UPSC Prelims Test Series 2019 - Test 13

1. With reference to the 15th Finance Commission, consider the following statements: 1. It is the first finance commission that will do its work under the new tax system. 2. It will be tasked with recommending the debt-gross state domestic product (GSDP) levels, and the combined debt-gross domestic product (GDP) levels for all states. Choose the correct statement(s).

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

The 15th Finance Commission was constituted on November 27, 2017 and is headed by former Revenue Secretary and former Rajya Sabha MP N.K. Singh. This time, the FFC would have to take into account the impact of the goods and services tax (GST) on the resources of the Centre and states.
• The FFC might also be tasked with recommending the debt-gross state domestic product (GSDP) levels, and the combined debt-gross domestic product (GDP) levels for all states

Explanation

The 15th Finance Commission was constituted on November 27, 2017 and is headed by former Revenue Secretary and former Rajya Sabha MP N.K. Singh. This time, the FFC would have to take into account the impact of the goods and services tax (GST) on the resources of the Centre and states.
• The FFC might also be tasked with recommending the debt-gross state domestic product (GSDP) levels, and the combined debt-gross domestic product (GDP) levels for all states

2. Consider the following statements: I. On the advice of the chief minister, Governor can remove a minister at a time when the council of ministers enjoys the confidence of the legislative assembly. II. Council of ministers are collectively responsible to the legislative assembly of the state. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

I Only

II Only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

Article 164 states that the council of ministers are collectively responsible to the legislative assembly of the state.
Article 164 also contains the principle of individual responsibility. It states that the ministers hold office during the pleasure of the governor. This means that the governor can remove a minister at a time when the council of ministers enjoys the confidence of the legislative assembly. But, the governor can remove a minister only on the advice of the chief minister.

Explanation

Article 164 states that the council of ministers are collectively responsible to the legislative assembly of the state.
Article 164 also contains the principle of individual responsibility. It states that the ministers hold office during the pleasure of the governor. This means that the governor can remove a minister at a time when the council of ministers enjoys the confidence of the legislative assembly. But, the governor can remove a minister only on the advice of the chief minister.

3. Consider the following statements: 1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State by any court during his term of office. 2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

Governor enjoys personal immunity from legal liability for his official acts. During his term of office, he is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts. He cannot be arrested or imprisoned. His emoluments and allowances cannot be diminished during his term of office. Thus both statements are right.

Explanation

Governor enjoys personal immunity from legal liability for his official acts. During his term of office, he is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts. He cannot be arrested or imprisoned. His emoluments and allowances cannot be diminished during his term of office. Thus both statements are right.

4. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha derives his powers and duties from

Constitution of India.

Rules of Procedure and conduct of business rules of the Lok Sabha.

Parliamentary Conventions.

All of the above.

5. Which of the following are true regarding the Representation of Peoples Act, 1951?

Section 123 in the Representation of the People Act, 1951 deals with Corrupt practices.

Lily Thomas case is related to the Representation of Peoples Act, 1951?

All of the statements given above are correct.

In Abhiram Singh v C.D. Commachen by a 4-3 majority ruling, a seven-judge Constitution Bench held that an election will be annulled if votes are sought in the name of the religion of the candidate.
The majority view interpreted Section 123(3) of the Representation of the People Act to mean that this provision was laid down with an intent “to clearly proscribe appeals based on sectarian, linguistic or caste considerations”.“An appeal in the name of religion, race, caste, community or language is impermissible under the RPA, 1951 and would constitute a corrupt practice sufficient to annul the election in which such an appeal was made regardless whether the appeal was in the name of the candidate’s religion or the religion of the election agent or that of the opponent or that of the voter’s,” the majority judges ruled.Umesh Sinha was appointed to suggest changes to Section 126 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 in view of social media expansion.Lily Thomas case challenged the constitutional validity of section 8(4) of the RPA.

Explanation

In Abhiram Singh v C.D. Commachen by a 4-3 majority ruling, a seven-judge Constitution Bench held that an election will be annulled if votes are sought in the name of the religion of the candidate.
The majority view interpreted Section 123(3) of the Representation of the People Act to mean that this provision was laid down with an intent “to clearly proscribe appeals based on sectarian, linguistic or caste considerations”.“An appeal in the name of religion, race, caste, community or language is impermissible under the RPA, 1951 and would constitute a corrupt practice sufficient to annul the election in which such an appeal was made regardless whether the appeal was in the name of the candidate’s religion or the religion of the election agent or that of the opponent or that of the voter’s,” the majority judges ruled.Umesh Sinha was appointed to suggest changes to Section 126 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 in view of social media expansion.Lily Thomas case challenged the constitutional validity of section 8(4) of the RPA.

6. With reference to the constitution of the Water Dispute Tribunals in India consider the following statements: 1. The inter-state river water disputes tribunals are constituted under Inter- State River Water Disputes Act of 1956. 2. Till date no inter-state river water disputes tribunal has been constituted. 3. The Chairman and members of such tribunal are nominated by the Chief Justice of India. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

3 only

1 and 3 only

2 only

2 and 3 only

The inter-state river water disputes tribunals are constituted under Inter-State River Water Disputes Act of 1956, enacted under Article 262 of Constitution of India. Hence statement 1 is correct. There are various inter-state river water disputes tribunals which have been constituted under the Act of 1956 viz. Ravi and Beas Water Tribunal, Vamsadhara Water Disputes Tribunal, Mahadayi Water Disputes Tribunal, Mahanadi Water Disputes Tribunal and Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. As per provisions of the Inter-State River Water Disputes (ISRWD) Act, 1956, the Tribunal shall consist of a Chairman and two other Members nominated by the Chief Justice of India from amongst the Judges of the Supreme Court or High Court. Hence statement 3 is correct

Explanation

The inter-state river water disputes tribunals are constituted under Inter-State River Water Disputes Act of 1956, enacted under Article 262 of Constitution of India. Hence statement 1 is correct. There are various inter-state river water disputes tribunals which have been constituted under the Act of 1956 viz. Ravi and Beas Water Tribunal, Vamsadhara Water Disputes Tribunal, Mahadayi Water Disputes Tribunal, Mahanadi Water Disputes Tribunal and Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. As per provisions of the Inter-State River Water Disputes (ISRWD) Act, 1956, the Tribunal shall consist of a Chairman and two other Members nominated by the Chief Justice of India from amongst the Judges of the Supreme Court or High Court. Hence statement 3 is correct

7. For contesting Rajya Sabha elections, the provision regarding the domicile of the state has been done away with. Which of the following are true regarding this ? 1. The validity of doing away with the domicile requirement for elections to Rajya Sabha has been upheld in the Kuldeep Nayyar Case. 2. There are no sitting Members of the Rajya Sabha whose domicile is different from that of the state they represent in the Rajya Sabha. Codes:

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

8. Which of the following place is known as ‘hardware capital of the world’?

Silicon Valley, USA.

