wing is permanently inclined to the longitudinal axis of the airplane. This angle is fixed during the design and construction of the aircraft and determines the lift and stability characteristics of the wing. It is different from the angle of attack, which is the angle between the oncoming airflow and the wing's chord line, and can change during flight. Dihedral angle refers to the upward angle between the wings of an aircraft, while deviation does not relate to the inclination of the wing.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is not a method of classifying an airplane.

    • A.

      Number and position of wings in relation to the fuselage.

    • B.

      Passenger carrying capacity.

    • C.

      Number of engines.

    • D.

      Configuration of undercarriage.

    Correct Answer
    B. Passenger carrying capacity.
    Explanation
    The given options are all different methods of classifying an airplane based on various characteristics. The number and position of wings in relation to the fuselage, the number of engines, and the configuration of undercarriage are all physical attributes that can be used to classify an airplane. However, passenger carrying capacity is not a method of classifying an airplane as it is more related to the purpose or design of the aircraft rather than a classification criterion.

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  • 20. 

    In a turn the force which tends to pull the airplane to the outside of the turn is known as ________.

    • A.

      Centripetal force.

    • B.

      Turning force.

    • C.

      Centrifugal force.

    • D.

      Inertial force.

    Correct Answer
    C. Centrifugal force.
    Explanation
    The force which tends to pull the airplane to the outside of the turn is known as centrifugal force. Centrifugal force is a perceived force that acts in the opposite direction of the centripetal force, which keeps an object moving in a curved path. In the case of an airplane turning, the centripetal force is provided by the lift generated by the wings, while the centrifugal force is the perceived force that pulls the airplane away from the center of the turn.

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  • 21. 

    .An aerodrome forecast (TAF) is issued at least ______ times daily.

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    B. 4
    Explanation
    An aerodrome forecast (TAF) is issued at least 4 times daily to provide accurate weather information for pilots and air traffic controllers. This frequency ensures that aviation professionals have up-to-date forecasts to make informed decisions regarding flight planning and safety. By issuing TAFs multiple times a day, aviation authorities can account for any changes in weather conditions and provide timely updates to the aviation community.

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  • 22. 

    In the stratosphere the temperature remains constant at around ____ degrees C.

    • A.

      -10

    • B.

      +10

    • C.

      -56

    • D.

      +15

    Correct Answer
    C. -56
    Explanation
    In the stratosphere, the temperature remains constant at around -56 degrees Celsius.

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  • 23. 

    The top layer of the Tropsphere is known as the ____.

    • A.

      Ionosphere.

    • B.

      Mesosphere.

    • C.

      Argnopause.

    • D.

      Tropopause.

    Correct Answer
    D. Tropopause.
    Explanation
    The top layer of the troposphere is known as the tropopause. The tropopause is a boundary between the troposphere and the stratosphere, and it is characterized by a decrease in temperature with increasing altitude. It acts as a barrier that prevents mixing between the two layers, and it plays a crucial role in weather patterns and atmospheric circulation. The ionosphere is a different layer of the Earth's atmosphere, located above the mesosphere, and it is responsible for the ionization of atmospheric gases. The mesosphere is located below the thermosphere and above the stratosphere. Argnopause is not a recognized term in atmospheric science.

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  • 24. 

    A property of the atmosphere is _______.

    • A.

      Mobility.

    • B.

      Expansion.

    • C.

      Compression.

    • D.

      All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because all three options - mobility, expansion, and compression - are properties of the atmosphere. The atmosphere is mobile as it constantly moves and circulates around the Earth. It also expands due to the increase in temperature and pressure, and it compresses when the temperature and pressure decrease. Therefore, all three options accurately describe properties of the atmosphere.

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  • 25. 

    A very thin high sheet cloud through which the sun or moon is visible, producing a halo effect is what type of cloud?

    • A.

      Cumlus.

    • B.

      Stratus.

    • C.

      Cirrostratus.

    • D.

      Haze type cloud.

    Correct Answer
    C. Cirrostratus.
    Explanation
    Cirrostratus is the correct answer because it is a type of high-level cloud that appears as a thin and uniform sheet. It is so thin that the sun or moon can be seen through it, creating a halo effect. Cumulus clouds are puffy and have a vertical development, while stratus clouds are low-level and appear as a uniform layer. Haze type clouds are not a recognized cloud classification.

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  • 26. 

    When flying from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure, the altimeter will read _____ than what the aircraft is actually flying.

    • A.

      Higher.

    • B.

      Lower.

    • C.

      The same.

    • D.

