Burns Nursing care Quiz

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1/60 Questions

The newly admitted client has a large burned area on the right arm. The burned area appears red, has blisters, and is very painful. How should this injury be categorized?
- Full thickness
- Partial-thickness deep
- Partial-thickness superficial
- Superficial

About This Quiz

Burns can be fatal or lead to many bacterial and other related infections. This quiz on burns nursing care teaches you how to take care of burns, what method to follow, how to treat a burn patient, and what initial medications and therapy help mitigate and contain the burn and its physical and mental side effects. If you like the See morequiz, share it with your friends and family. All the best!

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2.

Which vitamin deficiency is most likely to be a long-term consequence of a full-thickness burn injury?
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin B
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin D
Correct Answer

A. Vitamin D

Explanation

Skin exposed to sunlight activates vitamin D. Partial-thickness burns reduce the activation of vitamin D. Activation of vitamin D is lost completely in fullthickness burns.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge TOP: Nursing Process Step: N/A
MSC: Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance

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1
3.

At what point after a burn injury should the nurse be most alert for the complication of hypokalemia?
- Immediately following the injury
- During the fluid shift
- During fluid remobilization
- During the late acute phase
Correct Answer

A. During fluid remobilization

Explanation

Hypokalemia is most likely to occur during the fluid remobilization period as a result of dilution, potassium movement back into the cells, and increased potassium excreted into the urine with the greatly increased urine output.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment
MSC: Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment;

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4.

What clinical manifestation should alert the nurse to possible carbon monoxide poisoning in a client who experienced a burn injury during a house fire?
- Pulse oximetry reading of 80%
- Expiratory stridor and nasal flaring
- Cherry red color to the mucous membranes
- Presence of carbonaceous particles in the sputum
Correct Answer

A. Cherry red color to the mucous membranes

Explanation

The saturation of hemoglobin molecules with carbon monoxide and the subsequent vasodilation induces a “cherry red” color of the mucous membranes in these clients. The other manifestations are associated with inhalation injury, but not specifically carbon monoxide poisoning.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application or higher
TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment
MSC: Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment/Physiological Integrity;

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3
5.

What additional laboratory test should be performed on any African American client who sustains a serious burn injury?
- Total protein
- Tissue type antigens
- Prostate specific antigen
- Hemoglobin S electrophoresis
Correct Answer

A. Hemoglobin S electrophoresis

Explanation

Sickle cell disease and sickle cell trait are more common among African Americans. Although clients with sickle cell disease usually know their status, the client with sickle cell trait may not. The fluid, circulatory, and respiratory alterations that occur in the emergent phase of a burn injury could result in decreased tissue perfusion that is sufficient to cause sickling of cells, even in a person who only has the trait. Determining the client’s sickle cell status by checking the percentage of hemoglobin S is essential for any African American client who has a burn injury.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment
MSC: Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment/Health Promotion and Maintenance;

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2
6.

Which type of fluid should the nurse expect to prepare and administer as fluid resuscitation during the emergent phase of burn recovery?
- Colloids
- Crystalloids
- Fresh-frozen plasma
- Packed red blood cells
Correct Answer

A. Crystalloids

Explanation

Although not universally true, most fluid resuscitation for burn injuries starts with crystalloid solutions, such as normal saline and Ringer’s lactate. The burn client rarely requires blood during the emergent phase unless the burn is complicated by another injury that involved hemorrhage. Colloids and plasma are not generally used during the fluid shift phase because these large particles pass through the leaky capillaries into the interstitial fluid, where they increase the osmotic pressure. Increased osmotic pressure in the interstitial fluid can worsen the capillary leak syndrome and make maintaining the circulating fluid volume even more difficult.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation/Intervention
MSC: Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment;

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7.

On admission to the emergency department the burned client's blood pressure is 90/60, with an apical pulse rate of 122. These findings are an expected result of what thermal injury–related response?
- Fluid shift
- Intense pain
- Hemorrhage
- Carbon monoxide poisoning
Correct Answer

A. Fluid shift

Explanation

Intense pain and carbon monoxide poisoning increase blood pressure. Hemorrhage is unusual in a burn injury. The physiologic effect of histamine release in injured tissues is a loss of vascular volume to the interstitial space, with a resulting decrease in blood pressure.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment
MSC: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity/Safe, Effective Care Environment;

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8.

What is the priority nursing diagnosis during the first 24 hours for a client with full-thickness chemical burns on the anterior neck, chest, and all surfaces of the left arm?
- Risk for Ineffective Breathing Pattern
- Decreased Tissue Perfusion
- Risk for Disuse Syndrome
- Disturbed Body Image
Correct Answer

A. Risk for Disuse Syndrome

Explanation

During the emergent phase, fluid shifts into interstitial tissue in burned areas. When the burn is circumferential on an extremity, the swelling can compress blood vessels to such an extent that circulation is impaired distal to the injury, necessitating the intervention of an escharotomy. Chemical burns do not cause inhalation injury.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application or higher
TOP: Nursing Process Step: Analysis
MSC: Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment;

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3
9.

