CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Exam 220-1202 Practice Test 2

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| Attempts: 11 | Questions: 30 | Updated: Sep 11, 2026
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1. A technician configuring a new SOHO wireless router wants to prevent casual passersby from immediately seeing the network's name in their device's Wi-Fi list, without changing the router's encryption or password. Which setting should be adjusted?

Explanation

Disabling SSID broadcast stops the network name from appearing in a nearby device's list of available Wi-Fi networks, though the network can still be joined if someone knows the exact name. Encryption standard, admin password, and port forwarding are all separate settings that don't control the SSID's visibility.

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About This Quiz
CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Exam 220-1202 Practice Test 2 - Quiz

This practice resource focuses on the CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Exam 220-1202. It evaluates essential skills in areas such as operating systems, security, and troubleshooting. By taking this quiz, learners can assess their knowledge and readiness for the certification, making it a valuable tool for anyone aiming to succeed... see morein IT support roles. see less

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

You may optionally provide this to label your report, leaderboard, or certificate.

2. Match each remote access method to its most relevant security consideration.

Explanation

Each remote access method carries a distinct security consideration: RDP exposed directly to the internet is a frequent brute-force target and should sit behind a VPN, SSH with password login is vulnerable to credential guessing compared to key-based authentication, unapproved third-party screen-sharing tools bypass IT's normal vetting, and VPN access from personal devices needs posture checks so unmanaged devices don't become a backdoor into the network.

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3. A company is drafting its acceptable use policy for an AI writing assistant and wants to specifically call out two well-documented technical limitations of the tool that employees should watch for when relying on its output. Which two should be included?

Explanation

Bias and hallucinations are both well-documented technical limitations of AI tools, directly affecting the accuracy and fairness of generated content, which is exactly what a policy about relying on AI output should flag. Data source labeling, integration complexity, and licensing cost are relevant AI governance topics but are not themselves technical limitations of the tool's output.

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4. A technician needs to write a simple script on a Windows Server to automate restarting a service, and wants to use Microsoft's modern scripting language built into Windows rather than an older batch script. Which file extension should the script use?

Explanation

PowerShell scripts use the .ps1 file extension and provide a more modern, capable scripting environment than legacy batch files. Batch scripts use .bat, and .vbs and .sh are used for VBScript and shell scripts on other platforms, not modern Windows PowerShell automation.

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5. A frustrated customer is venting at length about a recurring printer issue and starts raising their voice. Which response best follows proper communication techniques and professionalism?

Explanation

Actively listening without interrupting, then restating the issue to confirm understanding, de-escalates frustration and shows the customer they're being heard before moving to a solution. Interrupting, deflecting responsibility, or ending the call are all likely to increase the customer's frustration rather than resolve it professionally.

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6. A technician is disposing of several old laptop batteries and a box of used toner cartridges from a print room. Which document should be consulted to determine the proper, legally compliant disposal method for each item?

Explanation

A Material Safety Data Sheet documents the safe handling and disposal requirements for hazardous materials like batteries and toner. An SLA defines service expectations between parties, an AUP governs acceptable use of systems, and an NDA governs confidentiality, none of which cover disposal procedures.

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7. A critical production server needs an urgent security patch applied outside the normal weekly maintenance window because active exploitation has been detected in the wild. Which type of change request should be submitted?

Explanation

An emergency change is used when a change must be implemented quickly, outside the normal schedule, typically due to an urgent security or operational risk like active exploitation. A standard change is pre-approved and low-risk, a normal change follows the regular review and approval timeline, and a change freeze is a period during which changes are restricted, not a type of change request.

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8. A user's desktop shows a legitimate-looking pop-up claiming their antivirus subscription needs renewal immediately, but the pop-up appears inside their web browser window rather than as a normal desktop notification, and the company's centrally managed antivirus dashboard shows the machine as fully up to date with no alerts. What should the technician conclude?

Explanation

A legitimate antivirus alert on a centrally managed endpoint would appear as a system notification, not inside a browser window, and the management console confirming the device is current and alert-free strongly indicates the browser pop-up is fake and unrelated. The scenario specifically rules out a lapsed subscription or console error, and a BSOD does not present as a browser pop-up.

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9. A user reports that their browser now displays a certificate warning on nearly every website they visit, including sites they've used for years without issue, while colleagues on the same network browse those same sites with no warnings. What should the technician suspect first?

Explanation

An incorrect system date or time is a very common cause of widespread certificate warnings, since certificate validity is checked against the system clock, and it explains why only this one workstation is affected while colleagues browsing the same sites see no warnings. An ISP outage would prevent browsing entirely, and hosting provider changes or keyboard layout are unrelated.

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10. A user's phone was recently rooted by a previous owner, and now shows a high volume of unfamiliar background network traffic along with a message about a data-usage limit being reached much earlier in the month than usual. Which two actions should the technician take?

Explanation

Root access removes many of the OS's normal security restrictions, so checking for unauthorized applications and addressing the root/developer-mode access itself, up to and including resetting the device, directly targets the security exposure causing the high traffic and data usage. Wallpaper, autorotate, and the contacts list are unrelated to root-level security exposure.