Bengaluru, India.

Shenzhen, China.

Seoul, South Korea

Shenzhen is a major city in Guangdong Province, China; it forms part of the Pearl River Delta megalopolis, bordering Hong Kong to the south, Huizhou to the northeast, and Dongguan to the northwest. It holds sub-provincial administrative status, with powers slightly less than a province. Shenzhen produces 90 percent of the world’s electronics, has a nominal GDP of over 2.2 trillion RMB ($330 billion USD), and is home to over 12.5 million people. In around 40 years, it has transformed into the “Hardware capital of the world”.

Explanation

Shenzhen is a major city in Guangdong Province, China; it forms part of the Pearl River Delta megalopolis, bordering Hong Kong to the south, Huizhou to the northeast, and Dongguan to the northwest. It holds sub-provincial administrative status, with powers slightly less than a province. Shenzhen produces 90 percent of the world’s electronics, has a nominal GDP of over 2.2 trillion RMB ($330 billion USD), and is home to over 12.5 million people. In around 40 years, it has transformed into the “Hardware capital of the world”.

9. Who among the following administers oath of office to Chief Minister?

Chief justice of concerned state High Court.

Speaker of State legislative assembly.

Governor.

Protem Speaker.

Before the Chief Minister enters his office, the governor administers to him the oaths of office and secrecy.

Explanation

Before the Chief Minister enters his office, the governor administers to him the oaths of office and secrecy.

10. Consider the following statements: I. Additional and Acting judges in High court are appointed by the President. II. Judges appointed to High court must not be less than 60 years of age. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

I Only

II Only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

Additional and Acting judges in High court are appointed by the President.
There is no minimum age for appointment of judges in Supreme Court and High Court.

Explanation

Additional and Acting judges in High court are appointed by the President.
There is no minimum age for appointment of judges in Supreme Court and High Court.

11. The salary and perquisites of the Prime Minister are decided by the.

Constitution.

Cabinet.

Parliament.

President

12. Consider the following statements regarding Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI): 1. Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) is the statutory authority in charge of the waterways for shipping and navigation in India 2. IWAI comes under Union Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport and Highways. Choose the correct statement(s).

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) is a nodal statutory body in charge of development and regulation of inland waterways for shipping and navigation. It was established in October 1986 and is headquartered in Noida, UP. Its main function is to build necessary infrastructure in inland waterways, surveying economic feasibility of new projects and also carrying out administration and regulation. It undertakes projects for development and maintenance of IWT infrastructure on national waterways through grant received from Ministry of Shipping.

Explanation

Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) is a nodal statutory body in charge of development and regulation of inland waterways for shipping and navigation. It was established in October 1986 and is headquartered in Noida, UP. Its main function is to build necessary infrastructure in inland waterways, surveying economic feasibility of new projects and also carrying out administration and regulation. It undertakes projects for development and maintenance of IWT infrastructure on national waterways through grant received from Ministry of Shipping.

13. Which of the following statements are correct: 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. 2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and by-elections. 3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.

1 and 2 only

2 only

2 and 3 only

3 only

Election commission has three election commissioners.
Election commission decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
It also decides the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.

Explanation

Election commission has three election commissioners.
Election commission decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
It also decides the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.

14. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in

Federalism

Democratic decentralization

Administrative delegation

Direct democracy

15. Consider the following statements about National Human Rights Commission (NHRC): 1. National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body. 2. Chairman should be a retired chief justice of India,. 3. Members should be a retired judge of the Supreme Court Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 and 3 only

2 only

1 and 2 only

3 only

National Human Rights Commission is a statutory (and not a constitutional) body. It was established in 1993 under a legislation enacted by the Parliament, namely, the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
The commission is a multi-member body consisting of a chairman and four members. The chairman should be a retired chief justice of India, and members should be serving or retired judges of the Supreme Court, a serving or retired chief justice of a high court and two persons having knowledge or practical experience with respect to human rights.

Explanation

National Human Rights Commission is a statutory (and not a constitutional) body. It was established in 1993 under a legislation enacted by the Parliament, namely, the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
The commission is a multi-member body consisting of a chairman and four members. The chairman should be a retired chief justice of India, and members should be serving or retired judges of the Supreme Court, a serving or retired chief justice of a high court and two persons having knowledge or practical experience with respect to human rights.

16. Consider the following statements with respect to 73rd Constitutional Amendment act: I. Act provides for one-third reservation of seats for women. II. Act provides for one-third reservation of seats for persons belonging to backward classes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

I Only

II Only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

The act provides for the reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of seats for women (including the number of seats reserved for women belonging the SCs and STs). Further, not less than one-third of the total number of offices of chairpersons in the panchayats at each level shall be reserved for women.
The act provides for the reservation of seats for backward classes in panchayats at any levels under voluntary provisions. But it does not provide one-third seats.

Explanation

The act provides for the reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of seats for women (including the number of seats reserved for women belonging the SCs and STs). Further, not less than one-third of the total number of offices of chairpersons in the panchayats at each level shall be reserved for women.
The act provides for the reservation of seats for backward classes in panchayats at any levels under voluntary provisions. But it does not provide one-third seats.

17. Under 74th Amendment of the Constitution the local body for a transitional area is known as

Nyaya Panchayat

Municipal Panchayat

Nagar Panchayat

Gram Panchayat

Under 74th Amendment of the constitution the local body for a transitional area is known as Nagar Panchayat. This article provides that there be a Nagar Panchayat for transitional areas i.e. an area in transition from rural to urban, a municipality for a smaller urban area and a municipal corporation for a larger urban area.

