David T Prep Vcp5 Test

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  • 1/288 Questions

    When deploying an OVF template, the resulting virtual disk is created in what file format?

    • A. OVF
    • B. VMDK
    • C. VMX
    • D. VSWP
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David T Prep Vcp5 Test - Quiz
About This Quiz

The 'David T Prep VCP5 Test' is designed to evaluate skills in managing VMware vSphere environments, specifically ESXi 5. X hosts. It assesses knowledge in VM performance optimization, resource management, fault tolerance, host profile application, and IP allocation policies, crucial for effective virtualization management.


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  • 2. 

    An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service. What three options are available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)

    • A. Transient

    • B. Fixed

    • C. DHCP

    • D. Bridged

    • E. NAT

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. A. Transient
    A. B. Fixed
    A. C. DHCP
    Explanation
    The administrator has three options for IP allocation within the vApp: Transient, Fixed, and DHCP.

    - Transient IP allocation means that the IP address is assigned dynamically and can change each time the vApp is powered on or off. This is useful for temporary or short-term deployments.

    - Fixed IP allocation means that the IP address is manually assigned and remains constant even if the vApp is powered on or off. This is useful for long-term or permanent deployments.

    - DHCP IP allocation means that the IP addresses are assigned by a DHCP server within the network. This is useful for automatically assigning and managing IP addresses in a large-scale deployment.

    These options provide flexibility and control over IP allocation within the vApp.

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  • 3. 

    What are two valid Resource settings that can be set at the vApp level? (Chose two.)

    • A. Network

    • B. CPU

    • C. Memory

    • D. Disk

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. B. CPU
    A. C. Memory
    Explanation
    At the vApp level, two valid resource settings that can be set are CPU and Memory. These settings allow users to allocate specific amounts of CPU and memory resources to the vApp, ensuring that it has the necessary computational power and memory capacity to run efficiently. By adjusting these settings, users can optimize the performance of the vApp based on its specific requirements and workload.

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  • 4. 

    An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp.  Which three options are available? (Choose three.) 

    • A. Automatic

    • B. Roaming

    • C. Transient

    • D. DHCP

    • E. Fixed

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. C. Transient
    A. D. DHCP
    A. E. Fixed
    Explanation
    The administrator has the option to choose between three IP allocation policies for the vApp: Transient, DHCP, and Fixed. The Transient option means that IP addresses are allocated to virtual machines within the vApp dynamically, and they can change each time the vApp is powered on. The DHCP option allows the use of a DHCP server to allocate IP addresses to the virtual machines. The Fixed option means that IP addresses are manually assigned to the virtual machines and remain the same even when the vApp is powered off and on again.

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  • 5. 

    Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides linked-clone technology to virtual desktops?

    • A. VMware ACE

    • B. VMware View

    • C. VMware Workstation

    • D. VMware ThinApp

    Correct Answer
    A. B. VMware View
    Explanation
    VMware View is the correct answer because it is a VMware solution that utilizes the security features of vSphere and offers linked-clone technology to virtual desktops. VMware ACE is not the correct answer as it is a separate product that provides secure remote access to virtual machines. VMware Workstation is a desktop virtualization solution for running multiple operating systems on a single machine, and VMware ThinApp is a tool for virtualizing applications.

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  • 6. 

    An administrator has configured a virtual machine using the Emulate IDE mode for the DVD drive. Using the vSphere Client from a remote PC, an administrator wants to connect to a virtual machine and burn a DVD, but is getting error messages in the disk burning application.     What must the administrator do to fix this issue?

    • A. The administrator must use the host DVD drive.

    • B. A DVD cannot be burned from within a virtual machine.

    • C. The administrator must change the DVD mode to Passthrough IDE.

    • D. The administrator must click the Writer checkbox in the DVD settings

    Correct Answer
    A. C. The administrator must change the DVD mode to Passthrough IDE.
    Explanation
    The administrator is getting error messages in the disk burning application because the virtual machine is configured to use Emulate IDE mode for the DVD drive. To fix this issue, the administrator should change the DVD mode to Passthrough IDE. This will allow the virtual machine to directly access the physical DVD drive on the host machine, resolving the error messages and enabling the administrator to burn a DVD.

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  • 7. 

    A group of virtual machines has been deployed using thin disks because of limited storage space availability. The storage team has expressed concern about extensive use of this type of provisioning. At which level can the administrator set an alarm to notify the storage team?

    • A. Datastore

    • B. Virtual Machine

    • C. Host

    • D. Resource Pool

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Datastore
    Explanation
    The administrator can set an alarm at the datastore level to notify the storage team. Since the virtual machines have been deployed using thin disks due to limited storage space availability, the storage team may be concerned about the potential impact on storage resources. By setting an alarm at the datastore level, the administrator can monitor and notify the storage team about any potential issues or limitations related to storage usage.

