UPSC Prelims Test Series 2019 - Test 13

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  • 1/100 Questions

    With reference to the 15th Finance Commission, consider the following statements: 1. It is the first finance commission that will do its work under the new tax system. 2. It will be tasked with recommending the debt-gross state domestic product (GSDP) levels, and the combined debt-gross domestic product (GDP) levels for all states. Choose the correct statement(s).

    • Only 1.
    • Only 2
    • Both 1 & 2.
    • Neither 1 nor 2.
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UPSC Prelims Test Series 2019 - Test 13 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Consider the following statements: I. On the advice of the chief minister, Governor can remove a minister at a time when the council of ministers enjoys the confidence of the legislative assembly. II. Council of ministers are collectively responsible to the legislative assembly of the state. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • I Only

    • II Only

    • Both I and II

    • Neither I nor II

    Correct Answer
    A. Both I and II
    Explanation
    Article 164 states that the council of ministers are collectively responsible to the legislative assembly of the state.
    Article 164 also contains the principle of individual responsibility. It states that the ministers hold office during the pleasure of the governor. This means that the governor can remove a minister at a time when the council of ministers enjoys the confidence of the legislative assembly. But, the governor can remove a minister only on the advice of the chief minister.

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  • 3. 

    Consider the following statements: 1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State by any court during his term of office. 2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • Only 1.

    • Only 2

    • Both 1 & 2.

    • Neither 1 nor 2.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both 1 & 2.
    Explanation
    Governor enjoys personal immunity from legal liability for his official acts. During his term of office, he is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts. He cannot be arrested or imprisoned. His emoluments and allowances cannot be diminished during his term of office. Thus both statements are right.

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  • 4. 

    The Speaker of the Lok Sabha derives his powers and duties from

    • Constitution of India.

    • Rules of Procedure and conduct of business rules of the Lok Sabha.

    • Parliamentary Conventions.

    • All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above.
  • 5. 

    Which of the following are true regarding the Representation of Peoples Act, 1951?

    • Section 123 in the Representation of the People Act, 1951 deals with Corrupt practices.

    • Umesh Sinha was appointed to suggest changes to Section 126 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 in view of social media expansion...

    • Lily Thomas case is related to the Representation of Peoples Act,  1951?

    • All of the statements given above are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the statements given above are correct.
    Explanation
    In Abhiram Singh v C.D. Commachen by a 4-3 majority ruling, a seven-judge Constitution Bench held that an election will be annulled if votes are sought in the name of the religion of the candidate.
    The majority view interpreted Section 123(3) of the Representation of the People Act to mean that this provision was laid down with an intent “to clearly proscribe appeals based on sectarian, linguistic or caste considerations”.“An appeal in the name of religion, race, caste, community or language is impermissible under the RPA, 1951 and would constitute a corrupt practice sufficient to annul the election in which such an appeal was made regardless whether the appeal was in the name of the candidate’s religion or the religion of the election agent or that of the opponent or that of the voter’s,” the majority judges ruled.Umesh Sinha was appointed to suggest changes to Section 126 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 in view of social media expansion.Lily Thomas case challenged the constitutional validity of section 8(4) of the RPA.

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  • 6. 

    With reference to the constitution of the Water Dispute Tribunals in India consider the following statements: 1. The inter-state river water disputes tribunals are constituted under Inter- State River Water Disputes Act of 1956. 2. Till date no inter-state river water disputes tribunal has been constituted. 3. The Chairman and members of such tribunal are nominated by the Chief Justice of India. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

    • 3 only

    • 1 and 3 only

    • 2 only

    • 2 and 3 only

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 and 3 only
    Explanation
    The inter-state river water disputes tribunals are constituted under Inter-State River Water Disputes Act of 1956, enacted under Article 262 of Constitution of India. Hence statement 1 is correct. There are various inter-state river water disputes tribunals which have been constituted under the Act of 1956 viz. Ravi and Beas Water Tribunal, Vamsadhara Water Disputes Tribunal, Mahadayi Water Disputes Tribunal, Mahanadi Water Disputes Tribunal and Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. As per provisions of the Inter-State River Water Disputes (ISRWD) Act, 1956, the Tribunal shall consist of a Chairman and two other Members nominated by the Chief Justice of India from amongst the Judges of the Supreme Court or High Court. Hence statement 3 is correct

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  • 7. 