All of the following laboratory test results on a burned client's blood are present during the emergent phase. Which result should the nurse report to the physician immediately?
- Serum sodium elevated to 131 mmol/L (mEq/L)
- Serum potassium 7.5 mmol/L (mEq/L)
- Arterial pH is 7.32
- Hematocrit is 52%
Correct Answer

A. Serum potassium 7.5 mmol/L (mEq/L)

Explanation

All these findings are abnormal; however, only the serum potassium level is changed to the degree that serious, life-threatening responses could result. With such a rapid rise in the potassium level, the client is at high risk for experiencing severe cardiac dysrhythmias and death.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application or higher
TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment/Analysis
MSC: Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment;

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10.

The client has experienced an electrical injury, with the entrance site on the left hand and the exit site on the left foot. What are the priority assessment data to obtain from this client on admission?
- Airway patency
- Heart rate and rhythm
- Orientation to time, place, and person
- Current range of motion in all extremities
Correct Answer

A. Heart rate and rhythm

Explanation

The airway is not at any particular risk with this injury. Electric current travels through the body from the entrance site to the exit site and can seriously damage all tissues between the two sites. Early cardiac damage from electrical injury includes irregular heart rate, rhythm, and ECG changes.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application or higher
TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment
MSC: Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment;

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1
11.

In assessing the client's potential for an inhalation injury as a result of a flame burn, what is the most important question to ask the client on admission?
- “Are you a smoker?”
- “When was your last chest x-ray?”
- “Have you ever had asthma or any other lung problem?”
- “In what exact place or space were you when you were burned?”
Correct Answer

A. “In what exact place or space were you when you were burned?”

Explanation

The risk for inhalation injury is greatest when flame burns occur indoors in small, poorly ventilated rooms. although smoking increases the risk for some problems, it does not predispose the client for an inhalation injury.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application or higher
TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment
MSC: Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment;

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12.

The burned client relates the following history of previous health problems. Which one should alert the nurse to the need for alteration of the fluid resuscitation plan?
- Seasonal asthma
- Hepatitis B 10 years ago
- Myocardial infarction 1 year ago
- Kidney stones within the last 6 month
Correct Answer

A. Myocardial infarction 1 year ago

Explanation

It is likely the client has a diminished cardiac output as a result of the old MI and would be at greater risk for the development of congestive heart failure and
pulmonary edema during fluid resuscitation.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment
MSC: Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment/Physiological Integrity;

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1
13.

Which intervention is most important for the nurse to use to prevent infection by cross-contamination in the client who has open burn wounds?
- Handwashing on entering the client's room
- Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe
- Administering the prescribed tetanus toxoid vaccine
- Changing gloves between cleansing different burn areas
Correct Answer

A. Handwashing on entering the client's room

Explanation

Cross-contamination occurs when microorganisms from another person or the environment are transferred to the client. Although all the interventions listed above can help reduce the risk for infection, only handwashing can prevent crosscontamination.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application or higher
TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation/Intervention
MSC: Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment;

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1
14.

The client has severe burns around the right hip. Which position is most important to be emphasized by the nurse that the client maintain to retain maximum function of this joint?
- Hip maintained in 30-degree flexion, no knee flexion
- Hip flexed 90 degrees and knee flexed 90 degrees
- Hip, knee, and ankle all at maximum flexion
- Hip at zero flexion with leg flat
Correct Answer

A. Hip at zero flexion with leg flat

Explanation

Maximum function for ambulation occurs when the hip and leg are maintained at full extension with neutral rotation. Although the client does not have to spend 24
hours at a time in this position, he or she should be in this position (in bed or standing) more of the time than with the hip in any degree of flexion.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application or higher
TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation/Intervention
MSC: Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment/Health Promotion and Maintenance;

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15.

During the acute phase, the nurse applied gentamicin sulfate (topical antibiotic) to the burn before dressing the wound. The client has all the following manifestations. Which manifestation indicates that the client is having an adverse reaction to this topical agent?
- Increased wound pain 30 to 40 minutes after drug application
- Presence of small, pale pink bumps in the wound beds
- Decreased white blood cell count
- Increased serum creatinine level
Correct Answer

A. Increased serum creatinine level

Explanation

Gentamicin does not stimulate pain in the wound. The small, pale pink bumps in the wound bed are areas of re-epithelialization and not an adverse reaction. Gentamicin is nephrotoxic and sufficient amounts can be absorbed through burn wounds to affect kidney function. Any client receiving gentamicin by any route should have kidney function monitored.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application or higher
TOP: Nursing Process Step: Evaluation
MSC: Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment;

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3
16.

