Neurological & Rehabilitation Physical Therapy

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| Questions: 30 | Updated: Jul 3, 2026
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1. When instructing the family of a 9-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy, the main emphasis in the lower extremities should be placed on:

Explanation

In Duchenne muscular dystrophy, muscle weakness and contractures are common. Stretching the hip flexors and plantar flexors is crucial to maintain range of motion and prevent contractures, which can limit mobility. Tight hip flexors can lead to a forward-leaning posture, while tight plantar flexors can affect walking and balance. By focusing on these stretches, the goal is to enhance functional mobility and improve overall quality of life for the child, allowing for better movement and independence as the disease progresses.

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About This Quiz
Neurological & Rehabilitation Physical Therapy - Quiz

This assessment focuses on key concepts in neurological and rehabilitation physical therapy. It evaluates understanding of conditions such as spinal cord injuries, cerebral palsy, and muscular dystrophy, as well as critical assessment skills. This is essential for therapists to provide effective care and interventions tailored to neurological conditions.

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2. Spina bifida occulta is best characterized by which of the following?

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3. Which of the following exercise benefits is CORRECTLY stated?

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4. Which of the following is the primary concern when managing a patient with an acute burn covering more than 20% TBSA in the first 48–72 hours?

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5. A patient with T4 complete paraplegia lacks voluntary motor function below which anatomical landmark?

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6. Which of the following is TRUE regarding multiple sclerosis pathology?

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7. In spastic diplegia (a form of cerebral palsy), which extremities are primarily affected?

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8. Which of the following best describes the Glasgow Coma Scale minimum score and what it represents?

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9. In Brown-Séquard syndrome, which deficits occur ipsilateral to the lesion?

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10. The long toe extensors (extensor digitorum longus and extensor hallucis longus) are primarily innervated by which nerve root?

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11. Which of the following is a clinical feature of post-polio syndrome?

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12. Poliovirus is primarily transmitted through which route?

Explanation

Poliovirus is primarily transmitted via the fecal-oral route, meaning it spreads when contaminated feces are ingested. This typically occurs through poor sanitation and hygiene practices, where the virus can contaminate food or water sources. Once ingested, the virus multiplies in the intestines and can enter the bloodstream, potentially leading to serious neurological complications. This transmission route is particularly prevalent in areas with inadequate sanitation, making public health measures focused on hygiene and vaccination crucial in preventing poliovirus outbreaks.

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13. A patient with a neurological condition is unable to perform a movement even without repetitions. This patient most likely has:

Explanation

Myopathy refers to a group of disorders that affect muscle function, leading to weakness and difficulty in movement. In this case, the patient's inability to perform a movement without repetitions suggests a primary muscle issue rather than a problem with the nervous system or neuromuscular junction, as seen in conditions like myasthenia gravis or peripheral neuropathy. Myopathy typically results in a consistent inability to generate muscle contractions, aligning with the patient's symptoms.

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14. A patient with a neurological condition is initially unable to perform a movement, but after several repetitions with adequate rest periods, performance returns to normal. This patient most likely has:

Explanation

In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness worsens with activity and improves with rest, due to the body's antibodies blocking communication between nerves and muscles. The initial inability to perform a movement followed by recovery after repetitions and rest aligns with this characteristic pattern. Unlike other conditions listed, myasthenia gravis specifically exhibits fluctuating muscle strength, making it the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.

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15. What is the normal resting membrane potential (action potential threshold) of a neuron?

Explanation

The normal resting membrane potential of a neuron typically ranges between -60 mV and -90 mV. This value reflects the electrical charge difference across the neuron's membrane when it is not actively transmitting signals. At this potential, the neuron is in a polarized state, ready to respond to stimuli. The action potential threshold, which is the point at which a neuron will fire an action potential, is usually around -55 mV, indicating that the resting potential must be sufficiently negative to allow for excitability and signal propagation.

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16. A therapist is testing key muscles on a patient who recently suffered a spinal cord injury. The current test assesses the strength of the long toe extensors. Which nerve segment primarily innervates this key muscle group?

Explanation

The long toe extensors, which include muscles like the extensor hallucis longus and extensor digitorum longus, are primarily innervated by the L5 nerve root. This segment is crucial for the extension of the toes, and damage to the L5 nerve can lead to weakness or inability to perform this action. Assessing the strength of these muscles helps the therapist determine the integrity of the L5 nerve root and its functional impact following a spinal cord injury.

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17. When evaluating a CVA patient, what is the first thing to assess?

