Physical Therapy & Cardiopulmonary Clinical Review

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| Questions: 30 | Updated: Jun 28, 2026
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1. A 40-year-old man admitted with fracture shaft femur following a road traffic accident became disoriented on the 2nd day. He was found to be tachypneic and had conjunctival petechiae. The most likely diagnosis is:

Explanation

In this case, the patient developed disorientation, tachypnea, and conjunctival petechiae after a femur fracture, which are classic signs of fat embolism syndrome. This condition typically occurs 1-3 days after a long bone fracture, as fat globules from the bone marrow enter the bloodstream. The presence of petechiae, particularly conjunctival, along with respiratory distress, further supports the diagnosis of fat embolism rather than other options like pulmonary embolism or sepsis, which present with different clinical features.

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About This Quiz
Physical Therapy & Cardiopulmonary Clinical Review - Quiz

This assessment focuses on critical concepts in physical therapy and cardiopulmonary care, evaluating knowledge on treatment approaches for various patient populations, including infants and those with pulmonary conditions. It's relevant for practitioners looking to enhance their understanding of effective interventions and clinical decision-making in physical therapy.

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2. Bottle feeding is considered appropriate for a premature infant with a gestational age of 27 weeks.

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3. In COPD, vital capacity is typically increased due to air trapping.

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4. Pseudoclaudication is caused by compression of the cauda equina.

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5. Match each therapeutic technique with its defining characteristic.

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6. Match each condition with its most associated clinical feature.

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7. Match each cardiac layer with its correct description.

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8. Unilateral neglect following a right hemisphere stroke causes the patient to ignore the ____ side of the body.

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9. Pursed lip breathing helps to prevent early airway collapse by creating back pressure during ____.

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10. The SA node initiates the cardiac impulse and is located in the ____.

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11. Heart innervation is supplied by which of the following?

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12. How does muscle contractility change with age?

Explanation

As individuals age, muscle mass and strength typically decline due to a reduction in the number of muscle fibers and changes in muscle composition. This process, known as sarcopenia, leads to decreased contractility, meaning the muscles are less capable of generating force. Additionally, age-related factors such as hormonal changes, decreased physical activity, and the accumulation of fat within muscles further contribute to this decline in muscle function. Consequently, older adults often experience reduced muscle contractility compared to younger individuals.

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13. To avoid skin problems in geriatric patients, which intervention is most appropriate?

Explanation

Changing the patient's position frequently helps prevent skin breakdown and pressure ulcers, which are common in geriatric patients due to decreased mobility and skin elasticity. Regular repositioning alleviates pressure on bony prominences, enhances circulation, and promotes skin integrity. This proactive measure is crucial in maintaining skin health and preventing complications associated with prolonged immobility, making it the most appropriate intervention for this population.

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14. A patient with fracture of right ribs 7–10 undergoing secretion clearance suddenly experiences chest pain, dyspnea, inability to breathe, and tracheal shift to the left side. The most likely cause is:

Explanation

The symptoms of sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and tracheal shift indicate a potential collapse of the lung, which is characteristic of a pneumothorax. In this case, the rib fractures could have led to the puncturing of the pleura, allowing air to enter the pleural space. The tracheal shift to the left suggests that the right lung is compromised, leading to mediastinal shift. This acute condition requires immediate medical intervention, as it can severely impair respiratory function.

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15. Cerebral embolism most commonly originates first from which source?

Explanation

Cerebral embolism typically arises from the heart, particularly due to conditions like atrial fibrillation or myocardial infarction, where blood clots can form in the heart chambers. These clots can dislodge and travel through the bloodstream to the brain, causing an embolic stroke. While other sources like the aorta and peripheral vessels can also contribute to embolism, the heart is the most common origin due to its direct involvement in blood circulation and the potential for clot formation.

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16. Which of the following is inappropriate for a physical therapist to include in the treatment plan of an infant with a gestational age of 27 weeks and Down's syndrome?

Explanation

Infants with a gestational age of 27 weeks are often extremely premature and may have underdeveloped oral motor skills. Bottle feeding can pose risks such as aspiration, as these infants may lack the necessary coordination to feed safely. Instead, alternative feeding methods, like tube feeding, are typically recommended until they can demonstrate adequate feeding skills. In contrast, sidelying, tactile stimulation, and prone positioning can support their development and are more suitable for their condition.