    For contesting Rajya Sabha elections, the provision regarding the domicile of the state has been done away with. Which of the following are true regarding this ? 1. The validity of doing away with the domicile requirement for elections to Rajya Sabha has been upheld in the Kuldeep Nayyar Case. 2. There are no sitting Members of the Rajya Sabha whose domicile is different from that of the state they represent in the Rajya Sabha. Codes:

    • Only 1.

    • Only 2

    • Both 1 & 2.

    • Neither 1 nor 2.

    Correct Answer
    A. Only 1.
  • 8. 

    Which of the following place is known as ‘hardware capital of the world’?

    • Silicon Valley, USA.

    • Bengaluru, India.

    • Shenzhen, China.

    • Seoul, South Korea

    Correct Answer
    A. Shenzhen, China.
    Explanation
    Shenzhen is a major city in Guangdong Province, China; it forms part of the Pearl River Delta megalopolis, bordering Hong Kong to the south, Huizhou to the northeast, and Dongguan to the northwest. It holds sub-provincial administrative status, with powers slightly less than a province. Shenzhen produces 90 percent of the world’s electronics, has a nominal GDP of over 2.2 trillion RMB ($330 billion USD), and is home to over 12.5 million people. In around 40 years, it has transformed into the “Hardware capital of the world”.

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  • 9. 

    Who among the following administers oath of office to Chief Minister?

    • Chief justice of concerned state High Court.

    • Speaker of State legislative assembly.

    • Governor.

    • Protem Speaker.

    Correct Answer
    A. Governor.
    Explanation
    Before the Chief Minister enters his office, the governor administers to him the oaths of office and secrecy.

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  • 10. 

    Consider the following statements: I. Additional and Acting judges in High court are appointed by the President. II. Judges appointed to High court must not be less than 60 years of age. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • I Only

    • II Only

    • Both I and II

    • Neither I nor II

    Correct Answer
    A. I Only
    Explanation
    Additional and Acting judges in High court are appointed by the President.
    There is no minimum age for appointment of judges in Supreme Court and High Court.

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  • 11. 

    The salary and perquisites of the Prime Minister are decided by the.

    • Constitution.

    • Cabinet.

    • Parliament.

    • President

    Correct Answer
    A. Parliament.
  • 12. 

    Consider the following statements regarding Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI): 1. Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) is the statutory authority in charge of the waterways for shipping and navigation in India 2. IWAI comes under Union Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport and Highways. Choose the correct statement(s).

    • Only 1.

    • Only 2

    • Both 1 & 2.

    • Neither 1 nor 2.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both 1 & 2.
    Explanation
    Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) is a nodal statutory body in charge of development and regulation of inland waterways for shipping and navigation. It was established in October 1986 and is headquartered in Noida, UP. Its main function is to build necessary infrastructure in inland waterways, surveying economic feasibility of new projects and also carrying out administration and regulation. It undertakes projects for development and maintenance of IWT infrastructure on national waterways through grant received from Ministry of Shipping.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following statements are correct: 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. 2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and by-elections. 3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.

    • 1 and 2 only

    • 2 only

    • 2 and 3 only

    • 3 only

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 only
    Explanation
    Election commission has three election commissioners.
    Election commission decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
    It also decides the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.

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  • 14. 

    Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in

    • Federalism

    • Democratic decentralization

    • Administrative delegation

    • Direct democracy

    Correct Answer
    A. Democratic decentralization
  • 15. 

    Consider the following statements about National Human Rights Commission (NHRC): 1. National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body. 2. Chairman should be a retired chief justice of India,. 3. Members should be a retired judge of the Supreme Court Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • 2 and 3 only

    • 2 only

    • 1 and 2 only

    • 3 only

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 and 2 only
    Explanation
    National Human Rights Commission is a statutory (and not a constitutional) body. It was established in 1993 under a legislation enacted by the Parliament, namely, the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
    The commission is a multi-member body consisting of a chairman and four members. The chairman should be a retired chief justice of India, and members should be serving or retired judges of the Supreme Court, a serving or retired chief justice of a high court and two persons having knowledge or practical experience with respect to human rights.

