Vol 2. Aircrew Personal Protective Equipment

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Vol 2. Aircrew Personal Protective Equipment - Quiz

WARNING!:� This Quiz was created for the intent and purpose of studying and testing current knowledge. � For personal use only, use in your own risk. � Not intended to replace WAPS material or for the use of upgrade training. � There is 95 questions in this test, GOOD LUCK!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What toque value, if any, do you apply to the helmet's integrated chin and nape straps (ICNS) screws?

    • A.

      7+- 1inch pounds

    • B.

      10+- 1 inc pounds

    • C.

      13+-1 inch pounds

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    C. 13+-1 inch pounds
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 13+-1 inch pounds. This means that a torque value of 13 inch pounds should be applied to the helmet's integrated chin and nape straps (ICNS) screws, with a tolerance of plus or minus 1 inch pound. This ensures that the screws are tightened to the appropriate level, providing secure fastening without being too loose or too tight.

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  • 2. 

    What do you use to prevent the lightweight visor assembly from rotating of the back of the HGU-55?P helmet shell?

    • A.

      Visor straps

    • B.

      Two lens stops

    • C.

      Two track stops

    • D.

      Gray leather sewn to the helmet

    Correct Answer
    B. Two lens stops
    Explanation
    Two lens stops are used to prevent the lightweight visor assembly from rotating off the back of the HGU-55P helmet shell. These stops act as barriers, limiting the movement of the visor assembly and ensuring that it stays securely in place. The lens stops are designed to provide stability and prevent any unwanted rotation or displacement of the visor assembly during use.

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  • 3. 

    Pilot are not authorized to use the high-contrast visor (HCV) on the HGU-55/P series flyer's helmet in which aircraft?

    • A.

      T-6A

    • B.

      T-37

    • C.

      T-38

    • D.

      F-16

    Correct Answer
    A. T-6A
    Explanation
    The pilots are not authorized to use the high-contrast visor (HCV) on the HGU-55/P series flyer's helmet in the T-6A aircraft.

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  • 4. 

    Which light weight visor assembly used on the HGU-55 series helmet has a vicosity from 25 to 15 percent color shade?

    • A.

      Gradient

    • B.

      Neutral Gray

    • C.

      High Contrast

    • D.

      Laser Eye protection

    Correct Answer
    A. Gradient
    Explanation
    A gradient visor assembly is a light weight visor assembly used on the HGU-55 series helmet that has a viscosity from 25 to 15 percent color shade. This means that the visor has a gradual transition of color, starting from 25 percent shade at one end and gradually decreasing to 15 percent shade at the other end. This allows for better visibility and protection against varying light conditions, as the visor can adapt to different levels of brightness.

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  • 5. 

    What measurments do you take of the aircrew member's head prior to selecting an HGU-55/P helmet size for fitting?

    • A.

      Hat size and hair depth

    • B.

      Head length and depth

    • C.

      Head length and breadth

    • D.

      Head cirumference and radius

    Correct Answer
    C. Head length and breadth
    Explanation
    Prior to selecting an HGU-55/P helmet size for fitting, the measurements taken of the aircrew member's head include head length and breadth. These measurements are essential in determining the appropriate helmet size that will provide a comfortable and secure fit for the aircrew member.

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  • 6. 

    What is the purpose of the thermoplastic liner (TPL) fitting caps?

    • A.

      Acts as a template for trimming

    • B.

      Permits even heating of the layers

    • C.

      Compress the thermoplastic layers during fitting

    • D.

      Simulates the thickness of the foam in the TPL removable cover

    Correct Answer
    D. Simulates the thickness of the foam in the TPL removable cover
    Explanation
    The purpose of the thermoplastic liner (TPL) fitting caps is to simulate the thickness of the foam in the TPL removable cover. This means that the caps provide a representation of the foam's thickness, allowing for accurate fitting and alignment of the TPL. By using the fitting caps, practitioners can ensure that the TPL is properly positioned and that the final product will provide the desired level of support and comfort.

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  • 7. 

    To what temperature do you heat the thermoplastic liner (TPL) layers in the oven?

    • A.

      199 Degree F

    • B.

      200 Degrees F

    • C.

      212 Degrees F

    • D.

      220 Degrees F

    Correct Answer
    A. 199 Degree F
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 199 Degree F. This temperature is the specific heat required to heat the thermoplastic liner (TPL) layers in the oven. Heating the TPL layers at this temperature ensures that they reach the desired level of softness and flexibility without causing any damage or distortion to the material.

