Technology Quiz Over Breathing Circuit

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  • 1/139 Questions

    In a semi-open breathing system, FGF must be 2-3x the minute ventilation to prevent any rebreathing.

    • True
    • False
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About This Quiz

This quiz focuses on the principles of anesthesia breathing systems, exploring resistance, flow rates, and equipment dimensions using Poiseuille's law.

Technology Quiz Over Breathing Circuit - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Malfunctioning of either unidirectional valve in a circle system may allow rebreathing of carbon dioxide, resulting in hypercapnia.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because if either of the unidirectional valves in a circle system malfunctions, it can lead to the rebreathing of carbon dioxide. This can result in an increase in carbon dioxide levels in the body, known as hypercapnia. Rebreathing carbon dioxide can be dangerous as it can lead to respiratory distress and potentially harm the patient. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the unidirectional valves in a circle system are functioning properly to prevent hypercapnia.

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  • 3. 

    How often should a patients BP be measured during general anesthesia?

    • Every 1-2 minutes

    • Every 3-5 minutes

    • Every 15 minutes

    • Whenever I damn well feel like it.

    Correct Answer
    A. Every 3-5 minutes
    Explanation
    During general anesthesia, it is important to monitor a patient's blood pressure regularly to ensure their safety and to detect any potential complications. Checking the blood pressure every 3-5 minutes allows for frequent assessment without causing unnecessary disruption to the procedure. This interval allows healthcare professionals to promptly identify any changes in blood pressure and take appropriate actions if needed.

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  • 4. 

    Why are you  more concerned regarding a pulse ox dropping from 90 to 86% then you would be about a patient dropping from 100 to 93%?

    • Below 90% the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve is very steep and the PaO2 would have a much larger drop with a 90-86 drop then it would with a 100-93 drop.

    • Because low Pulse ox is directly correlated with cardiac function and may indicate your pt has cardiac ischemia and is at greater risk for cardiac arrythmias and arrest.

    • Because my preceptor freaks out WAY more with that first one and pushes me *away* from the machine.

    • It indicates the pt may have Carbon Monoxide poisoning due to exhausted CO2 absorbent and you should immediately change the CO2 absorber.

    Correct Answer
    A. Below 90% the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve is very steep and the PaO2 would have a much larger drop with a 90-86 drop then it would with a 100-93 drop.
    Explanation
    The reason why a pulse ox dropping from 90 to 86% is more concerning than a patient dropping from 100 to 93% is because below 90%, the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve is very steep. This means that even a small drop in oxygen saturation can result in a much larger drop in the partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2). Therefore, a 90-86 drop would indicate a more significant decrease in oxygen levels compared to a 100-93 drop. This is important because low oxygen saturation is directly correlated with cardiac function and can indicate cardiac ischemia and a higher risk for cardiac arrhythmias and arrest.

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  • 5. 

    A nasal cannula is an example of which kind of breathing system?

    • Semi Closed

    • Closed

    • Semi Open

    • Open

    Correct Answer
    A. Open
    Explanation
    A nasal cannula is an example of an open breathing system because it delivers supplemental oxygen to the patient through two small prongs that are inserted into the nostrils. In an open system, the patient breathes in a mixture of both ambient air and the supplemental oxygen provided by the nasal cannula. This allows for a continuous flow of oxygen without completely sealing off the patient's airway.

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  • 6. 

    Intra-op hypothermia causes decreased drug metabolism, so  your pt will take longer to wake up.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Intra-op hypothermia refers to a decrease in body temperature during surgery. This can lead to various physiological changes, including decreased drug metabolism. When the body is colder, the enzymes responsible for metabolizing drugs work less efficiently, causing drugs to be processed more slowly. As a result, the patient may take longer to wake up from anesthesia. Therefore, the statement that intra-op hypothermia causes decreased drug metabolism and a longer time to wake up is true.

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  • 7. 