When should ambulation be initiated in the client who has sustained a major burn?
- When all full-thickness areas have been closed with skin grafts
- When the client's temperature has remained normal for 24 hours
- As soon as possible after wound debridement is complete
- As soon as possible after resolution of the fluid shift
Correct Answer

A. As soon as possible after resolution of the fluid shift

Explanation

Regular, progressive ambulation is initiated for all burn clients who do not have contraindicating concomitant injuries as soon as the fluid shift resolves. Clients can be ambulated with extensive dressings, open wounds, and nearly any type of attached lines, tubing, and other equipment.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation/Intervention
MSC: Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment/Health Promotion and Maintenance;

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1
17.

What is the priority nursing diagnosis for a client in the rehabilitative phase of recovery from a burn injury?
- Acute Pain
- Impaired Adjustment
- Deficient Diversional Activity
- Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements
Correct Answer

A. Impaired Adjustment

Explanation

Recovery from a burn injury requires a lot of work on the part of the client and significant others. Seldom is the client restored to the preburn level of functioning. Adjustments to changes in appearance, family structure, employment opportunities, role, and functional limitations are only a few of the numerous life-changing alterations that must be made or overcome by the client. By the rehabilitation phase, acute pain from the injury or its treatment is no longer a problem.

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application or higher
TOP: Nursing Process Step: Analysis
MSC: Client Needs Category: Psychosocial Integrity

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18.

When planning care for a male client with burns on the upper torso, which nursing diagnosis should take the highest priority?
- Ineffective airway clearance related to edema of the respiratory passages
- Impaired physical mobility related to the disease process
- Disturbed sleep pattern related to facility environment
- Risk for infection related to breaks in the skin
Correct Answer

A. Ineffective airway clearance related to edema of the respiratory passages

Explanation

When caring for a client with upper torso burns, the nurse’s primary goal is to maintain respiratory integrity. Therefore, option A should take the highest priority. Option B isn’t appropriate because burns aren’t a disease. Option C and D may be appropriate, but don’t command a higher priority than option A because they don’t reflect immediately life-threatening problems.

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3
19.

In a female client with burns on the legs, which nursing intervention helps prevent contractures?
- Applying knee splints
- Elevating the foot of the bed
- Hyperextending the client’s palms
- Performing shoulder range-of-motion exercises
Correct Answer

A. Applying knee splints

Explanation

Applying knee splints prevents leg contractures by holding the joints in a position of function. Elevating the foot of the bed can’t prevent contractures because this action doesn’t hold the joints in a position of function. Hyperextending a body part for an extended time is inappropriate because it can cause contractures. Performing shoulder range-of-motion exercises can prevent contractures in the shoulders, but not in the legs.

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1
20.

A female client is brought to the emergency department with second- and third-degree burns on the left arm, left anterior leg, and anterior trunk. Using the Rule of Nines, what is the total body surface area that has been burned?
- 18%
- 27%
- 30%
- 36%
Correct Answer

A. 36%

Explanation

The Rule of Nines divides body surface area into percentages that, when totaled, equal 100%. According to the Rule of Nines, the arms account for 9% each, the anterior legs account for 9% each, and the anterior trunk accounts for 18%. Therefore, this client’s burns cover 36% of the body surface area.

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3
21.

In an industrial accident, a male client that weighs 155 lb (70 kg) sustained full-thickness burns over 40% of his body. He’s in the burn unit receiving fluid resuscitation. Which observation shows that the fluid resuscitation is benefiting the client?
- A urine output consistently above 100 ml/hour
- A weight gain of 4 lb (2 kg) in 24 hours
- Body temperature readings all within normal limits
- An electrocardiogram (ECG) showing no arrhythmias
Correct Answer

A. A urine output consistently above 100 ml/hour

Explanation

In a client with burns, the goal of fluid resuscitation is to maintain a mean arterial blood pressure that provides adequate perfusion of vital structures. If the kidneys are adequately perfused, they will produce an acceptable urine output of at least 0.5 ml/kg/hour. Thus, the expected urine output of a 155-lb client is 35 ml/hour, and a urine output consistently above 100 ml/hour is more than adequate. Weight gain from fluid resuscitation isn’t a goal. In fact, a 4-lb weight gain in 24 hours suggests third spacing. Body temperature readings and ECG interpretations may demonstrate secondary benefits of fluid resuscitation but aren’t primary indicators.

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2
22.

During the acute phase of a burn, the nurse in-charge should assess which of the following?
- Client’s lifestyle
- Alcohol use
- Tobacco use
- Circulatory status
Correct Answer

A. Circulatory status

Explanation

During the acute phase of a burn, the nurse should assess the client’s circulatory and respiratory status, vital signs, fluid intake and output, ability to move, bowel sounds, wounds, and mental status. Information about the client’s lifestyle and alcohol and tobacco use may be obtained later when the client’s condition has stabilized.

