Orthopedic & Musculoskeletal Physical Therapy

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Quizzes Created: 1608 | Total Attempts: 1,139,324
| Questions: 25 | Updated: Jun 25, 2026
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1. A football player sustains trauma to the anterior aspect of the tibia and presents with a positive posterior drawer sign. Which structure is most likely injured?

Explanation

A positive posterior drawer sign indicates that the tibia can be displaced posteriorly relative to the femur, suggesting injury to the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL). The PCL is responsible for preventing posterior translation of the tibia. Trauma to the anterior aspect of the tibia can compromise the PCL, leading to this specific sign. In contrast, injuries to the anterior cruciate ligament or collateral ligaments would present differently, making the PCL the most likely structure injured in this scenario.

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About This Quiz
Orthopedic & Musculoskeletal Physical Therapy - Quiz

This quiz focuses on orthopedic and musculoskeletal physical therapy concepts, evaluating knowledge on conditions, injuries, and rehabilitation strategies. It covers key topics such as muscle functions, joint injuries, and treatment protocols, making it a valuable resource for students and professionals in physical therapy. Enhance your understanding of orthopedic principles through... see morethis targeted assessment. see less

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2. Which of the following conditions is characterized by full adduction, full internal rotation, and full extension of the hip, and is most associated with a specific type of hip dislocation?

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3. A boutonniere deformity is characterized by which of the following joint positions?

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4. All of the following are clinical features of a fracture of the neck of the femur EXCEPT:

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5. The most common site of fracture in elderly patients due to a fall is:

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6. An acceleration injury (whiplash injury) may cause which of the following?

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7. Hyaline cartilage receives its nutrition from which of the following?

Explanation

Hyaline cartilage lacks a direct blood supply, relying instead on the diffusion of nutrients from surrounding fluids. Synovial fluid, which lubricates joints, provides essential nutrients and oxygen to the cartilage. This fluid circulates within the joint cavity, allowing hyaline cartilage to absorb necessary substances for maintenance and repair. Other options, such as blood vessels and periosteum, do not directly nourish the cartilage, while the epiphyseal growth plate is involved in bone development rather than cartilage nutrition. Thus, synovial fluid is the primary source of nourishment for hyaline cartilage.

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8. Delayed ulnar nerve palsy is most commonly associated with a fracture of which structure?

Explanation

Delayed ulnar nerve palsy is most commonly linked to fractures of the medial epicondyle due to the anatomical proximity of the ulnar nerve to this structure. The medial epicondyle, located on the inner side of the elbow, is where the ulnar nerve runs close to the bone. A fracture in this area can lead to swelling or displacement that compresses the nerve, resulting in delayed symptoms of ulnar nerve dysfunction. This condition is particularly relevant in elbow injuries, emphasizing the need for careful assessment and monitoring of nerve function following such fractures.

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9. What portion of the adult knee meniscus is vascularized?

Explanation

The outer edges of the adult knee meniscus are vascularized, meaning they have a blood supply, which is critical for healing and maintaining tissue health. In contrast, the inner portions of the meniscus are avascular, receiving nutrients primarily through diffusion from the synovial fluid. This vascularization pattern is important because it influences the healing capacity of meniscal injuries; tears in the outer region have a better chance of healing due to the presence of blood vessels, while those in the inner region often do not heal well.

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10. A patient is seen at an outpatient facility for a right knee injury. Only the structures within the synovial cavity were compromised. The therapist is NOT concerned with injury to which of the following structures?

Explanation

In a knee injury where only the structures within the synovial cavity are affected, the patellofemoral joint is less of a concern because it primarily involves the interaction between the patella and femur, which may not be directly compromised if the injury is localized. The other structures, such as the anterior cruciate ligament, medial meniscus, and femoral condyles, are more integral to the stability and function of the knee joint, making them more relevant to the therapist's concerns in this scenario.

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11. A young football player presents with pain at the left knee joint. The injury occurred when he rotated to the right while weight bearing on the left knee, which was flexed at 60 degrees. The most likely injured structure is:

Explanation

The mechanism of injury described involves rotation of the knee while weight bearing, which is a common cause of meniscal tears. When the knee is flexed at 60 degrees and subjected to a rotational force, the meniscus, particularly the medial meniscus, is vulnerable to injury due to its position and the stress placed on it. This type of movement can lead to a tear in the semilunar cartilage, resulting in pain and dysfunction in the knee joint.