    When the patient is spontaneously ventilating, the APL valve needs to be closed so that circuit pressure remains negligible throughout inspiration and expiration.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    When the patient is spontaneously ventilating, the APL valve does not need to be closed. In fact, it should be open to allow the patient to exhale freely. Closing the APL valve would create resistance and prevent the patient from exhaling effectively, leading to increased circuit pressure. Therefore, the statement is false.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is not a means of classifying breathing circuits?

    • Presence of reservoir bag

    • Neutralization of CO2

    • Number of vaporizers

    • Amount of Rebreathing

    Correct Answer
    A. Number of vaporizers
    Explanation
    The number of vaporizers is not a means of classifying breathing circuits. Breathing circuits can be classified based on the presence of a reservoir bag, which allows for the delivery of oxygen and removal of carbon dioxide. They can also be classified based on the neutralization of CO2, which ensures the removal of carbon dioxide from the patient's exhaled breath. Additionally, the amount of rebreathing, which refers to the amount of exhaled gas that is returned to the patient, is another means of classifying breathing circuits. However, the number of vaporizers does not play a role in classifying breathing circuits.

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  • 9. 

    Mapleson Circuits require high fresh gas flows to prevent re-breathing.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Mapleson Circuits are a type of anesthesia breathing system that require high fresh gas flows to prevent re-breathing. Re-breathing refers to the inhalation of exhaled gases, which can lead to a decrease in oxygen concentration and an increase in carbon dioxide concentration. By using high fresh gas flows, the exhaled gases are flushed out of the system, ensuring that the patient receives an adequate supply of oxygen and preventing the accumulation of carbon dioxide. Therefore, the statement "Mapleson Circuits require high fresh gas flows to prevent re-breathing" is true.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a semi-closed circuit?

    • Always provides for neutralization of CO2

    • Contains unidirectional valves

    • Always has a reservoir bag

    • Allows for Total rebreathing of gases

    Correct Answer
    A. Allows for Total rebreathing of gases
    Explanation
    A semi-closed circuit is a breathing system used in anesthesia where exhaled gases are partially rebreathed. It typically contains unidirectional valves to ensure the flow of gases in one direction. It always provides for the neutralization of CO2 to prevent its buildup. It also usually has a reservoir bag to store excess gases. However, it does not allow for total rebreathing of gases, as some fresh gases are always added to maintain an adequate oxygen concentration.

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  • 11. 

    Which non-rebreathing circuit contains a Fresh gas hose inside the expiratory limb?

    • Mapleson F (Jackson-Rees)

    • Mapleson A

    • Mapleson D (Bain)

    • Mapleson C

    Correct Answer
    A. Mapleson D (Bain)
    Explanation
    Mapleson D (Bain) is the correct answer because it is the only non-rebreathing circuit that contains a fresh gas hose inside the expiratory limb. In this circuit, the fresh gas enters the system through the fresh gas hose and is mixed with the patient's exhaled gases in the expiratory limb, before being delivered to the patient again. This design allows for efficient removal of carbon dioxide and delivery of fresh gas to the patient, making it suitable for controlled ventilation during anesthesia.

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  • 12. 

    The above capnogram is indicative of what?

    • Pregnant patient

    • COPD or Bronchospasm

    • Malignant Hyperthermia

    • Spontaneous ventilation

    Correct Answer
    A. COPD or Bronchospasm
    Explanation
    The given capnogram shows a characteristic waveform pattern that is commonly seen in patients with COPD or bronchospasm. These conditions are characterized by airway obstruction and reduced airflow, leading to an increased end-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) level and a prolonged expiratory phase on the capnogram. This is consistent with the waveform shown in the given capnogram.

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  • 13. 

    When using a BP cuff, the first oscillations heard when deflating the cuff correlate with...

    • Diastolic BP

    • Systolic BP

    • MAP

    • Perfusion Pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Systolic BP
    Explanation
    The first oscillations heard when deflating the BP cuff correlate with systolic blood pressure. This is because as the cuff pressure is gradually released, the blood flow through the artery starts to resume. The first audible sound, known as Korotkoff sound, is heard when the blood flow becomes turbulent and causes vibrations in the artery. This sound corresponds to the systolic blood pressure, which is the maximum pressure exerted on the arterial walls during the contraction of the heart.