      Towards the front.

    Correct Answer
    A. Higher.
    Explanation
    When flying from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure, the altimeter will read higher than what the aircraft is actually flying. This is because air pressure decreases with increasing altitude. In an area of high pressure, the altimeter will measure a higher pressure, indicating a lower altitude than the actual altitude. As the aircraft moves to an area of low pressure, the altimeter will measure a lower pressure, indicating a higher altitude than the actual altitude.

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  • 27. 

    Buy Ballots law states that in the Northern Hemisphere with your back to the wind the center of the low is_____?

    • A.

      To your left.

    • B.

      To your right.

    • C.

      Towards the rear.

    • D.

      Towards the front.

    Correct Answer
    A. To your left.
    Explanation
    According to Buys Ballot's law, in the Northern Hemisphere, when you stand with your back to the wind, the center of the low-pressure system will be to your left. This is because the wind circulates counterclockwise around a low-pressure system in the Northern Hemisphere. Therefore, the wind will be coming from your right side, indicating that the center of the low is to your left.

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  • 28. 

    The closer the isobars are on a weather map, the _________;

    • A.

      Steeper the pressure gradient and weaker the winds.

    • B.

      Steeper the pressure gradient and the stronger the winds.

    • C.

      Shallower the pressure gradient and the weaker the winds.

    • D.

      Shallower the pressure gradient and the stronger the winds.

    Correct Answer
    B. Steeper the pressure gradient and the stronger the winds.
    Explanation
    The closer the isobars are on a weather map, the steeper the pressure gradient. This means that there is a larger change in pressure over a shorter distance. A steep pressure gradient indicates a faster rate of change in pressure, which in turn leads to stronger winds. Therefore, when the isobars are closer together, the pressure gradient is steeper and the winds are stronger.

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  • 29. 

    What direction do the winds blow around a low pressure?

    • A.

      Clockwise and outward.

    • B.

      Clockwise and inward.

    • C.

      Counterclockwise and outward.

    • D.

      Counterclockwise and inward.

    Correct Answer
    D. Counterclockwise and inward.
    Explanation
    Low pressure systems are characterized by rising air, which creates a void that is filled by air from surrounding areas. As air moves from areas of higher pressure to areas of lower pressure, it is deflected due to the Coriolis effect. In the Northern Hemisphere, this deflection causes the air to rotate counterclockwise around the low pressure center, while in the Southern Hemisphere, it rotates clockwise. The inward direction refers to the air moving towards the center of the low pressure system. Therefore, counterclockwise and inward is the correct answer.

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  • 30. 

    The temperature to which air must be cooled at a constant pressure in order for it to become saturated is referred to as;

    • A.

      Saturation point

    • B.

      Condensation point.

    • C.

      Dew point.

    • D.

      Freezing point.

    Correct Answer
    C. Dew point.
    Explanation
    The temperature to which air must be cooled at a constant pressure in order for it to become saturated is referred to as the dew point. At this temperature, the air is unable to hold all of its water vapor, causing it to condense and form dew. The dew point is an important measurement in weather forecasting as it indicates the amount of moisture in the air and can help determine the likelihood of precipitation or fog formation.

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  • 31. 

    An air mass is a large section of the Troposphere with uniform properties of ______ and _______ in the __________;

    • A.

      Temperature, pressure, horizontal

    • B.

      Pressure moisture, horizontal.

    • C.

      Temperature, moisture, horizontal.

    • D.

      Temperature, moisture, vertical.

    Correct Answer
    C. Temperature, moisture, horizontal.
    Explanation
    An air mass is a large section of the Troposphere with uniform properties of temperature and moisture in the horizontal direction. This means that within a given air mass, the temperature and moisture content will be relatively consistent over a large area. The horizontal nature of these uniform properties indicates that the temperature and moisture levels will not vary significantly across the air mass in the east-west direction.

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  • 32. 

    The characteristics of a warm air mass include;

    • A.

      Stability, smooth air, good visibility, strato-form cloud, steady type precipitation.

    • B.

      Stability, smooth air, poor visibility, strato-form cloud, steady type precipitation.

    • C.

      Stability, smooth air, poor visibility, strato-form cloud, shower type precipitation.

    • D.

      Stability, turbulent air, poor visibility, srato-form cloud, shower type precipitation.