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  • 16. 

    Consider the following statements with respect to 73rd Constitutional Amendment act: I. Act provides for one-third reservation of seats for women. II. Act provides for one-third reservation of seats for persons belonging to backward classes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • I Only

    • II Only

    • Both I and II

    • Neither I nor II

    Correct Answer
    A. I Only
    Explanation
    The act provides for the reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of seats for women (including the number of seats reserved for women belonging the SCs and STs). Further, not less than one-third of the total number of offices of chairpersons in the panchayats at each level shall be reserved for women.
    The act provides for the reservation of seats for backward classes in panchayats at any levels under voluntary provisions. But it does not provide one-third seats.

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  • 17. 

    Under 74th Amendment of the Constitution the local body for a transitional area is known as

    • Nyaya Panchayat

    • Municipal Panchayat

    • Nagar Panchayat

    • Gram Panchayat

    Correct Answer
    A. Nagar Panchayat
    Explanation
    Under 74th Amendment of the constitution the local body for a transitional area is known as Nagar Panchayat. This article provides that there be a Nagar Panchayat for transitional areas i.e. an area in transition from rural to urban, a municipality for a smaller urban area and a municipal corporation for a larger urban area.

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  • 18. 

    Identify correct statements from the following. 1. The final judgements of a civil court are capable of execution anywhere in India 2. The records of a state government are given full faith and credit throughout India. Codes:

    • Only 1.

    • Only 2

    • Both 1 & 2.

    • Neither 1 nor 2.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both 1 & 2.
    Explanation
    The final judgements of a civil court are capable of execution anywhere in India“Full faith and credit shall be given throughout the territory of India to public acts, records and judicial proceedings of the Union and of every State”

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  • 19. 

    Identify the correct statements from the following. 1. The oath of Office and the oath of secrecy are administered to both the Prime Minister and a Union Minister. 2. The President of India is not administered the oath of secrecy. Codes:

    • Only 1.

    • Only 2

    • Both 1 & 2.

    • Neither 1 nor 2.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both 1 & 2.
    Explanation
    The oath of Office and the oath of secrecy are administered to both the Prime Minister and a Union Minister.The President of India is administered the oath of office not secrecy.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? 1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule 2. Appointing the Ministers 3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India 4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    • 1 and 3 only

    • 1, 2, 3 and 4

    • 1 and 2 only

    • 2, 3 and 4 only

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 and 3 only
    Explanation
    The governor has constitutional discretion in the following cases:
    1. Reservation of a bill for the consideration of the President.
    2. Recommendation for the imposition of the President’s Rule in the state.
    3. While exercising his functions as the administrator of an adjoining union territory (in case of additional charge).
    4. Determining the amount payable by the Government of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to an autonomous Tribal District Council as royalty accruing from licenses for mineral exploration.
    5. Seeking information from the chief minister with regard to the administrative and legislative matters of the state.

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  • 21. 

    Consider the following statement(s) regarding Lok Adalats in India: 1. Lok Adalats are statutory bodies. 2. The award (decision) made by the Lok Adalats is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and is final and binding on all parties and no appeal against such an award lies before any court of law Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

    • Only 1.

    • Only 2

    • Both 1 & 2.

    • Neither 1 nor 2.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both 1 & 2.
    Explanation
    Lok Adalat is one of the forms of alternative dispute redressal mechanisms, it is a forum where disputes/cases pending in the court of law or at pre-litigation stage are settled/ compromised amicably. Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. Under the said Act, the award (decision) made by the Lok Adalats is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and is final and binding on all parties and no appeal against such an award lies before any court of law. If the parties are not satisfied with the award of the Lok Adalat though there is no provision for an appeal against such an award, but they are free to initiate litigation by approaching the court of appropriate jurisdiction by filing a case by following the required procedure, in exercise of their right to litigate

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is a correct statement regarding State Legislative council?

    • The members of the legislative council are directly elected.

    • Size of the council depends on the size of the assembly of the concerned state.