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  • 14. 

    According to M&M which two leads should you choose to monitor for most pts in the OR?

    • I & avL

    • III& V3

    • II & V5

    • V1 & avF

    Correct Answer
    A. II & V5
    Explanation
    The leads II and V5 should be chosen to monitor for the most pts in the OR. These leads provide important information about the electrical activity of the heart and can help in detecting any abnormalities or changes in the heart's rhythm. Lead II is commonly used in monitoring cardiac activity and can provide a good representation of the overall electrical activity of the heart. Lead V5 is positioned on the left side of the chest and can provide valuable information about the electrical activity of the left ventricle, which is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the body. Monitoring these leads can help in detecting any potential issues and ensuring the safety of the patients in the OR.

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  • 15. 

    Which ECG leads are your inferior leads?

    • V3-4

    • V5-6

    • II, III, & avf

    • I, avL

    Correct Answer
    A. II, III, & avf
    Explanation
    The inferior leads in an ECG are II, III, and avf. These leads are placed on the lower part of the body and provide information about the electrical activity of the heart's inferior wall. By analyzing these leads, doctors can assess the blood supply to the bottom part of the heart and detect any abnormalities or ischemia in that area. Leads V3-4 and I, avL are not considered inferior leads but provide information about other areas of the heart.

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  • 16. 

    Rebreathing is influenced by...

    • Amount of FGF

    • Size of breathing tube

    • Size of reservoir bag

    • Laminar Flow

    Correct Answer
    A. Amount of FGF
    Explanation
    The amount of fresh gas flow (FGF) directly affects rebreathing. Rebreathing refers to the inhalation of exhaled gas, which can lead to an increase in carbon dioxide levels and a decrease in oxygen concentration. By increasing the FGF, more fresh gas is supplied to the patient, reducing the chances of rebreathing exhaled gas. Therefore, the amount of FGF is a crucial factor in minimizing rebreathing and ensuring adequate oxygenation during anesthesia.

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  • 17. 

    The greatest decrease in temperature occurs during what portion of the anesthetic process?

    • Phase I (1st hour)

    • Phase II (3-4 hours)

    • Emergence

    • In PACU

    Correct Answer
    A. Phase I (1st hour)
    Explanation
    During Phase I of the anesthetic process, the patient is being induced and the anesthesia is being administered. This is when the patient's body temperature tends to decrease the most. As the anesthesia takes effect and the patient's body relaxes, their metabolism slows down, leading to a drop in body temperature. This phase typically lasts for the first hour of the anesthetic process, making it the period with the greatest decrease in temperature.

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  • 18. 

    What is the primary determinant of whether a system if closed, semi closed, or semi open within our breathing circuits?

    • Presence of CO2 absorber

    • Size of the circuit

    • Amount of Fresh Gas Flow

    • Ability to add PEEP into circuit

    Correct Answer
    A. Amount of Fresh Gas Flow
    Explanation
    The primary determinant of whether a system is closed, semi-closed, or semi-open within our breathing circuits is the amount of fresh gas flow. The amount of fresh gas flow refers to the rate at which new gas is supplied to the system. In a closed system, the fresh gas flow is minimal or nonexistent, as the patient's exhaled gases are recirculated. In a semi-closed system, a small amount of fresh gas is added to the circuit to compensate for the patient's metabolic needs. In a semi-open system, a higher amount of fresh gas flow is used to flush out the exhaled gases and maintain a desired concentration of oxygen.

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  • 19. 

    The above capnogram represents what?

    • Hypoventilation

    • COPD or Bronchospasm

    • Normal Capnogram

    • Rebreathing of CO2

    Correct Answer
    A. Normal Capnogram
    Explanation
    The above capnogram represents a normal capnogram. A capnogram is a graphical representation of the concentration of carbon dioxide (CO2) in exhaled breath over time. In a normal capnogram, there is an initial rise in CO2 concentration as the patient exhales dead space air, followed by a sharp increase as alveolar air is exhaled, and then a gradual decrease as fresh air is inhaled. This pattern indicates effective ventilation and normal lung function.