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  • 8. 

    A company has converted several physical machines to virtual machines but are seeing significant performance issues on the converted machines. The host is configured with sufficient memory and storage does not appear to be a bottleneck. Which metric can be checked to determine if CPU contention exists on an ESXi 5.x host?

    • A. %RUN

    • B. %WAIT

    • C. %USED

    • D. %RDY

    Correct Answer
    A. D. %RDY
    Explanation
    The metric that can be checked to determine if CPU contention exists on an ESXi 5.x host is %RDY. This metric represents the percentage of time a virtual machine is ready to run but is unable to do so because the CPU is busy with other tasks. A high %RDY value indicates that there is contention for CPU resources and can explain the performance issues on the converted machines.

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  • 9. 

    While performing a security check the vSphere administrator finds unassigned AD accounts with vSphere permissions. If the accounts are removed from Active Directory what will happen to any user logged into vCenter with those accounts?

    • A. The vSphere client warns the user they will be logged out in 1 hour.

    • B. The user can remain logged in indefinitely.

    • C. The user is immediately disconnected from vCenter Server and cannot log back in.

    • D. The user can remain logged into vCenter for up to 24 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. The user can remain logged into vCenter for up to 24 hours.
    Explanation
    If the unassigned AD accounts with vSphere permissions are removed from Active Directory, the user logged into vCenter with those accounts will be able to remain logged in for up to 24 hours.

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  • 10. 

    The RDP performance for a virtual machine on an ESXi 5.x host appears to be degraded. What are two possible causes of the problem? (Choose two.)

    • A. The virtual machine has a high Ready value.

    • B. The virtual machine's network adaptor is not configured to Connect at power on.

    • C. The virtual machine's network adaptor is not configured as connected.

    • D. The virtual machine is on a physical network that has become saturated.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. A. The virtual machine has a high Ready value.
    A. D. The virtual machine is on a physical network that has become saturated.
  • 11. 

    In a vSphere HA cluster, what is the maximum number of point-to-point communication links to the slaves does each master maintain?

    • A. 32

    • B. 64

    • C. 512

    • D. 1024

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 32
    Explanation
    In a vSphere HA cluster, each master maintains a maximum of 32 point-to-point communication links to the slaves. This means that the master can communicate with up to 32 slave nodes in the cluster. This limit ensures efficient communication and coordination between the master and the slave nodes for high availability and failover purposes.

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  • 12. 

    Why is converting a virtual machine to a template significantly faster than creating a clone of the virtual machine?

    • A. Making a clone creates a linked-mode virtual disk

    • B. Making a clone creates a full copy of the VMDK file

    • C. Making a clone only creates a copy of the .vmx file

    • D. The template conversion has low priority on the system CPU

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Making a clone creates a full copy of the VMDK file
    Explanation
    Converting a virtual machine to a template is significantly faster than creating a clone because making a clone creates a full copy of the VMDK file. This means that all the data and configurations of the virtual machine are duplicated, resulting in a larger file size and more time required for the cloning process. On the other hand, converting a virtual machine to a template involves creating a reusable template that can be easily deployed multiple times, without the need to duplicate all the data and configurations.

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  • 13. 

    A vSphere environment is created with two virtual machines, VM23 and VM43. Each virtual machine has an instance of the front-end web application for the company's manufacturing management database.  A physical load-balancer is configured for the application.   Which type of DRS rule should be implemented for VM23 and VM43?

    • A. Separate Virtual Machines

    • B. Virtual Machines to Hosts

    • C. Host DRS Groups

    • D. Keep Virtual Machines Together

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Separate Virtual Machines
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A. Separate Virtual Machines. In this scenario, each virtual machine is running an instance of the front-end web application. By implementing the Separate Virtual Machines DRS rule, it ensures that VM23 and VM43 are kept on separate hosts to distribute the load evenly and provide better performance and availability for the application. This rule prevents both virtual machines from being placed on the same host, reducing the risk of a single point of failure.

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  • 14. 

    A user wants to receive an email notification when the virtual machine CPU usage enters a warning state and again when the condition enters a alarm state. Which two state changes must be selected to receive the appropriate notifications? (Choose two.)

