FMGE Mock Test Questions And Answers

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    Karyotyping is done for:

    • Chromosomal disorders
    • AR disorders
    • AD disorders
    • Link disorders
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About This Quiz

Are you preparing for a screening test for medical sciences? Have a look at this FMGE mock test questions and answers, and test your knowledge. This quiz is a mock test for your preparation for the final exam. So, take this quiz and prepare perfectly for all the upcoming tests and exams. Even if you miss out on something, we See moreare here to help you with the correct answers. All the best for the best scores on this quiz. You can share it with other aspirants also.

FMGE Mock Test Questions And Answers - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Artery in anatomical snuff box:

    • Radial

    • Brachial

    • Ulnar

    • Interosseous

    Correct Answer
    A. Radial
    Explanation
    The correct answer is radial because the anatomical snuff box is a triangular depression on the radial aspect of the dorsum of the hand. It is formed by the tendons of the extensor pollicis longus and brevis muscles. The radial artery runs through the anatomical snuff box, making it the artery present in this anatomical structure.

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  • 3. 

    The receptor of HIV:

    • CD4

    • CD8

    • Plasma cell

    • CD56

    Correct Answer
    A. CD4
    Explanation
    CD4 is the correct answer because it is a receptor found on the surface of certain immune cells, including T-helper cells, which are the primary target of the HIV virus. HIV binds to the CD4 receptor on these cells, allowing the virus to enter and infect them. CD8 is another type of immune cell receptor, but it is not the primary receptor for HIV. Plasma cells are a type of immune cell that produces antibodies, and CD56 is a marker found on natural killer cells, neither of which are the primary receptor for HIV.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is protective against carcinoma colon?

    • High fiber diet

    • High fat

    • High selenium diet

    • Low protein diet

    Correct Answer
    A. High fiber diet
    Explanation
    A high fiber diet is protective against carcinoma colon because it helps to regulate bowel movements and prevent constipation. It also helps to maintain a healthy weight, which is important in reducing the risk of colon cancer. Fiber-rich foods also contain antioxidants and phytochemicals that have been shown to have anti-cancer properties. Additionally, a high fiber diet can help to lower cholesterol levels and control blood sugar, which are factors that are associated with an increased risk of colon cancer.

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  • 5. 

    Neurofibromatosis is associated with all except:

    • Autosomal recessive

    • Cutaneous fibromas

    • Cataract

    • Scoliosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Autosomal recessive
    Explanation
    Neurofibromatosis is a genetic disorder characterized by the growth of tumors on nerves throughout the body. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, meaning that a person only needs to inherit one copy of the mutated gene to develop the disorder. Therefore, it is not associated with autosomal recessive inheritance. Cutaneous fibromas, cataract, and scoliosis are all commonly associated with neurofibromatosis.

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  • 6. 

    A person sits from standing position, change seen is:

    • Increase increase in venous return

    • Increase in heart rate

    • Increase epinephrine

    • Increased cerebral blood flow

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase increase in venous return
    Explanation
    When a person sits from a standing position, there is an increase in venous return. This means that more blood is flowing back to the heart from the veins. This increase in venous return leads to an increase in preload, which is the amount of blood filling the heart before it contracts. As a result, the heart rate increases to pump out this increased volume of blood. The other options, such as increase in epinephrine and increased cerebral blood flow, may also occur during this transition, but the primary change seen is the increase in venous return.

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  • 7. 

    Sleep is primarily regulated by:

    • Thalamus

    • Hypothalamus

    • Putamen

    • Limbic cortex

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypothalamus
    Explanation
    The hypothalamus is responsible for regulating sleep primarily. It contains a group of nerve cells called the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN), which acts as the body's internal clock. The SCN receives information about light and darkness from the eyes and sends signals to other parts of the brain, including the pineal gland, to regulate the production of melatonin, a hormone that helps control sleep-wake cycles. Additionally, the hypothalamus plays a role in controlling other sleep-related functions, such as body temperature and hormone production.

