Medical-Surgical Nursing Body Systems Review

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| By Catherine Halcomb
Catherine Halcomb
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| Questions: 20 | Updated: Sep 4, 2026
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1. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis reports morning stiffness lasting more than one hour. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

Explanation

Encouraging a warm bath or shower in the morning helps to alleviate stiffness associated with rheumatoid arthritis by increasing blood flow to the joints and relaxing the muscles. Warm water can soothe discomfort and improve flexibility, making it easier for the patient to engage in daily activities. This intervention promotes mobility and can significantly enhance the patient's quality of life, contrasting with complete bed rest or cold applications, which may not effectively address stiffness or encourage movement.

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Medical-surgical Nursing Body Systems Review - Quiz

This assessment focuses on critical concepts in medical-surgical nursing, evaluating knowledge on managing conditions like COPD, heart failure, and diabetes. It is relevant for nursing students and professionals looking to reinforce their understanding of essential nursing interventions and patient care strategies. This medical-surgical nursing assessment helps prepare learners for real-world... see moreclinical scenarios. see less

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2. A patient with hyperthyroidism is scheduled for a thyroidectomy. Which post-operative complication should the nurse monitor for immediately?

Explanation

In thyroidectomy, there is a risk of inadvertently damaging or removing the parathyroid glands, which are responsible for regulating calcium levels in the body. If these glands are affected, the patient may experience hypoparathyroidism, leading to low calcium levels. This condition can cause tetany, characterized by muscle spasms and cramps. Therefore, monitoring for tetany is crucial immediately after surgery to ensure prompt treatment and prevent complications related to calcium imbalances.

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3. A patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value is used to monitor heparin effectiveness?

Explanation

Heparin therapy primarily affects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation, which is monitored using the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). This test measures the time it takes for blood to clot and reflects the effectiveness of heparin in prolonging clotting time. While prothrombin time (PT) and INR are used to monitor oral anticoagulants like warfarin, they are not suitable for heparin. A complete blood count (CBC) provides general information about blood components but does not assess coagulation specifically. Thus, aPTT is the standard laboratory value for monitoring heparin therapy.

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4. A nurse is teaching a patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which instruction is most appropriate?

Explanation

For patients with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), avoiding lying down immediately after meals is crucial as it helps prevent stomach acid from flowing back into the esophagus. Staying upright allows gravity to assist in keeping the contents of the stomach where they belong, reducing the risk of reflux symptoms. This practice can significantly alleviate discomfort and promote better digestion, making it an essential guideline for managing GERD effectively.

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5. A patient with Parkinson's disease is at greatest risk for which complication?

Explanation

Patients with Parkinson's disease often experience motor symptoms such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia, which significantly impair their balance and gait. These issues increase the likelihood of falls, making them a major concern for individuals with the condition. As the disease progresses, the risk of falls escalates due to further deterioration in mobility and stability, leading to serious injuries such as fractures. Thus, falls represent a critical complication that requires careful management and preventive strategies in patients with Parkinson's disease.

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6. A patient with multiple myeloma is at high risk for which complication related to bone involvement?

Explanation

Multiple myeloma is characterized by the proliferation of malignant plasma cells in the bone marrow, leading to bone destruction and increased calcium release into the bloodstream. This can result in hypercalcemia, as the bones break down and release calcium. Additionally, the weakened bone structure increases the risk of pathological fractures, which are fractures that occur with minimal or no trauma due to underlying bone disease. Therefore, patients with multiple myeloma are particularly susceptible to both pathological fractures and hypercalcemia as complications of their condition.

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7. A patient with pneumonia has a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. Which intervention is the priority?

Explanation

Encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises is crucial for a patient with pneumonia and ineffective airway clearance. These exercises help to mobilize secretions, improve lung expansion, and enhance oxygenation. By promoting effective coughing, the patient can clear mucus and pathogens from the airways, reducing the risk of further complications. This intervention directly addresses the root issue of airway clearance, making it the priority over other options like fluid restriction or medication, which may not provide immediate relief for airway obstruction.

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8. A patient with Addison's disease is at risk for which life-threatening complication?

Explanation

Addison's disease leads to insufficient production of adrenal hormones, particularly cortisol. In times of stress, such as illness or injury, the body may not be able to produce enough cortisol to meet increased demands, resulting in an Addisonian crisis. This life-threatening condition is characterized by severe hypotension, electrolyte imbalances, and shock, requiring immediate medical intervention. Unlike the other options listed, Addisonian crisis directly relates to the adrenal insufficiency inherent in Addison's disease, making it the most critical complication to monitor for in affected patients.

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9. A nurse is caring for a post-operative patient who had a colostomy. Which stool consistency is expected from a sigmoid colostomy?

Explanation

A sigmoid colostomy is created from the lower part of the colon, allowing for the passage of stool that has been processed more fully than in other types of colostomies. Patients with a sigmoid colostomy typically experience semi-formed to formed stool due to the absorption of water and electrolytes in the colon. This results in a more solid consistency compared to ileostomies, which produce liquid output, and is closer to normal bowel movements, reflecting the colostomy's location in the digestive system.

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10. A patient is diagnosed with melanoma. Which characteristic of a skin lesion is most associated with malignancy?

Explanation

Melanoma is characterized by specific features that indicate malignancy. Asymmetry suggests that one half of the lesion does not match the other, which is a warning sign. Irregular borders can indicate that the lesion is not well-defined, often associated with cancerous growths. Multiple colors within a lesion can signify varying levels of melanin, which is typical in malignant tumors. These characteristics contrast with benign lesions, which tend to be symmetrical, have smooth borders, and exhibit uniform color. Thus, the presence of asymmetry, irregular borders, and multiple colors is a strong indicator of melanoma.