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  • 8. 

    What is the brow line offset to center eye position for a properly fitted HGU-55 series hemet?

    • A.

      1+- 1/4 inch

    • B.

      1+- 1/2 inch

    • C.

      2+- 1/4 inches

    • D.

      2+-1/2 inches

    Correct Answer
    C. 2+- 1/4 inches
    Explanation
    The proper brow line offset to center eye position for a properly fitted HGU-55 series helmet is 2+- 1/4 inches. This means that the brow line of the helmet should be positioned approximately 2 inches above the center of the wearer's eyes, with a tolerance of plus or minus 1/4 inch. This offset is important for ensuring proper fit and alignment of the helmet, which is crucial for comfort and safety during use.

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  • 9. 

    When you finalize the fit of the themoplastic liner (TPL) to the wearer, use white correction fluid to mark the liner by putting

    • A.

      One dot on the front and back

    • B.

      Two dots on the fron and back

    • C.

      One dot in front, two in back

    • D.

      Two dots in front, one in back

    Correct Answer
    D. Two dots in front, one in back
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to put two dots in front and one dot in the back. This is because it allows for easy identification and alignment of the thermoplastic liner (TPL) during the fitting process. By placing two dots in front, it ensures that the liner is properly positioned on the wearer's forehead. The dot in the back helps to ensure that the liner is aligned with the back of the head. This marking system provides clear guidance for accurately fitting the TPL to the wearer.

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  • 10. 

    A Zetaliner reduces the wearer’s skin temperature up to

    • A.

      1.5°F

    • B.

      2.5°F.

    • C.

      3.5°F.

    • D.

      4.5°F

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.5°F
    Explanation
    A Zetaliner is designed to reduce the wearer's skin temperature. The given answer of 1.5°F suggests that wearing a Zetaliner can lower the skin temperature by this amount. This indicates that the product is effective in cooling the wearer and providing a comfortable experience.

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  • 11. 

    How many thicknesses does the Zetaliner come in?

    • A.

      2.

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    C. 4
    Explanation
    The Zetaliner comes in 4 different thicknesses.

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  • 12. 

    For which type of inspections on flight helmets are aircrew flight equipment personnel responsible?

    • A.

      Before issuance and periodic

    • B.

      180-day and before issuance.

    • C.

      Post flight and 180-day

    • D.

      Preflight and 120-day

    Correct Answer
    D. Preflight and 120-day
    Explanation
    Aircrew flight equipment personnel are responsible for conducting preflight inspections and inspections every 120 days on flight helmets. These inspections ensure that the helmets are in proper working condition and meet safety standards before each flight. The 120-day inspection is conducted regularly to ensure that the helmets continue to meet safety requirements over time.

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  • 13. 

    What do you use to clean the lightweight visors lenses on the HGU–55/P helmet?

    • A.

      Household detergent and water.

    • B.

      Ammonia window cleaner

    • C.

      Anti-fog solution

    • D.

      Isopropyl alcohol

    Correct Answer
    D. Isopropyl alcohol
    Explanation
    Isopropyl alcohol is the correct answer because it is commonly used to clean lenses and is effective in removing dirt, smudges, and fingerprints. It evaporates quickly and leaves no residue, making it suitable for cleaning lightweight visor lenses on the HGU-55/P helmet. Household detergent and water may not be as effective in removing stubborn stains or debris, while ammonia window cleaner may be too harsh and potentially damage the lenses. Anti-fog solution is designed to prevent fogging rather than clean the lenses.

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  • 14. 

    You secure the nape strap pad to the helmet shell on the HGU–56/P helmet by using

    • A.

      A capped T-nut and pan head screws

    • B.

      A hook and pile fasteners

    • C.

      Elastic keepers

    • D.

      A nylon cord

    Correct Answer
    D. A nylon cord
    Explanation
    The nape strap pad is secured to the helmet shell on the HGU-56/P helmet by using a nylon cord. This cord is likely threaded through designated holes or loops on both the nape strap pad and the helmet shell, creating a secure attachment. The use of a nylon cord ensures that the nape strap pad is firmly and reliably fastened to the helmet, providing necessary support and protection during use.

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  • 15. 

    The HGU–56/P helmet is constructed of what material?