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  • 20. 

    For anesthetic purposes, what is the only reliable method of measuring urinary output?

    • Monitoring closely I&O, including blood

    • No reliable method

    • Inserting a foley

    • Fluid Volume Status

    Correct Answer
    A. Inserting a foley
    Explanation
    Inserting a foley catheter is the only reliable method of measuring urinary output for anesthetic purposes. This is because a foley catheter allows for accurate measurement of urine volume by collecting it directly from the bladder. Monitoring closely intake and output (I&O) including blood, fluid volume status, and other methods may provide some information, but they are not as accurate or reliable as using a foley catheter.

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  • 21. 

    Long breathing tubes with high compliance increase the difference between the volume of gas delivered to a circuit by a reservoir bag or ventilator and the volume actually delivered to a patient.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Long breathing tubes with high compliance increase the difference between the volume of gas delivered to a circuit by a reservoir bag or ventilator and the volume actually delivered to a patient. This means that a larger volume of gas is delivered to the circuit than to the patient, which can lead to inefficient delivery of oxygen or medication to the patient. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 22. 

    What are the components of a circle system?

    • Breathing tube, Fresh gas inlet, APL valve, Reservoir bag, Mask

    • Breathing tube, Fresh gas inlet, APL valve, Reservoir bag, Mask, Unidirectional Valves

    • Breathing tube, Fresh gas inlet, APL valve, Mask

    • Breathing tube, Fresh gas inlet, Uni-directional valves, APL valve, Reservoir Bag, CO2 Absorbent, CO2 Absorber, Mask

    Correct Answer
    A. Breathing tube, Fresh gas inlet, Uni-directional valves, APL valve, Reservoir Bag, CO2 Absorbent, CO2 Absorber, Mask
    Explanation
    The components of a circle system include a breathing tube, fresh gas inlet, unidirectional valves, APL valve, reservoir bag, CO2 absorbent, CO2 absorber, and mask. These components work together to deliver and remove gases during the anesthesia process. The breathing tube allows the patient to inhale and exhale gases, the fresh gas inlet provides a supply of fresh gases, the unidirectional valves ensure a one-way flow of gases, the APL valve allows for pressure control, the reservoir bag stores excess gases, the CO2 absorbent removes carbon dioxide, and the mask is used to deliver gases to the patient.

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  • 23. 

    What are the two fundamental purposes of all anesthesia breathing systems? (click two answers)

    • Delivery of O2 & anesthetic gases.

    • To accurately measure amount of FGF going into vaporizer

    • To provide the perfect medium for application of Poiseuille's law

    • Elimination of CO2

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Delivery of O2 & anesthetic gases.
    A. Elimination of CO2
    Explanation
    The two fundamental purposes of all anesthesia breathing systems are to deliver oxygen and anesthetic gases to the patient and to eliminate carbon dioxide from the patient's exhaled breath.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is true regarding open circuits?

    • Partial Rebreathing.

    • No Neutralization of CO2

    • Presence of reservoir bag

    • Good examply is a Mapleson D (Bain) circuit

    Correct Answer
    A. No Neutralization of CO2
    Explanation
    Open circuits do not have a mechanism to neutralize or remove carbon dioxide (CO2) from the breathing system. In an open circuit, exhaled gases are not recycled or rebreathed, and there is no reservoir bag to collect and store exhaled gases. Therefore, CO2 is not effectively removed from the system, leading to the statement that there is no neutralization of CO2 in open circuits.

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  • 25. 

    The above capnogram is indicative of what?

    • Curare Cleft

    • Malfunctioning valve

    • Normal capnogram

    • Lung Transplant

    Correct Answer
    A. Curare Cleft
    Explanation
    The capnogram shown in the question indicates a curare cleft. A curare cleft is a specific pattern seen on a capnogram when there is a partial blockage in the airway due to the use of neuromuscular blocking agents (such as curare) during anesthesia. This pattern is characterized by a sudden decrease in the end-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) level followed by a gradual increase. It is important to recognize this pattern as it can help identify the use of these medications and ensure appropriate management during anesthesia.

