Medical-Surgical Nursing Final Review

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Themes
T
Themes
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 2709 | Total Attempts: 1,190,407
| Questions: 20 | Updated: Sep 21, 2026
Please wait...
Question 1 / 21
🏆 Rank #--
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100

1. A patient with appendicitis suddenly reports complete relief of abdominal pain. What does this most likely indicate?

Explanation

Sudden relief of abdominal pain in a patient with appendicitis often indicates a serious complication, such as appendix perforation. When the appendix perforates, the pressure within the inflamed organ is released, leading to a temporary decrease in pain. However, this is typically followed by the onset of peritonitis, an infection of the abdominal cavity, which can result in severe symptoms. Therefore, the sudden change in pain indicates a worsening of the condition rather than improvement, necessitating urgent medical evaluation and intervention.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
Medical-surgical Nursing Final Review - Quiz

This assessment focuses on key concepts in medical-surgical nursing, evaluating knowledge on electrolyte imbalances, respiratory conditions, and nursing interventions. It is essential for nursing professionals preparing for final reviews or enhancing their clinical practice. Mastering these topics is crucial for providing safe and effective patient care in various medical-surgical settings.

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

You may optionally provide this to label your report, leaderboard, or certificate.

2. A CD4 count of less than ____ cells/μL in an HIV-positive client meets the diagnostic criteria for AIDS.

Explanation

A CD4 count of less than 200 cells/μL indicates significant immune system compromise in an HIV-positive individual. This threshold is critical because it reflects a level of immune deficiency that increases susceptibility to opportunistic infections and certain cancers, which are characteristic of AIDS. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) uses this criterion to define the progression from HIV to AIDS, emphasizing the importance of monitoring CD4 counts in managing HIV infection and assessing the need for treatment interventions.

Submit

3. Which of the following are clinical manifestations of hypomagnesemia? (Select all that apply)

Explanation

Hypomagnesemia can lead to increased neuromuscular excitability due to its role in stabilizing neuronal membranes. This results in symptoms such as tremors and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes. Positive Chvostek and Trousseau signs indicate increased neuromuscular irritability, often associated with low magnesium levels. However, a shortened QT interval is typically linked to hypercalcemia rather than hypomagnesemia, making it an incorrect choice in this context. Thus, the selected manifestations accurately reflect the effects of low magnesium on neuromuscular function.

Submit

4. In COPD patients, oxygen is typically administered at 2 L/min because higher flow rates may suppress the hypoxic drive and cause respiratory depression.

Explanation

In patients with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD), the body's primary drive to breathe is often triggered by low oxygen levels rather than elevated carbon dioxide levels, a condition known as hypoxic drive. Administering oxygen at a flow rate higher than 2 L/min can increase blood oxygen levels too quickly, potentially suppressing this drive and leading to respiratory depression. Therefore, careful management of oxygen therapy is crucial in COPD patients to avoid adverse effects and ensure adequate respiratory function.

Submit

5. A patient with pulmonary tuberculosis is expected to receive treatment for a minimum duration of ____ to prevent relapse and drug resistance.

Explanation

A minimum treatment duration of 6 months for pulmonary tuberculosis is essential to ensure the complete eradication of the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria. This duration helps to prevent relapse and the development of drug-resistant strains. Inadequate treatment can lead to the survival of bacteria, which may mutate and become resistant to standard therapies, complicating future treatment efforts. Adhering to the full course of therapy significantly increases the chances of successful recovery and minimizes public health risks associated with contagious, resistant forms of tuberculosis.

Submit

6. What is the correct PPE donning sequence for airborne precautions?

Explanation

In airborne precautions, the sequence of donning personal protective equipment (PPE) is crucial to ensure maximum protection. Starting with the gown provides a barrier against contaminants. Next, the Mask/N95 is worn to filter out airborne pathogens. Eye protection is added to shield the eyes from potential splashes or droplets. Finally, gloves are donned last, as they can easily become contaminated during the process. This sequence minimizes the risk of exposure and ensures that the healthcare worker is properly protected before engaging with potentially infectious materials.

Submit

7. During a blood transfusion, a patient develops chills, fever, and low back pain. What is the nurse's immediate priority action?