    • A.

      High pressure laminated Kevlar cloth.

    • B.

      Polyester laminated graphite

    • C.

      Carbon fiber and epoxy resin.

    • D.

      Graphite and polyethylene

    Correct Answer
    D. Graphite and polyethylene
    Explanation
    The HGU-56/P helmet is constructed of graphite and polyethylene. This combination of materials provides a strong and lightweight helmet. Graphite is known for its high strength and stiffness, while polyethylene is a lightweight and flexible material. The use of these materials ensures that the helmet can provide adequate protection while still being comfortable for the wearer.

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  • 16. 

    The communication earplugs (CEP) attach to the HGU–56/P helmet shell by a connector on the

    • A.

      Right front.

    • B.

      Left front

    • C.

      Right rear.

    • D.

      Left rear.

    Correct Answer
    C. Right rear.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "right rear." The communication earplugs (CEP) are attached to the HGU-56/P helmet shell using a connector on the right rear. This means that the earplugs are connected to the back of the helmet on the right side.

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  • 17. 

    What is located on the external frame assembly of the EEU–2/P goggles and allows for a self-check of the goggles’ operation?

    • A.

      Phototransistors

    • B.

      Moisture indicator.

    • C.

      Rotary switch knob.

    • D.

      A pres-to-test actuator

    Correct Answer
    D. A pres-to-test actuator
    Explanation
    The correct answer for this question is a pres-to-test actuator. The pres-to-test actuator is located on the external frame assembly of the EEU-2/P goggles and allows for a self-check of the goggles' operation. This actuator is used to initiate a self-test function that checks the functionality of the goggles, ensuring that they are working properly. It is an important feature that allows users to verify the operational status of the goggles before use.

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  • 18. 

    On the EEU–2/P goggles, approximately what percentage of ambient light is allowed to pass through the analyzer in the open mode?

    • A.

      10 percent

    • B.

      20 percent

    • C.

      40 percent

    • D.

      50 percent

    Correct Answer
    B. 20 percent
    Explanation
    On the EEU-2/P goggles, approximately 20 percent of ambient light is allowed to pass through the analyzer in the open mode. This means that the goggles will block around 80 percent of the ambient light, providing a significant reduction in brightness and glare. This level of light transmission allows for better visibility and protection in bright environments while still allowing some light to pass through for improved vision.

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  • 19. 

    The image produced by the image intensifier tube (ITT) is focused onto the

    • A.

      Micro channel plate

    • B.

      Phosphor screen

    • C.

      Objective lens.

    • D.

      Diopter lens

    Correct Answer
    D. Diopter lens
    Explanation
    The image produced by the image intensifier tube (ITT) is focused onto the diopter lens. The diopter lens is responsible for adjusting the focus of the image, ensuring that it appears clear and sharp to the viewer. It helps to correct any visual impairments or refractive errors, allowing the viewer to see the image with clarity.

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  • 20. 

    Which adjustment control on the AN/AVS–9(V) binocular assembly do you use to adjust line of sight?

    • A.

      Tilt

    • B.

      Vertical

    • C.

      Eye span

    • D.

      Fore and aft

    Correct Answer
    A. Tilt
    Explanation
    The tilt adjustment control on the AN/AVS-9(V) binocular assembly is used to adjust the line of sight. This control allows the user to tilt the binoculars up or down, aligning the line of sight with the desired target. By adjusting the tilt, the user can ensure that the binoculars are properly aligned and provide an accurate view of the target.

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  • 21. 

    Which visual defect is an irregular pattern of dark thin lines in the field of view of night vision goggles?

    • A.

      Shading

    • B.

      Chiken Wire

    • C.

      Honeycombing

    • D.

      Fixed pattern noise

    Correct Answer
    B. Chiken Wire
    Explanation
    Chicken wire is a term used to describe an irregular pattern of dark thin lines that can appear in the field of view of night vision goggles. This visual defect is caused by the design of the image intensifier tube in the goggles, which consists of a grid-like structure resembling chicken wire. This grid pattern can sometimes be visible in the image produced by the goggles, creating the appearance of dark thin lines.

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  • 22. 

    The interpupillary distance (IPD) adjustment control on the AN/AVS–9(V) night vision goggles adjust the distance between the eyes. What is the widest eye span setting you can make using the IPD?

    • A.

      50 mm

    • B.

      62 mm

    • C.