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11. A user's phone shows a full-screen alert claiming their device is infected and instructing them to install a specific cleaner app immediately, appearing only while browsing a particular website. What is happening?

Explanation

A full-screen alert tied to browsing a specific site, pushing installation of an unfamiliar cleaner app, is a classic fake security warning designed to trick the user into installing actual malware. This is not how a phone's legitimate built-in security features behave, and it is unrelated to OS updates or battery health.

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12. A user's phone loses its Wi-Fi connection every time it goes into sleep mode and does not automatically reconnect until the screen is manually turned back on, even though other devices on the same network stay connected continuously. What is the most likely cause?

Explanation

Many mobile OSs include an aggressive power-saving option that disconnects Wi-Fi while the device sleeps to save battery, matching a pattern where the issue only occurs on this device and only during sleep. A DHCP pool exhaustion would affect multiple devices trying to join, not just this one, and a SIM card issue affects cellular service rather than Wi-Fi.

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13. A user's mobile banking app worked fine yesterday but now fails to open at all, closing back to the home screen the instant its icon is tapped, while every other app on the phone opens normally. What is the best first troubleshooting step?

Explanation

Since only one app is affected while everything else works normally, the issue is most likely with that app itself, so checking for an update or reinstalling it is the appropriate first, least disruptive step. A factory reset is excessive for a single misbehaving app, and battery replacement or autorotate settings are unrelated to an app failing to launch.

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14. A desktop's performance has been gradually declining over several months, particularly during file operations, even though no new software was installed recently. Task Manager shows normal CPU and memory usage, but disk activity spikes to 100% during simple tasks like opening a folder. What should the technician investigate first?

Explanation

Gradually worsening performance concentrated around disk activity, with normal CPU/RAM usage, points toward a disk health issue such as a failing or heavily fragmented drive; checking S.M.A.R.T. status is the direct next step. Insufficient RAM would typically show elevated memory usage, and GPU drivers and network configuration are unrelated to disk-activity spikes during file operations.

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15. A user's browser has started automatically filling in saved usernames and passwords on look-alike phishing sites that closely mimic their bank's real login page. What browser security feature would have been most effective at preventing this specific issue?

Explanation

A properly functioning password manager ties saved credentials to the exact domain they were created for and will not autofill them on a different, look-alike domain, directly preventing credential theft on phishing sites. A pop-up blocker, private browsing, and clearing cache don't verify domain identity and wouldn't prevent autofill on a convincing fake site.

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16. A technician needs to deploy Windows to 200 new identical desktops overnight with minimal individual interaction, using a single reference image pushed over the network from a deployment server. Which type of installation best fits this requirement?

Explanation

Zero-touch deployment uses deployment infrastructure to push an image to many machines automatically with no technician interaction at each device, matching the overnight, large-scale, minimal-interaction requirement. A USB clean install and repair installation both require per-machine interaction, and an in-place upgrade preserves the existing OS rather than deploying a fresh image.

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17. Match each data destruction or disposal method to the situation it fits best.

Explanation

Shredding physically destroys drives into unusable fragments, degaussing uses a strong magnetic field to erase data without necessarily destroying the drive body, erasing/wiping securely removes data so a drive can be reused, and a certification of destruction is the vendor's formal documentation that destruction occurred.

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18. An organization issuing corporate smartphones wants to ensure that a lost device can be located and, if it can't be recovered, that its data can be erased before it's compromised. Which two mobile hardening features should be configured?

Explanation

A locator application allows the device to be tracked if lost, and remote wipe allows data to be erased if the device cannot be recovered, directly matching both stated requirements. Content filtering, configuration profiles, and failed login restrictions are all valid mobile security measures but don't address locating a lost device or erasing its data.

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19. A company wants to reduce the risk from an ex-employee's account being reused if it wasn't disabled promptly, without adding any new software. Which account management setting should be applied to every user account?

Explanation

Account expiration dates automatically deactivate an account after a set date, limiting the exposure window if offboarding is delayed or missed. A longer password alone doesn't address a lingering active account, and BIOS/UEFI passwords and disabling AutoRun address different risks rather than account lifecycle.

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20. During SOHO malware removal, a technician is about to run a full anti-malware scan and remove detected threats. Which step should have already been completed before starting the removal scan?

Explanation

System Restore must be disabled before remediation so that a restore point doesn't preserve a copy of the infection, which could reinfect the system later if a restore is ever performed. Re-enabling System Restore, educating the user, and scheduling future scans all happen after remediation, not before.

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21. An attacker sends a highly personalized, carefully written email that appears to come from the company's CFO, targeted specifically at the accounts payable manager, requesting an urgent wire transfer. What type of attack is this?

Explanation

Whaling is a targeted phishing attack aimed at a specific high-value individual, often impersonating an executive to pressure another employee into an action like a wire transfer. Shoulder surfing and tailgating are physical-proximity attacks, and an evil twin is a fake wireless access point, none of which match this targeted email scenario.