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  • 26. 

    Identify the above ECG rhythm.

    • 2nd degree heart block

    • Hyperkalemia

    • Sinus Tach

    • NSR

    Correct Answer
    A. NSR
    Explanation
    The correct answer is NSR, which stands for Normal Sinus Rhythm. This means that the electrical activity in the heart is normal and originates from the sinus node, which is the natural pacemaker of the heart. In NSR, the heart rate is regular, and the P waves, QRS complexes, and T waves are all within normal limits. This is considered the normal rhythm for a healthy individual.

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  • 27. 

    What is a normal PR interval?

    • < 0.12 seconds

    • 0.2 - 1 second

    • 0.12 - 0.20 seconds

    • It is dependent upon the R-to-R interval

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.12 - 0.20 seconds
    Explanation
    A normal PR interval refers to the time it takes for an electrical impulse to travel from the atria to the ventricles in the heart. The correct answer, 0.12 - 0.20 seconds, indicates the normal range for this interval. This duration ensures proper coordination between the atria and ventricles, allowing for efficient pumping of blood throughout the body. Values outside this range may indicate abnormalities in the electrical conduction system of the heart.

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  • 28. 

    Circle system at extremely low FGF with an APL valve closed is an example of what class of breathing circuit:

    • Open

    • Semi-open

    • Semi-closed

    • Closed

    Correct Answer
    A. Closed
    Explanation
    The circle system at extremely low FGF with an APL valve closed is an example of a closed breathing circuit. In a closed circuit, exhaled gases are re-circulated and reused, minimizing the need for fresh gas flow. The APL (adjustable pressure limiting) valve is closed, preventing the escape of gases to the atmosphere. This setup allows for conservation of anesthetic gases and reduces environmental pollution.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is not a characteristic of A-fib?

    • Recognizable QRS complexes

    • Atrial kick is lost

    • Risk of thrombus formation is significant after 48 hours

    • Abnormally tall, peaked P waves before every QRS

    Correct Answer
    A. Abnormally tall, peaked P waves before every QRS
    Explanation
    Abnormally tall, peaked P waves before every QRS are not a characteristic of A-fib. In A-fib, the atria quiver instead of contracting effectively, resulting in an irregular and often rapid heartbeat. This irregularity causes the absence of recognizable QRS complexes, which are normally present in a normal sinus rhythm. Atrial kick, which refers to the additional blood that is pushed into the ventricles during atrial contraction, is lost in A-fib. Additionally, A-fib increases the risk of thrombus formation, particularly after 48 hours, due to the stagnation of blood in the atria.

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  • 30. 

    Which type of circuit is most efficient during Controlled ventilation?

    • Mapleson D

    • Maplseon C

    • Mapleson A

    • Mapleson F

    Correct Answer
    A. Mapleson D
    Explanation
    Mapleson D circuit is the most efficient type of circuit during controlled ventilation. This circuit is designed to deliver a high fresh gas flow rate to the patient, which ensures efficient removal of carbon dioxide and prevents rebreathing. It is commonly used for controlled ventilation in anesthesia, as it provides good control over the inspired and expired gases. Mapleson D circuit is also lightweight and portable, making it convenient for use in various settings.

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  • 31. 

    When using a BP, the last oscillation heard correlates with...

    • Systolic BP

    • MAP

    • Diastolic BP

    • Perfusion Pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Diastolic BP
    Explanation
    When using a BP (blood pressure) measurement, the last oscillation heard corresponds to the diastolic blood pressure. The diastolic blood pressure represents the pressure in the arteries when the heart is at rest between beats. It is the lower number in a blood pressure reading and indicates the minimum pressure exerted on the arterial walls. By listening for the last oscillation, healthcare professionals can determine the diastolic blood pressure accurately.

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  • 32. 

    What is Pethick's Test?