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  • 8. 

    After cutting DNA with restriction enzymes; segments are joined by:

    • Endonuclease

    • Ligase

    • Topoisomerase

    • Helicase

    Correct Answer
    A. Ligase
    Explanation
    After cutting DNA with restriction enzymes, the segments are joined by ligase. Ligase is an enzyme that catalyzes the formation of phosphodiester bonds between the sugar-phosphate backbones of DNA strands. It plays a crucial role in DNA replication, repair, and recombination. In this context, after the restriction enzymes cut the DNA at specific recognition sites, ligase is responsible for sealing the gaps and joining the DNA segments back together. This process is essential for the proper functioning and stability of the DNA molecule.

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  • 9. 

    Q fever is transmitted by:

    • Ticks

    • Mites

    • Louse

    • Aerosol

    Correct Answer
    A. Ticks
    Explanation
    Q fever is caused by the bacteria Coxiella burnetii and is primarily transmitted to humans through ticks. Ticks are known to carry and transmit the bacteria to both animals and humans. When an infected tick bites a human, it can transmit the bacteria into the bloodstream, leading to Q fever infection. Other modes of transmission, such as mites, lice, and aerosol, are not commonly associated with Q fever. Therefore, ticks are the most likely source of transmission for Q fever.

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  • 10. 

    A 34-year-old female presents with symptoms of cough, dyspnea, and lymphadenopathy. Physical exam shows cervical adenopathy and hepatomegaly. Her chest radiograph is shown below. How should you pursue diagnosis?

    • Open lung biopsy

    • Liver biopsy

    • Bronchoscopy and transbronchial lung biopsy

    • Scalene node biopsy

    Correct Answer
    A. Bronchoscopy and transbronchial lung biopsy
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the patient is presenting with symptoms of cough, dyspnea, cervical adenopathy, and hepatomegaly. The chest radiograph is shown to further investigate the cause of these symptoms. Bronchoscopy and transbronchial lung biopsy would be the most appropriate next step in pursuing a diagnosis. This procedure allows for direct visualization and sampling of the lung tissue, which can help identify any abnormalities or underlying conditions causing the patient's symptoms. Liver biopsy would not be the most appropriate option as the symptoms and physical exam findings are not indicative of a primary liver problem. Open lung biopsy and scalene node biopsy are not the first-line procedures for investigating the cause of the patient's symptoms.

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  • 11. 

    Laryngeal pseudosulcus true is:

    • Due to vocal abuse

    • Due to reflux induced laryngitis (pharyngoesophageal reflux)

    • Seen in TB

    • Due to high dose corticosteroids

    Correct Answer
    A. Due to reflux induced laryngitis (pharyngoesophageal reflux)
    Explanation
    Laryngeal pseudosulcus is a condition characterized by a linear groove or furrow on the posterior aspect of the vocal folds. It is commonly associated with reflux induced laryngitis, also known as pharyngoesophageal reflux. This occurs when stomach acid flows back into the throat, causing irritation and inflammation of the larynx. The acid damages the lining of the larynx, leading to the formation of the pseudosulcus. Vocal abuse, tuberculosis, and high dose corticosteroids are not typically associated with the development of laryngeal pseudosulcus.

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  • 12. 

     Gold standard to diagnosis insulinoma is:

    • 72 hours fasting blood glucose levels and insulin levels

    • C-peptide < 50

    • Insulin levels > 5 mmol

    • Glucose < 3 mmol

    Correct Answer
    A. 72 hours fasting blood glucose levels and insulin levels
    Explanation
    The gold standard for diagnosing insulinoma is 72 hours fasting blood glucose levels and insulin levels. This is because insulinoma is a rare tumor that causes excessive production of insulin, leading to low blood sugar levels. By fasting for 72 hours, the body's insulin production should decrease, causing blood glucose levels to rise. If insulin levels remain high despite fasting, it suggests the presence of insulinoma.

