CDC Z3dx7x Volume 1

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  • 1/100 Questions

    What is the most common wireless networking standard? 

    • 802.3
    • 802.9
    • 802.11
    • 802.14
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About This Quiz

This CDC Z3DX7X Volume 1 quiz evaluates knowledge essential for specific Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs), focusing on systems programming, skill level advancements, and manpower planning. It's designed for Air Force personnel aiming to understand operational and staffing functions effectively.

CDC Z3dx7x Volume 1 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user? 

    • Token

    • Biometrics

    • Multifactor

    • Knowledge-based

    Correct Answer
    A. Biometrics
    Explanation
    Biometrics is the correct answer because it is the identity management process that uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user. Biometrics refers to the measurement and analysis of unique physical or behavioral characteristics, such as fingerprints, iris patterns, or voiceprints, to verify an individual's identity. In this case, the fingerprint is used as a biometric identifier to authenticate and grant access to the user.

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  • 3. 

    When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called 

    • Misuse of position

    • A covered relationships

    • Non-public information

    • Personal conflict of interest

    Correct Answer
    A. Misuse of position
    Explanation
    When a person uses their position for private or personal gain, it is considered as a misuse of position. This means that the individual is taking advantage of their authority or influence for their own personal benefit, rather than acting in the best interest of their organization or the public. This behavior is unethical and can lead to negative consequences such as corruption or a breach of trust.

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  • 4. 

    Within the information environment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, in one’s favor? 

    • Information Management

    • Network-centric warfare

    • Information Superiority

    • Information Operations

    Correct Answer
    A. Information Superiority
    Explanation
    Information Superiority refers to the advantage or imbalance in one's favor within the information environment. It implies having access to and control over superior information resources, technologies, and capabilities compared to one's adversaries. This advantage allows for better decision-making, situational awareness, and the ability to exploit and disrupt enemy information systems effectively. Information Superiority is crucial in modern warfare, as it enables military forces to gain a significant edge over their opponents by leveraging the power of information and technology.

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  • 5. 

    Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack? 

    • Virus

    • Spam

    • Spyware

    • Phishing

    Correct Answer
    A. Spam
    Explanation
    Spam is considered more of an annoyance than an attack because it involves the unsolicited sending of bulk messages, typically advertising or promotional content, to a large number of recipients. While spam can be disruptive and time-consuming to deal with, it does not directly harm or compromise the security of a computer system or personal information in the same way that viruses, spyware, or phishing attacks do.

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  • 6. 

    Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program? 

    • Patches

    • Antivirus

    • Software removal

    • Vulnerability scanner

    Correct Answer
    A. Patches
    Explanation
    Patches are a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program. They are used to fix vulnerabilities and improve the security of the software. Patches are typically released by the software vendor and can be applied to the existing software installation to update and enhance its functionality.

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  • 7. 

    What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board? 

    • Monitor

    • Scanner

    • Keyboard

    • Graphics card

    Correct Answer
    A. Keyboard
    Explanation
    A keyboard is a device that consists of a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board. These switches are responsible for registering the input of each key press and transmitting the corresponding signal to the computer. Keyboards are essential input devices for computers and other electronic devices, allowing users to input text, commands, and various other functions.

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  • 8. 

    Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure? 

    • Norton Utilities

    • Acrobat Reader

    • Virus Scan

    • WinZip

    Correct Answer
    A. Norton Utilities
    Explanation
    Norton Utilities is the correct answer because it is a software application that provides tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure. It includes features such as disk optimization, file recovery, system diagnostics, and data backup. These tools can help users recover accidentally deleted files, fix disk errors, and optimize system performance. Norton Utilities is specifically designed to address common computer issues and provide solutions for data recovery and system protection.

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  • 9. 

    What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) reserved address is used for loop back? 

    • 0.0.0.0.

    • 127.0.0.1.

    • 207.55.157.255.

    • 255.255.255.255.

    Correct Answer
    A. 127.0.0.1.
    Explanation
    The loopback address is a reserved IP address used to test network software on a local machine. It is commonly represented as 127.0.0.1 in IPv4. This address allows a computer to send network traffic to itself, allowing software to communicate with itself without the need for an external network connection.

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  • 10. 