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17. What is the most fatal complication of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Explanation

Pulmonary embolism is the most fatal complication of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) because it occurs when a blood clot from the deep veins travels to the lungs, blocking a pulmonary artery. This can lead to severe respiratory distress, decreased oxygen levels, and potentially death if not treated promptly. The risk of pulmonary embolism is particularly high in patients with DVT, making it a critical concern in managing and monitoring individuals with this condition. Early recognition and intervention are essential to prevent this life-threatening complication.

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18. Following a cerebrovascular accident involving the dominant right hemisphere, a patient exhibiting unilateral neglect would generally NOT:

Explanation

Unilateral neglect typically results from damage to the right hemisphere, leading patients to disregard or be unaware of stimuli on the left side. In this context, the patient would likely ignore or not attend to the left side of their body, including neglecting to shave or apply make-up on that side. However, the act of shaving or putting on make-up is often more deliberate and may involve visual feedback, making it less likely for them to perform these tasks exclusively on the left side. Thus, they would not typically confine grooming to just the left side of their face.

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19. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of which structure?

Explanation

Pseudoclaudication occurs when there is compression of the cauda equina, a bundle of nerve roots at the lower end of the spinal cord. This compression can lead to symptoms similar to claudication, such as leg pain or weakness, particularly during activities like walking. Unlike true claudication, which is caused by vascular issues, pseudoclaudication is neurologic in nature, resulting from conditions like spinal stenosis. The cauda equina's role in transmitting nerve signals to the lower limbs explains why its compression can mimic vascular-related leg pain.

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20. A patient with severe back pain is found to have disc herniation on examination. Which of the following is least useful in confirming the condition?

Explanation

Plain X-rays are least useful in confirming disc herniation because they primarily show bone structures and cannot adequately visualize soft tissues like intervertebral discs or nerve roots. While MRI and CT scans provide detailed images of soft tissues, including herniated discs, and myelograms can highlight nerve root compression, X-rays may not reveal the condition's presence or severity. Therefore, they are not the preferred imaging modality for diagnosing disc herniation.

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21. A patient needs to increase ROM. You can use hold-relax or contract-relax technique. What is the main difference between the two techniques?

Explanation

Hold-relax and contract-relax techniques are both used in proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) to enhance range of motion (ROM). The main difference lies in the type of muscle contraction involved. In the hold-relax technique, the muscle is isometrically contracted before relaxation, while in the contract-relax technique, the muscle is actively contracted through a full range of motion. This distinction highlights that isotonic contractions are specifically utilized in the contract-relax method, contributing to the effectiveness of stretching and improving flexibility.

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22. Buerger's disease primarily affects which structure?

Explanation

Buerger's disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans, primarily affects the arteries, particularly those in the arms and legs. This inflammatory condition leads to the formation of blood clots, causing reduced blood flow and, in severe cases, tissue damage or gangrene. The disease is strongly associated with tobacco use, and its impact on arterial health is a key characteristic, distinguishing it from conditions that primarily affect veins or nerves.

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23. Pursed lip breathing technique is primarily used in which condition?

Explanation

Pursed lip breathing is a technique commonly used by individuals with emphysema to help manage symptoms. This method involves inhaling through the nose and exhaling slowly through pursed lips, which helps to keep the airways open longer and improves ventilation. It can reduce the feeling of breathlessness and promote better oxygen exchange, making it particularly beneficial for those with emphysema, where airflow limitation is a significant concern. This technique is less commonly used in asthma or by individuals without respiratory issues.

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24. What is the correct conduction pathway of the heart?

Explanation

The conduction pathway of the heart begins at the SA node, which generates electrical impulses that initiate each heartbeat. These impulses then travel to the AV node, where they are briefly delayed to allow the atria to contract and fill the ventricles with blood. From the AV node, the impulses move to the AV bundle (Bundle of His), which conducts the signals into the ventricles through the Purkinje fibers, causing them to contract. This sequence ensures coordinated heartbeats and effective blood circulation.

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25. Which layer represents the outermost part of the heart?

Explanation

The pericardium is the outermost layer of the heart, serving as a protective sac that encases the heart and anchors it within the chest cavity. It consists of two layers: the fibrous pericardium, which provides structural support, and the serous pericardium, which produces fluid to reduce friction between the heart and surrounding structures during beating. This protective function is vital for maintaining heart health and preventing damage from surrounding organs and movements.

