Clinical Nursing Practice and Patient Management

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| Questions: 15 | Updated: Jul 29, 2026
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1. Regarding care of autonomic dysreflexia, which of the following is NOT an appropriate nursing intervention?

Explanation

In autonomic dysreflexia, the primary goal is to alleviate the triggering stimulus, often related to bladder or bowel distension. Removing a urinary catheter can exacerbate the situation by potentially causing further bladder distension. Instead, interventions should focus on relieving the cause, such as ensuring the catheter is patent or managing bowel issues appropriately. Therefore, removing the urinary catheter is not an appropriate nursing intervention in this context, as it does not address the underlying problem and may worsen the patient's condition.

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About This Quiz
Clinical Nursing Practice and Patient Management - Quiz

This assessment focuses on essential nursing practices and patient management strategies. Key concepts include the recognition and management of conditions such as autonomic dysreflexia, pulmonary embolism, and complications post-surgery. It is relevant for nursing professionals aiming to enhance their clinical decision-making skills and patient care knowledge.

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2. A 72-year-old female presents with severe dyspnea, chest pain radiating to the back, abnormal breathing sounds on the left side 3 days post-event, HR 120, and RR 28. What is the most appropriate diagnostic procedure?

Explanation

In this scenario, the patient's symptoms and history suggest a potential pulmonary issue, such as a pulmonary embolism or pleural effusion, particularly given the severe dyspnea and chest pain. A CT chest is the most appropriate diagnostic procedure as it provides detailed images of the thoracic structures, allowing for the assessment of vascular abnormalities, lung pathology, and pleural conditions. This imaging modality is superior in identifying and characterizing potential life-threatening conditions compared to other options like ECG or chest X-ray, which are less definitive in this context.

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3. A 45-year-old patient attends an annual BP check: BP 130/80, HR 80, Temp 36.7°C, with elevated LDL cholesterol of 100 mg/dL on blood tests. What is the most appropriate nursing management?

Explanation

In this scenario, the patient's LDL cholesterol level is elevated but not excessively high. Before initiating treatment with statins, it is prudent to confirm the cholesterol levels with a fasting blood test, as this can provide more accurate results. This approach allows for proper assessment and ensures that any treatment decisions are based on reliable data, aligning with clinical guidelines that emphasize the importance of accurate lipid measurements before starting pharmacotherapy.

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4. What is the side effect of Metformin on acid-base balance?

Explanation

Metformin can lead to lactic acidosis, a serious condition characterized by the buildup of lactic acid in the bloodstream. This occurs when the drug interferes with mitochondrial function, leading to increased anaerobic metabolism and subsequent lactic acid production. Factors such as renal impairment or metabolic stress can further elevate the risk of lactic acidosis in patients taking Metformin, making it crucial to monitor acid-base balance in these individuals. Thus, Metformin is associated with an increase in acid levels, specifically lactic acid.

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5. A 30-year-old female who had a cesarean section presents at her first postoperative appointment with breathlessness and coughing. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

Explanation

The symptoms of breathlessness and coughing in a post-cesarean section patient suggest a potential pulmonary embolism, which is a serious condition that can occur due to venous thromboembolism. After surgery, particularly in women who may have reduced mobility, there is an increased risk of blood clots forming in the legs, which can dislodge and travel to the lungs. This can lead to respiratory distress and coughing as the body attempts to compensate for impaired oxygenation. The timing and nature of the symptoms align closely with this diagnosis.

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6. A 16-year-old male presents with panic and anxiety one week before his school exams. What is the best medication to prescribe?

Explanation

Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that is effective for short-term relief of acute anxiety and panic symptoms. In this case, the 16-year-old is experiencing heightened anxiety related to an upcoming event (school exams). Lorazepam's rapid onset of action can help alleviate immediate anxiety, making it suitable for short-term use in this context. Other options may have longer onset times or be less appropriate for acute treatment. Given the urgency of his symptoms, Lorazepam is the best choice for managing his anxiety effectively before the exams.

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7. A patient is prescribed Vancomycin 500 mg in 100 mL at a drop rate of 20 drops/mL over 2 hours. What is the correct flow rate in drops per minute?

Explanation

To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute, first determine the total number of drops in the solution. With 100 mL at a drop rate of 20 drops/mL, this equals 2000 drops (100 × 20). Since the infusion is to occur over 2 hours (120 minutes), divide the total drops by the time in minutes: 2000 drops / 120 minutes = approximately 16.67 drops/min. Rounding down to the nearest whole number gives 15 drops/min, which is the correct flow rate for the prescribed infusion.

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8. A 66-year-old female experiences cardiac arrest; CPR is initiated with 3 DC shocks. She has a history of cardiomyopathy and renal impairment. What is the most likely cause of the cardiac arrest?

Explanation

In patients with a history of cardiomyopathy, the heart muscle is often weakened, leading to an increased risk of arrhythmias. Ventricular fibrillation (VF) and ventricular tachycardia (VT) are common arrhythmias that can cause sudden cardiac arrest. Given the patient's age and underlying cardiac condition, it's likely that the cardiac arrest was triggered by these arrhythmias rather than other factors like hypoxemia or electrolyte imbalances, which would typically present differently. The combination of cardiomyopathy and the acute event strongly points to VF/VT as the primary cause.