    • Maximum strength is fixed at 40

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Size of the council depends on the size of the assembly of the concerned state.
    Explanation
    The members of the legislative council are indirectly elected. The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40. It means that the size of the council depends on the size of the assembly of the concerned state.

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  • 23. 

    The State of Jammu and Kashmir was recently put under the President’s rule. Consider the following statements regarding it. 1. In case of failure of the State government, six month’s Governor’s rule has to be compulsorily imposed 2. The State will directly come under the President’s rule after the tenure of six months is over. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

    • Only 1.

    • Only 2

    • Both 1 & 2.

    • Neither 1 nor 2.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both 1 & 2.
    Explanation
    In all states of India, the state government's failure results in President's rule. The process is slightly more nuanced in Jammu and Kashmir where not the President's but Governor's rule is imposed. Under the Article 92 of the Jammu and Kashmir Constitution, when the State government fails, six months of Governor’s rule is compulsory under which all the legislature powers are vested with the Governor. Under the Governor's rule, the State Assembly is either kept in suspended animation or dissolved. The Governor has to dissolve the Legislative Assembly after the tenure of six months is over and the State will directly come under the President’s rule for following six months during which elections have to be declared in State. In case the elections are not declared, President’s rule can be extended by another six months. No Presidential proclamation shall in any case remain in force for more than three years except for the intervention of the Election Commission of India, which has to certify that the continuance in force of the Proclamation is necessary on account of difficulties in holding elections to the Legislative Assembly.

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  • 24. 

    Identify the correct statements from the following. 1. The basic structure doctrine is a result of the conflict between Articles 13 and 368 of the Indian Constitution. 2. Sovereignty of the elected representatives is the basis of of the amendment procedure. Codes:

    • Only 1.

    • Only 2

    • Both 1 & 2.

    • Neither 1 nor 2.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both 1 & 2.
    Explanation
    Self explanatory.

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  • 25. 

    NITI Aayog recently released “Strategy for New India @ 75”. Consider the following statements regarding it: 1. It has recommended creation of a single exam for entire India with all India rank, including Union & all states. 2. It has recommended reduction in the number of civil services at the central and state levels. 3. The upper age limit for the civil services examination should be brought down to 27 years for the general category in a phased manner by 2022-23. Which of the following are correct?

    • 1 and 3 only

    • 2 and 3 only

    • 3 only

    • 1, 2 and 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1, 2 and 3
    Explanation
    All the 3 statements are correct

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  • 26. 

    Governor has which of the following powers? 1. Executive powers. 2. Legislative powers. 3. Financial powers. 4. Judicial powers. 5. Emergency powers.

    • 1,2,3,4,5

    • 1,2,3 Only

    • 2,3,4 Only

    • 1,2,3,4 Only.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,2,3,4 Only.
    Explanation
    Governor does not have Emergency powers, Diplomatic powers and Military powers. Governor has only Executive powers, Legislative powers, Financial powers and Judicial powers.

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  • 27. 

    In India, Judicial Review implies

    • The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.

    • The power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.

    • The power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.

    • The power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.

    Correct Answer
    A. The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
    Explanation
    Article 13 declares that all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the fundamental rights shall be void.
    The term ‘law’ in Article 13 has been given a wide connotation so as to include the following:
    (a) Permanent laws enacted by the Parliament or the state legislatures;
    (b) Temporary laws like ordinances issued by the president or the state governors;
    (c) Statutory instruments in the nature of delegated legislation (executive legislation) like order, bye-law, rule, regulation or notification; and
    (d) Non-legislative sources of law, that is, custom or usage having the force of law.
    Thus, not only a legislation but any of the above can be challenged in thecourts as violating a Fundamental Right and hence, can be declared as void.
    Supreme Court held in the Kesavananda Bharati case2 (1973) that a Constitutional amendment can be challenged on the ground that it violates a fundamental right that forms a part of the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution and hence, can be declared as void.

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  • 28. 