      72mm

    • D.

      75mm

    Correct Answer
    C. 72mm
    Explanation
    The interpupillary distance (IPD) adjustment control on the AN/AVS-9(V) night vision goggles allows for adjusting the distance between the eyes. The question asks for the widest eye span setting that can be made using the IPD. The correct answer is 72mm, indicating that the IPD adjustment control can be set to a maximum width of 72mm, providing a wider eye span for the user.

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  • 23. 

    During the leak test, how much pressure do you apply to the goggle monocular?

    • A.

      2 ± ½ psi of oxygen

    • B.

      3 ± ½ psi of oxygen

    • C.

      2 ± ½ psi of nitrogen.

    • D.

      3 ± ½ psi of nitrogen

    Correct Answer
    D. 3 ± ½ psi of nitrogen
    Explanation
    During the leak test, the correct pressure to apply to the goggle monocular is 3 ± ½ psi of nitrogen. This is because nitrogen is commonly used for leak testing due to its inert properties and availability. Applying this specific pressure range ensures that the goggle monocular is tested for any leaks effectively, without causing any damage or exceeding the acceptable pressure limits.

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  • 24. 

    What wattage light bulb do you use for a night vision goggle (NVG) test lane?

    • A.

      5 watt

    • B.

      7 watt

    • C.

      20 watt

    • D.

      40 watt.

    Correct Answer
    B. 7 watt
    Explanation
    A 7 watt light bulb is used for a night vision goggle (NVG) test lane because it provides a sufficient amount of light without being too bright. Night vision goggles amplify existing light, so using a higher wattage bulb could potentially overwhelm the goggles and cause them to not function properly. A 7 watt bulb strikes a balance between providing enough light for testing purposes while still being compatible with the night vision technology.

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  • 25. 

    What degrees horizontal is the field of view (FOV) for the AN/AVS–10(V) Panoramic Night Vision Goggles (PNVG)?

    • A.

      40

    • B.

      60.

    • C.

      95

    • D.

      170

    Correct Answer
    C. 95
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 95. The field of view (FOV) for the AN/AVS-10(V) Panoramic Night Vision Goggles (PNVG) is 95 degrees horizontal. This means that when wearing these goggles, the user can see a wide range of their surroundings, spanning almost 100 degrees from left to right. This wide FOV allows for enhanced situational awareness and improved visibility in low-light conditions.

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  • 26. 

    What size image intensifier tubes (ITT) is used on the AN/AVS–10(V) Panoramic Night Vision Goggles (PNVG)?

    • A.

      15 mm

    • B.

      16 mm

    • C.

      25 mm.

    • D.

      26 mm

    Correct Answer
    B. 16 mm
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 16 mm. The AN/AVS-10(V) Panoramic Night Vision Goggles (PNVG) use 16 mm image intensifier tubes (ITT).

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  • 27. 

    Aircrew laser eye protection (ALEP) devices are designed to protect against

    • A.

      Laser radiation transmitted through visible wavelengths

    • B.

      Laser radiation transmitted through invisible wavelengths

    • C.

      Specific laser radiation transmitted through both visible and invisible wavelengths

    • D.

      Unspecific laser radiation transmitted through both visible and invisible wavelengths

    Correct Answer
    C. Specific laser radiation transmitted through both visible and invisible wavelengths
    Explanation
    ALEP devices are specifically designed to protect against laser radiation that is transmitted through both visible and invisible wavelengths. This means that the devices are able to block laser radiation across a wide range of wavelengths, ensuring the safety of the aircrew members' eyes. By providing protection against specific laser radiation, the ALEP devices help to minimize the risk of eye damage or injury caused by laser exposure during flight operations.

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  • 28. 

    In a cool, dry space.

    • A.

      In a cool, dry space.

    • B.

      In a hazards material locker.

    • C.

      A locked storage container

    • D.

      An unlocked storage area for easy access.

    Correct Answer
    C. A locked storage container
    Explanation
    A locked storage container is the best option for storing something in a cool, dry space. A locked container ensures that the item is secure and protected from theft or unauthorized access. Additionally, a locked container provides an extra layer of protection against environmental factors such as moisture or humidity that could potentially damage the item. Therefore, storing the item in a locked storage container in a cool, dry space is the most suitable choice.

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  • 29. 

    You can verify delamination in aircrew laser eye protection (ALEP) glasses by carefully looking through the spectacle lenses from a distance of about

    • A.