    • A. Yellow-red state change

    • B. Red-green state change

    • C. Yellow-green state change

    • D. Green-yellow state change

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. A. Yellow-red state change
    A. D. Green-yellow state change
    Explanation
    To receive email notifications when the virtual machine CPU usage enters a warning state and again when it enters an alarm state, the user must select the Yellow-red state change and the Green-yellow state change. The Yellow-red state change indicates a transition from a warning state (yellow) to an alarm state (red), while the Green-yellow state change indicates a transition from an alarm state (red) back to a warning state (yellow). By selecting these two state changes, the user will receive notifications for both the warning and alarm states.

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  • 15. 

    The page file for a Windows guest operating system or the swap partition for a Linux guest operating system is created by.

    • A. the ESXi host

    • B. the guest operating system

    • C. vCenter server

    • D. the VMFS datastore

    Correct Answer
    A. B. the guest operating system
    Explanation
    The page file for a Windows guest operating system or the swap partition for a Linux guest operating system is created by the guest operating system itself. This is because the page file or swap partition is a part of the guest operating system's memory management system and is used to temporarily store data that cannot fit in the physical memory. The guest operating system determines the size and location of the page file or swap partition based on its own settings and requirements.

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  • 16. 

    A database administrator has reported periodic poor performance on a particular virtual machine. The virtual machine administrator has noticed a significant drop in performance when utilized memory exceeds 1GB.     What does this indicate and what could be checked next?

    • A. The application problems are definitely due to a non-memory-related problem. CPU affinity settings should be checked for this virtual machine.

    • B. The application problems are definitely due to a non-memory-related problem. CPU utilization should be checked next, using Windows Task Manager

    • C. The virtual machine might not have physical memory available. Compression and swap activity on the ESXi host should be checked next

    • D. The virtual machine might not have physical memory available. Ensure the memory limit on the VM is set to 0 MB.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. The virtual machine might not have physical memory available. Compression and swap activity on the ESXi host should be checked next
    Explanation
    This answer suggests that the poor performance on the virtual machine is likely due to a lack of physical memory. The drop in performance when utilized memory exceeds 1GB indicates that the virtual machine may not have enough memory available. To further investigate this issue, the compression and swap activity on the ESXi host should be checked next. This will help determine if the virtual machine is experiencing memory-related issues and if there is a need to allocate more physical memory to improve performance.

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  • 17. 

    When memory is overcommitted, which two values can an administrator vary to increase the amount of physical memory granted to a given virtual machine? (Choose two.)

    • A. Idle Memory Tax

    • B. Shares

    • C. VMMEMCTL

    • D. Memory Reservation

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. B. Shares
    A. D. Memory Reservation
    Explanation
    An administrator can vary the "Shares" value and the "Memory Reservation" value to increase the amount of physical memory granted to a given virtual machine. By increasing the "Shares" value, the virtual machine will have a higher priority for memory allocation compared to other virtual machines. By increasing the "Memory Reservation" value, a specific amount of physical memory will be reserved exclusively for the virtual machine, ensuring that it always has that amount of memory available.

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  • 18. 

    A user attempts a remote SSH connection to a newly-installed ESXi 5.x host to execute some commands. The SSH connection attempt fails, though the user is able to receive a ICMP ping back from the host. What must the administrator do to enable SSH? (Choose two.)

    • A. Enable root logon on the ESXi server.

    • B. Open the SSH port on the ESXi firewall.

    • C. Start the SSH service on the ESXi server.

    • D. Create a local user on the ESXi server.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. B. Open the SSH port on the ESXi firewall.
    A. C. Start the SSH service on the ESXi server.
    Explanation
    To enable SSH on the newly-installed ESXi 5.x host, the administrator must open the SSH port on the ESXi firewall and start the SSH service on the ESXi server. Opening the SSH port on the firewall allows incoming SSH connections to reach the server, while starting the SSH service ensures that the server is actively listening for SSH connections. By doing these two steps, the user will be able to establish a remote SSH connection to the ESXi host and execute commands.

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  • 19. 

    What virtual machine action listed below can be performed on a template?

    • A. Power on

    • B. Clone

    • C. Edit Settings

    • D. Migrate

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Clone
    Explanation
    A virtual machine template is a pre-configured image that can be used to create multiple instances of a virtual machine. Cloning a template creates a new virtual machine using the same configuration and settings as the template. This allows for easy and efficient deployment of multiple instances of the same virtual machine. Cloning is a common action performed on a template to quickly create new virtual machines without having to manually configure each one.

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  • 20. 

    What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)

    • A. Folders

    • B. Hosts

    • C. Resource pools

    • D. vApps

    • E. Virtual machines

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. C. Resource pools
    A. D. vApps
    A. E. Virtual machines
    Explanation
    The question is asking for three valid objects that can be placed in a vApp. A vApp is a container for virtual machines and other vApp templates. Resource pools are used to allocate resources to virtual machines, so they can be placed in a vApp. vApps themselves can also be placed in a vApp, allowing for nested vApps. Finally, virtual machines are the main components of a vApp, so they can also be placed in a vApp. Therefore, the correct answers are C. Resource pools, D. vApps, and E. Virtual machines.