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12. To prevent maximal compressive forces being placed on the patella, a therapist should minimize placing the patient:

Explanation

Placing a patient prone while flexing the knee to 110 degrees with the hip extended can create significant compressive forces on the patella due to the alignment and positioning of the knee joint. This position increases tension on the quadriceps, which can lead to excessive pressure on the patellar surface. Minimizing knee flexion and ensuring proper alignment helps reduce these forces, promoting better joint health and comfort during rehabilitation or treatment.

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13. Avascular necrosis would LEAST likely be a major complicating factor in the rehabilitation of a patient with:

Explanation

Avascular necrosis (AVN) is primarily associated with conditions that affect the blood supply to bones, particularly in the hip and certain fractures. In the case of a tibial fracture, while complications can arise, AVN is less likely because the tibia has a robust blood supply and is not typically at risk for AVN compared to other conditions listed. In contrast, Legg-Calvé-Perthes' disease, degenerative joint disease, and carpal scaphoid fractures are more prone to AVN due to their specific anatomical and vascular characteristics.

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14. Knee medial rotation is due to which of the following muscle weakness?

Explanation

Knee medial rotation is primarily influenced by the balance of forces around the knee joint. The biceps femoris, part of the hamstring group, is responsible for lateral rotation of the knee. Weakness in the biceps femoris can lead to reduced lateral stability and control, allowing for excessive medial rotation. This imbalance can result in the knee not being able to maintain proper alignment during movement, leading to increased medial rotation. Therefore, weakness in the biceps femoris directly contributes to the inability to counteract medial rotation effectively.

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15. Avascular necrosis can be a possible sequela of fracture of all of the following bones EXCEPT:

Explanation

Avascular necrosis (AVN) occurs when blood supply to a bone is disrupted, leading to bone death. The femur neck, scaphoid, and talus are particularly vulnerable to AVN due to their anatomical locations and blood supply patterns. In contrast, the calcaneum (heel bone) has a robust blood supply and is less likely to suffer from AVN following a fracture. Therefore, while fractures of the other bones can lead to AVN, the calcaneum is generally not associated with this complication.

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16. A patient is referred to physical therapy with a diagnosis of Dupuytren's contracture. Which of the following is used to treat this condition?

Explanation

Dupuytren's contracture involves the thickening and shortening of the palmar fascia, leading to finger flexion deformities. A hand splint is used to maintain finger extension and prevent further contracture progression. It helps in stretching the affected tissues and improving hand function. Other options, such as CPM or weights, are not appropriate for this specific condition, as they do not address the underlying issue of tissue shortening and joint positioning in the hand. Thus, a hand splint is the most suitable treatment approach for managing Dupuytren's contracture.

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17. A boutonniere deformity of the finger would NOT consist of which of the following?

Explanation

A boutonniere deformity is characterized by a specific pattern of joint dysfunction in the finger, primarily involving the proximal interphalangeal joint (PIP) and distal interphalangeal joint (DIP). In this condition, the PIP joint is typically flexed, while the DIP joint is hyperextended. Therefore, hyperextension of the PIP joint does not occur in boutonniere deformity; instead, it is the PIP joint that is flexed, making this option inconsistent with the definition and mechanics of the condition.

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18. A therapist receives a referral to evaluate a patient with a boutonniere injury. The involved finger usually presents in which position?

Explanation

A boutonniere injury typically results from a rupture of the central slip of the extensor tendon at the PIP joint. This injury causes the PIP joint to flex due to the imbalance of forces, while the DIP joint extends because the intact lateral bands pull it into extension. Consequently, the involved finger characteristically presents with flexion at the PIP joint and extension at the DIP joint, reflecting the disrupted tendon mechanics and resulting joint positions.

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19. The most common site of osteogenic sarcoma is:

Explanation

Osteogenic sarcoma, or osteosarcoma, is a type of bone cancer that predominantly affects the long bones, particularly around the knee. The lower end of the femur is the most common site because this area experiences significant growth and mechanical stress during adolescence, making it more susceptible to the development of tumors. The proximity to the knee joint also plays a role in the frequency of osteosarcoma occurrence in this region, as it is a critical area for both movement and weight-bearing activities.