    The design of communications network is known as 

    • An internet suite

    • The physical layer

    • Network architecture

    • Network implementation

    Correct Answer
    A. Network architecture
    Explanation
    The design of communications network is known as network architecture. Network architecture refers to the framework or structure that defines how a network is organized, including the layout of components, protocols, and technologies used. It involves planning and designing the overall structure, connectivity, and functionality of a network, taking into consideration factors such as scalability, reliability, and performance. Network architecture is crucial in determining how data is transmitted, routed, and processed within a network, and it plays a key role in ensuring efficient and effective communication between devices and systems.

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  • 11. 

    A modem is a device that 

    • Transmits on every link attached to it.

    • Modulates and demodulates data signals.

    • Uses algorithms to determine optimal path to end destination.

    • Operates on the Network layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model.

    Correct Answer
    A. Modulates and demodulates data signals.
    Explanation
    A modem is a device that modulates and demodulates data signals. Modulation is the process of converting digital data into analog signals that can be transmitted over a communication channel, while demodulation is the process of converting the received analog signals back into digital data. Therefore, a modem enables the transmission of data over various communication links by converting the data signals into a format that can be transmitted and received effectively.

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  • 12. 

    Which operations center monitors and controls Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity to provide situational awareness, and report suspicious/malicious activity? 

    • Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC).

    • Base Defense Operations Center

    • 624th Operations Center

    • Air Operations Center

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC).
    Explanation
    The Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC) is responsible for monitoring and controlling Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity. It provides situational awareness by constantly monitoring the network for suspicious or malicious activity. The I-NOSC is tasked with reporting any suspicious or malicious activity to ensure the security and integrity of the Air Force network.

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  • 13. 

    Which identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user? 

    • Token

    • Biometrics

    • Multifactor

    • Knowledge-based

    Correct Answer
    A. Knowledge-based
    Explanation
    The knowledge-based identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user. This process involves the user providing a unique password that they have previously set up and is known only to them. The system then verifies the password to determine if the user is authorized to access the system or resources. This method is commonly used in various systems and platforms to ensure secure access and protect sensitive information.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission? 

    • CFP

    • UDM

    • ESD

    • QA

    Correct Answer
    A. CFP
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CFP. The CFP function is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel, who are responsible for providing technical support to users and managing computer systems. However, the specific AFSCs within the CFP function may vary depending on the unit's mission, as different specialties may be required to fulfill specific tasks or roles within the function.

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  • 15. 

    Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on 

    • AF Form 55

    • AF Form 971

    • AF Form 623A

    • AF Form 623 A and AF Form 55

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 55
    Explanation
    Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on AF Form 55. This form is specifically designed for documenting and tracking safety training completion. It allows supervisors to record the details of the training, including the date, location, and type of training. By using AF Form 55, supervisors can easily keep track of which employees have completed their safety training and ensure that all necessary training is being documented and maintained properly.

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  • 16. 

    What class uses a range of 1–126 in the first octet of an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)? 

    • Class A

    • Class B

    • Class C

    • Class D

    Correct Answer
    A. Class A
    Explanation
    Class A uses a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address. This class is used for large networks, as it provides a large number of host addresses. The remaining three octets can be used to address hosts within the network.

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  • 17. 

    What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component? 

    • Bus

    • Star

    • Ring

    • Hybrid

    Correct Answer
    A. Star
    Explanation
    A star topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component, usually a switch or hub. In this topology, all communication between computers is routed through the centralized component, which acts as a central point of control. This allows for easy management and troubleshooting, as each computer can be individually connected or disconnected without affecting the rest of the network.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level? 

    • Minimum rank of SSgt

    • 6 months OJT for retrainees

    • Completion of AFSC specific requirements

    • Completion of AETC supplemental training course

    Correct Answer
    A. Completion of AETC supplemental training course
    Explanation
    The completion of AETC supplemental training course is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level. The other options, such as minimum rank of SSgt, 6 months OJT for retrainees, and completion of AFSC specific requirements, are all mandatory requirements for advancement.

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  • 19. 

    Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)? 

    • Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.

    • Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integral to the activity and mission.

    • Create an Air Force in which every leader, Airman and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on- and off-duty activities.

    • Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.
    Explanation
    The statement "Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost" is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM) because ORM aims to enhance mission effectiveness, integrate ORM into mission processes, and train and motivate leaders, Airmen, and employees to manage risk. The given statement suggests actively seeking ways to decrease effectiveness, which is contradictory to the purpose of ORM.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented? 

    • Wing

    • Group

    • Squadron

    • Major command

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing
    Explanation
    The highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented is the Wing.

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  • 21. 

    What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards? 