Explanation

Under 74th Amendment of the constitution the local body for a transitional area is known as Nagar Panchayat. This article provides that there be a Nagar Panchayat for transitional areas i.e. an area in transition from rural to urban, a municipality for a smaller urban area and a municipal corporation for a larger urban area.

18. Identify correct statements from the following. 1. The final judgements of a civil court are capable of execution anywhere in India 2. The records of a state government are given full faith and credit throughout India. Codes:

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

The final judgements of a civil court are capable of execution anywhere in India“Full faith and credit shall be given throughout the territory of India to public acts, records and judicial proceedings of the Union and of every State”

Explanation

The final judgements of a civil court are capable of execution anywhere in India“Full faith and credit shall be given throughout the territory of India to public acts, records and judicial proceedings of the Union and of every State”

19. Identify the correct statements from the following. 1. The oath of Office and the oath of secrecy are administered to both the Prime Minister and a Union Minister. 2. The President of India is not administered the oath of secrecy. Codes:

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

The oath of Office and the oath of secrecy are administered to both the Prime Minister and a Union Minister.The President of India is administered the oath of office not secrecy.

Explanation

The oath of Office and the oath of secrecy are administered to both the Prime Minister and a Union Minister.The President of India is administered the oath of office not secrecy.

20. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? 1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule 2. Appointing the Ministers 3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India 4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 and 3 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

1 and 2 only

2, 3 and 4 only

The governor has constitutional discretion in the following cases:
1. Reservation of a bill for the consideration of the President.
2. Recommendation for the imposition of the President’s Rule in the state.
3. While exercising his functions as the administrator of an adjoining union territory (in case of additional charge).
4. Determining the amount payable by the Government of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to an autonomous Tribal District Council as royalty accruing from licenses for mineral exploration.
5. Seeking information from the chief minister with regard to the administrative and legislative matters of the state.

Explanation

The governor has constitutional discretion in the following cases:
1. Reservation of a bill for the consideration of the President.
2. Recommendation for the imposition of the President’s Rule in the state.
3. While exercising his functions as the administrator of an adjoining union territory (in case of additional charge).
4. Determining the amount payable by the Government of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to an autonomous Tribal District Council as royalty accruing from licenses for mineral exploration.
5. Seeking information from the chief minister with regard to the administrative and legislative matters of the state.

21. Consider the following statement(s) regarding Lok Adalats in India: 1. Lok Adalats are statutory bodies. 2. The award (decision) made by the Lok Adalats is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and is final and binding on all parties and no appeal against such an award lies before any court of law Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

Lok Adalat is one of the forms of alternative dispute redressal mechanisms, it is a forum where disputes/cases pending in the court of law or at pre-litigation stage are settled/ compromised amicably. Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. Under the said Act, the award (decision) made by the Lok Adalats is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and is final and binding on all parties and no appeal against such an award lies before any court of law. If the parties are not satisfied with the award of the Lok Adalat though there is no provision for an appeal against such an award, but they are free to initiate litigation by approaching the court of appropriate jurisdiction by filing a case by following the required procedure, in exercise of their right to litigate

Explanation

Lok Adalat is one of the forms of alternative dispute redressal mechanisms, it is a forum where disputes/cases pending in the court of law or at pre-litigation stage are settled/ compromised amicably. Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. Under the said Act, the award (decision) made by the Lok Adalats is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and is final and binding on all parties and no appeal against such an award lies before any court of law. If the parties are not satisfied with the award of the Lok Adalat though there is no provision for an appeal against such an award, but they are free to initiate litigation by approaching the court of appropriate jurisdiction by filing a case by following the required procedure, in exercise of their right to litigate

22. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding State Legislative council?

The members of the legislative council are directly elected.

Size of the council depends on the size of the assembly of the concerned state.

Maximum strength is fixed at 40

None of the above

The members of the legislative council are indirectly elected. The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40. It means that the size of the council depends on the size of the assembly of the concerned state.

Explanation

The members of the legislative council are indirectly elected. The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40. It means that the size of the council depends on the size of the assembly of the concerned state.

23. The State of Jammu and Kashmir was recently put under the President’s rule. Consider the following statements regarding it. 1. In case of failure of the State government, six month’s Governor’s rule has to be compulsorily imposed 2. The State will directly come under the President’s rule after the tenure of six months is over. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

In all states of India, the state government's failure results in President's rule. The process is slightly more nuanced in Jammu and Kashmir where not the President's but Governor's rule is imposed. Under the Article 92 of the Jammu and Kashmir Constitution, when the State government fails, six months of Governor’s rule is compulsory under which all the legislature powers are vested with the Governor. Under the Governor's rule, the State Assembly is either kept in suspended animation or dissolved. The Governor has to dissolve the Legislative Assembly after the tenure of six months is over and the State will directly come under the President’s rule for following six months during which elections have to be declared in State. In case the elections are not declared, President’s rule can be extended by another six months. No Presidential proclamation shall in any case remain in force for more than three years except for the intervention of the Election Commission of India, which has to certify that the continuance in force of the Proclamation is necessary on account of difficulties in holding elections to the Legislative Assembly.

Explanation

In all states of India, the state government's failure results in President's rule. The process is slightly more nuanced in Jammu and Kashmir where not the President's but Governor's rule is imposed. Under the Article 92 of the Jammu and Kashmir Constitution, when the State government fails, six months of Governor’s rule is compulsory under which all the legislature powers are vested with the Governor. Under the Governor's rule, the State Assembly is either kept in suspended animation or dissolved. The Governor has to dissolve the Legislative Assembly after the tenure of six months is over and the State will directly come under the President’s rule for following six months during which elections have to be declared in State. In case the elections are not declared, President’s rule can be extended by another six months. No Presidential proclamation shall in any case remain in force for more than three years except for the intervention of the Election Commission of India, which has to certify that the continuance in force of the Proclamation is necessary on account of difficulties in holding elections to the Legislative Assembly.