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  • 21. 

    An administrator creates a new Role of "Virtual Machine Creator" for members of the helpdesk and server teams. Privileges include. Datastore - Allocate space Network - Assign network Resource - Assign virtual machine to resource pool Virtual machine > Configuration - all Virtual machine > Interaction - all The new role is granted to the teams at the appropriate VMs and Templates folder, Cluster and Datastore objects. After applying the role, users report they are unable to create new Virtual Machines. What should be changed to allow new virtual machines to be created?

    • A. Add a privilege to the role Virtual machine > Inventory - Create new

    • B. Grant the teams the role at the Datacenter level

    • C. Ensure Propagate to Child Objects is selected on the objects.

    • D. Grant the teams the role on the Production network object.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Add a privilege to the role Virtual machine > Inventory - Create new
    Explanation
    To allow users to create new virtual machines, the administrator should add a privilege to the role "Virtual machine > Inventory - Create new". This privilege is necessary to grant users the ability to create new virtual machines within the VMs and Templates folder, Cluster, and Datastore objects where the role has been applied. Without this privilege, users will not have the necessary permissions to create new virtual machines.

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  • 22. 

    An administrator is attempting to clone a running virtual machine, but receives an error that prevents that the virtual machine is using a device that prevents the operation. What two device types listed below could be causing this error? (Choose two.)

    • A. An independent mode virtual disk

    • B. A physical compatibility mode RDM

    • C. An LSI logic SAS adapter

    • D. A BusLogic Parallel adapter

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. A. An independent mode virtual disk
    A. B. A physical compatibility mode RDM
    Explanation
    The administrator is trying to clone a running virtual machine but encounters an error. This error could be caused by two device types: an independent mode virtual disk and a physical compatibility mode RDM. These devices could be preventing the operation because they are not compatible with the cloning process.

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  • 23. 

    An administrator decides to use Data Recovery to back up some key virtual machines. What is the process to install Data Recovery?

    • A. Download the executable from VMware.com and run from a machine with the vSphere Client installed.

    • B. Use the vCenter Installer from the original vCenter media and select VMware Data Recovery

    • C. Download the current OVF package from VMware.com onto a machine with the vSphere Client installed and use the Deploy OVF from Template option.

    • D. Download the vmdk and vmx files from VMware.com and copy to a datastore. Right-click the vmx file and select Add to Inventory.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Download the current OVF package from VMware.com onto a machine with the vSphere Client installed and use the Deploy OVF from Template option.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C because it states that the administrator should download the current OVF package from VMware.com and use the Deploy OVF from Template option on a machine with the vSphere Client installed. This suggests that the installation process involves downloading the necessary files and using the vSphere Client to deploy the OVF template, which is the recommended method for installing Data Recovery.

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  • 24. 

       Users have reported performance issues with an application running on a Windows VM. Performance analysis shows high CPU activity on the ESXi host but low CPU activity on the Windows VM.     A high value in which overview graph and counter on the virtual machine's Performance tab would confirm the results of the performance analysis?

    • A. CPU (%) / Wait

    • B. CPU Usage (Mhz) / Wait

    • C. CPU Usage (Mhz) / Ready

    • D. CPU (%) / Ready

    Correct Answer
    A. D. CPU (%) / Ready
    Explanation
    A high value in the CPU (%) / Ready counter on the virtual machine's Performance tab would confirm the results of the performance analysis. This is because the high CPU activity on the ESXi host indicates that the host is ready to process tasks, but the low CPU activity on the Windows VM suggests that the VM is not utilizing the available CPU resources efficiently. Therefore, a high value in the CPU (%) / Ready counter would indicate that the VM is not able to keep up with the demand for CPU resources, confirming the performance issues reported by users.

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  • 25. 

    What options must be configured in the vCenter Server settings before email alerts can be sent? (Choose two.)

    • A. Sender email address

    • B. SNMP address information

    • C. SMTP server information

    • D. Email authentication information

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. A. Sender email address
    A. C. SMTP server information
    Explanation
    To send email alerts from vCenter Server, two options must be configured in the vCenter Server settings. The first option is the Sender email address, which is the email address from which the alerts will be sent. The second option is the SMTP server information, which includes the server address and port number for the email server that will be used to send the alerts. These two options are necessary to ensure that the email alerts are properly sent from vCenter Server to the intended recipients.

