N101 Nursing Fundamentals Midterm Review

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| Questions: 30 | Updated: Jul 22, 2026
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1. Malpractice is defined as a failure to do something that causes harm to the client.

Explanation

Malpractice refers to the negligence or improper conduct by a professional, particularly in fields like medicine or law, that results in harm or injury to a client. It involves failing to meet the standard of care expected in that profession, which can lead to significant consequences for the client. This definition emphasizes the responsibility professionals have to act in their clients' best interests and highlights the legal and ethical obligations they must uphold to avoid causing harm.

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About This Quiz
N101 Nursing Fundamentals Midterm Review - Quiz

This assessment focuses on essential nursing fundamentals, evaluating knowledge of oxygen delivery, tube feeding, medication administration, and patient safety. It is relevant for nursing students preparing for clinical practice and exams, ensuring they understand key concepts that impact patient care and safety.

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2. Match each nursing concept with its correct description.

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3. Negligence in nursing is best described as which of the following?

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4. Which of the following are correct steps when using a metered dose inhaler? (Select all that apply)

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5. The NANDA nursing diagnosis for a pressure ulcer includes 'Impaired Skin Integrity' and 'Risk for ______.'

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6. Which of the following correctly describes the nursing intervention for a client with C. difficile?

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7. When transferring a client to a wheelchair, the nurse should dangle the client's legs for how long before standing?

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8. Which of the following are risk factors for fluid volume deficit? (Select all that apply)

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9. PERRLA stands for pupils equal, round, reactive to light and ______.

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10. Which of the following are signs and symptoms of fluid volume excess? (Select all that apply)

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11. Which of the following is the correct intervention when crackles are heard during lung auscultation?

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12. When using a metered dose inhaler, how long should the client hold their breath after pressing the inhaler?

Explanation

Holding the breath for about 10 seconds after using a metered dose inhaler allows the medication to settle in the lungs and enhances its absorption. This pause helps prevent the medication from being exhaled immediately and ensures that it can effectively reach the targeted areas in the respiratory system. Proper technique, including breath-holding, is crucial for maximizing the therapeutic effects of inhaled medications.

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13. Which muscle is the preferred intramuscular injection site for children?

Explanation

The vastus lateralis muscle, located on the outer thigh, is the preferred intramuscular injection site for children because it is well-developed, easily accessible, and away from major nerves and blood vessels. This site allows for a larger volume of medication to be administered safely and minimizes the risk of injury. Additionally, it is suitable for infants and young children, making it a common choice for vaccinations and other intramuscular injections.

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14. A client receiving regular insulin should eat within _____ minutes to prevent a drop in blood glucose.

Explanation

Clients receiving regular insulin typically need to eat within 30 minutes to prevent hypoglycemia. Regular insulin has a relatively quick onset of action, usually starting to lower blood glucose levels within 30 minutes after injection. Eating within this timeframe ensures that glucose from food is available to counteract the insulin's effect, maintaining stable blood sugar levels and preventing potential complications associated with low blood glucose.

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15. When administering insulin to a non-obese client, the correct injection angle is _____ degrees.

Explanation

Administering insulin at a 45-degree angle is recommended for non-obese clients to ensure proper absorption and minimize discomfort. This angle allows the needle to penetrate the subcutaneous tissue without reaching the muscle layer, which is important for effective insulin delivery. Injecting at this angle helps to create a small "pocket" of insulin in the fatty tissue, promoting optimal absorption and preventing potential complications associated with intramuscular injections. This technique is particularly important for individuals with less subcutaneous fat, ensuring that the insulin acts as intended.

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16. A nasal cannula is used to provide supplemental oxygen at what flow rate?

Explanation

A nasal cannula is designed to deliver supplemental oxygen at flow rates typically ranging from 1 to 6 liters per minute. At 4-6 L/min, it can effectively increase the oxygen concentration in the air the patient breathes without causing discomfort or excessive drying of the nasal passages. Higher flow rates can lead to discomfort and are generally not recommended for standard therapeutic use. This range allows for adequate oxygenation while maintaining patient comfort and safety.

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17. Which ethical principle is defined as 'doing good' for the client, such as giving pain medication on time?