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20. A 45-year-old male presents with an expansile lesion in the center of the femoral metaphysis showing endosteal scalloping and punctate calcifications. The most likely diagnosis is:

Explanation

Chondrosarcoma typically presents as an expansile lesion in the metaphysis of long bones, particularly in adults. The endosteal scalloping and punctate calcifications observed in the lesion are characteristic features of chondroid tumors. Unlike osteosarcoma, which usually presents with more aggressive features and periosteal reactions, chondrosarcoma often has a more indolent course. The age of the patient and the specific imaging findings align with the diagnosis of chondrosarcoma, making it the most likely condition in this scenario.

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21. An inversion injury at the ankle can cause all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

An inversion injury at the ankle typically involves the foot rolling inward, leading to common injuries such as fractures of the lateral malleolus and the base of the 5th metatarsal, as well as sprains of surrounding ligaments and muscles. However, a fracture of the sustentaculum tali, which is part of the calcaneus and located on the medial side of the ankle, is less likely to occur in inversion injuries. This is because the mechanism of injury primarily affects the lateral structures rather than the medial aspects of the ankle where the sustentaculum tali is situated.

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22. Which structure increases the glenoid cavity for the proximal humerus in the shoulder joint?

Explanation

The labrum is a fibrocartilaginous structure that deepens the glenoid cavity of the shoulder joint, providing increased stability for the proximal humerus. By extending the surface area of the glenoid, the labrum helps to secure the head of the humerus in place during arm movements, reducing the risk of dislocation and enhancing joint function. Its anatomical design plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity of the shoulder joint during dynamic activities.

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23. When the ankle is forcibly inverted and plantarflexed, the ligament that is most frequently disrupted is the:

Explanation

When the ankle is forcibly inverted and plantarflexed, the anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL) is most commonly affected due to its location and function. It connects the fibula to the talus and provides stability to the ankle during inversion movements. This position places excessive stress on the ATFL, making it susceptible to sprains or tears, especially during activities involving rapid direction changes or awkward landings. In contrast, the deltoid and other ligaments are less likely to be injured in this specific motion.

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24. Decreased osteoblast activity causes which of the following conditions?

Explanation

Decreased osteoblast activity leads to reduced bone formation, which is crucial for maintaining bone density and strength. In osteoporosis, the imbalance between bone resorption and formation results in weakened bones that are more susceptible to fractures. This condition is characterized by a significant loss of bone mass and structural deterioration, primarily due to insufficient osteoblast function. In contrast, rickets and osteomalacia involve issues with mineralization rather than a direct decrease in bone formation, while osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone.

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25. During evaluation of a patient, the therapist observes significant posterior trunk lean at initial contact (heel strike). Which of the following is the most likely muscle the therapist needs to focus on to minimize this gait deviation?

Explanation

Significant posterior trunk lean at initial contact indicates weakness in the gluteus maximus, which is crucial for hip extension and stabilizing the pelvis during gait. When this muscle is weak, the body compensates by leaning backward to maintain balance and forward momentum, leading to inefficient gait mechanics. Strengthening the gluteus maximus can help improve stability and alignment, reducing the posterior lean and promoting a more normal gait pattern.

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A football player sustains trauma to the anterior aspect of the tibia...
Which of the following conditions is characterized by full adduction,...
A boutonniere deformity is characterized by which of the following...
All of the following are clinical features of a fracture of the neck...
The most common site of fracture in elderly patients due to a fall is:
An acceleration injury (whiplash injury) may cause which of the...
Hyaline cartilage receives its nutrition from which of the following?
Delayed ulnar nerve palsy is most commonly associated with a fracture...
What portion of the adult knee meniscus is vascularized?
A patient is seen at an outpatient facility for a right knee injury....
A young football player presents with pain at the left knee joint. The...
To prevent maximal compressive forces being placed on the patella, a...
Avascular necrosis would LEAST likely be a major complicating factor...
Knee medial rotation is due to which of the following muscle weakness?
Avascular necrosis can be a possible sequela of fracture of all of the...
A patient is referred to physical therapy with a diagnosis of...
A boutonniere deformity of the finger would NOT consist of which of...
A therapist receives a referral to evaluate a patient with a...
The most common site of osteogenic sarcoma is:
A 45-year-old male presents with an expansile lesion in the center of...
An inversion injury at the ankle can cause all of the following...
Which structure increases the glenoid cavity for the proximal humerus...
When the ankle is forcibly inverted and plantarflexed, the ligament...
Decreased osteoblast activity causes which of the following...
During evaluation of a patient, the therapist observes significant...
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