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  • 26. 

    What is the size of a virtual machine .vswp file?

    • A. The virtual machine .vswp file is equal to twice the amount of available memory configured for the virtual machine when it was created

    • B. The virtual machine .vswp file is equal to the amount of virtual memory (virtual machine available memory, plus virtual machine overhead) configured for the virtual machine when it was created

    • C. The virtual machine .vswp file is set to the amount of memory allocated minus any memory reservation.

    • D. The virtual machine .vswp file is equal to the amount of available memory in the ESXi server

    Correct Answer
    A. C. The virtual machine .vswp file is set to the amount of memory allocated minus any memory reservation.
    Explanation
    The size of a virtual machine .vswp file is set to the amount of memory allocated for the virtual machine minus any memory reservation. This means that the .vswp file will be equal to the difference between the total memory allocated to the virtual machine and any memory that has been reserved specifically for other purposes. The .vswp file acts as a swap file for the virtual machine, allowing it to temporarily store data that cannot fit in its allocated memory.

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  • 27. 

    Which functions can be performed with the Plug-in Manager? (Choose two.)

    • A. Enable an installed plug-in

    • B. Remove permissions for a plug-in

    • C. View the status of installed plug-ins

    • D. Uninstall a plug-in

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. A. Enable an installed plug-in
    A. C. View the status of installed plug-ins
    Explanation
    The Plug-in Manager allows users to perform two functions. The first function is to enable an installed plug-in, which means activating a plug-in that has been installed but is currently not in use. The second function is to view the status of installed plug-ins, which provides information about the installed plug-ins such as whether they are active or inactive. Removing permissions for a plug-in and uninstalling a plug-in are not mentioned as functions that can be performed with the Plug-in Manager.

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  • 28. 

    An administrator is performing upgrades to ESXi 5.x from ESX 3.x and ESX 4.x hosts. What is true about this procedure?

    • A. A direct, in-place upgrade can be performed only on ESX 4.1 and later hosts.

    • B. ESX 3.x hosts can be upgraded, but require an upgrade to 4.x before 5.x.

    • C. A direct, in-place upgrade can be performed only on ESX 4.5 and later hosts.

    • D. A direct, in-place upgrade can be performed only on ESX 3.5 and later hosts.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. ESX 3.x hosts can be upgraded, but require an upgrade to 4.x before 5.x.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B because ESX 3.x hosts can be upgraded to ESX 4.x before upgrading to ESXi 5.x. This means that a direct, in-place upgrade from ESX 3.x to ESXi 5.x is not possible and an intermediate upgrade to ESX 4.x is required.

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  • 29. 

        Which statement is true about the network performance of the virtual machine in the exhibit?

    • A. The virtual machine can send at the maximum of 10Mbps.

    • B. The virtual machine can send traffic as fast as the underlying virtual switch allows

    • C. Virtual switch autonegotiation settings must to be adjusted to improve performance

    • D. The underlying physical NIC is configured for 10Mbps.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. The virtual machine can send traffic as fast as the underlying virtual switch allows
    Explanation
    The exhibit does not provide any information about the maximum speed of the virtual machine's network connection. However, it does mention that the virtual machine can send traffic as fast as the underlying virtual switch allows. This means that the network performance of the virtual machine is limited by the capabilities of the virtual switch, not by any specific maximum speed. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

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  • 30. 

    Virtual machine VM1 is unable to communicate with virtual machine VM2. Both virtual machines are connected to a portgroup named Production on vSwitch1 on host ESXi01. Which statement could explain why?

    • A. The only vmnic connected to vSwitch1 on ESXi01 is set to unused

    • B. The only vmnic connected to vSwitch1 on ESXi01 is set to standby

    • C. Load balancing settings on Production do not match vSwitch1

    • D. VM1 is configured for VGT, VM2 is configured for VST

    Correct Answer
    A. D. VM1 is configured for VGT, VM2 is configured for VST
    Explanation
    VGT (Virtual Guest Tagging) and VST (Virtual Switch Tagging) are two different VLAN tagging modes. VGT allows the virtual machine to handle its own VLAN tagging, while VST requires the VLAN tagging to be handled by the virtual switch. If VM1 is configured for VGT and VM2 is configured for VST, they will not be able to communicate with each other because they are using different VLAN tagging modes.

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  • 31. 

    An administrator is investigating a report of slow disk performance. Where is the most efficient place for the administrator to check?

    • A. The performance tab of the vApp.

    • B. The performance tab of the virtual machine.

    • C. The performance tab of the vApp resource pool.