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9. Regarding nursing care for a jaundiced newborn on phototherapy, which of the following is the EXCEPTION (incorrect nursing care)?

Explanation

In the care of a jaundiced newborn undergoing phototherapy, it is crucial to frequently reposition the infant to ensure even exposure to the light, which enhances the effectiveness of the treatment. Keeping the baby in a supine position without repositioning can lead to uneven exposure and may hinder the treatment's effectiveness. Additionally, it could increase the risk of pressure sores. Therefore, avoiding repositioning is not appropriate nursing care in this context.

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10. A 40-year-old male post renal transplant is prescribed 2,500 units of heparin/hr for 24 hours. His dose requires 50,000 units diluted in 50 mL. What is the volume to be administered in mL per hour?

Explanation

To determine the volume to be administered per hour, first calculate the total volume of heparin solution required for 24 hours. The patient needs 2,500 units of heparin per hour, totaling 60,000 units over 24 hours. Since the solution contains 50,000 units in 50 mL, the concentration is 1,000 units/mL. To find the volume needed for 2,500 units, divide 2,500 units by the concentration: 2,500 units ÷ 1,000 units/mL = 2.5 mL. Thus, the volume to be administered is 2.5 mL per hour.

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11. A patient who had an appendectomy one year ago now presents with a foot injury showing delayed wound healing and dead tissue formation. What is the most likely explanation?

Explanation

Gas gangrene is a severe bacterial infection caused by Clostridium species, often associated with contaminated wounds. In this case, the patient's foot injury likely involved dirt or debris, providing an anaerobic environment conducive to the growth of these bacteria. The delayed wound healing and dead tissue formation are characteristic signs of gas gangrene, which can rapidly progress if not treated promptly. This condition is distinct from typical infections due to its potential to produce gas within tissues, leading to necrosis and systemic toxicity.

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12. A mother brings her child to the emergency department reporting that the child was feeding well but has not passed stool in 48 hours. What is the most likely reason?

Explanation

Hirschsprung's disease is a congenital condition where nerve cells are absent in a portion of the bowel, leading to a lack of peristalsis in that segment. This results in an inability to pass stool, often presenting in infants with symptoms such as failure to pass meconium within the first 48 hours of life. In this scenario, the child is feeding well but has not passed stool for 48 hours, indicating a functional obstruction due to the absence of nerve cells in the distal colon, making Hirschsprung's disease the most likely explanation.

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13. A baby in respiratory distress is on nasal oxygen at 6 L/min with O2 saturation of 82%. What is the priority nursing action?

Explanation

In a situation where a baby exhibits respiratory distress and has an oxygen saturation of only 82%, immediate intervention is crucial. Calling the ICU team ensures that the baby receives advanced care and monitoring, as this level of oxygen saturation indicates significant respiratory compromise. While increasing oxygen flow or administering bronchodilators may be necessary, the priority is to involve specialized care to address potential underlying issues swiftly and effectively. Prompt escalation of care can prevent further deterioration and improve outcomes.

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14. A patient presents with repeated gum bleeding. Which diagnostic test should be performed first?

Explanation

In cases of repeated gum bleeding, it is essential to assess for potential bleeding disorders. Factor VIII is a crucial protein in the coagulation cascade, and its deficiency is associated with hemophilia A, which can lead to significant bleeding issues. Performing a Factor VIII assay first helps determine if a specific coagulation factor is deficient, allowing for targeted management. While platelet count and PT are also important, identifying a specific factor deficiency is critical in this context to guide further diagnostic and therapeutic decisions.

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15. What is the characteristic appearance of synovial fluid in rheumatoid arthritis?

Explanation

In rheumatoid arthritis, synovial fluid typically appears cloudy or turbid due to the presence of inflammatory cells, proteins, and other substances resulting from the disease process. This turbidity indicates an inflammatory response, which is a hallmark of rheumatoid arthritis. The accumulation of immune cells and the breakdown of joint tissue contribute to this characteristic appearance, differentiating it from normal synovial fluid, which is usually clear and straw-colored.

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Regarding care of autonomic dysreflexia, which of the following is NOT...
A 72-year-old female presents with severe dyspnea, chest pain...
A 45-year-old patient attends an annual BP check: BP 130/80, HR 80,...
What is the side effect of Metformin on acid-base balance?
A 30-year-old female who had a cesarean section presents at her first...
A 16-year-old male presents with panic and anxiety one week before his...
A patient is prescribed Vancomycin 500 mg in 100 mL at a drop rate of...
A 66-year-old female experiences cardiac arrest; CPR is initiated with...
Regarding nursing care for a jaundiced newborn on phototherapy, which...
A 40-year-old male post renal transplant is prescribed 2,500 units of...
A patient who had an appendectomy one year ago now presents with a...
A mother brings her child to the emergency department reporting that...
A baby in respiratory distress is on nasal oxygen at 6 L/min with O2...
A patient presents with repeated gum bleeding. Which diagnostic test...
What is the characteristic appearance of synovial fluid in rheumatoid...
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