Explanation

In the event of a transfusion reaction characterized by chills, fever, and low back pain, the nurse's immediate priority is to stop the transfusion to prevent further complications. Continuing the transfusion can exacerbate the patient's symptoms and lead to severe reactions, such as hemolysis. Stopping the transfusion allows for the assessment of the patient's condition and initiation of appropriate interventions, such as administering supportive care and notifying the physician. This action is critical to ensure patient safety and mitigate potential harm.

Submit

8. Which IV fluid must be used exclusively when administering a blood transfusion?

Explanation

When administering a blood transfusion, 0.9% normal saline is preferred because it is isotonic and maintains the osmotic balance with the blood products. Other solutions, such as Lactated Ringer's or D5W, can cause hemolysis or alter the properties of the blood components, leading to adverse reactions. Normal saline does not contain any additives that might interfere with the transfusion process, ensuring the safety and efficacy of the blood being transfused.

Submit

9. Match each inflammatory bowel disease condition with its correct characteristic.

Submit

10. Which clinical finding is the hallmark sign of peritonitis?

Explanation

A hard, rigid, board-like abdomen with severe rebound tenderness is indicative of peritonitis due to inflammation of the peritoneum. This rigidity occurs as a protective mechanism, reflecting the body's response to irritation or infection. Severe rebound tenderness signifies that pressure on the abdomen causes increased pain upon release, highlighting the underlying inflammation and irritation. Together, these findings suggest a serious abdominal condition requiring immediate medical attention.

Submit

11. Which electrolyte is the primary intracellular cation, and its release from damaged cells can cause fatal cardiac arrhythmias?

Explanation

Potassium (K+) is the primary intracellular cation, playing a crucial role in maintaining cellular function and electrical stability in the heart. When cells are damaged, potassium is released into the extracellular space, leading to hyperkalemia. Elevated potassium levels can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, resulting in potentially fatal cardiac arrhythmias. This is particularly dangerous because the heart relies on precise ion concentrations to regulate its rhythm and contractility. Thus, potassium's role in cellular integrity and cardiac function underscores its significance in this context.

Submit

12. Community-acquired pneumonia is most commonly caused by which organism?

Explanation

Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia due to its prevalence in the respiratory tract and its ability to cause infections, particularly in vulnerable populations such as the elderly and those with weakened immune systems. This bacterium is often transmitted through respiratory droplets and can lead to significant morbidity. Its virulence factors enable it to evade the host's immune response, making it a leading pathogen in pneumonia cases outside of healthcare settings. Other organisms listed are less frequently associated with community-acquired pneumonia.

Submit

13. In respiratory acidosis, which primary management strategy is most appropriate?

Explanation

In respiratory acidosis, the primary issue is an accumulation of carbon dioxide (CO2) due to inadequate ventilation, leading to a decrease in blood pH. The most effective management strategy is to restore adequate ventilation, either through encouraging the patient to breathe more deeply or using mechanical ventilation if necessary. This approach directly addresses the underlying cause of the acidosis by enhancing gas exchange and reducing CO2 levels in the blood, thereby correcting the acid-base imbalance. Other options, such as administering sodium bicarbonate or diuretics, do not address the root problem effectively.

Submit

14. Oliguria in an adult is defined as a urine output of less than ____.

Explanation

Oliguria is a medical term used to describe a significant decrease in urine output. In adults, it is defined as producing less than 400 ml of urine per day. This condition can indicate underlying health issues, such as dehydration, kidney dysfunction, or urinary tract obstruction. Monitoring urine output is crucial in assessing kidney function and overall fluid balance in patients, making the threshold of 400 ml a critical marker for diagnosing oliguria and guiding further medical evaluation and intervention.

Submit

15. A patient with acute glomerulonephritis would have which hallmark urinalysis finding?

Explanation

Acute glomerulonephritis is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli, leading to the leakage of red blood cells into the urine. This results in hematuria, which is the presence of red blood cells (RBCs) in the urine. Additionally, RBC casts indicate that the bleeding is originating from the glomeruli, as they form when RBCs are trapped in the protein matrix of the renal tubules. These findings are key indicators of glomerular damage and help differentiate acute glomerulonephritis from other renal conditions.