Explanation

Assessing mental status is crucial in evaluating a CVA (cerebrovascular accident) patient because it provides immediate insight into the patient's cognitive function and neurological integrity. Changes in mental status can indicate the severity of the stroke, areas of the brain affected, and potential complications. This assessment helps guide further evaluation and treatment decisions, ensuring that the patient receives appropriate care based on their cognitive capabilities and overall condition. Other aspects like coordination and visual fields can be evaluated subsequently, but mental status is fundamental in determining the immediate impact of the stroke.

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18. A 42-year-old man was admitted with a stab wound to the left lower thoracic spine. He is unable to move the left lower extremity and cannot feel pain or temperature differences in the right lower extremity. What is the most likely type of lesion?

Explanation

The presentation of the patient indicates a unilateral injury leading to motor loss on one side and sensory loss on the opposite side. The stab wound to the left lower thoracic spine suggests damage to the left side of the spinal cord, resulting in weakness of the left lower extremity due to corticospinal tract involvement. Simultaneously, the loss of pain and temperature sensation in the right lower extremity indicates disruption of the spinothalamic tract, which crosses over to the opposite side. This combination of symptoms is characteristic of Brown-Séquard syndrome, which results from hemisection of the spinal cord.

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19. A patient presents with a pronounced tuft of hair on the center of her spinal column in the lumbar area. The therapist notes no loss in motor or sensory function. This patient most likely has what form of spina bifida?

Explanation

Spina bifida occulta is characterized by a defect in the bony encasement of the spinal cord without protrusion of neural elements. The presence of a tuft of hair over the lumbar area suggests a hidden spinal defect, which is a common sign of spina bifida occulta. The absence of motor or sensory dysfunction further supports this diagnosis, as the spinal cord is typically intact and functioning normally in this form, unlike in more severe types like meningocele or meningomyelocele, where neurological deficits are often present.

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20. Which of the following neural fibers are the largest and fastest?

Explanation

A fibers are the largest and fastest neural fibers due to their thick myelin sheath, which facilitates rapid transmission of electrical impulses. This myelination allows for saltatory conduction, where the action potential jumps between nodes of Ranvier, significantly increasing conduction speed. In contrast, C fibers are unmyelinated and smaller, resulting in slower signal transmission. Therefore, A fibers are crucial for functions requiring quick responses, such as motor control and sensory perception.

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21. The therapist is evaluating a patient with left-side visual field deficits in both eyes. A lesion at what location may cause this defect?

Explanation

A lesion in the right optic tract would lead to left-side visual field deficits in both eyes due to the crossing of optic nerve fibers. The right optic tract carries visual information from the left visual field of both eyes, so damage here disrupts the transmission of visual signals from that field, resulting in a loss of vision on the left side. In contrast, lesions at the optic chiasm or specific optic nerves would not produce the same bilateral visual field impairment.

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22. A therapist is evaluating a patient in an intensive care unit. The therapist notes no eye opening, no verbal response, and no motor response. On the Glasgow Coma Scale, what is the patient's score?

Explanation

A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is determined by assessing three aspects: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. Each category is scored separately, with a maximum of 4 for eye opening, 5 for verbal response, and 6 for motor response. In this case, the patient shows no eye opening (score 1), no verbal response (score 1), and no motor response (score 1). Adding these scores together results in a total GCS score of 3, indicating a deep level of unconsciousness.

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23. What is the duration of the convalescent stage of polio?

Explanation

The convalescent stage of polio varies significantly among individuals, typically lasting from 2 weeks to 2 years. During this period, patients may experience gradual recovery from symptoms, but the timeline can be influenced by factors such as the severity of the initial infection and the individual's overall health. Some may recover quickly, while others might take longer to regain strength and function, leading to this broad range for the duration of recovery.

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24. The most functional way to teach an individual with T4 complete paraplegia to transfer from wheelchair to mat is by using a:

Explanation

The sliding board technique is particularly effective for individuals with T4 complete paraplegia as it allows for a smooth transfer from the wheelchair to the mat while minimizing the risk of injury. This method involves placing a board between the wheelchair and the mat, enabling the individual to slide across the board with minimal upper body strength. It provides stability and reduces the need for lifting, making it a safer and more manageable option for those with limited mobility.

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25. Which of the following is the most important to assess FIRST during an evaluation of a patient with a recent stroke?

Explanation

Assessing mental status first in a patient with a recent stroke is crucial because it provides immediate insight into the patient's cognitive function, level of consciousness, and potential for communication. Understanding the patient's mental state can help guide further assessments and interventions, as cognitive deficits can significantly impact rehabilitation strategies. Additionally, mental status evaluation can indicate the severity of the stroke and potential complications, influencing immediate medical management decisions. Therefore, prioritizing mental status assessment is essential for effective and comprehensive stroke care.