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2
23.

Nurse Jane formulates a nursing diagnosis of Impaired physical mobility for a client with third-degree burns on the lower portions of both legs. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement, the nurse should add which “related-to” phrase?
- Related to fat emboli
- Related to infection
- Related to femoral artery occlusion
- Related to circumferential eschar
Correct Answer

A. Related to circumferential eschar

Explanation

As edema develops on circumferential burns, eschar forms a tight, constricting band, compromising circulation to the extremity distal to the circumferential site and impairing physical mobility. This client isn’t likely to develop fat emboli unless long bone or pelvic fractures are present. Infection doesn’t alter physical mobility. A client with burns on the lower portions of both legs isn’t likely to have femoral artery occlusion.

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24.

The nurse is assessing a male client admitted with second- and third-degree burns on the face, arms, and chest. Which finding indicates a potential problem?
- Partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) value of 80 mm Hg
- Urine output of 20 ml/hour
- White pulmonary secretions
- Rectal temperature of 100.6° F (38° C)
Correct Answer

A. Urine output of 20 ml/hour

Explanation

A urine output of less than 40 ml/hour in a client with burns indicates a fluid volume deficit. This client’s PaO2 value falls within the normal range (80 to 100 mm Hg). White pulmonary secretions also are normal. The client’s rectal temperature isn’t significantly elevated and probably results from the fluid volume deficit.

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3
25.

A 30-year-old homemaker fell asleep while smoking a cigarette. She sustained severe burns of the face,neck, anterior chest, and both arms and hands. Using the rule of nines, which is the best estimate of total body-surface area burned?
- 18%
- 22%
- 31%
- 40%
Correct Answer

A. 31%

Explanation

Using the Rule of Nine in the estimation of total body surface burned, we allot the following: 9% – head; 9% – each upper extremity; 18%- front chest and abdomen; 18% – entire back; 18% – each lower extremity and 1% – perineum.

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26.

Nursing care planning is based on the knowledge that the first 24-48 hours post-burn are characterized by:
- An increase in the total volume of intracranial plasma
- Excessive renal perfusion with diuresis
- Fluid shift from interstitial space
- Fluid shift from intravascular space to the interstitial space
Correct Answer

A. Fluid shift from intravascular space to the interstitial space

Explanation

This period is the burn shock stage or the hypovolemic phase. Tissue injury causes vasodilation that results in increase capillary permeability making fluids shift from the intravascular to the interstitial space. This can lead to a decrease in circulating blood volume or hypovolemia which decreases renal perfusion and urine output.

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2
27.

If a client has severe bums on the upper torso, which item would be a primary concern?
- Debriding and covering the wounds
- Administering antibiotics
- Frequently observing for hoarseness, stridor, and dyspnea
- Establishing a patent IV line for fluid replacement
Correct Answer

A. Frequently observing for hoarseness, stridor, and dyspnea

Explanation

Burns located in the upper torso, especially resulting from thermal injury related to fires can lead to inhalation burns. This causes swelling of the respiratory mucosa and blistering which can lead to airway obstruction manifested by hoarseness, noisy and difficult breathing. Maintaining a patent airway is a primary concern.

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1
28.

Contractures are among the most serious long-term complications of severe burns. If a burn is located on the upper torso, which nursing measure would be least effective to help prevent contractures?
- Changing the location of the bed or the TV set, or both, daily
- Encouraging the client to chew gum and blow up balloons
- Avoiding the use of a pillow for sleep, or placing the head in a position of hyperextension
- Helping the client to rest in the position of maximal comfort
Correct Answer

A. Helping the client to rest in the position of maximal comfort

Explanation

Mobility and placing the burned areas in their functional position can help prevent contracture deformities related to burns. Pain can immobilize a client as he seeks the position where he finds less pain and provides maximal comfort. But this approach can lead to contracture deformities and other complications.

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29.

An adult is receiving Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN). Which of the following assessment is essential?
- Evaluation of the peripheral IV site
- Confirmation that the tube is in the stomach
- Assess the bowel sound
- Fluid and electrolyte monitoring
Correct Answer

A. Fluid and electrolyte monitoring

Explanation

Total parenteral nutrition is a method of providing nutrients to the body by an IV route. The admixture is made up of proteins, carbohydrates, fats, electrolytes, vitamins, trace minerals and sterile water based on individual client needs. It is intended to improve the clients nutritional status. Because of its composition, it is important to monitor the clients fluid intake and output including electrolytes, blood glucose and weight.

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4
30.