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26. You are evaluating a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding would you NOT expect?

Explanation

In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), patients typically experience decreased lung function, leading to reduced vital capacity due to airway obstruction and lung hyperinflation. Hypercapnia, increased total lung capacity, and abnormal ventilation/perfusion ratios are common findings associated with COPD. However, increased vital capacity is not expected, as the disease primarily impairs the ability to exhale effectively, resulting in a lower vital capacity rather than an increase.

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27. A patient's peripheral skin color progresses from blue to white to red. This would be most characteristic of:

Explanation

The progression of skin color from blue to white to red indicates a phenomenon known as the "triphasic response," which is commonly associated with vasomotor disorders. This response reflects changes in blood flow and vascular tone, where initial cyanosis (blue) indicates reduced blood flow, followed by pallor (white) due to vasoconstriction, and finally hyperemia (red) as blood flow returns. This pattern is not typical of venous insufficiencies or acute arterial issues, which present differently in terms of skin color and temperature changes.

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28. A patient who has suffered a recent stroke exhibits increased extensor tone in the supine position along with an exaggerated symmetric tonic labyrinthine reflex (STLR). What is the best position to initiate flexion movements of the lower extremity?

Explanation

In patients with increased extensor tone and exaggerated STLR after a stroke, the prone or sidelying positions are beneficial for initiating flexion movements of the lower extremities. These positions help counteract the extensor tone by promoting a more neutral alignment of the body, facilitating better control over flexion movements. The prone position allows gravity to assist in reducing extensor tone, while sidelying provides stability and support, making it easier for the patient to engage in active movement. Thus, both positions are effective for rehabilitation in this context.

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29. Which of the following is the most important goal in treating pediatric patients with postural reaction deficits?

Explanation

In treating pediatric patients with postural reaction deficits, the primary goal is to develop automatic responses. These responses are crucial for maintaining balance and stability during everyday activities without conscious effort. By fostering automaticity, children can react quickly and effectively to changes in their environment, which enhances their overall functional independence and safety. Focusing on automatic responses allows for smoother integration of motor skills, ultimately supporting age-appropriate development and participation in various activities.

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30. Which of the following sources of stimulation is least effective in obtaining functional goals when treating an infant with decreased muscular tone?

Explanation

Vibratory stimulation is least effective for infants with decreased muscular tone because it primarily activates sensory receptors rather than promoting muscle activation or functional movement. While vestibular, weight-bearing, and cutaneous stimuli can enhance proprioception and encourage muscle engagement, vibratory input may not sufficiently stimulate the neuromuscular system needed to achieve functional goals. Therefore, it is less beneficial in addressing the specific needs of infants with hypotonia.

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A 40-year-old man admitted with fracture shaft femur following a road...
Bottle feeding is considered appropriate for a premature infant with a...
In COPD, vital capacity is typically increased due to air trapping.
Pseudoclaudication is caused by compression of the cauda equina.
Match each therapeutic technique with its defining characteristic.
Match each condition with its most associated clinical feature.
Match each cardiac layer with its correct description.
Unilateral neglect following a right hemisphere stroke causes the...
Pursed lip breathing helps to prevent early airway collapse by...
The SA node initiates the cardiac impulse and is located in the ____.
Heart innervation is supplied by which of the following?
How does muscle contractility change with age?
To avoid skin problems in geriatric patients, which intervention is...
A patient with fracture of right ribs 7–10 undergoing secretion...
Cerebral embolism most commonly originates first from which source?
Which of the following is inappropriate for a physical therapist to...
What is the most fatal complication of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
Following a cerebrovascular accident involving the dominant right...
Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of which structure?
A patient with severe back pain is found to have disc herniation on...
A patient needs to increase ROM. You can use hold-relax or...
Buerger's disease primarily affects which structure?
Pursed lip breathing technique is primarily used in which condition?
What is the correct conduction pathway of the heart?
Which layer represents the outermost part of the heart?
You are evaluating a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary...
A patient's peripheral skin color progresses from blue to white to...
A patient who has suffered a recent stroke exhibits increased extensor...
Which of the following is the most important goal in treating...
Which of the following sources of stimulation is least effective in...
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