24. Identify the correct statements from the following. 1. The basic structure doctrine is a result of the conflict between Articles 13 and 368 of the Indian Constitution. 2. Sovereignty of the elected representatives is the basis of of the amendment procedure. Codes:

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

Self explanatory.

Explanation

Self explanatory.

25. NITI Aayog recently released “Strategy for New India @ 75”. Consider the following statements regarding it: 1. It has recommended creation of a single exam for entire India with all India rank, including Union & all states. 2. It has recommended reduction in the number of civil services at the central and state levels. 3. The upper age limit for the civil services examination should be brought down to 27 years for the general category in a phased manner by 2022-23. Which of the following are correct?

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

3 only

1, 2 and 3

All the 3 statements are correct

Explanation

All the 3 statements are correct

26. Governor has which of the following powers? 1. Executive powers. 2. Legislative powers. 3. Financial powers. 4. Judicial powers. 5. Emergency powers.

1,2,3,4,5

1,2,3 Only

2,3,4 Only

1,2,3,4 Only.

Governor does not have Emergency powers, Diplomatic powers and Military powers. Governor has only Executive powers, Legislative powers, Financial powers and Judicial powers.

Explanation

Governor does not have Emergency powers, Diplomatic powers and Military powers. Governor has only Executive powers, Legislative powers, Financial powers and Judicial powers.

27. In India, Judicial Review implies

The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.

The power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.

The power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.

The power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.

Article 13 declares that all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the fundamental rights shall be void.
The term ‘law’ in Article 13 has been given a wide connotation so as to include the following:
(a) Permanent laws enacted by the Parliament or the state legislatures;
(b) Temporary laws like ordinances issued by the president or the state governors;
(c) Statutory instruments in the nature of delegated legislation (executive legislation) like order, bye-law, rule, regulation or notification; and
(d) Non-legislative sources of law, that is, custom or usage having the force of law.
Thus, not only a legislation but any of the above can be challenged in thecourts as violating a Fundamental Right and hence, can be declared as void.
Supreme Court held in the Kesavananda Bharati case2 (1973) that a Constitutional amendment can be challenged on the ground that it violates a fundamental right that forms a part of the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution and hence, can be declared as void.

Explanation

Article 13 declares that all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the fundamental rights shall be void.
The term ‘law’ in Article 13 has been given a wide connotation so as to include the following:
(a) Permanent laws enacted by the Parliament or the state legislatures;
(b) Temporary laws like ordinances issued by the president or the state governors;
(c) Statutory instruments in the nature of delegated legislation (executive legislation) like order, bye-law, rule, regulation or notification; and
(d) Non-legislative sources of law, that is, custom or usage having the force of law.
Thus, not only a legislation but any of the above can be challenged in thecourts as violating a Fundamental Right and hence, can be declared as void.
Supreme Court held in the Kesavananda Bharati case2 (1973) that a Constitutional amendment can be challenged on the ground that it violates a fundamental right that forms a part of the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution and hence, can be declared as void.

28. The Nikshay Poshan Yojana is related to:

Raising nutrition level in the country on a war footing

Nutritional support to Tuberculosis patients

Universal Basic Income

Cash transfer in lieu of the food grain for the targeted Public Distribution System

Nikshay Poshan Yojana (NPY) direct benefit transfer (DBT) scheme for nutritional support to Tuberculosis (TB) patients. It was rolled out from April, 2018. Benefits:
• Financial incentive of Rs. 500 per month for each notified TB patient
• Incentive for the complete duration of anti-TB treatment to the patient

Explanation

Nikshay Poshan Yojana (NPY) direct benefit transfer (DBT) scheme for nutritional support to Tuberculosis (TB) patients. It was rolled out from April, 2018. Benefits:
• Financial incentive of Rs. 500 per month for each notified TB patient
• Incentive for the complete duration of anti-TB treatment to the patient

29. Chairperson and Members of Lokpal shall be appointed by the President after obtaining the recommendations of a Selection Committee consisting of 1. Prime Minister 2. Speaker of the House of the People 3. Leader of Opposition in the House of the People 4. Chief Justice of India 5. Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

1,2,3,4,5

1,2,3 Only

1,2,3,4 Only

1,3,4 Only

The Chairperson and Members of Lokpal shall be appointed by the President after obtaining the recommendations of a Selection Committee consisting of—
The Prime Minister—Chairperson;
The Speaker of the House of the People—Member;
The Leader of Opposition in the House of the People—Member;
The Chief Justice of India or a Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by him—Member;
One eminent jurist, as recommended by the Chairperson and Members

Explanation

The Chairperson and Members of Lokpal shall be appointed by the President after obtaining the recommendations of a Selection Committee consisting of—
The Prime Minister—Chairperson;
The Speaker of the House of the People—Member;
The Leader of Opposition in the House of the People—Member;
The Chief Justice of India or a Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by him—Member;
One eminent jurist, as recommended by the Chairperson and Members

30. Consider the following statements regarding Administrative Tribunals: 1. Setting up administration tribunals at the union and state levels has been made in part- XIV-A of the constitution by 44th Amendment Act. 2. The Central Administrative Tribunal exercises original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service matters of public servants of Centre and civilian employees of defence services. 3. It is guided by the principles of natural justice. Which of the above-mentioned statement(s) is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

All of the above

Provision for setting up administration tribunals at the union and state levels has been made in part- XIV-A of the constitution by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. Art. 323-A authorizes Parliament to establish administrative tribunals to resolve disputes and complaints regarding the service commission of persons employed under the union/state governments. The Parliament provides for the jurisdiction, power and authority to such tribunals and prescribes the procedure to be followed by them. Art.323 B deals with tribunals for matters other than in Art.323 A. Hence statement 1 is correct. The CAT exercises jurisdiction over all service matters concerning a member of any All-India Service, a person appointed to any civil service of the Union or any civil post under the union, a civilian appointed to any defence services or a post connected with defence except officers and servants of the Supreme Court and the secretarial staff of the Parliament. Hence statement 2 is correct. The CAT is not bound by the procedure laid down in the Civil Procedure Code of 1908. It is guided by the principles of natural justice. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Explanation

Provision for setting up administration tribunals at the union and state levels has been made in part- XIV-A of the constitution by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. Art. 323-A authorizes Parliament to establish administrative tribunals to resolve disputes and complaints regarding the service commission of persons employed under the union/state governments. The Parliament provides for the jurisdiction, power and authority to such tribunals and prescribes the procedure to be followed by them. Art.323 B deals with tribunals for matters other than in Art.323 A. Hence statement 1 is correct. The CAT exercises jurisdiction over all service matters concerning a member of any All-India Service, a person appointed to any civil service of the Union or any civil post under the union, a civilian appointed to any defence services or a post connected with defence except officers and servants of the Supreme Court and the secretarial staff of the Parliament. Hence statement 2 is correct. The CAT is not bound by the procedure laid down in the Civil Procedure Code of 1908. It is guided by the principles of natural justice. Hence statement 3 is correct.