A client with a solar burn of the chest, back, face, and arms is seen in urgent care. The nurse’s primary concern should be:
- Fluid resuscitation
- Infection
- Body image
- Pain management
Correct Answer

A. Pain management

Explanation

With a superficial partial thickness burn such as a solar burn (sunburn), the nurse’s main concern is pain management. Fluid resuscitation and infection become concerns if the burn extends to the dermal and subcutaneous skin layers. Body image disturbance is a concern that has a lower priority than pain management.

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3
31.

When assessing a client with partial thickness burns over 60% of the body, which of the following should the nurse report immediately?
- Complaints of intense thirst
- Moderate to severe pain
- Urine output of 70 ml the 1st hour
- Hoarseness of the voice
Correct Answer

A. Hoarseness of the voice

Explanation

Hoarseness indicate injury to the respiratory system and could indicate the need for immediate intubation. Thirst following burns is expected because of the massive fluid shifts and resultant loss leading to dehydration. Pain, either severe or moderate, is expected with a burn injury. The client’s output is adequate.

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1
32.

A client is admitted to the hospital following a burn injury to the left hand and arm. The client’s burn is described as white and leathery with no blisters. Which degree of severity is this burn?
- first-degree burn
- Second-degree burn
- Third-degree burn
- Fourth-degree burn
Correct Answer

A. Third-degree burn

Explanation

Third-degree burn may appear white, red, or black and are dry and leathery with no blisters. There may be little pain because nerve endings have been destroyed. First-degree burns are superficial and involve the epidermis only. There is local pain and redness but no blistering. Second-degree burn appear red and moist with blister formation and are painful. Fourth-degree burns involve underlying muscle and bone tissue.

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3
33.

A client received burns to his entire back and left arm. Using the Rule of Nines, the nurse can calculate that he has sustained burns on what percentage of his body?
- 9%
- 18%
- 27%
- 36%
Correct Answer

A. 27%

Explanation

The Rule of Nines is a method used to estimate the percentage of body surface area affected by burns. According to this rule, the entire back accounts for 18% of the body surface area, and the left arm accounts for 9%. Adding these two percentages together, we get a total of 27%, which represents the percentage of the client's body that has sustained burns.

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6
34.

In an industrial accident, client who weighs 155 lb (70.3 kg) sustained full-thickness burns over 40% of his body. He’s in the burn unit receiving fluid resuscitation. Which observation shows that the fluid resuscitation is benefiting the client?
- A urine output consistently above 100 ml/hour.
- A weight gain of 4 lb (1.8 kg) in 24 hours.
- Body temperature readings all within normal limits
- An electrocardiogram (ECG) showing no arrhythmias.
Correct Answer

A. A urine output consistently above 100 ml/hour.

Explanation

In a client with burns, the goal of fluid resuscitation is to maintain a mean arterial blood pressure that provides adequate perfusion of vital structures. If the kidneys are adequately perfused, they will produce an acceptable urine output of at least 0.5 ml/kg/hour. Thus, the expected urine output of a 155-lb client is 35 ml/hour, and a urine output consistently above 100 ml/hour is more than adequate. Weight gain from fluid resuscitation isn’t a goal. In fact, a 4 lb weight gain in 24 hours suggests third spacing. Body temperature readings and ECG interpretations may demonstrate secondary benefits of fluid resuscitation but aren’t primary indicators.

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35.

The newly admitted client has burns on both legs. The burned areas appear white and leather-like. No blisters or bleeding are present, and the client states that he or she has little pain. How should this injury be categorized?
- Full thickness
- Partial-thickness deep
- Partial-thickness superficial
- Superficial
Correct Answer

A. Superficial

Explanation

The characteristics of the wound meet the criteria for a full-thickness injury (color that is black, brown, yellow, white or red; no blisters; pain minimal; outer layer firm and inelastic). DIF: Cognitive Level: Application or higher TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment/Physiological Integrity;

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2
36.

The burned client newly arrived from an accident scene is prescribed to receive 4 mg of morphine sulfate by IV push. What is the most important reason to administer the opioid analgesic to this client by the intravenous route?
- The medication will be effective more quickly than if given intramuscularly
- It is less likely to interfere with the client’s breathing and oxygenation
- The danger of an overdose during fluid remobilization is reduced
- The client delayed gastric emptying
Correct Answer

A. The danger of an overdose during fluid remobilization is reduced

Explanation

Although providing some pain relief has a high priority, and giving the drug by the IV route instead of IM, SC, or orally does increase the rate of effect, the most important reason is to prevent an overdose from accumulation of drug in the interstitial space during the fluid shift of the emergent phase. When edema is present, cumulative doses are rapidly absorbed when the fluid shift is resolving. This delayed absorption can result in lethal blood levels of analgesics. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation/Intervention MSC: Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment;

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37.