    • 1 Oct - 30 Sep

    • 1 Jan - 31 Dec

    • 1 Apr - 31 Mar

    • 1 Jul - 30 Jun

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 Oct - 30 Sep
    Explanation
    The inclusive dates for the Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards are from 1 October to 30 September.

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  • 22. 

    The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers? 

    • High Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).

    • Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).

    • Distance Vector and Link State.

    • RS–232 and RS–530.

    Correct Answer
    A. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). The IEEE divides the OSI Data Link Layer into these two sublayers. The Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer is responsible for error control and flow control, while the Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer is responsible for controlling access to the physical media and handling data transmission. These two sublayers work together to ensure reliable and efficient data communication within a network.

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  • 23. 

    What kind of network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area? 

    • MAN

    • VPN

    • LAN

    • WAN

    Correct Answer
    A. LAN
    Explanation
    A Local Area Network (LAN) is a network that connects a group of computers and associated devices within a small geographic area, such as an office building or a campus. LANs typically use a common communications line, such as Ethernet cables or Wi-Fi, to enable communication and resource sharing among the connected devices. Unlike Wide Area Networks (WANs) that cover larger areas, LANs are limited to a specific location and are commonly used in homes, schools, and small businesses.

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  • 24. 

    How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)? 

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    Operational Risk Management (ORM) typically involves six steps. These steps include identifying risks, assessing risks, developing risk management strategies, implementing risk controls, monitoring and reviewing risks, and finally, communicating and reporting risks. Each step is crucial in managing operational risks effectively and ensuring the organization's smooth functioning. Therefore, the correct answer is 6.

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  • 25. 

    What are the two classifications of transport protocols? 

    • Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented.

    • Classful and Connectionless Oriented

    • Connectionless Oriented and Classless

    • Classful and Classless

    Correct Answer
    A. Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented. These are the two classifications of transport protocols. Connection-oriented protocols establish a dedicated connection between the sender and receiver before data transmission, ensuring reliable and ordered delivery of data. Connectionless-oriented protocols, on the other hand, do not establish a dedicated connection and do not guarantee reliable delivery, but they offer faster and more efficient data transmission.

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  • 26. 

    Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes? 

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between two nodes. It analyzes various factors such as network congestion, link quality, and routing metrics to determine the most efficient route for data transmission. By constantly monitoring the network and adjusting routing tables, dynamic routing protocols ensure that data is sent through the most optimal path, improving network efficiency and reliability.

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  • 27. 

    Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities? 

    • Military Personnel (MILPERS)

    • Military Construction (MILCON)

    • Operation and Maintenance (O&M)

    • Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E)

    Correct Answer
    A. Military Construction (MILCON)
    Explanation
    MILCON funds are used for the construction, expansion, or relocation of military facilities. This includes the cost of relocating facilities. MILPERS funds cover the cost of military personnel, O&M funds cover the day-to-day operations and maintenance of facilities, and RDT&E funds cover research, development, test, and evaluation activities. Therefore, MILCON is the correct answer for covering the cost of relocating facilities.

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  • 28. 

    What is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the DoD called? 

    • Defense Intelligence Agency.

    • Defense Information Systems Agency.

    • Defense Information Systems Network.

    • Department of Defense Information Networks.

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Information Systems Agency.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency. The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the Department of Defense (DoD). DISA provides IT and communication support to the military services, combatant commands, and other DoD organizations. It is responsible for managing and operating the DoD Information Network (DoDIN), which is the global enterprise network that supports DoD operations and missions. DISA plays a critical role in ensuring secure and reliable communication and information systems for the DoD.

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  • 29. 

    What title status must National Guard Guardsmen be in to execute cyber operations? 

    • Title 10

    • Title 30

    • Title 50

    • Title 52

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10
    Explanation
    National Guard Guardsmen must be in Title 10 status to execute cyber operations. Title 10 refers to the section of the United States Code that governs the role and organization of the military. Being in Title 10 status means that Guardsmen are operating under federal authority and can be deployed for cyber operations as part of their duties.

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  • 30. 

    Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test? 

    • Computer Systems Programming

    • Cyber Systems Operations

    • Cyber Transport Systems

    • Cyber Surety

    Correct Answer
    A. Computer Systems Programming
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Computer Systems Programming because this specialty code involves programming and developing computer systems. In order to excel in this field, members must possess the necessary skills and knowledge in electronic data processing. Therefore, passing the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test is a requirement for this AFSC.