31. Which of the following is not the correct statement regarding Governor?

Governor can remit a death sentence.

Governor's ordinance making power is co-extensive with the legislative power of the state legislature.

Governor can grant pardon in respect to sentence by a court-martial.

None of the above

Governor:
His ordinance-making power is coextensive with the legislative power of the state legislature. This means that he can issue ordinances only on those subjects on which the state legislature can make laws.
He cannot pardon a death sentence. Even if a state law prescribes for death sentence, the power to grant pardon lies with the President and not the governor. But, the governor can suspend, remit or commute a death sentence.
He does not possess power to grant pardon, reprieve, respite, suspension, remission or commutation in respect to punishment or sentence by a court-martial (military court).

Explanation

Governor:
His ordinance-making power is coextensive with the legislative power of the state legislature. This means that he can issue ordinances only on those subjects on which the state legislature can make laws.
He cannot pardon a death sentence. Even if a state law prescribes for death sentence, the power to grant pardon lies with the President and not the governor. But, the governor can suspend, remit or commute a death sentence.
He does not possess power to grant pardon, reprieve, respite, suspension, remission or commutation in respect to punishment or sentence by a court-martial (military court).

32. A: Consultative committees of parliament are headed by the Ministers concerned. R: Consultative Committees are constituted by the Ministry of Parliamentary affairs. Codes:

Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

If A is true but R is false

If A is false but R is true

The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs constitutes Consultative Committees of Members of both the Houses of Parliament for different ministries. The Minister in-charge of the Ministry concerned acts as the chairman of the Committee. The main purpose of these Committees is to provide a forum for informal discussions between the Government and Members of Parliament on policies and programs of the Government and the manner of their implementation. Meetings of these Committees are held both during the session and inter-session period of Parliament

Explanation

The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs constitutes Consultative Committees of Members of both the Houses of Parliament for different ministries. The Minister in-charge of the Ministry concerned acts as the chairman of the Committee. The main purpose of these Committees is to provide a forum for informal discussions between the Government and Members of Parliament on policies and programs of the Government and the manner of their implementation. Meetings of these Committees are held both during the session and inter-session period of Parliament

33. The NITI Aayog has released the second ‘delta’ ranking of 111 Aspirational Districts. What are these Aspirational Districts?

The districts which have shown highest progress in social indicators like, health and education.

The districts which have contributed the most to the State GDP.

The districts which have the least ‘Income distance’ from the district with the highest per capita income in the country.

The districts which have shown relatively lesser progress in key social areas and have emerged as pockets of under-development.

The NITI Aayog has released the second ‘delta’ ranking of 111 most underdeveloped districts (Aspirational Districts). The ranking measured the incremental progress made by districts between June 1, 2018 and October 31, 2018. Tamil Nadu’s Virudhunagar showed the most improvement, between June and October, while Jharkhand’s Pakur reflected the least improvement
The Aspirational District Programme -
It was launched on January 5, 2018. It aims to rapidly transform the districts that have shown relatively lesser progress in key social areas and have emerged as pockets of under-development, thereby posing a challenge to ensure balanced regional development. The broad contours of the programme are Convergence (of Central & State Schemes), Collaboration (of Central, State level ‘Prabhari’ Officers & District Collectors), and Competition among districts driven by a mass Movement. With States as the main drivers, this program will focus on the strength of each district, identify low-hanging fruits for immediate improvement, measure progress, and rank districts.

Explanation

The NITI Aayog has released the second ‘delta’ ranking of 111 most underdeveloped districts (Aspirational Districts). The ranking measured the incremental progress made by districts between June 1, 2018 and October 31, 2018. Tamil Nadu’s Virudhunagar showed the most improvement, between June and October, while Jharkhand’s Pakur reflected the least improvement
The Aspirational District Programme -
It was launched on January 5, 2018. It aims to rapidly transform the districts that have shown relatively lesser progress in key social areas and have emerged as pockets of under-development, thereby posing a challenge to ensure balanced regional development. The broad contours of the programme are Convergence (of Central & State Schemes), Collaboration (of Central, State level ‘Prabhari’ Officers & District Collectors), and Competition among districts driven by a mass Movement. With States as the main drivers, this program will focus on the strength of each district, identify low-hanging fruits for immediate improvement, measure progress, and rank districts.

34. Article-262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of Inter-state water disputes. Which of the following provisions in this regard is/are correct? 1. Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint. 2. Parliament cannot restrict Supreme Court or any other court to exercise jurisdiction in respect of such dispute.

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter-state river or river valley Parliament may by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint as is referred to in clause (1)

Explanation

Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter-state river or river valley Parliament may by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint as is referred to in clause (1)

35. Which of the following are correct statements? 1. When no party has a clear majority in the assembly, then the governor may exercise his personal discretion in the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister. 2. Before appointment of Chief Minister, he or she has to prove majority in the State legislative assembly. 3. Speaker of State legislative assembly advises the governor with regard to the summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the state legislature.

1,2,3

1, 3 Only

3 Only

1 Only

When no party has a clear majority in the assembly, then the governor may exercise his personal discretion in the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister. In such a situation, the governor usually appoints the leader of the largest party or coalition in the assembly as the Chief Minister and ask him to seek a vote of confidence in the House within a month.
The Constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in the legislative assembly before he is appointed as the Chief Minister. The governor may first appoint him as the Chief Minister and then ask him to prove his majority in the legislative assembly within a reasonable period.
Chief Minister advises the governor with regard to the summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the state legislature.