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  • 13. 

    Chief cells are found in:

    • Fundus

    • Pit

    • Neck

    • Body

    Correct Answer
    A. Fundus
    Explanation
    Chief cells are found in the fundus of the stomach. The fundus is the upper portion of the stomach, located above the body and near the esophagus. Chief cells are responsible for secreting pepsinogen, an inactive form of the enzyme pepsin, which helps in the digestion of proteins. The presence of chief cells in the fundus allows for the initiation of protein digestion in the stomach.

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  • 14. 

    Staging for Wilms syndrome:

    • Chadwick

    • International staging international society of pediatrics (ISOP)

    • AJCC

    • TNM

    Correct Answer
    A. International staging international society of pediatrics (ISOP)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "International staging international society of pediatrics (ISOP)". This suggests that the International Society of Pediatrics (ISOP) has developed a staging system specifically for Wilms syndrome. This staging system likely helps classify the extent and severity of the disease, allowing for better understanding and management of the condition. The other options mentioned (Chadwick, AJCC, TNM) do not seem to be relevant to the staging of Wilms syndrome.

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  • 15. 

    Prunning of vessels is seen in:

    • Lung tumor

    • Primary Pulmonary hypertension

    • Chronic Bronchitis

    • Pulmonary infections

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary Pulmonary hypertension
    Explanation
    Pruning of vessels refers to the process of reducing or eliminating small, peripheral blood vessels in order to redirect blood flow to more vital areas. In the context of primary pulmonary hypertension, the condition is characterized by the narrowing and constriction of pulmonary arteries, leading to increased resistance in the lungs. This can result in the pruning of vessels as the body attempts to redirect blood flow to areas with less resistance. Therefore, primary pulmonary hypertension is the most likely condition in which pruning of vessels is observed.

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  • 16. 

    Characteristic of acute inflammation:

    • Vasodilation ad increased vascular permeability

    • Vasoconstriction

    • Platelet aggregation

    • Infiltration by neutrophil

    Correct Answer
    A. Vasodilation ad increased vascular permeability
    Explanation
    Acute inflammation is characterized by vasodilation and increased vascular permeability. Vasodilation refers to the widening of blood vessels, which allows for increased blood flow to the affected area. This helps deliver immune cells and nutrients to the site of inflammation. Increased vascular permeability refers to the loosening of the blood vessel walls, allowing fluid, proteins, and immune cells to leak into the surrounding tissues. This leads to swelling and redness at the site of inflammation. Together, vasodilation and increased vascular permeability help facilitate the inflammatory response and aid in the healing process.

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  • 17. 

    In HIV maximum risk of transmission is by:

    • Homosexual

    • Blood transfusion

    • Heterosexual

    • Needle pride

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood transfusion
    Explanation
    The maximum risk of transmission of HIV is through blood transfusion. This is because HIV can be present in the blood of an infected person, and if this blood is transfused into another person, there is a high likelihood of transmission. Other modes of transmission such as homosexual activity, heterosexual activity, and needle pricks also carry a risk of transmission, but the risk is comparatively lower than that of blood transfusion.

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  • 18. 

    Hallmark feature of benign HTN is:

    • Hyaline arteriosclerosis

    • Cystic medial necrosis

    • Fibrinoid necrosis

    • Hyperplastic art

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyaline arteriosclerosis
    Explanation
    The hallmark feature of benign hypertension is hyaline arteriosclerosis. Hyaline arteriosclerosis refers to the thickening and hardening of the walls of small arteries and arterioles due to the deposition of a protein called hyaline. This condition is commonly seen in individuals with long-standing hypertension and is characterized by the narrowing of blood vessels, reduced blood flow, and potential organ damage. Hyaline arteriosclerosis is considered a marker of chronic hypertensive vascular disease and is often associated with conditions such as diabetes and aging.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is the recommended timing for the administration of the first dose of the Hepatitis B (HB) vaccine to a neonate?

