Musculoskeletal Physical Therapy Assessment

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| By Catherine Halcomb
Catherine Halcomb
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Quizzes Created: 2610 | Total Attempts: 6,902,945
| Questions: 25 | Updated: Jun 21, 2026
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1. If there is weakness of the right gluteus medius, pelvic drop occurs at:

Explanation

Weakness in the right gluteus medius leads to inadequate stabilization of the pelvis during the stance phase of walking. When the right side is weak, it cannot effectively support the body weight, causing the left side to drop. This results in a left pelvic drop as the left gluteus medius is unable to counterbalance the weight shift. The stance phase is critical as it is when the foot is in contact with the ground, making pelvic stability essential for proper gait mechanics.

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About This Quiz
Musculoskeletal Physical Therapy Assessment - Quiz

This assessment focuses on musculoskeletal physical therapy, evaluating knowledge on conditions like tennis elbow, scoliosis, and pelvic tilt. It tests understanding of relevant anatomy, posture, and common injuries, making it valuable for physical therapy students and professionals. Enhance your expertise with this targeted musculoskeletal assessment.

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2. Which of the following best describes the postural characteristic of kypholordosis?

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3. Abductor pollicis brevis is innervated by which nerve?

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4. In sway back posture, which of the following is typically observed?

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5. Which muscle is primarily responsible for preventing contralateral pelvic drop during single-leg stance?

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6. The Thomas test is used to assess which of the following?

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7. Tennis elbow (lateral epicondylitis) most commonly affects which side of the body?

Explanation

Tennis elbow primarily affects the dominant side of the body because this is the side most frequently used for repetitive gripping and swinging motions, such as those involved in playing tennis. The overuse of the forearm muscles and tendons on the dominant side leads to microtears and inflammation at the lateral epicondyle, resulting in pain and discomfort. Consequently, individuals often experience tennis elbow on their dominant arm more than on the non-dominant side.

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8. The most common postural deformity in the geriatric population is:

Explanation

Kyphosis is the most prevalent postural deformity among the elderly due to age-related changes in the spine, such as degeneration of vertebral discs and weakening of spinal muscles. This condition leads to an exaggerated forward curvature of the thoracic spine, often resulting in a hunched appearance. Factors like osteoporosis, which is common in older adults, further contribute to vertebral fractures and the progression of kyphosis. As a result, kyphosis is frequently observed in the geriatric population, impacting mobility and overall quality of life.

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9. A 14-year-old girl with right thoracic scoliosis is referred to physical therapy. Which findings should the therapist expect?

Explanation

In right thoracic scoliosis, the spine curves to the right, causing asymmetrical shoulder and hip positioning. This results in the left shoulder appearing lower due to the spine's curvature, while the right scapula becomes more prominent as it is pushed outward. Additionally, the left hip is elevated compared to the right hip, which is lower due to the compensatory changes in posture. These findings align with the characteristic physical presentation of a right thoracic curve in scoliosis.

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10. In right convex scoliosis, which of the following findings is expected?

Explanation

In right convex scoliosis, the spine curves to the right, causing the right side of the rib cage to protrude. This curvature leads to lateral trunk flexion towards the left side, as the body compensates for the imbalance. Consequently, the convex side of the curve is on the right, resulting in lateral trunk flexion and a convex appearance on that side. This alignment reflects the body’s adaptation to the structural changes caused by the scoliosis, emphasizing the relationship between trunk position and the curvature of the spine.

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11. Which of the following is a possible cause of anterior pelvic tilting?

Explanation

Severe weakness of abdominal muscles can lead to anterior pelvic tilting because these muscles play a crucial role in stabilizing the pelvis and maintaining proper posture. When the abdominal muscles are weak, they cannot effectively counterbalance the pull of the hip flexors and lower back muscles, resulting in an exaggerated forward tilt of the pelvis. This imbalance can create a chain reaction affecting overall body alignment and movement patterns, contributing to postural issues and potential discomfort.

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12. Which of the following is observed if a patient correctly performs an anterior pelvic tilt in standing?

Explanation

Performing an anterior pelvic tilt involves tilting the pelvis forward, which results in the hip flexors becoming more active and the hip joint moving into flexion. This motion also encourages the lumbar spine to extend, as the tilt creates an arch in the lower back. Therefore, when a patient correctly executes an anterior pelvic tilt while standing, it leads to hip flexion and lumbar extension.