Explanation

When no party has a clear majority in the assembly, then the governor may exercise his personal discretion in the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister. In such a situation, the governor usually appoints the leader of the largest party or coalition in the assembly as the Chief Minister and ask him to seek a vote of confidence in the House within a month.
The Constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in the legislative assembly before he is appointed as the Chief Minister. The governor may first appoint him as the Chief Minister and then ask him to prove his majority in the legislative assembly within a reasonable period.
Chief Minister advises the governor with regard to the summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the state legislature.

36. Feroze Varun Gandhi, a Member of Parliament has introduced a bill in Parliament on the right to recall. Which of the following are true regarding the right to recall? 1. Right to Recall is an instrument of Direct democracy. 2. Recall is a political process whereas impeachment is a legal process. Codes:

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

Right to Recall is an instrument of Direct democracy. Recall differs from another method for removing officials from office – impeachment – in that it is a political device while impeachment is a legal process. Impeachment requires the House to bring specific charges and the Parliament to act as a jury.

Explanation

Right to Recall is an instrument of Direct democracy. Recall differs from another method for removing officials from office – impeachment – in that it is a political device while impeachment is a legal process. Impeachment requires the House to bring specific charges and the Parliament to act as a jury.

37. In a bid to bring in the expertise of private sector professionals, the central government has notified some positions of joint secretaries through lateral entry scheme. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the lateral entry scheme?

The age of the candidate who wishes to apply should be a minimum of 40 years.

Apart from the citizens of India, the citizens of Nepal and Bhutan can also apply.

Any private professional with 15 years of work experience in selected fields can apply for the post.

Parliamentary Standing Committee on External Affairs recommended lateral entrants for positions like High Commissioner etc.

The scheme is applicable only for the citizens of India.

Explanation

The scheme is applicable only for the citizens of India.

38. Consider the following statements: I. High courts issue writs for purposes other than the Fundamental Rights. II. Supreme Court can issue writs with respect to ordinary laws. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

I Only

II Only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

The high courts are also empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights.
The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights and not for other purposes. The high court, on the other hand, can issue writs not only for the enforcement of the fundamental rights but also for other purposes.

Explanation

The high courts are also empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights.
The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights and not for other purposes. The high court, on the other hand, can issue writs not only for the enforcement of the fundamental rights but also for other purposes.

39. Who is the chairman of the Committee on Private Members Bills and Resolution?

Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

A member nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha

This is a special committee of the Lok Sabha and consists of 15 members including the Deputy Speaker as its Chairman. The Rajya Sabha does not have such a committee. The same function in the Rajya Sabha is performed by the Business Advisory Committee of that House. It classifies the bills and allocates time for the discussion of bills and resolutions introduced by private members (other than ministers).

Explanation

This is a special committee of the Lok Sabha and consists of 15 members including the Deputy Speaker as its Chairman. The Rajya Sabha does not have such a committee. The same function in the Rajya Sabha is performed by the Business Advisory Committee of that House. It classifies the bills and allocates time for the discussion of bills and resolutions introduced by private members (other than ministers).

40. Identify correct statements from the following. 1. Scheduled castes or tribes can avail benefit of reservation in government jobs only in their home states.. 2. The opinion of the government regarding the backwardness of Scheduled castes or tribes should be based on quantifiable data according to the observations of of Supreme Court in Nagraj Judgement. Codes:

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

A Supreme Court bench has held that scheduled castes or tribes can avail benefit of reservation in government jobs only in their home states. The Court has thus upheld the “son of the soil” principle. For the purpose of Articles 341 and 342 in Constitution, the reservation benefits would be within the geographical territories of a state or UT. In M Nagaraja 2006 judgment, the SC ruled that the government cannot introduce a quota (reservation) in promotion for its SC / ST employee unless they prove that the particular Dalit community is backward and inadequately represented and also prove that such a reservation in promotion would not affect the overall efficiency of public administration. Such an opinion of the government should be based on quantifiable data. State was also required to ensure that the reservation does not breach the 50% ceiling.

Explanation

A Supreme Court bench has held that scheduled castes or tribes can avail benefit of reservation in government jobs only in their home states. The Court has thus upheld the “son of the soil” principle. For the purpose of Articles 341 and 342 in Constitution, the reservation benefits would be within the geographical territories of a state or UT. In M Nagaraja 2006 judgment, the SC ruled that the government cannot introduce a quota (reservation) in promotion for its SC / ST employee unless they prove that the particular Dalit community is backward and inadequately represented and also prove that such a reservation in promotion would not affect the overall efficiency of public administration. Such an opinion of the government should be based on quantifiable data. State was also required to ensure that the reservation does not breach the 50% ceiling.

41. Which of the following is/are true regarding citizenship? 1. The Citizenship Act, 1955 provides for compulsory registration of every citizen of India and issuance of National Identity Card to him. 2. The Citizenship Rules, 2003 framed under the Citizenship Act, 1955 prescribe the manner of preparation of the National Register of Citizens. Codes:

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

The Citizenship Act, 1955 provides for compulsory registration of every citizen of India and issuance of National Identity Card to him. The Citizenship Rules, 2003 framed under the Citizenship Act, 1955 prescribe the manner of preparation of the National Register of Citizens. National Register of Citizens (NRC) in Assam which is application based and distinct from the rest of India where the process is enumeration based. Only once before has an NRC has been prepared once so far, which is in the State of Assam in 1951. After the Census of 1951, NRC was created that contained the details of every person by village in the State of Assam.

Explanation

The Citizenship Act, 1955 provides for compulsory registration of every citizen of India and issuance of National Identity Card to him. The Citizenship Rules, 2003 framed under the Citizenship Act, 1955 prescribe the manner of preparation of the National Register of Citizens. National Register of Citizens (NRC) in Assam which is application based and distinct from the rest of India where the process is enumeration based. Only once before has an NRC has been prepared once so far, which is in the State of Assam in 1951. After the Census of 1951, NRC was created that contained the details of every person by village in the State of Assam.