    • Within 12 hours of birth 

    • Within 24 hours of birth 

    • Within 7 days of birth 

    • Within 1 month of birth

    Correct Answer
    A. Within 12 hours of birth 
    Explanation
    The first dose of the Hepatitis B vaccine is recommended to be administered within 12 hours of birth, especially for infants born to mothers who are Hepatitis B positive. This helps to prevent the transmission of the virus from mother to child. The other options are incorrect because they represent delayed administration of the vaccine, which increases the risk of infection.

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  • 20. 

    An intrinsic factor of the castle is present in:

    • Chief cells

    • Fundus cells

    • Goblet cells

    • Parietal cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Parietal cells
    Explanation
    Parietal cells are present in the castle and have an intrinsic factor. The intrinsic factor is a glycoprotein that is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine. It is produced by the parietal cells of the stomach lining and binds to vitamin B12, allowing it to be absorbed by the body. This intrinsic factor is necessary for the proper functioning of the digestive system and the production of healthy red blood cells.

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  • 21. 

    Extensive abrasions are found on the body of a pedestrian lying by the road side. What is the cause?

    • Primary impact injury

    • Secondary imact injury

    • Secondary injury

    • Postmortem artefact

    Correct Answer
    A. Secondary imact injury
    Explanation
    The extensive abrasions found on the body of a pedestrian lying by the road side suggest that the cause of these injuries is a secondary impact injury. This means that the pedestrian was likely hit by a vehicle or another object after the initial impact, resulting in the abrasions on their body.

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  • 22. 

    Amifostine is protective to all except:

    • Salivary gland

    • Skin

    • CNS

    • GIT

    Correct Answer
    A. CNS
    Explanation
    Amifostine is a drug that is used as a protective agent against the harmful effects of radiation and certain chemotherapy drugs. It works by scavenging and neutralizing harmful free radicals that are produced during these treatments. While amifostine provides protection to various organs and tissues, it does not have a significant protective effect on the central nervous system (CNS). Therefore, the correct answer is CNS.

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  • 23. 

    A 7-year-old girl presents with bleeding in joints. She has prolonged aPTt, normal PT an platelet counts. What could be the deficiency?

    • IX

    • VIII

    • VII

    • Von Willebrand

    Correct Answer
    A. Von Willebrand
    Explanation
    The correct answer is von Willebrand. Von Willebrand disease is a bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency or dysfunction of von Willebrand factor (vWF), a protein involved in blood clotting. It is characterized by prolonged bleeding time, normal platelet counts, and prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Deficiencies in factors VIII, IX, and VII would result in abnormal PT and aPTT, but von Willebrand disease specifically presents with prolonged aPTT and normal PT.

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  • 24. 

    Patient with foreign body sensation in eye and swollen knee it after leisure trip:

    • Sarcoidosis

    • Reiter’s disease

    • Behcet’s disease

    • SLE

    Correct Answer
    A. Reiter’s disease
    Explanation
    Reiter's disease, also known as reactive arthritis, is a possible explanation for the patient's symptoms. It is characterized by joint inflammation, often affecting the knees, and can also cause eye inflammation and foreign body sensation. This condition is typically triggered by an infection, such as a gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection. Sarcoidosis, Behcet's disease, and SLE are all autoimmune conditions that can cause similar symptoms, but Reiter's disease is more commonly associated with joint and eye involvement after an infection.

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  • 25. 

    Faciliatated diffusion:

    • Requires carrier protein

    • It is a form of active transport

    • Along concentration gradient

    • Requires creatinine phosphate

    Correct Answer
    A. Requires carrier protein
    Explanation
    Facilitated diffusion is a passive transport process that allows the movement of molecules across a cell membrane along their concentration gradient. It differs from simple diffusion as it requires the assistance of specific carrier proteins embedded in the membrane. These carrier proteins bind to the molecules being transported and facilitate their movement across the membrane. Therefore, the correct answer is that facilitated diffusion requires carrier proteins.