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  • 31. 

    What document directs the Communications Focal point key processes?

    • TO 00-5-15

    • MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA

    • AF Enlisted Classification Directory

    • CFETP Part II

    Correct Answer
    A. MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA. This document directs the Communications Focal point key processes.

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  • 32. 

    What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD) 

    • Remedy

    • Situational Report (SITREP)

    • Telephone Management System (TMS)

    • Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)
    Explanation
    The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD). IMDS is an automated information system that allows users to track and manage maintenance activities for various equipment and systems. It provides a centralized database for recording and storing maintenance data, including actions taken, parts used, and labor hours. By using IMDS, organizations can effectively document and track maintenance actions on items with SRDs, ensuring proper maintenance and accountability.

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  • 33. 

    What kind of network interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic area or region like a city? 

    • LAN

    • WAN

    • VPN

    • MAN

    Correct Answer
    A. MAN
    Explanation
    A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is a network that interconnects users with computer resources in a specific geographic area or region, such as a city. It covers a larger area than a Local Area Network (LAN) but smaller than a Wide Area Network (WAN). MANs are typically used by organizations or institutions that need to connect multiple locations within a city or metropolitan area, allowing them to share resources and communicate efficiently.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)? 

    • Construct career paths.

    • Manage skill-level training requirements.

    • Establish requirements for entry into the career field.

    • Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).
    Explanation
    The responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is to oversee and manage various aspects of the career field. This includes constructing career paths, managing skill-level training requirements, and establishing requirements for entry into the career field. However, distributing personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM) is not a responsibility of the AFCFM. This task is typically handled by other personnel management offices within the Air Force.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions? 

    • Program Element Code (PEC)

    • Unit Manpower Document (UMD)

    • Authorization Change Request (ACR)

    • Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit Manpower Document (UMD)
    Explanation
    The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions. It provides detailed information about the authorized positions within the organization, including the position title, grade, and skill requirements. The UMD is used to track and manage personnel assignments, ensure that the organization has the necessary manpower to carry out its mission, and make informed decisions regarding manpower allocation and utilization. It serves as a key resource for workforce planning and management within the organization.

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  • 36. 

    Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished? 

    • Communications Focal Point

    • Flight Commander/Chief

    • Production Controller

    • Commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight Commander/Chief
    Explanation
    The Flight Commander/Chief is responsible for establishing the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished. They oversee the maintenance operations and ensure that all inspections are conducted on time and according to the established procedures. They coordinate with the maintenance personnel, production controller, and other relevant parties to ensure that inspections are properly scheduled and carried out. This role is crucial in maintaining the safety and airworthiness of the aircraft.

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  • 37. 

    What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems? 

    • Air Force Network Operating Instructions (AFNOI).

    • Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).

    • Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).

    • Military only.

    Correct Answer
    A. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).
    Explanation
    Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) systems are commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable across all federal and non-federal systems. These systems are pre-built and commercially available, making them widely recognized and easily understandable. They are also designed to be easily maintained and updated, ensuring their longevity and usability. Additionally, COTS systems are often subjected to rigorous testing and evaluation, making them defendable against potential vulnerabilities or threats. Therefore, COTS systems provide a standardized and reliable solution for creating a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain across various systems.

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  • 38. 

    Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized a. at major command functional managers. 

    • At major command functional managers.

    • At Headquarters Air Force (HAF)

    • At the Air Force Personnel Center.

    • With career field managers.

    Correct Answer
    A. At Headquarters Air Force (HAF)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "At Headquarters Air Force (HAF)". This means that the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming is centralized at the Headquarters Air Force. This suggests that the decision-making and coordination for manpower planning and programming activities are carried out at the highest level of the Air Force organization.

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  • 39. 

    Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites? 

    • Wing Commander

    • Numbered Air Force Commander

    • Communications Squadron Commander

    • Cyber Readiness Squadron Commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing Commander
    Explanation
    The Wing Commander is responsible for appointing Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites. This individual holds the authority to select and assign individuals to these positions within the Air Force.

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  • 40. 

    What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions? 

    • $100,000

    • $250,000

    • $750,000

    • $1,000,000

    Correct Answer
    A. $750,000
    Explanation
    Under normal conditions, the maximum amount that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover for minor construction projects is $750,000.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders? 

    • Making authorized transactions.

    • Reconciling transactions.

    • Logging transactions.

    • Funds accountability.