42. Which of the following is a correct statement?

Gram Nyayalas can take up both civil and criminal cases.

Judgement of Gram Nyayalas can not be appealed.

Judgement of Lok Adalat can be challenged in higher courts.

Lok Adalat is a permanent court.

Gram Nyayalas can take up both civil and criminal cases.
Judgement pronounced by Gram Nyayalas can be appealed in the district or sessions court.
Lok Adalat's judgement is based on settlement arised between the two party's and it is binding. This judgement can not be challenged before any court of law.
Lok Adalat is not a permanent court. It is established when there is a need.

Explanation

Gram Nyayalas can take up both civil and criminal cases.
Judgement pronounced by Gram Nyayalas can be appealed in the district or sessions court.
Lok Adalat's judgement is based on settlement arised between the two party's and it is binding. This judgement can not be challenged before any court of law.
Lok Adalat is not a permanent court. It is established when there is a need.

43. Identify correct statements from the following. 1. The principles of natural justice are an integral part of the guarantee of equality assured by Art. 14 2. In India, the constitution is the result of the rights of individual. Codes:

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

Natural rights are an integral part of Article 14 according to the Supreme Court in the Maneka Gandhi Judgement. In India, the rights of individuals are a result of the constitution unlike the British Constitution.

Explanation

Natural rights are an integral part of Article 14 according to the Supreme Court in the Maneka Gandhi Judgement. In India, the rights of individuals are a result of the constitution unlike the British Constitution.

44. Which of the following were used as criteria for horizontal devolution of funds by 14th Finance Commission? 1. Income distance 2. Population 3. Fiscal discipline 4. Forest Cover 5. Area 6. Fiscal Capacity

1, 2. 3, 4 and 5 only

1, 2, 3 and 4 only

3, 4, 5 and 6 only

1, 2, 4 and 5 only

45. Recently, a celebrity was convicted by a Chief Judicial Magistrate and the High Court upheld the conviction and sentenced to five years in prison in the blackbuck poaching case. Which of the following best describes the reason for this trial not taking place in the National Green Tribunal (NGT)?

Crimes committed under the Wildlife (protection) act are not covered under the NGT act.

These crimes are governed by international agreements signed by India.

None of the above options is correct..

The green laws that the National Green Tribunal is empowered to adjudicate on does not cover the Wildlife Protection Act 1972, though the body is empowered to deal with issues pertaining to forest clearances under the Forest Conservation Act 1980, besides other regulations and legislations.

Explanation

The green laws that the National Green Tribunal is empowered to adjudicate on does not cover the Wildlife Protection Act 1972, though the body is empowered to deal with issues pertaining to forest clearances under the Forest Conservation Act 1980, besides other regulations and legislations.

46. Identify correct statements from the following. 1. Introduction of a Public Bill in the Parliament requires 7 days prior notice. 2. Private member’s Bills can be introduced and discussed only on Fridays. Codes:

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

Introduction of a Public Bill in the Parliament requires 7 days prior notice.Private member’s Bills introduction in the house requires one month’s prior notice.While government Bills can be introduced and discussed on any day, private member’s Bills can be introduced and discussed only on Fridays.

Explanation

Introduction of a Public Bill in the Parliament requires 7 days prior notice.Private member’s Bills introduction in the house requires one month’s prior notice.While government Bills can be introduced and discussed on any day, private member’s Bills can be introduced and discussed only on Fridays.

47. Identify correct statements from the following. 1. Appointment to public office can be challenged by any person irrespective of the fact whether his fundamental or any legal right has been infringed or not. 2. Article 13 of the Constitution of India provides for the doctrine of Judicial review. Codes:

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

Quo warranto writ is invoked in cases of public offices and it is issued to restrain persons from acting in public office to which he is not entitled to. Although the term ‘office’ here is different from ‘seat’ in legislature but still a writ of Quo Warranto can lie with respect to the post of Chief Minister holding a office whereas a writ of quo warranto cannot be issued against a Chief Minister, if the petitioner fails to show that the minister is not properly appointed or that he is not qualified by law to hold the office. It cannot be issued against an Administrator who is appointed by the government to manage Municipal Corporation, after its dissolution. Appointment to public office can be challenged by any person irrespective of the fact whether his fundamental or any legal right has been infringed or not. Article 13 states that laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights} ... The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.

Explanation

Quo warranto writ is invoked in cases of public offices and it is issued to restrain persons from acting in public office to which he is not entitled to. Although the term ‘office’ here is different from ‘seat’ in legislature but still a writ of Quo Warranto can lie with respect to the post of Chief Minister holding a office whereas a writ of quo warranto cannot be issued against a Chief Minister, if the petitioner fails to show that the minister is not properly appointed or that he is not qualified by law to hold the office. It cannot be issued against an Administrator who is appointed by the government to manage Municipal Corporation, after its dissolution. Appointment to public office can be challenged by any person irrespective of the fact whether his fundamental or any legal right has been infringed or not. Article 13 states that laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights} ... The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.

48. Consider the following statements regarding Triple Talaq Bill: 1. It makes ‘talaq-i-biddat’ a ‘cognizable and non-bailable’ criminal offence. 2. It does not include electronic talaq. 3. It provides that Muslim women would get maintenance allowance & the custody of minor children. Which of the following are correct?

1 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

3 only

1, 2 and 3

Recently, the Lok Sabha passed the Triple Talaq Bill. The salient features of the bill are:
1. Triple talaq has been made ‘cognizable and non-bailable’ criminal offence. 3 years jail + fine
. 2. It includes all forms of instant triple talaq – written/ spoken/ electronic.
3. Aggrieved woman can seek ‘subsistence allowance’ for herself and dependent children, as well as custody of minor children. The law will not be applicable to J&K.

Explanation

Recently, the Lok Sabha passed the Triple Talaq Bill. The salient features of the bill are:
1. Triple talaq has been made ‘cognizable and non-bailable’ criminal offence. 3 years jail + fine
. 2. It includes all forms of instant triple talaq – written/ spoken/ electronic.
3. Aggrieved woman can seek ‘subsistence allowance’ for herself and dependent children, as well as custody of minor children. The law will not be applicable to J&K.