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  • 26. 

    Which is not involved in the intrinsic pathway?

    • Factor XII

    • Factor XI

    • Factor IX

    • Factor VII

    Correct Answer
    A. Factor VII
    Explanation
    Factor VII is not involved in the intrinsic pathway of blood coagulation. The intrinsic pathway is initiated by the activation of factor XII, which then activates factor XI. Factor XI subsequently activates factor IX, leading to the formation of the tenase complex and ultimately the activation of factor X. Factor VII, on the other hand, is part of the extrinsic pathway, which is initiated by tissue factor and does not involve factors XII, XI, or IX.

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  • 27. 

    The modes of infection of the following diseases are all except:

    • Leptospirosis – rat urine

    • Tetanus – dust droplets

    • Listeria – refrigerated food

    • Legionella – aerosol

    Correct Answer
    A. Tetanus – dust droplets
    Explanation
    Tetanus is not transmitted through dust droplets. Tetanus is caused by the bacterium Clostridium tetani, which is commonly found in soil, dust, and animal feces. The infection occurs when the bacteria enter the body through a wound or cut. It is not transmitted through droplets in the air.

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  • 28. 

    What is intermittent claudication?

    • Pain on 1st step

    • Pain on exercise only

    • Pain on last step

    • Pain at rest

    Correct Answer
    A. Pain on exercise only
    Explanation
    Intermittent claudication refers to pain that occurs during exercise, typically in the muscles of the legs. This pain is caused by reduced blood flow to the muscles, usually due to narrowed or blocked arteries. The pain is relieved with rest. Therefore, the correct answer is "Pain on exercise only".

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  • 29. 

    Central chemoreceptors are most sensitive to:

    • Increase in CO2 tension

    • Decrease in CO2tension

    • Low O2 tension

    • Increase in H+

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase in CO2 tension
    Explanation
    Central chemoreceptors are specialized cells located in the brain that are responsible for monitoring the levels of certain gases in the blood, including carbon dioxide (CO2). These chemoreceptors are most sensitive to an increase in CO2 tension. When CO2 levels in the blood rise, it leads to an increase in carbonic acid, which then increases the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) in the blood. This change in pH is detected by the central chemoreceptors, triggering a response to increase ventilation and remove excess CO2 from the body. Therefore, an increase in CO2 tension is the most significant stimulus for the central chemoreceptors.

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  • 30. 

    True for hemochromatosis:

    • Complete penetrance

    • Autosomal recessive

    • Phlebotomy leads to cure

    • More common in females

    Correct Answer
    A. Autosomal recessive
    Explanation
    Hemochromatosis is a genetic disorder characterized by excessive absorption of dietary iron, leading to iron overload in the body. Autosomal recessive inheritance means that an individual needs to inherit two copies of the mutated gene (one from each parent) in order to develop the disorder. This is supported by the fact that both males and females can be affected by hemochromatosis, indicating that it is not more common in females. Complete penetrance suggests that individuals who inherit the mutated gene will always develop the disorder, which aligns with the nature of hemochromatosis. Phlebotomy, the removal of blood, is a common treatment for hemochromatosis as it helps to reduce iron levels in the body, but it does not necessarily lead to a cure.

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  • 31. 

    Marker of neural tube defect:

    • Phosphatidylesterase

    • Pseudocholinesterase

    • Acetylcholinesterase

    • Butyrylcholinesterase

    Correct Answer
    A. Acetylcholinesterase
    Explanation
    Acetylcholinesterase is the correct answer because it is an enzyme that breaks down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft, terminating the signal transmission. Neural tube defects are caused by abnormalities in the development of the neural tube during early embryonic development. The marker for neural tube defects is not specifically mentioned in the question, but acetylcholinesterase is not typically associated with neural tube defects. Therefore, it is likely that the correct answer is a mistake or the question is incomplete.