Explanation

Beneficence refers to the ethical principle of acting in the best interest of the client by promoting their well-being and preventing harm. In healthcare, this principle emphasizes the importance of providing necessary care, such as administering pain medication promptly, to enhance the patient's quality of life. By prioritizing the needs and comfort of the client, healthcare professionals uphold their moral obligation to "do good," ensuring that patients receive the support and treatment they require for recovery and relief.

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18. What is the correct formula for calculating medication dosage?

Explanation

To calculate medication dosage accurately, the formula Desired ÷ Have × Quantity is used. This formula determines how much of the medication is needed based on the desired dosage (Desired) and the concentration or amount available (Have). By dividing the Desired by Have, you find the ratio of what is needed versus what is available, and then multiplying by the Quantity provides the total amount of medication required for the patient. This ensures safe and effective dosing based on individual needs.

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19. The apical pulse is assessed at the PMI, which is located at the fifth intercostal space at the left midclavicular line.

Explanation

The apical pulse is the heartbeat assessed at the point of maximal impulse (PMI), which is typically found at the fifth intercostal space, specifically at the left midclavicular line. This location corresponds to where the apex of the heart is closest to the chest wall, making it the ideal site for accurately measuring heart sounds and rhythm. Proper identification of the PMI is crucial in clinical assessments to evaluate cardiac function.

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20. A client with a history of falls should be provided with which of the following safety interventions?

Explanation

Providing nonskid footwear helps to enhance stability and prevent slips, while using a bed or chair alarm alerts staff if the client attempts to get up, reducing the risk of falls. These interventions promote safety by encouraging mobility in a controlled manner and ensuring prompt assistance when needed, rather than restricting movement or compromising the client's autonomy. Keeping the bed high or removing the call light could increase the risk of falls or hinder communication for help.

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21. Which assessment finding is consistent with 3+ pitting edema?

Explanation

3+ pitting edema is characterized by a significant degree of swelling, where a 6 mm indentation that lasts more than 1 minute indicates a moderate level of fluid retention. This level of indentation reflects the depth and duration of the pressure applied, showing that the tissue is retaining fluid to a notable extent. In contrast, the other options describe lesser degrees of edema, making them inconsistent with the definition of 3+ pitting edema.

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22. Orthostatic hypotension is defined as a decrease of at least _____ mm Hg systolic when changing positions.

Explanation

Orthostatic hypotension occurs when a person experiences a significant drop in blood pressure upon standing up, which can lead to symptoms like dizziness or fainting. A decrease of at least 20 mm Hg in systolic blood pressure is clinically recognized as a threshold for diagnosing this condition. This measurement indicates that the body is having difficulty regulating blood pressure during postural changes, which is essential for maintaining adequate blood flow to the brain and other vital organs.

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23. When inserting a Foley catheter, if resistance is met while inflating the balloon, the nurse should advance the catheter _____ inches farther before inflating.

Explanation

When inserting a Foley catheter, encountering resistance while inflating the balloon may indicate that the catheter is not properly positioned in the bladder. Advancing the catheter 1-2 inches allows for better placement within the bladder, reducing the risk of trauma to the urethra and ensuring that the balloon inflates correctly within the bladder, thus securing the catheter in place. This technique helps prevent complications and ensures effective drainage.

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24. A patient has a temperature of 102°F. What is the equivalent in Celsius?

Explanation

To convert Fahrenheit to Celsius, use the formula: C = (F - 32) × 5/9. For a temperature of 102°F, subtract 32 to get 70, then multiply by 5/9, resulting in approximately 38.9°C. This conversion shows that a fever is present, as normal body temperature is around 37°C.

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25. How often should blood glucose be monitored in a client receiving TPN?

Explanation

Monitoring blood glucose every 4-6 hours in a client receiving Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) is essential to ensure proper metabolic control. TPN can significantly impact glucose levels due to its high carbohydrate content. Frequent monitoring allows healthcare providers to detect and manage hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia promptly, adjusting insulin or TPN composition as needed. This regular assessment helps prevent complications associated with unstable blood glucose levels, ensuring the patient's safety and promoting optimal nutritional support.

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26. Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) is administered through which route?