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11. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with worsening dyspnea. Which position is most appropriate to facilitate breathing?

Explanation

High Fowler's position, where the patient sits upright at a 60-90 degree angle, is most appropriate for individuals with COPD experiencing worsening dyspnea. This position enhances lung expansion, improves diaphragmatic movement, and facilitates better oxygenation by allowing gravity to assist in lung mechanics. It also helps reduce the workload on the respiratory muscles, making breathing easier and more efficient. In contrast, other positions may restrict airflow or increase the effort required to breathe.

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12. A patient is admitted with a suspected stroke. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Explanation

Sudden facial drooping and slurred speech are classic signs of a stroke, indicating a potential disruption in blood flow to the brain. These symptoms suggest that the patient may be experiencing an acute neurological event, which requires immediate medical intervention to minimize brain damage and improve outcomes. Timely treatment can significantly impact recovery, making it crucial to address these alarming signs without delay.

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13. A patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is being monitored. Which early sign should the nurse watch for?

Explanation

Increased intracranial pressure can impair brain function, leading to alterations in consciousness. An early sign to monitor is a decreased level of consciousness, as this reflects the brain's response to pressure changes. Other signs, such as bradycardia or specific respiratory patterns, may occur later as the condition worsens. Recognizing decreased consciousness early allows for prompt intervention to prevent further neurological deterioration.

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14. A nurse is assessing a patient with a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which symptom is most commonly reported?

Explanation

Dysuria, frequency, and urgency are hallmark symptoms of a urinary tract infection (UTI). Dysuria refers to painful or burning sensations during urination, while frequency indicates an increased need to urinate, often with little output. Urgency is the sudden, strong desire to urinate. These symptoms result from inflammation and irritation of the urinary tract, making them the most commonly reported in patients with UTIs, distinguishing them from other urinary issues.

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15. A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following clinical manifestations is expected?

Explanation

Hypothyroidism is characterized by an underactive thyroid, leading to a decrease in metabolic rate. This condition often results in symptoms such as fatigue due to low energy levels, weight gain from slowed metabolism, and cold intolerance as the body struggles to regulate temperature. Unlike hyperthyroidism, which causes weight loss and heat intolerance, hypothyroidism presents with these specific clinical manifestations that reflect the body's decreased hormonal output and metabolic activity.

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16. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. Which dietary instruction is most important?

Explanation

In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are less able to excrete potassium, leading to hyperkalemia, which can cause serious cardiac issues. Foods high in potassium, like bananas and potatoes, can exacerbate this condition. Therefore, it is crucial for patients to avoid these foods to maintain safer potassium levels and reduce the risk of complications associated with elevated potassium. This dietary restriction plays a vital role in managing CKD effectively.

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17. A patient with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus has a fasting blood glucose of 280 mg/dL. Which symptom is most likely present?

Explanation

In Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus, elevated fasting blood glucose levels, such as 280 mg/dL, typically lead to symptoms associated with hyperglycemia. Polydipsia (increased thirst) occurs as the body attempts to dilute excess glucose in the bloodstream. Polyuria (increased urination) results from osmotic diuresis, where high glucose levels cause the kidneys to excrete more water. Polyphagia (increased hunger) arises because cells are unable to utilize glucose for energy, prompting the body to signal hunger. These symptoms collectively indicate the body's response to uncontrolled blood sugar levels.

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18. A patient with peptic ulcer disease reports sudden severe abdominal pain. The nurse suspects perforation. What is the priority action?

Explanation

In cases of suspected perforation in peptic ulcer disease, immediate medical intervention is critical due to the risk of peritonitis and sepsis. Notifying the physician allows for rapid assessment and necessary surgical intervention to prevent further complications. Other actions, such as administering antacids or encouraging fluid intake, may delay treatment and exacerbate the patient's condition. Prompt communication with the healthcare team ensures timely management of this potentially life-threatening situation.

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19. Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?

Explanation

During an acute asthma attack, the primary goal is to relieve bronchospasm and improve airflow. Administering a prescribed bronchodilator is crucial as it quickly relaxes the muscles around the airways, allowing them to open and facilitate breathing. Other interventions, such as positioning or deep breathing exercises, may provide some benefit but are secondary to the immediate need for medication that directly addresses airway constriction and respiratory distress.

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20. A nurse is caring for a patient with heart failure. Which finding indicates worsening of the condition?

Explanation

Decreased urine output and weight gain in a patient with heart failure suggest fluid retention and worsening heart function. When the heart is unable to pump effectively, the kidneys receive less blood flow, leading to reduced urine production. Weight gain indicates excess fluid accumulation, often due to congestive symptoms. These findings are critical indicators of worsening heart failure, as they reflect the body's inability to manage fluid balance and the potential for increased cardiac stress. Monitoring these signs helps in timely interventions to prevent further complications.

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A patient with rheumatoid arthritis reports morning stiffness lasting...
A patient with hyperthyroidism is scheduled for a thyroidectomy. Which...
A patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin...
A nurse is teaching a patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease...
A patient with Parkinson's disease is at greatest risk for which...
A patient with multiple myeloma is at high risk for which complication...
A patient with pneumonia has a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway...
A patient with Addison's disease is at risk for which life-threatening...
A nurse is caring for a post-operative patient who had a colostomy....
A patient is diagnosed with melanoma. Which characteristic of a skin...
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is...
A patient is admitted with a suspected stroke. Which assessment...
A patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is being...
A nurse is assessing a patient with a urinary tract infection (UTI)....
A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following...
A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has a potassium level of...
A patient with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus has a fasting blood glucose of...
A patient with peptic ulcer disease reports sudden severe abdominal...
Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention for a...
A nurse is caring for a patient with heart failure. Which finding...
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