Which client factors should alert the nurse to potential increased complications with a burn injury?
- The client is a 26-year-old male
- The client has had a burn injury in the past
- The burned areas include the hands and perineum
- The burn took place in an open field and ignited the client's clothing
Correct Answer

A. The burned areas include the hands and perineum

Explanation

Burns of the perineum increase the risk for sepsis. Burns of the hands require special attention to ensure the best functional outcome. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity/Safe, Effective Care Environment;

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1
38.

The burned client is ordered to receive intravenous cimetidine, an H2 histamine blocking agent, during the emergent phase. When the client's family asks why this drug is being given, what is the nurse’s best response?
- “To increase the urine output and prevent kidney damage”
- “To stimulate intestinal movement and prevent abdominal bloating”
- “To decrease hydrochloric acid production in the stomach and prevent ulcers”
- “To inhibit loss of fluid from the circulatory system and prevent hypovolemic shock”
Correct Answer

A. “To decrease hydrochloric acid production in the stomach and prevent ulcers”

Explanation

Ulcerative gastrointestinal disease may develop within 24 hours after a severe burn as a result of increased hydrochloric acid production and decreased mucosal barrier. Cimetidine inhibits the production and release of hydrochloric acid. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application or higher TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation/Intervention MSC: Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment/Health Promotion and Maintenance;

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39.

What clinical manifestation indicates that an escharotomy is needed on a circumferential extremity burn?
- The burn is full thickness rather than partial thickness
- The client is unable to fully pronate and supinate the extremity
- Capillary refill is slow in the digits and the distal pulse is absent.
- The client cannot distinguish the sensation of sharp versus dull in the extremity
Correct Answer

A. Capillary refill is slow in the digits and the distal pulse is absent.

Explanation

Circumferential eschar can act as a tourniquet when edema forms from the fluid shift, increasing tissue pressure and preventing blood flow to the distal extremities and increasing the risk for tissue necrosis. This problem is an emergency and, without intervention, can lead to loss of the distal limb. This problem can be reduced or corrected with an escharotomy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension TOP: Nursing Process Step: Evaluation MSC: Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment;

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40.

The client with a dressing covering the neck is experiencing some respiratory difficulty. What is the nurse’s best first action?
- Administer oxygen
- Loosen the dressing
- Notify the emergency team
- Document the observation as the only action
Correct Answer

A. Loosen the dressing

Explanation

Respiratory difficulty can arise from external pressure. The first action in this situation would be to loosen the dressing and then reassess the client's respiratory status. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application or higher TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation/Intervention MSC: Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment/Physiological Integrity;

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41.

The client who experienced an inhalation injury 6 hours ago has been wheezing. When the client is assessed, wheezes are no longer heard. What is the nurse’s best action?
- Raise the head of the bed
- Notify the emergency team
- Loosen the dressings on the chest
- Document the findings as the only action
Correct Answer

A. Notify the emergency team

Explanation

Clients with severe inhalation injuries may sustain such progressive obstruction that they may lose effective movement of air. When this occurs, wheezing is no longer heard and neither are breath sounds. The client requires the establishment of an emergency airway and the swelling usually precludes intubation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application or higher TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation/Intervention MSC: Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment;

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3
42.

Ten hours after the client with 50% burns is admitted, her blood glucose level is 90 mg/dL. What is the nurse’s best action?
- Notify the emergency team
- Document the finding as the only action
- Ask the client if anyone in her family has diabetes mellitus
- Slow the intravenous infusion of dextrose 5% in Ringer's lactate
Correct Answer

A. Document the finding as the only action

Explanation

Neural and hormonal compensation to the stress of the burn injury in the emergent phase increases liver glucose production and release. An acute rise in the blood glucose level is an expected client response and is helpful in the generation of energy needed for the increased metabolism that accompanies this trauma. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application or higher TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation/Intervention MSC: Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment;

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43.

Twelve hours after the client was initially burned, bowel sounds are absent in all four abdominal quadrants. What is the nurse’s best action?
- Reposition the client onto the right side
- Document the finding as the only action
- Notify the emergency team
- Increase the IV flow rate
Correct Answer

A. Document the finding as the only action

Explanation

Decreased or absent peristalsis is an expected response during the emergent phase of burn injury as a result of neural and hormonal compensation to the stress of injury. No currently accepted intervention changes this response, and it is not the highest priority of care at this time. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application or higher TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation/Intervention MSC: Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment/Physiological Integrity;

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4
44.

Which clinical manifestation indicates that the burned client is moving into the fluid remobilization phase of recovery?
- Increased urine output, decreased urine specific gravity
- Increased peripheral edema, decreased blood pressure
- Decreased peripheral pulses, slow capillary refill
- Decreased serum sodium level, increased hematocrit
Correct Answer

A. Increased urine output, decreased urine specific gravity

Explanation

The “fluid remobilization” phase improves renal blood flow, increasing diuresis and restoring fluid and electrolyte levels. The increased water content of the urine reduces its specific gravity. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application or higher TOP: Nursing Process Step: Evaluation MSC: Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment/Physiological Integrity;

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45.

