CDCs URE Vol 1

1. What test your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?

A rewriting of the main point

A well-written summary

A postscript message

None of the above

2. What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?

2009

2010

2011

2012

3. The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a

Combined force air and space component commander (CFAAC)

Joint force air and space component commander (JFACC)

Component Numbered Air Force (CNAF)

Joint Force Commander (JFC)

4. What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

Coding

Positioning

Tempo Bands

Unit type Code

5. Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?

Misuse of position

Covered relationship

Personal conflict of interest

None, this is not an example of an unethical situation

6. What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System

Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System

Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System

7. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices

Spectrum Operations

Ground Radar Systems

Cable and Antenna Systems

Radio Frequency Transmission

8. What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion

Active and reactive

Evasive and decisive

Subversive and divisive

Offensive and defensive

9. Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

Counterintelligence (CI)

Operation Security (OPSEC)

Military deception (MILDEC)

Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR)

10. What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?

644th Combat Communications Squadron

85th Engineering Installation Squadron

83rd Network Operations Squadron

4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing

11. Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?

Service Transition

Service Strategy

Service Contact

Service Design

12. What information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?

Continual Service Improvement

Service Transition

Service Strategy

Service Design

13. The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to

Safeguard information in an enterprise -wide environment

Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment

Improve the effectiveness of the mission

Improve the efficiency of the mission

14. Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?

Article 32

Article 40

Article 92

Article 100

15. How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?

Two

Four

Six

Eight

16. What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force

Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force

Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force

Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force

17. Which document is NOT considered an official government record?

Published doctrines

Geographical base maps

Photographs of a retreat ceremony

Library reference or museum exhibitions

18. Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?

Base records manager

Chief of Office of records

Command records manager

Functional area records manager

19. Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense

The President

The Chief of Staff

The Vice President

The Deputy Secretary

20. What department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems shall receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher awareness?

DODD 8140.01

DODD 5515.01

DODD 8220.01

DODD 8570.01

21. What Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that you can modify to fit the circumstances?

Directive

Non-Directive

Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM)

Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)

22. What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not subject to frequent change?

AF Doctrine

AF Handbook (AFH)

AF Pamphlet (AFPAM)

AF Visual Aid (AFVA)

23. What publications are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, and/or regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities?

Air Force Instructions (AFI)

Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD)

Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD)

Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPD)

24. What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)?

Air Force Instructions (AFI)

Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)

Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD)

Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM)

25. What directive publications provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws?

Air Force Instructions (AFI)

Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD)

Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD)

Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM)

26. Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00-5-1

Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures

Resources required to manage and use TOs

Infrastructure to manage and use TOs

Training to manage and use TOs

27. What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?

Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS)

Office Automation System (OAS)

Decision Support System (DSS)

Training Business Area (TBA)

28. What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution within an organization?

Library custodian

Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO)

Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA)

Non-Commissioned Officer in Charge (NCOIC)

29. Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices?

Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO)

Operation and Maintenance TO

Methods and Procedures TO

General TO

30. Who develops standards for interconnect, passive an electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

Defense Standardization Program (DSP)

Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)

Information and Communications Technology (ICT)

Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA)

31. Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the process sampled by QA personnel?

Trend Analysis

Quality System

Quality Assessments

Managerial Assessments

32. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

Spectrum Operations

Ground Radar Systems

Cable and Antenna Systems

Radio Frequency Transmission

33. Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

Unit Training Manager (UTM)

Base Functional Manager

Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)

Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)

34. Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

Unit Training Manager (UTM)

Base Functional Manager (BFM)

Major command functional manager (MFM)

Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)

35. Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?

Unit training manager (UTM)

Base functional manager (BFM)

Major command functional manager (MFM)

Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)

36. What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

Unit Training Manager (UTM)

Base functional manager (BFM)

Major command functional manager (MFM)

Air force career field manager (AFCFM)

37. Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?

Modify local training

Allocate manpower

Develop a Career Development Course (CDC)

Assist the unit training manager in course development

38. Which of these is not an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

Quality assessments

Quality Assurance

Quality system

Trend Analysis

39. What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

Manpower

Efficiency

Reduce Costs

Department of Defense 8570 mandate

40. What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?

Management Inspection (MI)

Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)

Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI)

Commander's inspection Program (CCIP)

41. What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

Remedy

Training Business Area

Telephone Management System

Integrated Maintenance Data System

42. The Uniform of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?

Title 3

Title 8

Title 10

Title 18

43. What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage?

Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)

Area Processing Center (APC)

Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)

Network Operations Security Center (NOSC)

44. When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?

Title 10

Title 30

Title 50

Title 52

45. An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as

Misuse of position

Covered relationships

Non-public information

Personal conflict of interest

46. What entity assigns numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups?

Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

Deputy Secretary of Defense and authorized signers

Chief, Manuals Division (MD), under the director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS)

Chief, Directives Division (MD), under the director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS)

47. How many different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI) are there?

One

Two

Three

Four

48. What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?

Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

Weighted Airman promotion system (WAPS)

On-The-Job training (OJT) program

Occupational Analysis Program

49. What type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships and authority?

Direct oversight directives

Secretary Policy memo

Directive-type memo

Chartering directives

50. Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements team (STRT)?

Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM)

Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) in conjunction with the subject matter expert (SME)

MFM in conjunction with the subject matter expert (SME)

AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM

51. What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

Conduct climate surveys

Develop Career Development Courses

Review the occupational analysis report

Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

52. Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

Technical Evaluation

Personnel Evaluation

Managerial Evaluation

Standard Evaluation

53. What directive publication prescribes the mission, area of responsibility, organization and relationships of MAJCOMs, FOAs, and DRUs with their respective units?

Air Force Instructions (AFI)

Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD)

Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD)

Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM)

54. Records that are considered to be in draft format

Can be altered and are not officially released

Can't be altered, but are officially released

Can't be altered and are officially signed

Officially signed and officially released

55. What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?

Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF)

Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF)

Unit type codes (UTC)

Stratum Levels (SL)

56. What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?

Subordinate unified command and geographical command

Unified command and subordinate unified command

Functional command and geographical command

Unified command and functional command

57. How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a Sharepoint Server?

One

Two

Three

Four

58. What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

Title 10

Title 18

Title 32

Title 50

59. What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?

Strategic Considerations

Military Strategic Framework

Implementation and Assessment

Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance

60. Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Air Force Training Program

Core Task

Duty Competency

Core Competency

Duty Position Task

61. Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?

Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)

Area Processing Center (APC)

Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)

Network Operations Security Center (NOSC)

62. What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?

JP 6-0, Joint Communications System

JP 5-0, Joint Communications System

JP 5-0, Joint Operation Planning

JP 6-0, Joint Operations Series

63. Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data?

Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA)

Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO)

Library custodian

Any user

64. What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?

Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System

Air Force Cyber Security and Control system

Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System

65. Which agency is responsible fro matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure

Defense Industrial Base (DIB)

Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)

National Reconnaissance Office (NRO)

Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)

66. Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an "official government record?"

AFI 33-321

AFI 33-322

AFI 33-329

AFI 33-332

67. Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

Base records manager

Command records manager

Chief of the Office of Records

Functional area records manager

68. Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?

Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System

Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System

Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

69. Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

Unit training manager (UTM)

Base functional manager (BFM)

Major command functional manager (MFM)

Air force career field manager (AFCFM)

70. Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?

National Security Policy

National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace

Comprehensive National Cyberspace Initiative

National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations

71. Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within a Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?

Base records manager

Chief of Office of Records

Command records manager

Functional area records manager

72. What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)

Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System

Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System

73. Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?

Base records manager

Chief of Office of Records

Command records manager

Functional area records manager

74. What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?

Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

Air Force Cyberspace Defense weapon System

Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System

75. What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United states to secure cyberspace?

National Military Cyberspace Strategy

National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace

National Military Strategy for Cyberspace

National Military Strategy to secure Cyberspace

76. What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?

National Security Policy

National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace

Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative

National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations

77. What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?

Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System

Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System

Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

CDCs Ure Vol 1

1. What test your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?

3. The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a

4. What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

5. Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?

6. What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

7. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices

8. What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion

9. Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

10. What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?

11. Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?

12. What information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?

13. The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to

14. Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?

15. How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?

16. What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

17. Which document is NOT considered an official government record?

18. Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?

19. Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense

20. What department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems shall receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher awareness?

21. What Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that you can modify to fit the circumstances?

22. What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not subject to frequent change?

23. What publications are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, and/or regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities?

24. What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)?

25. What directive publications provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws?

26. Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00-5-1

27. What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?

28. What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution within an organization?

29. Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices?

30. Who develops standards for interconnect, passive an electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

31. Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the process sampled by QA personnel?

32. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

33. Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

34. Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

35. Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?

36. What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

37. Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?

38. Which of these is not an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

39. What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

40. What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?

41. What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

42. The Uniform of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?

43. What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage?

44. When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?

45. An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as

46. What entity assigns numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups?

47. How many different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI) are there?

48. What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?

49. What type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships and authority?

50. Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements team (STRT)?

51. What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

52. Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

53. What directive publication prescribes the mission, area of responsibility, organization and relationships of MAJCOMs, FOAs, and DRUs with their respective units?

54. Records that are considered to be in draft format

55. What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?

56. What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?

57. How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a Sharepoint Server?

58. What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

59. What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?

60. Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Air Force Training Program

61. Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?

62. What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?

63. Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data?

64. What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?

65. Which agency is responsible fro matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure

66. Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an "official government record?"

67. Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

68. Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?

69. Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

70. Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?

71. Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within a Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?

72. What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)

73. Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?

74. What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?

75. What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United states to secure cyberspace?

76. What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?

77. What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?