    • Is used to test Circle systems for leaks, disconnection, or unrecognized kinking

    • Is used for Mapleson D systems to ensure high enough gas flows to prevent rebreathing

    • Is used to determine adequacy of CO2 absorption in a semi-closed system

    • Is used to test Bain system for unrecognized kinking or disconnection that could otherwise cause increased dead space.

    Correct Answer
    A. Is used to test Bain system for unrecognized kinking or disconnection that could otherwise cause increased dead space.
    Explanation
    Pethick's Test is used to test the Bain system for unrecognized kinking or disconnection that could otherwise cause increased dead space. This test ensures that the system is functioning properly and there are no blockages or leaks that could compromise the delivery of anesthesia gases to the patient. By performing Pethick's Test, anesthesiologists can ensure the safety and effectiveness of the Bain system during surgery.

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  • 33. 

    A 12-lead ECG measures mechanical activity of the heart.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    measures electrical, not mechanical, activity.

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  • 34. 

    How much FGF do you need in a semi-open system?

    • Less than minute ventilation to encourage rebreathing.

    • Equal to minute ventilation

    • 4L/min

    • 2-3 times minute ventilation

    Correct Answer
    A. 2-3 times minute ventilation
    Explanation
    In a semi-open system, it is necessary to have a higher amount of FGF (Fresh Gas Flow) compared to the patient's minute ventilation. This is because the FGF helps to encourage rebreathing of exhaled gases, which can be beneficial in certain situations. Therefore, having 2-3 times the minute ventilation as the FGF ensures an adequate amount of FGF is supplied to the patient, allowing for effective rebreathing and maintaining the desired levels of anesthesia.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following is not one of the monitored gases?

    • CO2

    • Anesthetic Agent

    • Driving Gas

    • Expired Concentration of gases.

    Correct Answer
    A. Driving Gas
    Explanation
    The driving gas is not one of the monitored gases. The other options, CO2, anesthetic agent, and expired concentration of gases, are all gases that are commonly monitored in various medical and industrial settings. The driving gas refers to the gas that is used to power a mechanical device, such as an anesthesia machine or a ventilator, but it is not typically monitored as a gas itself.

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  • 36. 

    You are the SRNA for Mr. Pier and notice his O2 sat drops from 98 to 94 percent. His O2 sat is steady at 94 and does not appear to drop further, but should you be concerned?

    • Yeah! The oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve is very steep and even slight drops in O2 sat will correlate to a huge drop in the pts PaO2.

    • Nope, as long as the pulse ox is >90 then the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve is not that steep.

    • That depends entirely upon how concerned my preceptor appears to be.

    Correct Answer
    A. Nope, as long as the pulse ox is >90 then the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve is not that steep.
    Explanation
    The explanation suggests that there is no need to be concerned as long as the pulse oximetry reading is above 90%. This implies that the patient's oxygen saturation level is still within an acceptable range and does not indicate a significant drop in the PaO2 levels. The statement also mentions that the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve is not steep in this case, indicating that small drops in oxygen saturation do not correspond to a significant decrease in arterial oxygen levels.

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  • 37. 

    Resistance through the breathing circuit can be decreased by all of the following except...

    • Decreasing length of tube

    • Increasing diameter of tube

    • Avoiding kinks or bends

    • Maintaining turbulent flow

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintaining turbulent flow
    Explanation
    Maintaining turbulent flow does not decrease resistance through the breathing circuit. In fact, turbulent flow increases resistance by causing more friction and turbulence within the tube, leading to a higher pressure drop. Therefore, it is the only option among the given choices that does not decrease resistance.

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  • 38. 

    Which will flow faster: a 16 gauge IV or a central line? (Using poiseuilles law)

    • The #16 IV because of larger radius and shorter length, decreasing resistance.

    • The central line because you can have multiple ports, which will increase flow.

    • The speed of infusion will be roughly equivalent due to increased length of central line and increased resistance of IV.

    • Entirely depends upon where each line is placed.

    Correct Answer
    A. The #16 IV because of larger radius and shorter length, decreasing resistance.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the #16 IV will flow faster because of its larger radius and shorter length, which decreases resistance. According to Poiseuille's law, the flow rate of a fluid is directly proportional to the fourth power of the radius and inversely proportional to the length. Therefore, a larger radius and shorter length will result in a faster flow rate.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is NOT true regarding a closed circuit?