    The Nikshay Poshan Yojana is related to:

    • Raising nutrition level in the country on a war footing

    • Nutritional support to Tuberculosis patients

    • Universal Basic Income

    • Cash transfer in lieu of the food grain for the targeted Public Distribution System

    Correct Answer
    A. Nutritional support to Tuberculosis patients
    Explanation
    Nikshay Poshan Yojana (NPY) direct benefit transfer (DBT) scheme for nutritional support to Tuberculosis (TB) patients. It was rolled out from April, 2018. Benefits:
    • Financial incentive of Rs. 500 per month for each notified TB patient
    • Incentive for the complete duration of anti-TB treatment to the patient

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  • 29. 

    Chairperson and Members of Lokpal shall be appointed by the President after obtaining the recommendations of a Selection Committee consisting of 1. Prime Minister 2. Speaker of the House of the People 3. Leader of Opposition in the House of the People 4. Chief Justice of India 5. Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

    • 1,2,3,4,5

    • 1,2,3 Only

    • 1,2,3,4 Only

    • 1,3,4 Only

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,2,3,4 Only
    Explanation
    The Chairperson and Members of Lokpal shall be appointed by the President after obtaining the recommendations of a Selection Committee consisting of—
    The Prime Minister—Chairperson;
    The Speaker of the House of the People—Member;
    The Leader of Opposition in the House of the People—Member;
    The Chief Justice of India or a Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by him—Member;
    One eminent jurist, as recommended by the Chairperson and Members

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  • 30. 

    Consider the following statements regarding Administrative Tribunals: 1. Setting up administration tribunals at the union and state levels has been made in part- XIV-A of the constitution by 44th Amendment Act. 2. The Central Administrative Tribunal exercises original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service matters of public servants of Centre and civilian employees of defence services. 3. It is guided by the principles of natural justice. Which of the above-mentioned statement(s) is/are correct?

    • 1 and 2 only

    • 2 and 3 only

    • 1 and 3 only

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Provision for setting up administration tribunals at the union and state levels has been made in part- XIV-A of the constitution by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. Art. 323-A authorizes Parliament to establish administrative tribunals to resolve disputes and complaints regarding the service commission of persons employed under the union/state governments. The Parliament provides for the jurisdiction, power and authority to such tribunals and prescribes the procedure to be followed by them. Art.323 B deals with tribunals for matters other than in Art.323 A. Hence statement 1 is correct. The CAT exercises jurisdiction over all service matters concerning a member of any All-India Service, a person appointed to any civil service of the Union or any civil post under the union, a civilian appointed to any defence services or a post connected with defence except officers and servants of the Supreme Court and the secretarial staff of the Parliament. Hence statement 2 is correct. The CAT is not bound by the procedure laid down in the Civil Procedure Code of 1908. It is guided by the principles of natural justice. Hence statement 3 is correct.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following is not the correct statement regarding Governor?

    • Governor can remit a death sentence.

    • Governor's ordinance making power is co-extensive with the legislative power of the state legislature.

    • Governor can grant pardon in respect to sentence by a court-martial.

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Governor can grant pardon in respect to sentence by a court-martial.
    Explanation
    Governor:
    His ordinance-making power is coextensive with the legislative power of the state legislature. This means that he can issue ordinances only on those subjects on which the state legislature can make laws.
    He cannot pardon a death sentence. Even if a state law prescribes for death sentence, the power to grant pardon lies with the President and not the governor. But, the governor can suspend, remit or commute a death sentence.
    He does not possess power to grant pardon, reprieve, respite, suspension, remission or commutation in respect to punishment or sentence by a court-martial (military court).

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  • 32. 

    A: Consultative committees of parliament are headed by the Ministers concerned. R: Consultative Committees are constituted by the Ministry of Parliamentary affairs. Codes:

    • Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A

    • Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

    • If A is true but R is false

    • If A is false but R is true

    Correct Answer
    A. Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
    Explanation
    The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs constitutes Consultative Committees of Members of both the Houses of Parliament for different ministries. The Minister in-charge of the Ministry concerned acts as the chairman of the Committee. The main purpose of these Committees is to provide a forum for informal discussions between the Government and Members of Parliament on policies and programs of the Government and the manner of their implementation. Meetings of these Committees are held both during the session and inter-session period of Parliament

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  • 33. 

    The NITI Aayog has released the second ‘delta’ ranking of 111 Aspirational Districts. What are these Aspirational Districts?