    Correct Answer
    B. Stability, smooth air, poor visibility, strato-form cloud, steady type precipitation.
    Explanation
    The characteristics of a warm air mass include stability, which means that the air is not easily disturbed or changing. Smooth air refers to the absence of turbulence or roughness in the air. Poor visibility indicates that there may be a lot of moisture or particles in the air, making it difficult to see clearly. Strato-form clouds are flat and layered, often covering large areas of the sky. Lastly, steady type precipitation means that the rainfall is consistent and continuous, rather than intermittent or sporadic.

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  • 33. 

    METAR CYQY 221600Z 12007KT 15SM BKN021 BKN030 08/01 A3012 RMK SC6SC2 SLP202TAF AMD CYQY 221509Z 221523 VRB03KT P6SM SCT015 BKN030 TEMPO 1521 5SM -SHRA BR BKN015 OVC030 BECMG 1618 10010KT RMK NXT FCST BY 17ZAt 1600Z the ceiling in Sidney (CYQY) was;

    • A.

      Broken at 3,000'.

    • B.

      Broken at 2,100'.

    • C.

      Measured by aircraft by 3,012'.

    • D.

      Strato cumulus clouds at 600'.

    Correct Answer
    B. Broken at 2,100'.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Broken at 2,100'". This can be determined from the METAR report, which provides information about the weather conditions at a specific location and time. In this report, the cloud cover is described as "BKN021 BKN030", which means that there are broken clouds at 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet above ground level.

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  • 34. 

    METAR CYQY 221600Z 12007KT 15SM BKN021 BKN030 08/01 A3012 RMK SC6SC2 SLP202TAF AMD CYQY 221509Z 221523 VRB03KT P6SM SCT015 BKN030 TEMPO 1521 5SM -SHRA BR BKN015 OVC030 BECMG 1618 10010KT RMK NXT FCST BY 17ZThe wind speed at 1600Z had a prevailing wind of ______ with a dew point of ________.

    • A.

      120 deg true at 7 knots, 8 deg Celsius.

    • B.

      120 deg magnetic at 7 knots, 8 deg Celsius.

    • C.

      120 deg true at 7 knots, 1 deg Celsius.

    • D.

      120 deg magnetic at 7 knots, 1 deg Celsius.

    Correct Answer
    C. 120 deg true at 7 knots, 1 deg Celsius.
    Explanation
    At 1600Z, the METAR report indicates that the wind direction was 120 degrees true and the wind speed was 7 knots. Additionally, the temperature was reported to be 8 degrees Celsius and the dew point was 1 degree Celsius. The wind direction is given in true degrees, which represents the direction the wind is coming from in relation to true north. The wind speed is given in knots. The temperature and dew point are given in degrees Celsius. Therefore, the correct answer is 120 deg true at 7 knots, 1 deg Celsius.

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  • 35. 

    METAR CYQY 2210600Z 12007KT 15SM BKN021 BKN030 08/01 A3012 RMK SC6SC2 SLP202TAF AMD CYQY 221509Z 221523 VRB03KT P6SM SCT015 BKN030 TEMPO 1521 5SM -SHRA BR BKN015 OVC030 BECMG 1618 10010KT RMK NXT FCST BY 17ZThe above TAF is;

    • A.

      Amended at 2215Z on the 9th day of the month and is valid from 2215Z to 2300z.

    • B.

      Amended on the 22nd at 1509Z and is valid from 1500Z to 2300Z on the 22nd.

    • C.

      Amended at 1509Z on the 22nd valid until 1700Z on the 22nd

    • D.

      None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    B. Amended on the 22nd at 1509Z and is valid from 1500Z to 2300Z on the 22nd.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Amended on the 22nd at 1509Z and is valid from 1500Z to 2300Z on the 22nd." This can be determined from the TAF report which states "TAF AMD CYQY 221509Z 221523." The "AMD" indicates that the TAF report has been amended, and the "221509Z 221523" indicates the amendment was made on the 22nd at 1509Z and is valid from 1500Z to 2300Z on the 22nd.

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  • 36. 

    METAR CYQY 2210600Z 12007KT 15SM BKN021 BKN030 08/01 A3012 RMK SC6SC2 SLP202TAF AMD CYQY 221509Z 221523 VRB03KT P6SM SCT015 BKN030 TEMPO 1521 5SM -SHRA BR BKN015 OVC030 BECMG 1618 10010KT RMK NXT FCST BY 17ZUsing both the METAR and TAF the weather at 1600Z is;

    • A.

      Better than forecast.

    • B.

      Worse than forecast.

    • C.

      The same as forecast.

    • D.

      IFR.