    • D. The performance tab of the cluster.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. The performance tab of the virtual machine.
    Explanation
    The most efficient place for the administrator to check for slow disk performance would be the performance tab of the virtual machine. This is because the virtual machine is the entity directly responsible for disk operations, so monitoring its performance would provide the most accurate and relevant information regarding disk performance. Checking the performance tab of the vApp, vApp resource pool, or cluster may provide some insights, but they are not as specific or focused on the disk performance of the virtual machine.

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  • 32. 

    Which conditions are true regarding an ESXi 5.x host placed into maintenance mode while a member of a DRS cluster? (Choose two.)

    • A. If the DRS cluster is in partially automated mode and vMotion is configured, its virtual machines will be moved automatically to other hosts in the cluster.

    • B. If the DRS cluster is in fully automated mode and vMotion is configured, its virtual machines will be moved automatically to other hosts in the cluster.

    • C. If the DRS cluster is in partially automated mode and vMotion is configured, its virtual machines that have a high restart priority will be migrated to other hosts in the cluster.

    • D. All the virtual machines on the host must be migrated or powered off before the ESXi host will complete entering maintenance mode.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. B. If the DRS cluster is in fully automated mode and vMotion is configured, its virtual machines will be moved automatically to other hosts in the cluster.
    A. D. All the virtual machines on the host must be migrated or powered off before the ESXi host will complete entering maintenance mode.
    Explanation
    In a DRS cluster, when an ESXi host is placed into maintenance mode, the behavior depends on the DRS cluster mode and vMotion configuration. If the DRS cluster is in fully automated mode and vMotion is configured, the virtual machines on the host will be automatically moved to other hosts in the cluster. Additionally, all the virtual machines on the host must be migrated or powered off before the ESXi host can complete entering maintenance mode.

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  • 33. 

    Which two settings are required by the deployment wizard when installing the VMware vCenter Server Virtual Appliance (vCSA)? (Choose two.)

    • A. Number of CPUs

    • B. Datastore to install on

    • C. Linked-mode

    • D. Name of the vCenter server

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. B. Datastore to install on
    A. D. Name of the vCenter server
    Explanation
    When installing the VMware vCenter Server Virtual Appliance (vCSA), two settings are required by the deployment wizard. The first setting is the Datastore to install on, which determines where the vCSA will be stored. The second setting is the Name of the vCenter server, which is the unique identifier for the vCSA instance. The Number of CPUs and Linked-mode settings are not required for the installation process.

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  • 34. 

    What are two benefits of physical compatibility mode for RDMs, as compared to virtual compatibility mode? (Choose two.)

    • A. Allows the use of SAN-aware applications

    • B. Allows for cloning

    • C. Allows the VM to access SAN hardware directly

    • D. Allows for template creation of the related virtual machine D. Allows for template creation of the related virtual machine D. Allows for template creation of the related virtual machine

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. A. Allows the use of SAN-aware applications
    A. C. Allows the VM to access SAN hardware directly
    Explanation
    Physical compatibility mode for RDMs offers two benefits compared to virtual compatibility mode. Firstly, it allows the use of SAN-aware applications, which are specifically designed to work with storage area networks. This enables better performance and functionality for applications that require direct access to SAN resources. Secondly, physical compatibility mode allows the virtual machine to access SAN hardware directly, bypassing the virtualization layer. This can enhance performance and reduce latency for applications that require direct access to the underlying storage infrastructure.

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  • 35. 

    An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and  finds that the current status is Not Protected.  What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be  protected? (Choose two.)   

    • A. Stopped - Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.

    • B. Need Secondary VM - The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual machine and is not protected

    • C. Need Primary VM - The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual machine cannot be generated.

    • D. Disabled - Fault Tolerance is disabled.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. B. Need Secondary VM - The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual machine and is not protected
    A. D. Disabled - Fault Tolerance is disabled.
    Explanation
    The correct answers are B and D. If the Fault Tolerance status is "Need Secondary VM," it means that the primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual machine, which makes it unprotected. If the Fault Tolerance status is "Disabled," it means that Fault Tolerance is disabled for the virtual machine, also making it unprotected.

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  • 36. 

    An administrator is unable to connect a vSphere Client to an ESXi 5.x host. Which option can be selected from the direct console to restore connectivity without disrupting running virtual machines?

    • A. Restore the Standard Switch from the ESXi host.

    • B. Restart the Management Agents from the vSphere client.

    • C. Restart the Management Agent from the ESXi host

    • D. Disable the Management Network from the vSphere client

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Restart the Management Agent from the ESXi host
    Explanation
    Restarting the Management Agent from the ESXi host can restore connectivity without disrupting running virtual machines. This option allows the administrator to restart the necessary services on the host without affecting the virtual machines.