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22. An organization's files across multiple shared drives are suddenly encrypted, and a note appears demanding payment in cryptocurrency to restore access. Which type of malware caused this?

Explanation

Ransomware encrypts a victim's files and demands payment for the decryption key, exactly matching the described scenario. Spyware secretly collects information, a keylogger records keystrokes, and a rootkit hides its presence at a system level, none of which encrypt files for ransom.

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23. Match each cloud-based productivity need to the correct feature category.

Explanation

Storage sync/folder settings keep files current across devices, identity synchronization lets one set of credentials work across connected cloud services, licensing assignment controls which users have paid access, and videoconferencing is one of the core collaboration tool categories cloud productivity suites provide.

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24. A Linux administrator needs to search recursively through every file in a project directory for the exact string API_KEY to locate where a secret was hardcoded. Which single command, combined with the -r flag, should be used?

Explanation

grep -r searches recursively through file contents for a matching string, exactly what's needed to locate a hardcoded value. find searches by filename rather than content, and cat only displays a file's contents rather than searching across many files.

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25. A user switching from Windows to a Mac wants to both encrypt the contents of their startup drive and keep a continuously updated backup they can restore individual files from later. Which two macOS features should be configured?

Explanation

FileVault provides full-disk encryption for the startup drive, and Time Machine provides continuous, versioned backups that individual files can be restored from. Spotlight is macOS's search feature, Mission Control manages virtual desktops and open windows, and Continuity links Apple devices together, none of which address encryption or backup.

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26. An employee is traveling and connects their laptop to a hotel's Wi-Fi. IT wants the laptop to route all of its internet traffic through the company's network securely so it appears to be on the corporate LAN. Which connection type should be established?

Explanation

A VPN creates an encrypted tunnel back to the corporate network, routing traffic securely and making the remote device appear to be on the corporate LAN. WWAN/cellular is an alternate internet source rather than a secure tunnel, a proxy exception bypasses proxy rules for specific traffic, and a metered connection setting only affects data usage limits.

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27. A user wants Windows to stop showing file extensions like .docx and .jpg next to filenames in File Explorer, since they find it visually cluttered. Which settings location should the technician use?

Explanation

File Explorer Options includes the View tab setting to hide extensions for known file types, directly controlling how filenames are displayed. Indexing Options controls search indexing, Programs and Features manages installed software, and Devices and Printers manages connected hardware.

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28. A technician needs to view the full network configuration of a Windows workstation, including its MAC address, DNS servers, and DHCP lease information, in one command. Which command should be used?

Explanation

ipconfig /all displays comprehensive adapter details including MAC address, DNS servers, and DHCP lease information. Ping tests connectivity, netstat shows active connections, and tracert traces the network path, none of which give a full configuration summary.

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29. A technician needs to review a log of application crash events that occurred overnight on a Windows desktop, including timestamps and error codes, to correlate them with a scheduled update. Which tool should be used?

Explanation

Event Viewer (eventvwr.msc) records detailed application, security, and system events including timestamps and error codes, making it the right tool to correlate crashes with a specific time window. Task Manager shows current running processes, Disk Cleanup frees space, and Resource Monitor shows real-time usage rather than historical logs.

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30. A power user wants to run gpedit.msc to configure local Group Policy on their home computer, but the option isn't available. Which Windows edition are they most likely running?

Explanation

The Local Group Policy Editor (gpedit.msc) is not included in Windows 11 Home; it is available starting with Pro and above. Pro, Enterprise, and Pro for Workstations all include gpedit.msc.

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A technician configuring a new SOHO wireless router wants to prevent...
Match each remote access method to its most relevant security...
A company is drafting its acceptable use policy for an AI writing...
A technician needs to write a simple script on a Windows Server to...
A frustrated customer is venting at length about a recurring printer...
A technician is disposing of several old laptop batteries and a box of...
A critical production server needs an urgent security patch applied...
A user's desktop shows a legitimate-looking pop-up claiming their...
A user reports that their browser now displays a certificate warning...
A user's phone was recently rooted by a previous owner, and now shows...
A user's phone shows a full-screen alert claiming their device is...
A user's phone loses its Wi-Fi connection every time it goes into...
A user's mobile banking app worked fine yesterday but now fails to...
A desktop's performance has been gradually declining over several...
A user's browser has started automatically filling in saved usernames...
A technician needs to deploy Windows to 200 new identical desktops...
Match each data destruction or disposal method to the situation it...
An organization issuing corporate smartphones wants to ensure that a...
A company wants to reduce the risk from an ex-employee's account being...
During SOHO malware removal, a technician is about to run a full...
An attacker sends a highly personalized, carefully written email that...
An organization's files across multiple shared drives are suddenly...
Match each cloud-based productivity need to the correct feature...
A Linux administrator needs to search recursively through every file...
A user switching from Windows to a Mac wants to both encrypt the...
An employee is traveling and connects their laptop to a hotel's Wi-Fi....
A user wants Windows to stop showing file extensions like .docx and...
A technician needs to view the full network configuration of a Windows...
A technician needs to review a log of application crash events that...
A power user wants to run gpedit.msc to configure local Group Policy...
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