Which information obtained by assessment ensures that the client's respiratory efforts are currently adequate?
- The client is able to talk
- The client is alert and oriented
- The client's oxygen saturation is 97%
- The client's chest movements are uninhibited
Correct Answer

A. The client's oxygen saturation is 97%

Explanation

Clients may have ineffective respiratory efforts and gas exchange even though they are able to talk, have good respiratory movement, and are alert. The best indicator for respiratory effectiveness is the maintenance of oxygen saturation within the normal range. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application or higher TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment/Analysis MSC: Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment/Physiological Integrity;

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46.

Which information obtained by assessment ensures that the client's respiratory efforts are currently adequate?
- The client is able to talk
- The client is alert and oriented
- The client's oxygen saturation is 97%
- The client's chest movements are uninhibited
Correct Answer

A. The client's oxygen saturation is 97%

Explanation

Clients may have ineffective respiratory efforts and gas exchange even though they are able to talk, have good respiratory movement, and are alert. The best indicator for respiratory effectiveness is the maintenance of oxygen saturation within the normal range. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application or higher TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment/Analysis MSC: Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment/Physiological Integrity;

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2
47.

The burned client's family ask at what point the client will no longer be at increased risk for infection. What is the nurse’s best response?
- “When fluid remobilization has started”
- “When the burn wounds are closed”
- “When IV fluids are discontinued”
- “When body weight is normal”
Correct Answer

A. “When the burn wounds are closed”

Explanation

Intact skin is a major barrier to infection and other disruptions in homeostasis. No matter how much time has passed since the burn injury, the client remains at great risk for infection as long as any area of skin is open. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension TOP: Nursing Process Step: Implementation/Intervention MSC: Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment/Health Promotion and Maintenance;

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48.

The burned client on admission is drooling and having difficulty swallowing. What is the nurse’s best first action?
- Assess level of consciousness and pupillary reactions
- Ask the client at what time food or liquid was last consumed
- Auscultate breath sounds over the trachea and mainstem bronchi
- Measure abdominal girth and auscultate bowel sounds in all four quadrants
Correct Answer

A. Auscultate breath sounds over the trachea and mainstem bronchi

Explanation

Difficulty swallowing and drooling are indications of oropharyngeal edema and can precede pulmonary failure. The client’s airway is in severe jeopardy and intubation is highly likely to be needed shortly. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application or higher TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment;

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3
49.

In reviewing the burned client's laboratory report of white blood cell count with differential, all the following results are listed. Which laboratory finding indicates the possibility of sepsis?
- The total white blood cell count is 9000/mm3
- The lymphocytes outnumber the basophils
- The “bands” outnumber the “segs”
- The monocyte count is 1,800/mm3
Correct Answer

A. The “bands” outnumber the “segs”

Explanation

Normally, the mature segmented neutrophils (“segs”) are the major population of circulating leukocytes, constituting 55% to 70% of the total white blood count. Fewer than 3% to 5% of the circulating white blood cells should be the less mature “band” neutrophils. A left shift occurs when the bone marrow releases more immature neutrophils than mature neutrophils. Such a shift indicates severe infection or sepsis, in which the client’s immune system cannot keep pace with the infectious process. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application or higher TOP: Nursing Process Step: Assessment MSC: Client Needs Category: Safe, Effective Care Environment/Health Promotion and Maintenance;

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2

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Quiz Edited by
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Burns Nursing care Quiz

The newly admitted client has a large burned area on the right arm. The burned area appears red, has blisters, and is very painful. How should this injury be categorized?

Quiz Preview

Which vitamin deficiency is most likely to be a long-term consequence of a full-thickness burn injury?

At what point after a burn injury should the nurse be most alert for the complication of hypokalemia?

What clinical manifestation should alert the nurse to possible carbon monoxide poisoning in a client who experienced a burn injury during a house fire?

What additional laboratory test should be performed on any African American client who sustains a serious burn injury?

Which type of fluid should the nurse expect to prepare and administer as fluid resuscitation during the emergent phase of burn recovery?

On admission to the emergency department the burned client's blood pressure is 90/60, with an apical pulse rate of 122. These findings are an expected result of what thermal injury–related response?

What is the priority nursing diagnosis during the first 24 hours for a client with full-thickness chemical burns on the anterior neck, chest, and all surfaces of the left arm?

All of the following laboratory test results on a burned client's blood are present during the emergent phase. Which result should the nurse report to the physician immediately?

The client has experienced an electrical injury, with the entrance site on the left hand and the exit site on the left foot. What are the priority assessment data to obtain from this client on admission?