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26. While ambulating a stroke patient (right side is the involved side), the therapist notes increased circumduction of the right lower extremity. Which of the following is an UNLIKELY cause of this deviation?

Explanation

Increased circumduction during ambulation in a stroke patient often results from compensatory mechanisms due to weakness or spasticity in the affected limb. Weak hip flexors and increased spasticity in the gastrocnemius or quadriceps can lead to difficulties in proper leg positioning, causing circumduction. However, weak knee extensors are less likely to cause this specific deviation, as they primarily affect stability and control during weight-bearing rather than the ability to swing the leg forward. Thus, their weakness would not typically lead to increased circumduction.

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27. On examination of a cross section of the spinal cord of a cadaver, the examiner notes plaques. This finding is most characteristic of what condition?

Explanation

Plaques in the spinal cord are indicative of demyelination, a hallmark of multiple sclerosis (MS). In MS, the immune system attacks the myelin sheath surrounding nerve fibers, leading to the formation of these plaques. This damage disrupts nerve signal transmission, resulting in various neurological symptoms. The presence of plaques in a cadaver's spinal cord is a strong indicator of this chronic autoimmune condition, distinguishing it from other disorders listed, which do not typically present with such findings.

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28. The therapist is evaluating a patient with cerebral palsy. All extremities and the trunk are involved, the lower extremities are more involved than the upper extremities, and the right side is more involved than the left. Which classification of cerebral palsy does this patient most likely have?

Explanation

In this case, the patient exhibits involvement of all extremities and the trunk, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper extremities. Additionally, the right side is more involved than the left. Spastic quadriplegia is characterized by significant impairment in all four limbs and the trunk, aligning with the patient's symptoms. This classification indicates a more widespread impact on motor function, which is consistent with the observed severity across both upper and lower extremities.

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29. Persuading a sedentary patient to become more active, the therapist explains the benefits of exercise. Which of the following is an INAPPROPRIATE list of benefits?

Explanation

The listed benefits include "decreased HDL," which is inappropriate since HDL (high-density lipoprotein) is known as "good" cholesterol, and exercise typically increases HDL levels. The other benefits mentioned in the list, such as increased myocardial efficiency and decreased cholesterol, are generally positive outcomes of regular exercise. Therefore, the inclusion of decreased HDL makes this list misleading and incorrect in the context of promoting exercise benefits to a sedentary patient.

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30. What is the major concern of the physical therapist treating a patient with an acute deep partial thickness burn covering 27% of the total body, admitted to the intensive care burn unit 2 days ago?

Explanation

In the context of an acute deep partial thickness burn covering a significant portion of the body, fluid retention is a major concern due to the risk of hypovolemia and fluid shifts that can occur after such injuries. This can lead to complications like edema and impaired circulation, which can hinder healing and increase the risk of infection. Monitoring and managing fluid balance is crucial in the early stages of recovery, especially in a critical care setting, to ensure the patient's stability and support the healing process.

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When instructing the family of a 9-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular...
Spina bifida occulta is best characterized by which of the following?
Which of the following exercise benefits is CORRECTLY stated?
Which of the following is the primary concern when managing a patient...
A patient with T4 complete paraplegia lacks voluntary motor function...
Which of the following is TRUE regarding multiple sclerosis pathology?
In spastic diplegia (a form of cerebral palsy), which extremities are...
Which of the following best describes the Glasgow Coma Scale minimum...
In Brown-Séquard syndrome, which deficits occur ipsilateral to the...
The long toe extensors (extensor digitorum longus and extensor...
Which of the following is a clinical feature of post-polio syndrome?
Poliovirus is primarily transmitted through which route?
A patient with a neurological condition is unable to perform a...
A patient with a neurological condition is initially unable to perform...
What is the normal resting membrane potential (action potential...
A therapist is testing key muscles on a patient who recently suffered...
When evaluating a CVA patient, what is the first thing to assess?
A 42-year-old man was admitted with a stab wound to the left lower...
A patient presents with a pronounced tuft of hair on the center of her...
Which of the following neural fibers are the largest and fastest?
The therapist is evaluating a patient with left-side visual field...
A therapist is evaluating a patient in an intensive care unit. The...
What is the duration of the convalescent stage of polio?
The most functional way to teach an individual with T4 complete...
Which of the following is the most important to assess FIRST during an...
While ambulating a stroke patient (right side is the involved side),...
On examination of a cross section of the spinal cord of a cadaver, the...
The therapist is evaluating a patient with cerebral palsy. All...
Persuading a sedentary patient to become more active, the therapist...
What is the major concern of the physical therapist treating a patient...
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