    • The districts which have shown highest progress in social indicators like, health and education.

    • The districts which have contributed the most to the State GDP.

    • The districts which have the least ‘Income distance’ from the district with the highest per capita income in the country.

    • The districts which have shown relatively lesser progress in key social areas and have emerged as pockets of under-development.

    Correct Answer
    A. The districts which have shown relatively lesser progress in key social areas and have emerged as pockets of under-development.
    Explanation
    The NITI Aayog has released the second ‘delta’ ranking of 111 most underdeveloped districts (Aspirational Districts). The ranking measured the incremental progress made by districts between June 1, 2018 and October 31, 2018. Tamil Nadu’s Virudhunagar showed the most improvement, between June and October, while Jharkhand’s Pakur reflected the least improvement
    The Aspirational District Programme -
    It was launched on January 5, 2018. It aims to rapidly transform the districts that have shown relatively lesser progress in key social areas and have emerged as pockets of under-development, thereby posing a challenge to ensure balanced regional development. The broad contours of the programme are Convergence (of Central & State Schemes), Collaboration (of Central, State level ‘Prabhari’ Officers & District Collectors), and Competition among districts driven by a mass Movement. With States as the main drivers, this program will focus on the strength of each district, identify low-hanging fruits for immediate improvement, measure progress, and rank districts.

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  • 34. 

    Article-262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of Inter-state water disputes. Which of the following provisions in this regard is/are correct? 1. Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint. 2. Parliament cannot restrict Supreme Court or any other court to exercise jurisdiction in respect of such dispute.

    • Only 1.

    • Only 2

    • Both 1 & 2.

    • Neither 1 nor 2.

    Correct Answer
    A. Only 1.
    Explanation
    Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter-state river or river valley Parliament may by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint as is referred to in clause (1)

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following are correct statements? 1. When no party has a clear majority in the assembly, then the governor may exercise his personal discretion in the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister. 2. Before appointment of Chief Minister, he or she has to prove majority in the State legislative assembly. 3. Speaker of State legislative assembly advises the governor with regard to the summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the state legislature.

    • 1,2,3

    • 1, 3 Only

    • 3 Only

    • 1 Only

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 Only
    Explanation
    When no party has a clear majority in the assembly, then the governor may exercise his personal discretion in the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister. In such a situation, the governor usually appoints the leader of the largest party or coalition in the assembly as the Chief Minister and ask him to seek a vote of confidence in the House within a month.
    The Constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in the legislative assembly before he is appointed as the Chief Minister. The governor may first appoint him as the Chief Minister and then ask him to prove his majority in the legislative assembly within a reasonable period.
    Chief Minister advises the governor with regard to the summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the state legislature.

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  • 36. 

    Feroze Varun Gandhi, a Member of Parliament has introduced a bill in Parliament on the right to recall. Which of the following are true regarding the right to recall? 1. Right to Recall is an instrument of Direct democracy. 2. Recall is a political process whereas impeachment is a legal process. Codes:

    • Only 1.

    • Only 2

    • Both 1 & 2.

    • Neither 1 nor 2.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both 1 & 2.
    Explanation
    Right to Recall is an instrument of Direct democracy. Recall differs from another method for removing officials from office – impeachment – in that it is a political device while impeachment is a legal process. Impeachment requires the House to bring specific charges and the Parliament to act as a jury.

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  • 37. 

    In a bid to bring in the expertise of private sector professionals, the central government has notified some positions of joint secretaries through lateral entry scheme. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the lateral entry scheme?

    • The age of the candidate who wishes to apply should be a minimum of 40 years.

    • Apart from the citizens of India, the citizens of Nepal and Bhutan can also apply.

    • Any private professional with 15 years of work experience in selected fields can apply for the post.

    • Parliamentary Standing Committee on External Affairs recommended lateral entrants for positions like High Commissioner etc.

    Correct Answer
    A. Apart from the citizens of India, the citizens of Nepal and Bhutan can also apply.
    Explanation
    The scheme is applicable only for the citizens of India.

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  • 38. 