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  • 32. 

    Diastolic pressure in aorta is maintained by:

    • Elastic recoil of aorta

    • Muscular artery

    • Resistance in arterioles

    • Capillaries

    Correct Answer
    A. Elastic recoil of aorta
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the elastic recoil of the aorta. The aorta is a large, elastic artery that receives blood from the heart during systole and stretches to accommodate the volume of blood. During diastole, when the heart is at rest, the elastic fibers in the aorta recoil, helping to maintain the pressure in the aorta and ensuring continuous blood flow to the rest of the body. This elastic recoil prevents a sudden drop in pressure and helps to maintain a steady flow of blood throughout the cardiac cycle.

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  • 33. 

    Incidence rate can be calculated by:

    • Case control study

    • Cohort study

    • Cross sectional study

    • Longitudinal study

    Correct Answer
    A. Cohort study
    Explanation
    A cohort study is a type of observational study where a group of individuals with a common characteristic or exposure are followed over a period of time to determine the incidence rate of a specific outcome or disease. In this study design, participants are initially free of the outcome of interest and are classified into different exposure groups. The incidence rate is then calculated by dividing the number of new cases of the outcome in each exposure group by the total person-time at risk in that group. This allows researchers to establish a temporal relationship between exposure and outcome and calculate the risk of developing the outcome.

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  • 34. 

    Most recent classification according to WHO for disability:

    • International Classification of Functioning,Disability and Health’s

    • DALY

    • WHO DAIS

    • STEPS

    Correct Answer
    A. International Classification of Functioning,Disability and Health’s
    Explanation
    The most recent classification for disability according to the WHO is the International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health (ICF). This classification system provides a framework for understanding and measuring health and disability. It focuses on the interaction between a person's health condition and their environment, and aims to provide a comprehensive understanding of functioning and disability. The ICF is widely used by healthcare professionals, researchers, and policymakers to inform decision-making and improve the lives of people with disabilities.

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  • 35. 

    A man with blunt injury abdomen after road side accident has BP of 100/80 mm Hg, pulse 120 bpm. Respiration stabilized through air-way. Next best step in the management is:

    • Immediate blood transfusion

    • Blood for cross-matcing + IV fluids

    • Ventilate the patient

    • Rush to the OT

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood for cross-matcing + IV fluids
    Explanation
    In a patient with blunt injury abdomen after a roadside accident, the next best step in management would be to obtain blood for cross-matching and administer intravenous fluids. The patient's low blood pressure and high heart rate indicate hypovolemia, which can be caused by internal bleeding. Blood for cross-matching is necessary to identify the patient's blood type and ensure compatibility for potential blood transfusion. Intravenous fluids are also important to restore intravascular volume and stabilize the patient before further interventions or surgery. Ventilation or rushing to the operating theater may be necessary later depending on the patient's condition, but addressing hypovolemia is the initial priority.

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  • 36. 

    A Down syndrome patient is posted for surgery. The necessary preoperative investigation to be done is:

    • Echocardiography

    • CT brain

    • X-ray cervical spine

    • USG abdomen

    Correct Answer
    A. Echocardiography
    Explanation
    Echocardiography is the necessary preoperative investigation for a Down syndrome patient because individuals with Down syndrome commonly have heart defects. Echocardiography is a non-invasive test that uses sound waves to create images of the heart's structure and function, allowing doctors to identify any abnormalities or potential complications before surgery. This investigation helps in assessing the patient's cardiac health and determining the appropriate surgical approach, anesthesia, and postoperative care.

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  • 37. 