    Correct Answer
    A. Better than forecast.
    Explanation
    Based on the information provided in the METAR and TAF reports, the weather at 1600Z is better than forecast. The METAR report indicates that the visibility is 15 statute miles, which is better than the forecasted visibility of 6 statute miles. Additionally, the cloud coverage in the METAR report (BKN021 BKN030) is less than the forecasted cloud coverage in the TAF report (SCT015 BKN030). Therefore, both the visibility and cloud coverage are better than what was forecasted, suggesting that the weather is better than forecast at 1600Z.

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  • 37. 

    Urgency signals are preceeded by the word _______ repeated ___ times;

    • A.

      Mayday, 3

    • B.

      Pan-pan, 3

    • C.

      Mayday, 1

    • D.

      Pan-pan, 1

    Correct Answer
    B. Pan-pan, 3
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Pan-pan, 3" because urgency signals are preceded by the word "Pan-pan" repeated three times. This is a standard protocol used in aviation and maritime communication to indicate an urgent situation that is not immediately life-threatening. By repeating the word "Pan-pan" three times, it helps to ensure that the urgency signal is clearly understood by the recipient.

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  • 38. 

    A flashing green light from the tower as seen by the pilot in the air means;

    • A.

      Cleared for landing.

    • B.

      Your gear is down and locked.

    • C.

      You are cleared to taxi.

    • D.

      Return for landing.

    Correct Answer
    D. Return for landing.
    Explanation
    A flashing green light from the tower as seen by the pilot in the air means "Return for landing." This signal indicates to the pilot that they should abort their current approach or flight and return to the airport for landing. It could be due to various reasons such as a change in weather conditions, an emergency situation, or any other instruction from the air traffic control.

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  • 39. 

    A lack of sufficient oxygen in the blood cells or tissues is called _____;

    • A.

      Hernia.

    • B.

      Somatograbic.

    • C.

      Decompression illness (DCI).

    • D.

      Hypoxia.

    Correct Answer
    D. Hypoxia.
    Explanation
    Hypoxia refers to a condition where there is a lack of sufficient oxygen in the blood cells or tissues. It can occur due to various reasons such as high altitude, lung diseases, or heart problems. Symptoms of hypoxia can include shortness of breath, confusion, dizziness, and cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin). Treatment for hypoxia typically involves addressing the underlying cause and providing supplemental oxygen to increase oxygen levels in the body.

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  • 40. 

    The angle between true meridian and magnetic meridian is called_____.

    • A.

      Compass heading.

    • B.

      Deviation.

    • C.

      Angle of Incidence.

    • D.

      Variation.

    Correct Answer
    D. Variation.
    Explanation
    The angle between the true meridian and the magnetic meridian is called variation. Variation refers to the difference between the direction indicated by a magnetic compass and the true north. It is caused by the Earth's magnetic field and varies depending on the geographical location. Compass heading refers to the direction indicated by a compass. Deviation refers to the error introduced by the magnetic materials and electrical systems on a vessel that can affect the accuracy of a compass. Angle of incidence refers to the angle at which a ray of light or other radiation strikes a surface.

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  • 41. 

    A nautical mile is _____.

    • A.

      Average length of one minute of latitude

    • B.

      Average length of one minute of longitude.

    • C.

      5280'

    • D.

      Both A and C.

    Correct Answer
    A. Average length of one minute of latitude
    Explanation
    A nautical mile is the average length of one minute of latitude. This means that for every minute of latitude traveled, the distance covered is equivalent to one nautical mile. The length of a nautical mile is not determined by longitude or any other unit of measurement, but specifically by the minute of latitude.

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  • 42. 

    A compass heading is _______.

    • A.

      Magnetic heading minus west deviation.

    • B.

      Magnetic heading plus west deviation.

    • C.

      True heading minus west deviation.

    • D.

      True heading plus west deviation.

    Correct Answer
    B. Magnetic heading plus west deviation.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Magnetic heading plus west deviation." A compass heading is the direction in which a compass needle points, and it is influenced by the Earth's magnetic field. The magnetic heading is the direction indicated by the compass, and the west deviation refers to the angular difference between the magnetic heading and the true heading. Adding the west deviation to the magnetic heading gives the correct compass heading.

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  • 43. 

    On turns from north, northerly turning error causes the compass to ______;

    • A.

      Lead.

    • B.

      Indicate correctly.

    • C.

      Lag.

    • D.

      None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    C. Lag.
    Explanation
    When turning from the north, northerly turning error causes the compass to lag. This means that the compass will initially indicate a turn in the opposite direction, causing a delay in accurately reflecting the correct heading. This error is caused by the magnetic properties of the Earth and the compass needle's tendency to align with the magnetic meridian rather than the true north. As a result, the compass lags behind the actual turn being made.