    Consider the following statements: I. High courts issue writs for purposes other than the Fundamental Rights. II. Supreme Court can issue writs with respect to ordinary laws. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    • I Only

    • II Only

    • Both I and II

    • Neither I nor II

    Correct Answer
    A. I Only
    Explanation
    The high courts are also empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights.
    The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights and not for other purposes. The high court, on the other hand, can issue writs not only for the enforcement of the fundamental rights but also for other purposes.

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  • 39. 

    Who is the chairman of the Committee on Private Members Bills and Resolution?

    • Speaker of the Lok Sabha

    • Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

    • Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

    • A member nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha

    Correct Answer
    A. Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
    Explanation
    This is a special committee of the Lok Sabha and consists of 15 members including the Deputy Speaker as its Chairman. The Rajya Sabha does not have such a committee. The same function in the Rajya Sabha is performed by the Business Advisory Committee of that House. It classifies the bills and allocates time for the discussion of bills and resolutions introduced by private members (other than ministers).

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  • 40. 

    Identify correct statements from the following. 1. Scheduled castes or tribes can avail benefit of reservation in government jobs only in their home states.. 2. The opinion of the government regarding the backwardness of Scheduled castes or tribes should be based on quantifiable data according to the observations of of Supreme Court in Nagraj Judgement. Codes:

    • Only 1.

    • Only 2

    • Both 1 & 2.

    • Neither 1 nor 2.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both 1 & 2.
    Explanation
    A Supreme Court bench has held that scheduled castes or tribes can avail benefit of reservation in government jobs only in their home states. The Court has thus upheld the “son of the soil” principle. For the purpose of Articles 341 and 342 in Constitution, the reservation benefits would be within the geographical territories of a state or UT. In M Nagaraja 2006 judgment, the SC ruled that the government cannot introduce a quota (reservation) in promotion for its SC / ST employee unless they prove that the particular Dalit community is backward and inadequately represented and also prove that such a reservation in promotion would not affect the overall efficiency of public administration. Such an opinion of the government should be based on quantifiable data. State was also required to ensure that the reservation does not breach the 50% ceiling.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following is/are true regarding citizenship? 1. The Citizenship Act, 1955 provides for compulsory registration of every citizen of India and issuance of National Identity Card to him. 2. The Citizenship Rules, 2003 framed under the Citizenship Act, 1955 prescribe the manner of preparation of the National Register of Citizens. Codes:

    • Only 1.

    • Only 2

    • Both 1 & 2.

    • Neither 1 nor 2.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both 1 & 2.
    Explanation
    The Citizenship Act, 1955 provides for compulsory registration of every citizen of India and issuance of National Identity Card to him. The Citizenship Rules, 2003 framed under the Citizenship Act, 1955 prescribe the manner of preparation of the National Register of Citizens. National Register of Citizens (NRC) in Assam which is application based and distinct from the rest of India where the process is enumeration based. Only once before has an NRC has been prepared once so far, which is in the State of Assam in 1951. After the Census of 1951, NRC was created that contained the details of every person by village in the State of Assam.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following is a correct statement?

    • Gram Nyayalas can take up both civil and criminal cases.

    • Judgement of Gram Nyayalas can not be appealed.

    • Judgement of Lok Adalat can be challenged in higher courts.

    • Lok Adalat is a permanent court.

    Correct Answer
    A. Gram Nyayalas can take up both civil and criminal cases.
    Explanation
    Gram Nyayalas can take up both civil and criminal cases.
    Judgement pronounced by Gram Nyayalas can be appealed in the district or sessions court.
    Lok Adalat's judgement is based on settlement arised between the two party's and it is binding. This judgement can not be challenged before any court of law.
    Lok Adalat is not a permanent court. It is established when there is a need.

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  • 43. 

    Identify correct statements from the following. 1. The principles of natural justice are an integral part of the guarantee of equality assured by Art. 14 2. In India, the constitution is the result of the rights of individual. Codes:

    • Only 1.

    • Only 2

    • Both 1 & 2.

    • Neither 1 nor 2.