    Sertoli cells are associated with:

    • Spermiogenesis

    • Secretion of seminal fluid

    • Production of testosterones

    • Production of sperm

    Correct Answer
    A. Spermiogenesis
    Explanation
    Sertoli cells are associated with spermiogenesis, which is the process of sperm maturation. These cells provide physical and nutritional support to developing sperm cells, as well as aid in their differentiation and maturation. They also play a role in the removal of excess cytoplasm from developing sperm cells, ensuring that they become streamlined and fully functional. Therefore, spermiogenesis is the correct association with Sertoli cells.

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  • 38. 

    True for necrotizing fasciitis are all except:

    • Infection of fascia and subcutaneous tissue

    • Caused by group a beta-hemolytic streptococcus pyogenes

    • Most common in the trunk, lower limbs, and perineum

    • Surgical debridement is usually not needed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Surgical debridement is usually not needed.
    Explanation
    Necrotizing fasciitis is an infection that affects the fascia and subcutaneous tissue. It is commonly caused by group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus pyogenes. It typically occurs in the trunk, lower limbs, and perineum. However, the correct answer states that surgical debridement is usually not needed. This is incorrect because surgical debridement is a crucial treatment for necrotizing fasciitis. It involves removing dead tissue to prevent the spread of infection and promote healing. Therefore, the correct answer should be "Surgical debridement is usually necessary."

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  • 39. 

    Cut off of Indian reference man (kg):

    • 60

    • 70

    • 50

    • 55

    Correct Answer
    A. 60
    Explanation
    The cutoff of the Indian reference man is 60 kg. This means that any individual who weighs less than 60 kg would not meet the criteria to be considered as the Indian reference man.

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  • 40. 

    STEPS refers to:

    • Assessing incidence of risk factors of non- comunicable diseases

    • Assessing incidence of non-communicable diseases

    • Assessing Rx compliance of non-communicable diseases

    • Assessing rate of mortality of non-communicable diseases

    Correct Answer
    A. Assessing incidence of risk factors of non- comunicable diseases
    Explanation
    STEPS refers to assessing incidence of risk factors of non-communicable diseases. This means that STEPS is a method or tool used to evaluate and measure the occurrence or prevalence of various risk factors that contribute to the development of non-communicable diseases. It helps in identifying the factors that increase the likelihood of individuals developing such diseases, allowing for targeted interventions and preventive measures to be implemented. The other options mentioned in the question, such as assessing the incidence of non-communicable diseases, assessing Rx compliance, and assessing the rate of mortality, are not the primary focus of the STEPS approach.

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  • 41. 

    All drugs can be given to a mother with lupus who isn on 35th week of gestation except:

    • Chloroquine

    • Methotrexate

    • Sulphadiazine/sulphasalazine

    • Prenisolone

    Correct Answer
    A. Methotrexate
    Explanation
    Methotrexate is contraindicated in pregnant women, especially during the third trimester. It is a medication used to treat certain types of cancer and autoimmune diseases, but it can cause harm to the developing fetus. Methotrexate is known to increase the risk of miscarriage, birth defects, and developmental abnormalities. Therefore, it should not be given to a mother with lupus who is on the 35th week of gestation.

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  • 42. 

    Casper’s dictum is for:

    • Identification of body

    • Time since death

    • Mode of injury

    • Depth of insertion of knife

    Correct Answer
    A. Time since death
    Explanation
    Casper's dictum refers to a principle in forensic medicine that states that the time since death can be estimated by the stage of decomposition of a body. This means that the condition of the body can provide valuable information about how long ago the person died. Therefore, Casper's dictum is specifically related to determining the time since death and not the other factors mentioned in the question such as identification of the body, mode of injury, or depth of insertion of a knife.

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  • 43. 

    A young man with gout has synovial fluid removed. It would shows:

    • MSU crystals

    • CPPD crystals

    • PMN cells

    • Mono nuclear cells

    Correct Answer
    A. MSU crystals
    Explanation
    The presence of MSU crystals in the synovial fluid of a young man with gout indicates a diagnosis of gout. Gout is a form of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints. These crystals can cause severe pain, inflammation, and swelling. Removing synovial fluid and identifying the presence of MSU crystals confirms the diagnosis of gout.