Explanation

Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) provides essential nutrients directly into the bloodstream, bypassing the gastrointestinal tract. It is typically administered through a central line into the superior vena cava because this route allows for the delivery of concentrated nutrient solutions safely and effectively. Central lines can accommodate larger volumes and higher osmolarity solutions compared to peripheral IV lines, reducing the risk of complications such as phlebitis and ensuring proper nutrient absorption. This method is crucial for patients who cannot receive nutrition through oral or enteral routes.

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27. Which of the following tasks can a nurse delegate to a nursing assistant (NAP)?

Explanation

Nurses can delegate certain tasks to nursing assistants (NAPs) to optimize patient care. Feeding an assigned, stable client is appropriate for a NAP, as it involves basic assistance that does not require specialized nursing skills. In contrast, tasks like administering medications, performing preoperative teaching, or caring for clients with acute illnesses necessitate a higher level of clinical judgment and expertise, which is beyond the scope of a nursing assistant's responsibilities. Thus, delegating feeding to a NAP ensures efficiency while maintaining patient safety.

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28. During tube feeding, if the residual volume is above _____ mL, the nurse should hold the feeding.

Explanation

A residual volume above 200 mL during tube feeding indicates that the stomach is not emptying properly, which could lead to potential complications such as aspiration, nausea, or vomiting. Holding the feeding allows for reassessment of the patient's tolerance to the feeding, and it may be necessary to consult with a healthcare provider for further evaluation or adjustment of the feeding regimen. Monitoring residual volumes is crucial in ensuring patient safety and effective nutritional support.

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29. What is the correct head-of-bed elevation when feeding a client through a nasogastric tube?

Explanation

Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees during nasogastric tube feeding helps reduce the risk of aspiration and promotes better digestion. This position allows gravity to assist in the flow of the feeding while minimizing the likelihood of reflux. A 30-degree elevation strikes a balance between comfort and safety, ensuring that the client is adequately supported while receiving nutrition. Higher elevations, such as 45 or 90 degrees, may not be necessary and could lead to discomfort or increased risk of complications.

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30. When verifying nasogastric tube placement, what is the expected gastric pH range?

Explanation

When verifying nasogastric tube placement, the expected gastric pH range is 0-4 because the stomach produces gastric acid, primarily hydrochloric acid, which maintains a highly acidic environment. This acidity is crucial for digestion and helps prevent bacterial growth. A pH of 0-4 indicates the presence of gastric contents, confirming that the tube is correctly positioned in the stomach rather than in the esophagus or lungs, where the pH would be higher. Therefore, a pH reading within this range is essential for ensuring proper tube placement.

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Malpractice is defined as a failure to do something that causes harm...
Match each nursing concept with its correct description.
Negligence in nursing is best described as which of the following?
Which of the following are correct steps when using a metered dose...
The NANDA nursing diagnosis for a pressure ulcer includes 'Impaired...
Which of the following correctly describes the nursing intervention...
When transferring a client to a wheelchair, the nurse should dangle...
Which of the following are risk factors for fluid volume deficit?...
PERRLA stands for pupils equal, round, reactive to light and ______.
Which of the following are signs and symptoms of fluid volume excess?...
Which of the following is the correct intervention when crackles are...
When using a metered dose inhaler, how long should the client hold...
Which muscle is the preferred intramuscular injection site for...
A client receiving regular insulin should eat within _____ minutes to...
When administering insulin to a non-obese client, the correct...
A nasal cannula is used to provide supplemental oxygen at what flow...
Which ethical principle is defined as 'doing good' for the client,...
What is the correct formula for calculating medication dosage?
The apical pulse is assessed at the PMI, which is located at the fifth...
A client with a history of falls should be provided with which of the...
Which assessment finding is consistent with 3+ pitting edema?
Orthostatic hypotension is defined as a decrease of at least _____ mm...
When inserting a Foley catheter, if resistance is met while inflating...
A patient has a temperature of 102°F. What is the equivalent in...
How often should blood glucose be monitored in a client receiving TPN?
Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) is administered through which route?
Which of the following tasks can a nurse delegate to a nursing...
During tube feeding, if the residual volume is above _____ mL, the...
What is the correct head-of-bed elevation when feeding a client...
When verifying nasogastric tube placement, what is the expected...
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