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  • 44. 

    A great circle is ______;

    • A.

      A straight line drawn on the Mercator Projection map.

    • B.

      Same as a rhumb line.

    • C.

      A straight line drawn on a Lambert Conformal Conic Projection map.

    • D.

      Both A and B.

    Correct Answer
    C. A straight line drawn on a Lambert Conformal Conic Projection map.
  • 45. 

    Given a track of 060 deg true, with a variation of 23 deg West and a deviation of 3 deg East, then the compass heading is ______;

    • A.

      40

    • B.

      86

    • C.

      34

    • D.

      80

    Correct Answer
    D. 80
    Explanation
    The compass heading can be calculated by subtracting the deviation from the track and then adding the variation. In this case, the deviation is 3 degrees East, so we subtract 3 from the track of 060 degrees to get 057 degrees. Then we add the variation of 23 degrees West to get a compass heading of 080 degrees.

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  • 46. 

    The volume in the cylinder above the piston when it is at the bottom of the compression stroke compared to the volume when it has moved up to the top of the stroke is known as the ______.

    • A.

      Power stroke.

    • B.

      Horse power.

    • C.

      Compression ratio.

    • D.

      Radial ratio.

    Correct Answer
    C. Compression ratio.
    Explanation
    The volume in the cylinder above the piston when it is at the bottom of the compression stroke compared to the volume when it has moved up to the top of the stroke is known as the compression ratio. This ratio is important in determining the efficiency and performance of an engine, as it affects the amount of air-fuel mixture that can be compressed and ignited in the cylinder. A higher compression ratio generally leads to more power and efficiency in an engine. The power stroke is a different phase of the engine cycle, where the ignited air-fuel mixture expands and produces power. Horsepower and radial ratio are unrelated to the volume change in the cylinder.

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  • 47. 

    Octane numbers go only as high as 100, Beyond this number the anti knock value of the fuel is expressed as a ___________.

    • A.

      Octane rating.

    • B.

      Viscosity level.

    • C.

      Performance number.

    • D.

      MOGAS indicator.

    Correct Answer
    C. Performance number.
    Explanation
    Octane numbers are used to measure the anti-knock value of fuel, with higher numbers indicating better performance. However, octane numbers only go up to 100. When the anti-knock value exceeds 100, it is expressed as a performance number. Viscosity level, MOGAS indicator, and octane rating are not directly related to the anti-knock value of fuel.

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  • 48. 

    The distance in feet a propeller travels forward in one revolution is called ______.

    • A.

      Pitch.

    • B.

      Roll.

    • C.

      Inclination.

    • D.

      Rate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pitch.
    Explanation
    The distance in feet a propeller travels forward in one revolution is called pitch. Pitch refers to the angle at which the propeller blades are set and determines how much air the propeller can move in one revolution. A higher pitch means the blades are set at a steeper angle, resulting in more forward movement per revolution. Conversely, a lower pitch means the blades are set at a shallower angle, resulting in less forward movement per revolution. Therefore, pitch accurately describes the distance a propeller travels forward in one revolution.

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  • 49. 

    In air cooled engines ______ are added to the cylinders to provide a greater area of metal to dissipate the heat.

    • A.

      Fins.

    • B.

      Trim tabs.

    • C.

      Ribs.

    • D.

      Hot plates.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fins.
    Explanation
    Fins are added to the cylinders in air cooled engines to provide a greater area of metal to dissipate the heat. Fins increase the surface area of the cylinders, allowing for more efficient heat transfer to the surrounding air. This helps to prevent overheating of the engine and ensures optimal performance. Trim tabs, ribs, and hot plates are not typically used for this purpose in air cooled engines.

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  • 50. 

    If the exhaust valve were to close 20 degrees late on the exhaust stroke this would mean that both valves would be open at the same time. when this occurs the valves are said to be ______.

    • A.

      In sync.

    • B.

      Fitted.

    • C.

      Overlapped.

    • D.

      Congruent.

    Correct Answer
    C. Overlapped.
    Explanation
    If the exhaust valve were to close 20 degrees late on the exhaust stroke, it would result in both the intake and exhaust valves being open at the same time. This condition is known as valve overlap, where the opening and closing of the intake and exhaust valves overlap in the engine cycle. This allows for better scavenging of exhaust gases and improved engine performance. Therefore, the correct term to describe this situation is "overlapped."

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 28, 2008
    Quiz Created by
    Sgt504
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