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  • 37. 

    Which resource management technique can be used to relieve a network bottleneck caused by a virtual machine with occasional high outbound network activity?

    • A. Convert the switch from a vSphere Standard Switch to a vSphere Distributed Switch.

    • B. Create a new portgroup for the virtual machine and enable traffic shaping.

    • C. Apply traffic shaping to the other virtual machines in the same port group.

    • D. Apply traffic shaping to the virtual machine with high activity.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Create a new portgroup for the virtual machine and enable traffic shaping.
    Explanation
    Creating a new portgroup for the virtual machine and enabling traffic shaping can help relieve a network bottleneck caused by occasional high outbound network activity. By creating a separate portgroup for the virtual machine, its network traffic can be isolated and managed separately from other virtual machines in the same port group. Enabling traffic shaping allows for the control and prioritization of network traffic, ensuring that the virtual machine with high activity does not overwhelm the network and cause a bottleneck.

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  • 38. 

    Networking policies for a vSphere Standard Switch, such as traffic shaping and security, can be overridden on which vSphere elements?

    • A. On the virtual machine

    • B. On the physical switch

    • C. On the physical network interface

    • D. On the port group

    Correct Answer
    A. D. On the port group
    Explanation
    Networking policies for a vSphere Standard Switch can be overridden on the port group. This means that specific policies, such as traffic shaping and security, can be applied to individual port groups within the vSphere environment. This allows for more granular control and customization of networking settings based on the needs of different virtual machines or groups of virtual machines.

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  • 39. 

    A mid-size company with a vSphere 5 cluster wants to enable their helpdesk staff to be able to acknowledge alarms on the hosts. Currently the group "HelpDesk" has the Read-only role assigned to the Cluster object. Which action should the administrator perform?

    • A. Enable Propagate to Child Objects on the current permission.

    • B. Move the current permission to the Datacenter object.

    • C. Add the Alarms - Acknowledge Alarm privilege to the current role and enable "Propagate to Child Objects"

    • D. Clone the role, add the Alarms - Acknowledge Alarm privilege, replace the current role.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Clone the role, add the Alarms - Acknowledge Alarm privilege, replace the current role.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D. Clone the role, add the Alarms - Acknowledge Alarm privilege, replace the current role. This is the best action to perform because cloning the role allows the administrator to create a new role with the necessary privileges without affecting the current role. By adding the Alarms - Acknowledge Alarm privilege to the cloned role, the helpdesk staff will be able to acknowledge alarms on the hosts. Finally, replacing the current role with the cloned role ensures that the helpdesk staff will have the necessary permissions without any disruption to their current access.

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  • 40. 

    Which two options will be presented during the Migrate wizard for a powered on virtual machine? (Choose two.)

    • A. Change Host

    • B. Change Host and Datastore

    • C. Change Network

    • D. Change Datastore

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. A. Change Host
    A. D. Change Datastore
    Explanation
    During the Migrate wizard for a powered on virtual machine, the two options that will be presented are changing the host and changing the datastore. These options allow the user to move the virtual machine to a different host or a different datastore while the virtual machine is still running. This can be useful for load balancing, resource optimization, or for maintenance purposes. The option to change the network is not available during the Migrate wizard.

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  • 41. 

    Which network driver is not supported with virtual machine hardware version 8?

    • Which network driver is not supported with virtual machine hardware version 8?

    • B. Enhanced vmxnet

    • C. vmxnet 2

    • D. E1000

    Correct Answer
    A. C. vmxnet 2
    Explanation
    Virtual machine hardware version 8 does not support the vmxnet 2 network driver.

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  • 42. 

    Which of these factors indicates a high likelihood that the performance of a virtual machine disk is being constrained by disk I/O?

    • A. A large number of commands issued

    • B. A high device latency value

    • C. A high disk used value

    • D. A large number of kilobytes read and written

    Correct Answer
    A. B. A high device latency value
    Explanation
    Disk performance bottlenecks are usually due to either Disk queue lenght or Disk Latency

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  • 43. 

    When would a license server be configured for vCenter Server 5.x?

    • A. When managing ESX 3.x servers

    • B. When the vCenter Server Virtual Appliance (vCSA) is used

    • C. Within the first 60 days

    • D. A standalone license server is installed by default

    Correct Answer
    A. A. When managing ESX 3.x servers
    Explanation
    A license server would be configured for vCenter Server 5.x when managing ESX 3.x servers. This is because ESX 3.x servers require a license server to manage the licensing for the vCenter Server.

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  • 44. 

    Which memory conservation technique collaborates with the server to reclaim pages that are redundant in a virtual machine or virtual machines?