    • Allows for total rebreathing of gases

    • Only to be used during controlled ventilations with open pop-off valve

    • Always provides for neutralization of CO2

    • Always contains unidirectional valves.

    Correct Answer
    A. Only to be used during controlled ventilations with open pop-off valve
    Explanation
    A closed circuit in the context of ventilation refers to a breathing system where exhaled gases are recirculated back to the patient. It allows for total rebreathing of gases, meaning that a portion of the exhaled gases, including carbon dioxide (CO2), is reintroduced into the patient's lungs. This helps to conserve heat and moisture in the respiratory system. A closed circuit always contains unidirectional valves to control the flow of gases. However, it is not true that a closed circuit should only be used during controlled ventilations with an open pop-off valve. The pop-off valve is used to release excess pressure from the system, and its use is not limited to controlled ventilations.

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  • 40. 

    Phase II of the capnograph correlates with..

    • Mix of dead space and alveolar gas

    • Alveolar gas

    • Dead Space

    Correct Answer
    A. Mix of dead space and alveolar gas
    Explanation
    Phase II of the capnograph represents the transition from the initial flat baseline (Phase I) to the steep upstroke of the waveform (Phase III). During Phase II, there is a mix of dead space and alveolar gas being exhaled. Dead space refers to the portion of the respiratory system where no gas exchange occurs, while alveolar gas represents the gas that is exchanged in the alveoli of the lungs. Therefore, Phase II of the capnograph reflects the combination of both dead space and alveolar gas being exhaled.

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  • 41. 

    The function of the breathing circuit is all of the following except:

    • Convey O2 and anethestic gas to the patient

    • Deliver negative pressure ventilation

    • Remove waste from patient

    • Transfer excess gas to scavenging system

    Correct Answer
    A. Deliver negative pressure ventilation
    Explanation
    The breathing circuit performs various functions during anesthesia, including conveying oxygen and anesthetic gas to the patient, removing waste from the patient, and transferring excess gas to the scavenging system. However, it does not deliver negative pressure ventilation. Negative pressure ventilation is a type of ventilation where the pressure inside the thoracic cavity is decreased, causing air to be drawn into the lungs. This is not a function of the breathing circuit, as it is typically achieved through other methods such as mechanical ventilators or manual techniques.

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  • 42. 

    Continual measurement of NIBP may cause development of petechiae on all of the following patients except?

    • Those on anticoagulants

    • Those taking NSAIDS

    • Those taking Tylenol

    • Those with thin, redundant skin

    Correct Answer
    A. Those taking Tylenol
    Explanation
    Continual measurement of NIBP (non-invasive blood pressure) involves the use of a blood pressure cuff that inflates and deflates repeatedly. This process may cause the development of petechiae, which are small red or purple spots on the skin caused by bleeding under the skin. However, Tylenol (acetaminophen) is not known to have any anticoagulant properties or effects on blood clotting. Therefore, those taking Tylenol would not be at an increased risk of developing petechiae compared to the other groups mentioned, such as those on anticoagulants or NSAIDs, or those with thin, redundant skin.

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  • 43. 

    Identify the above rhythm.

    • Right Atrial Hypertrophy

    • Inferior wall MI

    • Dig Toxicity

    • Premature Atrial Contractions

    Correct Answer
    A. Inferior wall MI
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Inferior wall MI. Inferior wall MI refers to a myocardial infarction (heart attack) that occurs in the inferior wall of the heart, which is the lower part of the heart. This can be identified on an ECG (electrocardiogram) by specific changes in the ST segment and T wave in the inferior leads (II, III, and aVF). It is important to recognize this rhythm as it can indicate damage to the heart muscle and the need for prompt medical intervention.

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  • 44. 

    Phase I of the capnograph reading correlates with...