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13. A patient does not respond appropriately when correcting a backward sway while standing. Which is the correct muscle firing order to correct backward sway?

Explanation

To correct backward sway, the body must first stabilize the ankle to prevent falling backward. The tibialis anterior, which controls dorsiflexion of the ankle, is activated first to shift the center of gravity forward. Next, the abdominals engage to provide core stability and maintain an upright posture. Finally, the quadriceps are activated to assist in knee extension and further stabilize the lower body. This sequence ensures a coordinated response to maintain balance effectively.

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14. About tennis elbow, all the following are true EXCEPT:

Explanation

Tennis elbow, or lateral epicondylitis, is primarily caused by repetitive wrist extension and typically affects the dominant arm due to increased use. It is not directly caused or precipitated by ulnar neuritis, which is a condition affecting the ulnar nerve rather than the tendons associated with tennis elbow. Thus, the association of tennis elbow with ulnar neuritis is incorrect, making it the exception among the statements provided.

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15. A patient with a boutonniere deformity typically presents with which finger position?

Explanation

A boutonniere deformity is characterized by a specific finger position resulting from an injury to the central slip of the extensor tendon. This injury causes the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint to flex due to unopposed flexor tendon activity, while the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint extends as the extensor mechanism is disrupted. Therefore, the typical presentation involves flexion at the PIP joint and extension at the DIP joint, creating a distinctive appearance often seen in conditions like rheumatoid arthritis or following trauma.

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16. A therapist performs the Trendelenburg test on a patient with right gluteus medius weakness. The patient stands on the right lower limb. What would be observed?

Explanation

In the Trendelenburg test, a patient with right gluteus medius weakness will struggle to maintain pelvic stability while standing on the affected side (right). As the patient stands on the right leg, the left gluteus medius is unable to compensate adequately, leading to a drop in the left side of the pelvis. This occurs because the weak muscle cannot stabilize the pelvis, causing it to tilt downwards on the unsupported side (left) when the body leans towards the right. Thus, the observable outcome is a drop of the pelvis on the left side.

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17. A patient has posterior pelvic tilt, flat lower thoracic spine, and increased upper back kyphosis. This posture is best described as:

Explanation

Sway back posture is characterized by an increased posterior pelvic tilt and a flattened lower thoracic spine, which leads to a shift of the pelvis and trunk backward. This results in an increased kyphosis in the upper back while the lumbar region may appear relatively flat. The alignment of the spine in this posture creates a distinctive appearance, differentiating it from other postural types such as flat back or lordosis, where the curvature patterns differ significantly. Thus, the described postural characteristics align with the definition of sway back.

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18. A patient presents with abducted scapula, round shoulders, kyphosis, and anterior rotation of the pelvis. This posture is best described as:

Explanation

Kypholordosis is characterized by an increased curvature of the thoracic spine (kyphosis) combined with an exaggerated lumbar curve (lordosis). In this case, the patient exhibits an abducted scapula, round shoulders, and anterior pelvic rotation, all indicative of postural imbalances associated with kypholordosis. This condition often results from muscular imbalances and can lead to discomfort and functional limitations, as the alignment of the spine and pelvis is altered. The combination of these specific postural features aligns with the definition of kypholordosis, making it the most accurate descriptor.

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19. In contracture of lower lumbar back muscles, the pelvis is affected by:

Explanation

Contracture of the lower lumbar back muscles typically leads to tightness and altered posture. This condition often results in anterior pelvic tilting, where the pelvis tilts forward, increasing the lumbar lordosis (the inward curve of the lower back). This posture not only affects the alignment of the pelvis but can also contribute to upper thoracic kyphosis, creating a chain reaction of postural changes throughout the spine. Consequently, the correct association is between anterior pelvic tilting and lordosis, reflecting the interconnected nature of muscular and skeletal adjustments in the body.

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20. Sciatic nerve injury is most commonly associated with which of the following?

Explanation

Sciatic nerve injury is most commonly associated with posterior dislocation of the hip due to the anatomical proximity of the nerve to the hip joint. When the hip is dislocated posteriorly, the force can stretch or compress the sciatic nerve, leading to injury. This type of dislocation often occurs from high-energy trauma, such as in motor vehicle accidents, where the hip joint is forcibly pushed out of its normal position. As a result, the risk of damaging the sciatic nerve is significantly increased compared to other types of dislocations or injuries.