    • A. Memory Balloon Driver

    • B. Transparent Page Sharing

    • C. Redundant Memory Driver

    • D. VMkernel Swap

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Transparent Page Sharing
    Explanation
    Transparent Page Sharing is a memory conservation technique that collaborates with the server to reclaim pages that are redundant in a virtual machine or virtual machines. This technique identifies and eliminates duplicate memory pages across multiple virtual machines by sharing the identical pages. By doing so, it reduces the overall memory footprint and improves memory utilization efficiency. This helps in optimizing the memory resources and improving the performance of the virtual environment.

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  • 45. 

    What are two consequences of deleting a VMFS datastore from an ESXi 5.x host? (Choose two.)  

    • A. The datastore is unaccessible from all connected ESXi hosts.

    • B. The datastore and all virtual machines are removed from the storage device

    • C. The datastore and all virtual machines remain on the storage device.

    • D. The datastore is only removed from that specific ESXi host.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. A. The datastore is unaccessible from all connected ESXi hosts.
    A. B. The datastore and all virtual machines are removed from the storage device
    Explanation
    Deleting a VMFS datastore from an ESXi 5.x host has two consequences. First, the datastore becomes inaccessible from all connected ESXi hosts. This means that any virtual machines or data stored on the datastore cannot be accessed or used by any of the hosts. Second, when the datastore is deleted, all virtual machines and their associated data are also removed from the storage device. This means that the virtual machines and their data are permanently deleted and cannot be recovered unless they have been backed up elsewhere.

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  • 46. 

    What is the recommended maximum memory value that is displayed when configuring a virtual machine based upon?

    • A. The amount of memory in the ESXi host

    • B. The threshold needed for the ESXi host to satisfy a reservation value

    • C. The maximum value the guest operating system supports

    • D. The maximum recommended by the OS manufacturer

    Correct Answer
    A. A. The amount of memory in the ESXi host
    Explanation
    The recommended maximum memory value that is displayed when configuring a virtual machine is based on the amount of memory in the ESXi host. This is because the virtual machine's memory allocation should not exceed the available memory on the host in order to ensure optimal performance and avoid resource contention.

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  • 47. 

    An administrator is configuring a stretched HA cluster. The administrator wishes to restrict the failover of VMs to certain hosts within a given site.   Which additional vSphere feature satisfies this requirement?

    • A. vSphere Distribited Switch

    • B. Distributed Resource Scheduler

    • C. Datastore Clusters

    • D. Host Folders

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Distributed Resource Scheduler
    Explanation
    Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS) is the additional vSphere feature that satisfies the requirement of restricting the failover of VMs to certain hosts within a given site. DRS is responsible for load balancing and resource optimization in a cluster. It automatically migrates VMs between hosts based on resource utilization. By configuring DRS rules and affinity rules, the administrator can control which hosts VMs can failover to, ensuring that they only failover to the desired hosts within the given site.

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  • 48. 

    ACME Catering Services is using esxtop to troubleshoot a performance problem with one of their ESXi 5.x hosts. Host disconnections from vCenter Server as well as sluggish performance when performing tasks on the host have been observed. Based on the output in the exhibit, how many vCPU's have been assigned to FileServer01?

    • A. 1

    • B. 2

    • C. 4

    • D. 8

    Correct Answer
    A. D. 8
    Explanation
    Based on the output in the exhibit, we can see that the "PCPU USED(%)" column for the VM named "FileServer01" is consistently around 800%. This indicates that the VM is using 8 vCPUs, as each vCPU can utilize up to 100% of a physical CPU core. Therefore, the correct answer is D. 8.

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  • 49. 

    An administrator is performing maintenance on a storage array used by an ESXi 5.x host. The administrator wants to disable alarm actions for the host while the maintenance is taking place. What procedure will accomplish this task?

    • A. Go to the Alarms tab for each ESXi host in the DRS cluster. Locate storage-related alarms. Right-click and disable each alarm.

    • B. Right-click the DRS cluster and select Alarm and Disable Alarm Actions.

    • C. Right-click the ESXi host and select Alarm and Disable Alarm Actions.

    • D. Go to the Alarms tab for the Datacenter containing the DRS cluster. Locate the storage-related alarms. Right-click and disable each alarm.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Right-click the ESXi host and select Alarm and Disable Alarm Actions.
    Explanation
    To disable alarm actions for the ESXi host during maintenance, the administrator should right-click on the ESXi host and select "Alarm and Disable Alarm Actions." This will prevent any alarms related to the host from triggering any actions or notifications while the maintenance is being performed.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 08, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    DavidTarr
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