    • Mix of dead speace and alveolar gas

    • Alveolar gas

    • Dead space

    Correct Answer
    A. Dead space
    Explanation
    Phase I of the capnograph reading correlates with dead space. Dead space refers to the portion of the respiratory system where no gas exchange occurs, such as the trachea and bronchi. During this phase, when the patient begins to exhale, the initial portion of the expired gas contains a high concentration of carbon dioxide from the anatomical dead space. This is reflected in the capnograph reading as a steep rise in carbon dioxide levels. Therefore, the correct answer is dead space.

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  • 45. 

    When using a semi-open circuit, what happens if your FGF drops below minute ventilation?

    • Nothing, gas flow SHOULD be below minute ventilation

    • The system then turns into a semi-closed circuit.

    • You run the risk of inflicting barotrauma on your pt.

    • An alarm will sound to alert you.

    Correct Answer
    A. The system then turns into a semi-closed circuit.
    Explanation
    When using a semi-open circuit, if the fresh gas flow (FGF) drops below minute ventilation, the system then turns into a semi-closed circuit. In a semi-open circuit, the FGF is set to be slightly lower than the patient's minute ventilation. This allows for a small amount of rebreathing of exhaled gases. However, if the FGF drops below the minute ventilation, it means that the patient is rebreathing a significant amount of exhaled gases. To prevent this, the system automatically switches to a semi-closed circuit, where the FGF is higher than the minute ventilation to ensure adequate ventilation and minimize the risk of rebreathing.

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  • 46. 
    Identify the above rhythm. - ProProfs

    Identify the above rhythm.

    • NSR

    • Inferior wall MI

    • Left Bundle Branch Block

    • High Lateral MI

    Correct Answer
    A. Left Bundle Branch Block
    Explanation
    A Left Bundle Branch Block (LBBB) is a condition that occurs when there is a delay or blockage in the electrical signals that control the contraction of the heart. This can be identified on an electrocardiogram (ECG) by the characteristic pattern of widened QRS complexes and specific changes in the ST-T segments. In this case, the rhythm is identified as a Left Bundle Branch Block based on the given options.

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  • 47. 

    The most common method to measure NIBP is?

    • Arterial Tonometry

    • Doppler Probe

    • Auscultation

    • Oscillometry

    Correct Answer
    A. Oscillometry
    Explanation
    Oscillometry is the most common method to measure non-invasive blood pressure (NIBP). This method involves using an automated blood pressure monitor that measures the oscillations in the arterial wall caused by the blood flow. The monitor uses an inflatable cuff placed around the arm to temporarily restrict blood flow and then gradually releases the pressure while detecting the oscillations. This method is widely used in clinical settings due to its accuracy, ease of use, and non-invasive nature. Arterial tonometry, Doppler probe, and auscultation are also used to measure blood pressure but are not as commonly used as oscillometry.

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  • 48. 

    How does a Diverting gas monitor work?

    • Measures the gas by using a sensor located directly within the gas stream.

    • Through a sensor inside each vaporizer which directly measures the amount of vapor absorbed by the FGF.

    • Uses a pump to aspirate gas from the sampling site through a sampling tubing to a sensor that is located in the main unit.

    Correct Answer
    A. Uses a pump to aspirate gas from the sampling site through a sampling tubing to a sensor that is located in the main unit.
    Explanation
    The Diverting gas monitor works by using a pump to draw gas from the sampling site through a sampling tubing. This gas is then transported to a sensor located in the main unit of the monitor. The sensor in the main unit analyzes the gas and provides measurements or readings based on the gas composition. This method allows for accurate monitoring and analysis of the gas in question.

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  • 49. 

    The above capnogram is indicative of what?

    • Hyperventilation

    • Mucus Plug

    • Malignant Hyperthermia

    • CPR

    Correct Answer
    A. CPR
    Explanation
    The given capnogram shows a flat line, indicating no carbon dioxide being exhaled. This is indicative of a lack of ventilation, which is commonly seen during CPR (Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation) when the heart has stopped beating and artificial respiration is being performed. Therefore, the correct answer is CPR.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jan 30, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 30, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 18, 2008
    Quiz Created by
    Scottishduffy
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