      6 inches

    • B.

      1 foot.

    • C.

      2 feet

    • D.

      3 feet

    Correct Answer
    B. 1 foot.
    Explanation
    To verify delamination in ALEP glasses, one needs to carefully look through the spectacle lenses. Delamination refers to the separation of layers in the glass, which can cause distortion or haziness. By examining the lenses from a distance of 1 foot, any signs of delamination such as bubbles, cracks, or separation between layers can be easily identified. This distance allows for a close inspection while still providing a clear view of the lenses.

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  • 30. 

    How are aircrew laser eye protection (ALEP) devices fitted on the individual?

    • A.

      As far from the face as possible to maximize the area of protected vision.

    • B.

      As close to the face as possible to maximize the area of protected vision.

    • C.

      As far from the face as possible to decrease the area of protected vision

    • D.

      As close to the face as possible to narrow the area of protected vision

    Correct Answer
    B. As close to the face as possible to maximize the area of protected vision.
    Explanation
    Aircrew laser eye protection (ALEP) devices are fitted as close to the face as possible to maximize the area of protected vision. By placing the devices close to the face, they can provide a wider coverage and protect the eyes from laser beams coming from various angles. This positioning ensures that the eyes are shielded effectively and minimizes the risk of any exposure to harmful laser radiation.

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  • 31. 

    Which component is not within the helmet display unit (HDU) of the Joint Helmet Mounted Cueing System (JHMCS)?

    • A.

      Automatic brightness control (ABC).

    • B.

      Helmet vehicle interface (HVI).

    • C.

      Magnetic receiver unit (MRU).

    • D.

      Cathode ray tube (CRT).

    Correct Answer
    B. Helmet vehicle interface (HVI).
    Explanation
    The helmet display unit (HDU) of the Joint Helmet Mounted Cueing System (JHMCS) includes various components that provide information to the pilot. These components typically include automatic brightness control (ABC), magnetic receiver unit (MRU), and cathode ray tube (CRT). However, the helmet vehicle interface (HVI) is not a component within the HDU.

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  • 32. 

    What causes the density of the atmosphere to rise and fall?

    • A.

      Chemical content

    • B.

      Pollution

    • C.

      Altitude

    • D.

      Water

    Correct Answer
    C. Altitude
    Explanation
    The density of the atmosphere rises and falls due to changes in altitude. As altitude increases, the atmospheric pressure decreases, causing the air molecules to spread out and resulting in lower density. Conversely, at lower altitudes, the atmospheric pressure increases, causing the air molecules to compress and resulting in higher density. Therefore, altitude is the main factor that causes variations in the density of the atmosphere.

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  • 33. 

    The pressure exerted by the atmosphere at high altitudes is

    • A.

      Dependent on the barometric and isometric pressures

    • B.

      Greater near the surface of the earth

    • C.

      Less near the surface of the earth

    • D.

      Unchanged.

    Correct Answer
    B. Greater near the surface of the earth
    Explanation
    The pressure exerted by the atmosphere at high altitudes is greater near the surface of the earth. This is because the weight of the air above exerts a force on the air below, creating higher pressure at lower altitudes. As altitude increases, the weight of the air above decreases, resulting in lower pressure. Therefore, the pressure is greatest near the surface of the earth and decreases as you move higher in altitude.

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  • 34. 

    How can a pilot relieve symptoms of decompression sickness (evolved gases)?

    • A.

      Descend to a lower altitude

    • B.

      Pre-breathe 100 percent oxygen.

    • C.

      Yawn or swallow, or pass gas through body orifices.

    • D.

      Hold breath, then inhale and exhale slowly for 10 minutes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Descend to a lower altitude
    Explanation
    If a pilot is experiencing symptoms of decompression sickness, descending to a lower altitude can help relieve these symptoms. Decompression sickness occurs when there is a rapid decrease in pressure, causing gases in the body to expand and form bubbles. By descending to a lower altitude, the pressure on the body decreases, allowing these bubbles to shrink and alleviate symptoms. This is a commonly recommended action for pilots who experience decompression sickness during flight.

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  • 35. 

    What is the maximum charge of a low-pressure storage cylinder?

    • A.

      250 psi

    • B.

      400 psi.

    • C.

      450 psi

    • D.