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21. If the line of gravity is posterior to the hip joint in standing, what does the body first rely on to prevent excessive lumbar extension?

Explanation

When the line of gravity is posterior to the hip joint in standing, the body must counteract the tendency for excessive lumbar extension. The posterior pelvic ligaments and the hip joint capsule provide passive stability by resisting this extension force. They help maintain the pelvis in a neutral position, preventing the spine from hyperextending. This reliance on passive structures is crucial for maintaining postural stability and preventing injury, especially when the body's center of mass shifts posteriorly.

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22. What is the most likely cause of anterior pelvic tilt during initial contact (heel strike)?

Explanation

Anterior pelvic tilt during initial contact is often associated with weak abdominal muscles. When the abdominals lack strength, they cannot effectively stabilize the pelvis, leading to an exaggerated forward tilt. This position can alter the alignment of the spine and pelvis, impacting gait mechanics. During heel strike, a strong core is essential for maintaining proper posture and balance; without it, the pelvis may tilt forward, resulting in inefficient movement and potentially increasing the risk of injury. Strengthening the abdominal muscles can help correct this tilt and improve overall stability during walking or running.

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23. A patient presents with lordosis from standing and a positive Thomas test. This is most likely due to:

Explanation

A positive Thomas test indicates that the hip is in a flexed position, which can lead to compensatory lordosis when the patient stands. This suggests a fixed flexion deformity of the hip, where the hip joint is unable to fully extend, causing an anterior pelvic tilt and increased lumbar lordosis. This condition often results from tight hip flexors, limiting the hip's range of motion and altering posture. Thus, the observed lordosis is a compensatory mechanism for the fixed flexion deformity rather than an issue with muscle strength or strain.

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24. The most common compression site of the superficial peroneal nerve is:

Explanation

The superficial peroneal nerve is commonly compressed at the lateral head of the fibula due to its anatomical pathway. As the nerve passes around the fibula, it becomes susceptible to compression from surrounding structures, such as muscles or bony prominences. This area is particularly narrow, making it a frequent site for entrapment, which can lead to symptoms like pain or numbness in the lower leg and foot. Understanding the nerve's trajectory helps explain why this site is the most common for compression.

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25. Paralysis of all intrinsic muscles of the hand EXCEPT abductor pollicis brevis is caused by injury to which nerve?

Explanation

Injury to the ulnar nerve results in paralysis of all intrinsic muscles of the hand except for the abductor pollicis brevis, which is innervated by the median nerve. The ulnar nerve primarily affects the muscles responsible for fine motor skills and the function of the little finger and half of the ring finger. The abductor pollicis brevis, being innervated by the median nerve, remains functional. This selective paralysis highlights the distinct roles of the median and ulnar nerves in hand muscle innervation.

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If there is weakness of the right gluteus medius, pelvic drop occurs...
Which of the following best describes the postural characteristic of...
Abductor pollicis brevis is innervated by which nerve?
In sway back posture, which of the following is typically observed?
Which muscle is primarily responsible for preventing contralateral...
The Thomas test is used to assess which of the following?
Tennis elbow (lateral epicondylitis) most commonly affects which side...
The most common postural deformity in the geriatric population is:
A 14-year-old girl with right thoracic scoliosis is referred to...
In right convex scoliosis, which of the following findings is...
Which of the following is a possible cause of anterior pelvic tilting?
Which of the following is observed if a patient correctly performs an...
A patient does not respond appropriately when correcting a backward...
About tennis elbow, all the following are true EXCEPT:
A patient with a boutonniere deformity typically presents with which...
A therapist performs the Trendelenburg test on a patient with right...
A patient has posterior pelvic tilt, flat lower thoracic spine, and...
A patient presents with abducted scapula, round shoulders, kyphosis,...
In contracture of lower lumbar back muscles, the pelvis is affected...
Sciatic nerve injury is most commonly associated with which of the...
If the line of gravity is posterior to the hip joint in standing, what...
What is the most likely cause of anterior pelvic tilt during initial...
A patient presents with lordosis from standing and a positive Thomas...
The most common compression site of the superficial peroneal nerve is:
Paralysis of all intrinsic muscles of the hand EXCEPT abductor...
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