In assessing the client's potential for an inhalation injury as a result of a flame burn, what is the most important question to ask the client on admission?

The burned client relates the following history of previous health problems. Which one should alert the nurse to the need for alteration of the fluid resuscitation plan?

Which intervention is most important for the nurse to use to prevent infection by cross-contamination in the client who has open burn wounds?

The client has severe burns around the right hip. Which position is most important to be emphasized by the nurse that the client maintain to retain maximum function of this joint?

During the acute phase, the nurse applied gentamicin sulfate (topical antibiotic) to the burn before dressing the wound. The client has all the following manifestations. Which manifestation indicates that the client is having an adverse reaction to this topical agent?

When should ambulation be initiated in the client who has sustained a major burn?

What is the priority nursing diagnosis for a client in the rehabilitative phase of recovery from a burn injury?

When planning care for a male client with burns on the upper torso, which nursing diagnosis should take the highest priority?

In a female client with burns on the legs, which nursing intervention helps prevent contractures?

A female client is brought to the emergency department with second- and third-degree burns on the left arm, left anterior leg, and anterior trunk. Using the Rule of Nines, what is the total body surface area that has been burned?

In an industrial accident, a male client that weighs 155 lb (70 kg) sustained full-thickness burns over 40% of his body. He’s in the burn unit receiving fluid resuscitation. Which observation shows that the fluid resuscitation is benefiting the client?

During the acute phase of a burn, the nurse in-charge should assess which of the following?

Nurse Jane formulates a nursing diagnosis of Impaired physical mobility for a client with third-degree burns on the lower portions of both legs. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement, the nurse should add which “related-to” phrase?

The nurse is assessing a male client admitted with second- and third-degree burns on the face, arms, and chest. Which finding indicates a potential problem?

A 30-year-old homemaker fell asleep while smoking a cigarette. She sustained severe burns of the face,neck, anterior chest, and both arms and hands. Using the rule of nines, which is the best estimate of total body-surface area burned?

Nursing care planning is based on the knowledge that the first 24-48 hours post-burn are characterized by:

If a client has severe bums on the upper torso, which item would be a primary concern?

Contractures are among the most serious long-term complications of severe burns. If a burn is located on the upper torso, which nursing measure would be least effective to help prevent contractures?

An adult is receiving Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN). Which of the following assessment is essential?

A client with a solar burn of the chest, back, face, and arms is seen in urgent care. The nurse’s primary concern should be:

When assessing a client with partial thickness burns over 60% of the body, which of the following should the nurse report immediately?

A client is admitted to the hospital following a burn injury to the left hand and arm. The client’s burn is described as white and leathery with no blisters. Which degree of severity is this burn?

A client received burns to his entire back and left arm. Using the Rule of Nines, the nurse can calculate that he has sustained burns on what percentage of his body?

In an industrial accident, client who weighs 155 lb (70.3 kg) sustained full-thickness burns over 40% of his body. He’s in the burn unit receiving fluid resuscitation. Which observation shows that the fluid resuscitation is benefiting the client?

The newly admitted client has burns on both legs. The burned areas appear white and leather-like. No blisters or bleeding are present, and the client states that he or she has little pain. How should this injury be categorized?

The burned client newly arrived from an accident scene is prescribed to receive 4 mg of morphine sulfate by IV push. What is the most important reason to administer the opioid analgesic to this client by the intravenous route?

Which client factors should alert the nurse to potential increased complications with a burn injury?

The burned client is ordered to receive intravenous cimetidine, an H2 histamine blocking agent, during the emergent phase. When the client's family asks why this drug is being given, what is the nurse’s best response?

What clinical manifestation indicates that an escharotomy is needed on a circumferential extremity burn?

The client with a dressing covering the neck is experiencing some respiratory difficulty. What is the nurse’s best first action?

The client who experienced an inhalation injury 6 hours ago has been wheezing. When the client is assessed, wheezes are no longer heard. What is the nurse’s best action?

Ten hours after the client with 50% burns is admitted, her blood glucose level is 90 mg/dL. What is the nurse’s best action?

Twelve hours after the client was initially burned, bowel sounds are absent in all four abdominal quadrants. What is the nurse’s best action?

Which clinical manifestation indicates that the burned client is moving into the fluid remobilization phase of recovery?

Which information obtained by assessment ensures that the client's respiratory efforts are currently adequate?

Which information obtained by assessment ensures that the client's respiratory efforts are currently adequate?

The burned client's family ask at what point the client will no longer be at increased risk for infection. What is the nurse’s best response?

The burned client on admission is drooling and having difficulty swallowing. What is the nurse’s best first action?

In reviewing the burned client's laboratory report of white blood cell count with differential, all the following results are listed. Which laboratory finding indicates the possibility of sepsis?