      475 psi

    Correct Answer
    C. 450 psi
    Explanation
    The maximum charge of a low-pressure storage cylinder is 450 psi. This means that the cylinder can hold a maximum pressure of 450 pounds per square inch. It is important to not exceed this pressure limit as it can lead to potential safety hazards and damage to the cylinder.

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  • 36. 

    The demand oxygen system provides sufficient oxygen for flights up to a maximum altitude of

    • A.

      25,000 feet

    • B.

      30,000 feet.

    • C.

      35,000 feet

    • D.

      40,000 feet

    Correct Answer
    C. 35,000 feet
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 35,000 feet. The demand oxygen system is designed to provide enough oxygen for flights up to this altitude. This system ensures that the crew and passengers have an adequate oxygen supply to breathe at higher altitudes where the air is thinner and oxygen levels are lower.

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  • 37. 

    How many ways are there to provide sufficient pressure in the lungs?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    There are two ways to provide sufficient pressure in the lungs. One way is through the natural process of breathing, where the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract to expand the lungs, creating a pressure difference that allows air to flow in. The second way is through artificial means such as using a mechanical ventilator, which delivers pressurized air into the lungs to assist with breathing.

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  • 38. 

    What type of thread do you use to tack the buckles on the MBU–12/P strap and buckle assembly to prevent movement?

    • A.

      Size E nylon

    • B.

      Type IVB, 8/7 waxed.

    • C.

      Type IVB, 8/4 unwaxed

    • D.

      Type IVB, 8/4 double-waxed.

    Correct Answer
    D. Type IVB, 8/4 double-waxed.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Type IVB, 8/4 double-waxed. This type of thread is used to tack the buckles on the MBU-12/P strap and buckle assembly to prevent movement. The double-waxed coating provides added durability and strength to the thread, making it suitable for securing the buckles tightly in place.

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  • 39. 

    How often do you wash and disinfect the MBU–12/P mask?

    • A.

      Every 30 days

    • B.

      Every 60 days

    • C.

      Every 90 days

    • D.

      Every 120 days

    Correct Answer
    A. Every 30 days
    Explanation
    The MBU-12/P mask should be washed and disinfected every 30 days. This is important to maintain the cleanliness and effectiveness of the mask. Regular cleaning and disinfection help to remove any dirt, debris, or contaminants that may have accumulated on the mask. By following this schedule, the mask can continue to provide proper protection and ensure the safety of the wearer.

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  • 40. 

    How are the straps attached to the MBU–12/P oxygen mask

    • A.

      With capped T-nut and a self-locking screw

    • B.

      With flanged T-nut and star washers.

    • C.

      With stainless still screws.

    • D.

      With strap fasteners

    Correct Answer
    A. With capped T-nut and a self-locking screw
    Explanation
    The straps of the MBU-12/P oxygen mask are attached using a capped T-nut and a self-locking screw. This method ensures a secure and reliable attachment of the straps to the mask, preventing them from coming loose during use. The capped T-nut provides stability and support, while the self-locking screw ensures that the straps remain securely fastened. This attachment mechanism is designed to withstand the rigors of use in high-pressure oxygen environments, making it a suitable choice for the MBU-12/P oxygen mask.

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  • 41. 

    What is the length of the MBU–12/P oxygen mask hose?

    • A.

      12 inches

    • B.

      17½ inches

    • C.

      19½ inches

    • D.

      24 inches

    Correct Answer
    B. 17½ inches
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 17½ inches. The length of the MBU-12/P oxygen mask hose is 17½ inches.

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  • 42. 

    The silicone face piece of the 358–1506V, folding quick-don mask, attaches to the hard shell with

    • A.

      Rivets.

    • B.

      Set screws

    • C.

      A receiver assembly

    • D.

      A suspension assembly

    Correct Answer
    C. A receiver assembly
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a receiver assembly. The silicone face piece of the folding quick-don mask attaches to the hard shell using a receiver assembly. This assembly is designed to securely hold the face piece in place and ensure a proper fit for the user. It allows for easy attachment and detachment of the face piece when needed.

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  • 43. 

    When you clean the quick-don mask, do not use water hotter than

    • A.

      100°F

    • B.

      120°F

    • C.

      130°F

    • D.

      140°F.

    Correct Answer
    D. 140°F.
    Explanation
    When cleaning the quick-don mask, it is advised not to use water hotter than 140°F. This temperature limit is likely because water hotter than 140°F can potentially damage the mask or its components. Using water at a lower temperature ensures that the mask is effectively cleaned without causing any harm.