    Correct Answer
    A. Only 1.
    Explanation
    Natural rights are an integral part of Article 14 according to the Supreme Court in the Maneka Gandhi Judgement. In India, the rights of individuals are a result of the constitution unlike the British Constitution.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following were used as criteria for horizontal devolution of funds by 14th Finance Commission? 1. Income distance 2. Population 3. Fiscal discipline 4. Forest Cover 5. Area 6. Fiscal Capacity

    • 1, 2. 3, 4 and 5 only

    • 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

    • 3, 4, 5 and 6 only

    • 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

    Correct Answer
    A. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
  • 45. 

    Recently, a celebrity was convicted by a Chief Judicial Magistrate and the High Court upheld the conviction and sentenced to five years in prison in the blackbuck poaching case. Which of the following best describes the reason for this trial not taking place in the National Green Tribunal (NGT)?

    • The crime was committed much earlier before the passage of NGT act and hence he is protected by Article 20 of the Constitution from being tried in NGT.

    • Crimes committed under the Wildlife (protection) act are not covered under the NGT act.

    • These crimes are governed by international agreements signed by India.

    • None of the above options is correct..

    Correct Answer
    A. Crimes committed under the Wildlife (protection) act are not covered under the NGT act.
    Explanation
    The green laws that the National Green Tribunal is empowered to adjudicate on does not cover the Wildlife Protection Act 1972, though the body is empowered to deal with issues pertaining to forest clearances under the Forest Conservation Act 1980, besides other regulations and legislations.

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  • 46. 

    Identify correct statements from the following. 1. Introduction of a Public Bill in the Parliament requires 7 days prior notice. 2. Private member’s Bills can be introduced and discussed only on Fridays. Codes:

    • Only 1.

    • Only 2

    • Both 1 & 2.

    • Neither 1 nor 2.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both 1 & 2.
    Explanation
    Introduction of a Public Bill in the Parliament requires 7 days prior notice.Private member’s Bills introduction in the house requires one month’s prior notice.While government Bills can be introduced and discussed on any day, private member’s Bills can be introduced and discussed only on Fridays.

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  • 47. 

    Identify correct statements from the following. 1. Appointment to public office can be challenged by any person irrespective of the fact whether his fundamental or any legal right has been infringed or not. 2. Article 13 of the Constitution of India provides for the doctrine of Judicial review. Codes:

    • Only 1.

    • Only 2

    • Both 1 & 2.

    • Neither 1 nor 2.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both 1 & 2.
    Explanation
    Quo warranto writ is invoked in cases of public offices and it is issued to restrain persons from acting in public office to which he is not entitled to. Although the term ‘office’ here is different from ‘seat’ in legislature but still a writ of Quo Warranto can lie with respect to the post of Chief Minister holding a office whereas a writ of quo warranto cannot be issued against a Chief Minister, if the petitioner fails to show that the minister is not properly appointed or that he is not qualified by law to hold the office. It cannot be issued against an Administrator who is appointed by the government to manage Municipal Corporation, after its dissolution. Appointment to public office can be challenged by any person irrespective of the fact whether his fundamental or any legal right has been infringed or not. Article 13 states that laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights} ... The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.

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  • 48. 

    Consider the following statements regarding Triple Talaq Bill: 1. It makes ‘talaq-i-biddat’ a ‘cognizable and non-bailable’ criminal offence. 2. It does not include electronic talaq. 3. It provides that Muslim women would get maintenance allowance & the custody of minor children. Which of the following are correct?

    • 1 and 3 only

    • 1 and 2 only

    • 3 only

    • 1, 2 and 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 and 3 only
    Explanation
    Recently, the Lok Sabha passed the Triple Talaq Bill. The salient features of the bill are:
    1. Triple talaq has been made ‘cognizable and non-bailable’ criminal offence. 3 years jail + fine
    . 2. It includes all forms of instant triple talaq – written/ spoken/ electronic.
    3. Aggrieved woman can seek ‘subsistence allowance’ for herself and dependent children, as well as custody of minor children. The law will not be applicable to J&K.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following is the largest of all Parliamentary committees?

    • Public Accounts Committee.

    • Estimates Committee.

    • Ethics Committee

    • Committee on PSUs

    Correct Answer
    A. Estimates Committee.

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 14, 2022 +

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  • Mar 14, 2022
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  • Apr 19, 2019
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