Submit

16. Which IV solution is used to provide cardioprotection in a patient with hyperkalemia?

Explanation

IV calcium gluconate is used in hyperkalemia to stabilize cardiac membranes and protect the heart from the effects of elevated potassium levels. High potassium can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias, and calcium antagonizes these effects by restoring membrane potential and reducing excitability. This makes it a critical intervention in managing hyperkalemia, especially when ECG changes or symptoms are present. While other treatments may lower potassium levels, calcium gluconate specifically addresses the immediate cardiac risks associated with hyperkalemia.

Submit

17. In a patient with hyperkalemia (K+ > 6.0 mEq/L) and peaked T waves on ECG, what is the highest priority nursing intervention?

Explanation

In cases of hyperkalemia, elevated potassium levels can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias, as indicated by peaked T waves on an ECG. Continuous cardiac monitoring is crucial to detect any changes in the heart's rhythm or rate, allowing for prompt intervention if complications arise. This priority ensures the patient's safety and allows for immediate response to any cardiac disturbances, which is essential in managing hyperkalemia effectively. Other interventions, while important, do not address the immediate risk of cardiac complications as directly as monitoring does.

Submit

18. A patient with hypokalemia would show which characteristic ECG changes?

Explanation

Hypokalemia, or low potassium levels in the blood, affects cardiac repolarization, leading to characteristic changes on an ECG. Specifically, it typically presents as ST segment depression, flattened T waves, and the appearance of prominent U waves. These changes occur due to impaired myocardial cell repolarization, which can increase the risk of arrhythmias. The presence of U waves is particularly indicative of hypokalemia, as they are not usually seen in normal ECGs. Recognizing these patterns is crucial for diagnosis and management of patients with electrolyte imbalances.

Submit

19. What is the maximum safe IV infusion rate for potassium chloride (KCl)?

Explanation

Infusing potassium chloride (KCl) at a maximum rate of 10 mEq/hr is recommended to prevent complications such as hyperkalemia and cardiac arrhythmias. Rapid infusion can lead to dangerous increases in serum potassium levels, which can affect heart function. This rate ensures adequate monitoring and allows for safe potassium levels in the bloodstream while providing necessary treatment for patients with hypokalemia. Additionally, when KCl is administered, it should ideally be given through a central line to minimize irritation to peripheral veins.

Submit

20. A patient with hypervolemia (ECF excess) would most likely exhibit which of the following clinical findings?

Explanation

In hypervolemia, excess extracellular fluid leads to increased blood volume, resulting in symptoms such as dyspnea due to pulmonary congestion, weight gain from fluid retention, an S3 gallop indicating heart strain or failure, and jugular venous distension (JVD) from elevated central venous pressure. These findings reflect the heart and lungs' response to volume overload, distinguishing hypervolemia from other conditions that might cause similar symptoms.

Submit
×
Saved
Thank you for your feedback!
View My Results
Cancel
  • All
    All (20)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
A patient with appendicitis suddenly reports complete relief of...
A CD4 count of less than ____ cells/μL in an HIV-positive client...
Which of the following are clinical manifestations of hypomagnesemia?...
In COPD patients, oxygen is typically administered at 2 L/min because...
A patient with pulmonary tuberculosis is expected to receive treatment...
What is the correct PPE donning sequence for airborne precautions?
During a blood transfusion, a patient develops chills, fever, and low...
Which IV fluid must be used exclusively when administering a blood...
Match each inflammatory bowel disease condition with its correct...
Which clinical finding is the hallmark sign of peritonitis?
Which electrolyte is the primary intracellular cation, and its release...
Community-acquired pneumonia is most commonly caused by which...
In respiratory acidosis, which primary management strategy is most...
Oliguria in an adult is defined as a urine output of less than ____.
A patient with acute glomerulonephritis would have which hallmark...
Which IV solution is used to provide cardioprotection in a patient...
In a patient with hyperkalemia (K+ > 6.0 mEq/L) and peaked T waves...
A patient with hypokalemia would show which characteristic ECG...
What is the maximum safe IV infusion rate for potassium chloride...
A patient with hypervolemia (ECF excess) would most likely exhibit...
play-Mute sad happy unanswered_answer up-hover down-hover success oval cancel Check box square blue
Alert!