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  • 44. 

    How is the Scott 358 series folding quick don mask assembly secured to the wearer’s face

    • A.

      With spring loaded telescopic mounts on the suspension assembly.

    • B.

      With the attached harness strap assembly

    • C.

      With the attachment of four capped T-nuts

    • D.

      With two helmet bayonets.

    Correct Answer
    A. With spring loaded telescopic mounts on the suspension assembly.
    Explanation
    The Scott 358 series folding quick don mask assembly is secured to the wearer's face with spring loaded telescopic mounts on the suspension assembly. These mounts provide a secure and adjustable fit, allowing the mask to be comfortably worn by the wearer. The spring loaded feature ensures that the mask stays in place during use and can be easily adjusted as needed. This method of securing the mask to the face is effective and reliable, making it a suitable choice for the Scott 358 series mask.

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  • 45. 

    When aircrew members use the pressure demand regulator, they can use the fire fighters’ smoke mask at altitude up to

    • A.

      20,000 feet

    • B.

      30,000 feet

    • C.

      40,000 feet.

    • D.

      50,000 feet

    Correct Answer
    C. 40,000 feet.
    Explanation
    When aircrew members use the pressure demand regulator, they can use the fire fighters' smoke mask at altitudes up to 40,000 feet. This means that the pressure demand regulator is capable of providing enough oxygen to the aircrew members at this altitude, allowing them to use the smoke mask effectively.

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  • 46. 

    How many mask adjustment points are on the fire fighters’ smoke mask?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    C. 5
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 5 because there are five mask adjustment points on the fire fighters' smoke mask. These adjustment points allow the fire fighters to customize the fit of the mask to their face, ensuring a secure and comfortable fit. Having multiple adjustment points is important as it allows for a more precise fit and reduces the chances of any gaps or leaks that could compromise the effectiveness of the mask in protecting against smoke and other hazardous substances.

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  • 47. 

    How many inhalation valves are located on the fire fighters’ smoke mask?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3 because fire fighters' smoke masks typically have three inhalation valves. These valves allow the fire fighters to breathe in fresh air while filtering out harmful smoke and toxins. Having multiple valves ensures that the fire fighters have a continuous supply of clean air even in challenging and smoky environments.

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  • 48. 

    The breathing valve body of the passenger oxygen mask purpose is to

    • A.

      Eliminate ambient air

    • B.

      Store incoming oxygen.

    • C.

      Allow the use of chlorate candles.

    • D.

      Provide an anchor for the head strap

    Correct Answer
    D. Provide an anchor for the head strap
    Explanation
    The purpose of the breathing valve body of the passenger oxygen mask is to provide an anchor for the head strap. This means that the valve body is designed to hold the head strap in place, ensuring that the mask stays securely attached to the passenger's face during use. This is important for the mask to effectively deliver oxygen to the passenger in case of an emergency situation.

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  • 49. 

    What is the maximum inspection interval for passenger oxygen masks that are used in a non-fixed environment?

    • A.

      30 days

    • B.

      60 days.

    • C.

      90 days

    • D.

      180 days

    Correct Answer
    C. 90 days
    Explanation
    The maximum inspection interval for passenger oxygen masks used in a non-fixed environment is 90 days. This means that these masks should be inspected at least once every 90 days to ensure their functionality and safety. Regular inspections are necessary to identify any potential issues or malfunctions that could compromise the effectiveness of the oxygen masks in case of an emergency. By adhering to this inspection interval, airlines can ensure that the passenger oxygen masks are in proper working condition and ready to be used if needed.

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  • 50. 

    You can determine that the protective breathing equipment (PBE) is unserviceable when the

    • A.

      Viewing window is blue

    • B.

      Viewing window is pink.

    • C.

      Moisture indicator reads 30 percent.

    • D.

      Moisture indicator reads 50 percent

    Correct Answer
    B. Viewing window is pink.
    Explanation
    The viewing window of the protective breathing equipment (PBE) turning pink indicates that it is unserviceable. The color change is likely due to a chemical reaction or damage to the equipment, indicating that it may not provide the necessary protection in emergency situations. The moisture indicator readings do not necessarily indicate the serviceability of the PBE, so they are not the correct answer.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 24, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    5674VIRELL
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