    Correct Answer
    A. Funds accountability.
    Explanation
    Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders have several responsibilities, including making authorized transactions, reconciling transactions, and logging transactions. However, funds accountability is not one of their responsibilities. This means that GPC cardholders are not responsible for tracking and managing the funds allocated for purchases made with the card. This responsibility typically falls on the government agency or department that issued the GPC.

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  • 42. 

    The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to 

    • 53

    • 63

    • 73

    • 83

    Correct Answer
    A. 63
    Explanation
    The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is 63.

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  • 43. 

    Who must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service? 

    • The customer

    • Security Manager

    • National Security Agency

    • Communications Squadron

    Correct Answer
    A. The customer
    Explanation
    The customer must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service. This means that it is the responsibility of the customer to ensure that they have the necessary encryption devices in order to connect to the service securely. The other options, such as the Security Manager, National Security Agency, and Communications Squadron, are not responsible for providing these encryption devices.

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  • 44. 

    What regulates how much information passes over a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement? 

    • Data receive message

    • Sliding Window

    • Buffer

    • Socket

    Correct Answer
    A. Sliding Window
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Sliding Window. In TCP, the sliding window is a mechanism that regulates the amount of data that can be sent before receiving an acknowledgment from the receiving host. It allows for efficient flow control by adjusting the window size based on network conditions and the receiver's ability to process data. The sender can continuously send data up to the window size, and the receiver acknowledges the received data, allowing the sender to send more. This helps in optimizing the throughput and reliability of the TCP connection.

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  • 45. 

    Which common port contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) servers and proxies? 

    • Port 80

    • Port 110

    • Port 443

    • Port 8080

    Correct Answer
    A. Port 8080
    Explanation
    Port 8080 is commonly used for HTTP servers and proxies. While the default port for HTTP is 80, port 8080 is often used as an alternative to avoid conflicts with other applications that may be using port 80. It allows for the hosting of multiple web servers on the same machine, each using a different port. Therefore, port 8080 is a common choice for HTTP servers and proxies.

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  • 46. 

    What topology defines the layout of a network’s devices and media? 

    • Physical

    • Logical

    • Hybrid

    • Star

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Physical. Physical topology refers to the physical layout of devices and media in a network. It defines how the devices are connected and the physical arrangement of cables, wires, and other network components. This includes the placement of routers, switches, hubs, and other network devices, as well as the physical connections between them.

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  • 47. 

    Which transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications? 

    • Twisted pair cable

    • Fiber optic cable

    • Coaxial cable

    • Twinax cable

    Correct Answer
    A. Twisted pair cable
    Explanation
    Twisted pair cable is the primary carrier of voice communications because it is a widely used and cost-effective transmission medium. It consists of two insulated copper wires twisted together, which helps to reduce interference and crosstalk. Twisted pair cables are commonly used for telephone lines and can transmit voice signals effectively over long distances. While fiber optic cable can also carry voice communications, it is primarily used for high-speed data transmission. Coaxial and twinax cables are typically used for video and data transmission, rather than voice communications.

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  • 48. 

    Which Electronic Warfare capability uses jamming to reduce the adversary’s use of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS)? 

    • Electronic attack

    • Electronic protection

    • Network Exploitation

    • Electronic warfare support

    Correct Answer
    A. Electronic attack
    Explanation
    Electronic attack is the correct answer because it refers to the use of jamming techniques to disrupt or degrade the adversary's ability to use the electromagnetic spectrum. By jamming their communications or radar systems, electronic attack reduces the effectiveness of their electronic warfare capabilities and hinders their ability to operate in the electromagnetic spectrum.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following is a true statement about Electronic Warfare (EW) and Computer Network Operations (CNO)? 

    • EW concerns radiated energy

    • CNO concerns radiated energy

    • EW is only used for offensive purposes

    • CNO is only used for defensive purposes

    Correct Answer
    A. EW concerns radiated energy
    Explanation
    Electronic Warfare (EW) involves the use of electromagnetic energy to control the electromagnetic spectrum, including radar, radio, and other communication systems. It encompasses activities such as electronic jamming, electronic deception, and electronic warfare support. Therefore, the statement that EW concerns radiated energy is correct. However, the answer does not specify that CNO also concerns radiated energy. Therefore, it cannot be concluded from the given options whether CNO concerns radiated energy or not.

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  • Jan 20, 2025
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  • Aug 22, 2016
    Quiz Created by
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