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  • 44. 

    Most important prognostic factor of colorectal carcinoma:

    • Site of lesion

    • Stage of lesion

    • Age of patient

    • LN status

    Correct Answer
    A. Stage of lesion
    Explanation
    The stage of the lesion is the most important prognostic factor of colorectal carcinoma. This is because the stage determines the extent of the cancer and how far it has spread. It provides crucial information about the size of the tumor, the involvement of nearby lymph nodes, and the presence of distant metastasis. The stage of the lesion helps in determining the appropriate treatment approach and predicting the patient's overall prognosis.

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  • 45. 

    Spongy part of the male urethra drains via which lymph nodes:

    • Superficial inguinal

    • External iliac

    • Deep inguinal

    • Aortic

    Correct Answer
    A. Deep inguinal
    Explanation
    The spongy part of the male urethra drains via the deep inguinal lymph nodes. The deep inguinal lymph nodes are located in the inguinal region, near the groin area. They receive lymphatic drainage from the spongy part of the male urethra, as well as from the scrotum and the penis. These lymph nodes play a role in filtering and draining lymphatic fluid from these areas, helping to remove waste products and potentially harmful substances.

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  • 46. 

    Organelle which plays a pivotal role in apoptosis:

    • Cytoplasm

    • Golgi complex

    • Mitochondria

    • Nucleus

    Correct Answer
    A. Mitochondria
    Explanation
    Mitochondria play a pivotal role in apoptosis because they are responsible for regulating cell death. During apoptosis, mitochondria release certain proteins that trigger a series of events leading to cell death. These proteins, such as cytochrome c, activate enzymes called caspases, which break down cellular components and ultimately lead to cell death. Therefore, the correct answer is mitochondria.

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  • 47. 

    Bleomycin toxicity affects which type of cells:

    • Type-I pneumocyte

    • Type-II pneumocyte

    • Endothelial cell

    • Alveolar macrophages

    Correct Answer
    A. Type-II pneumocyte
    Explanation
    Bleomycin toxicity primarily affects Type-II pneumocytes. These cells are found in the alveoli of the lungs and are responsible for producing surfactant, a substance that helps to reduce surface tension and maintain the integrity of the alveoli. Bleomycin is an antineoplastic medication that can cause lung damage by inducing oxidative stress and inflammation. It specifically targets Type-II pneumocytes, leading to their injury and dysfunction. This can result in pulmonary fibrosis, a condition characterized by the excessive accumulation of scar tissue in the lungs.

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  • 48. 

    Disease, which permanently alters finger print: (DNB JUNE)

    • Burns

    • TB

    • Psoriasis

    • Leprosy

    Correct Answer
    A. Leprosy
    Explanation
    Leprosy is a disease caused by the bacteria Mycobacterium leprae that primarily affects the skin and peripheral nerves. It can lead to permanent changes in the skin, including thickening, discoloration, and loss of sensation. In some cases, leprosy can cause damage to the sweat glands and oil glands, which can result in changes to the fingerprints. Therefore, leprosy is the correct answer as it is the only disease listed that can permanently alter fingerprints.

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  • 49. 

    True statement about RDA:

    • Average daily requirements of all nutrients

    • Average daily requirements of all nutrients except calories ± 2SD

    • Indicates adequacy of dietary intake

    • Applies to even sick people

    Correct Answer
    A. Average daily requirements of all nutrients except calories ± 2SD
    Explanation
    This statement suggests that the Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA) provide the average daily requirements of all nutrients except calories, with a margin of ± 2 standard deviations (SD). This means that the RDA takes into account the variability in nutrient needs among individuals. The RDA is used to assess the adequacy of dietary intake and applies to both healthy individuals and those who are sick.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Nov 25, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Nov 25, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 15, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Fmgs India

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