49. Which of the following is the largest of all Parliamentary committees?

Public Accounts Committee.

Estimates Committee.

Ethics Committee

Committee on PSUs

50. Consider the following statements: I. High court can review only state law. II. Supreme Court can transfer a case from one subordinate court to other subordinate court of state. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

I Only

II Only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

High court can review central law and state law.
Supreme Court can transfer a case from one subordinate court to other subordinate court of state.

Explanation

High court can review central law and state law.
Supreme Court can transfer a case from one subordinate court to other subordinate court of state.

51. Which of the following is not correct statement?

Munsiff court hears civil cases.

Sessions judge can impose capital punishment.

The jurisdiction and powers of a high court can be changed only by the parliament

None of the above

Munsiff court hears civil cases.
The sessions judge has the power to impose any sentence including life imprisonment and capital punishment (death sentence). However, a capital punishment passed by him is subject to confirmation by the High Court, whether there is an appeal or not.
The jurisdiction and powers of a high court can be changed both by the parliament and the state legislature.

Explanation

Munsiff court hears civil cases.
The sessions judge has the power to impose any sentence including life imprisonment and capital punishment (death sentence). However, a capital punishment passed by him is subject to confirmation by the High Court, whether there is an appeal or not.
The jurisdiction and powers of a high court can be changed both by the parliament and the state legislature.

52. Consider the following statements: 1. A municipal corporation in India is established by a legislation 2. A municipal corporation enjoys inherent powers of its own in matters of finance and administration. Which among the above is / are correct statements?

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

The second statement is not correct.
A municipal corporation enjoys a non-sovereign status. Since it is created by the state government, it has no inherent powers of its own and enjoys only such powers as are allocated to it. In other words, its powers art derivative and not original. As such, if is subject to the control of the state government, which exercises the powers of determining its area, the size of its council, its term of office, powers and responsibilities, and financial resources, and can also dissolve it in case of consistent default” in the performance of its duties. Municipal Corporation is established by an act of a Vidhan Sabha.

Explanation

The second statement is not correct.
A municipal corporation enjoys a non-sovereign status. Since it is created by the state government, it has no inherent powers of its own and enjoys only such powers as are allocated to it. In other words, its powers art derivative and not original. As such, if is subject to the control of the state government, which exercises the powers of determining its area, the size of its council, its term of office, powers and responsibilities, and financial resources, and can also dissolve it in case of consistent default” in the performance of its duties. Municipal Corporation is established by an act of a Vidhan Sabha.

53. Identify the correct statements from the following. 1. The government has to resign if it fails to get an amendment bill (under article 368) passed in the Lok Sabha. 2. The President must give his assent to a constitutional amendment bill passed by due process. Codes:

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

The government of the day need not resign if it fails to get a constitutional amendment bill passed because it doesn’t express the want of confidence of the Lok Sabha, as long as the Government enjoys simple majority. The majority required to pass a constitutional amendment bill is two thirds. The President must give his assent to a constitutional amendment bill passed by due process.

Explanation

The government of the day need not resign if it fails to get a constitutional amendment bill passed because it doesn’t express the want of confidence of the Lok Sabha, as long as the Government enjoys simple majority. The majority required to pass a constitutional amendment bill is two thirds. The President must give his assent to a constitutional amendment bill passed by due process.

54. Consider the following statements: I. The salaries, allowances, privileges, leave and pension of the judges of the High Court are determined from time to time by the state. II. Salary, allowances and pension of High court judges are charged expenditure on Consolidated Fund of the India. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

I Only

II Only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

The salaries, allowances, privileges, leave and pension of the judges of the High Court are determined from time to time by the Parliament.
Salary and allowances of High court judges are charged expenditure on Consolidated Fund of state and pension of High court judges are charged expenditure on Consolidated Fund of India.

Explanation

The salaries, allowances, privileges, leave and pension of the judges of the High Court are determined from time to time by the Parliament.
Salary and allowances of High court judges are charged expenditure on Consolidated Fund of state and pension of High court judges are charged expenditure on Consolidated Fund of India.

55. Identify the correct statements from the following. 1. When a resolution has been moved, no resolution or amendment raising substantially the same question can be moved within one year from the date of the moving of the earlier resolution. 2. If there is no other day allotted for the private members' resolution in the same session, then the part discussed or inconclusively discussed resolution lapses at the end of the session Codes:

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

In case of Government, resolutions, if the discussion on a resolution is not concluded on the allotted day, it is carried on to the next allotted day in the same session. If there is no other day allotted for the private members' resolution in the same session, then the part discussed or inconclusively discussed resolution lapses at the end of the session and it is not carried forward to the next session, unless the House decides otherwise which is rarely done.
When a resolution has been moved, no resolution or amendment raising substantially the same question can be moved within one year from the date of the moving of the earlier resolution. When a resolution has been withdrawn with the leave of the House, no resolution raising substantially the same question shall be moved during the same session.

Explanation

In case of Government, resolutions, if the discussion on a resolution is not concluded on the allotted day, it is carried on to the next allotted day in the same session. If there is no other day allotted for the private members' resolution in the same session, then the part discussed or inconclusively discussed resolution lapses at the end of the session and it is not carried forward to the next session, unless the House decides otherwise which is rarely done.
When a resolution has been moved, no resolution or amendment raising substantially the same question can be moved within one year from the date of the moving of the earlier resolution. When a resolution has been withdrawn with the leave of the House, no resolution raising substantially the same question shall be moved during the same session.

56. Article 19 (1) (g) guarantees that all citizens shall have the right to practice any profession, or to carry on occupation, trade or business. This also allows the state to monopolize certain businesses/ Professions. Which of the following businesses/ professions cannot be monopolized by the state?

Electronic media.

Public health.

Manufacture of defence Equipment.

Oil trade.

Article 19 (1) (a), which deals with freedom of speech and expression, also includes the Right to telecast. Hence, the government having monopoly over Electronic media is akin to curbing the right of the citizen to telecast.

Explanation

Article 19 (1) (a), which deals with freedom of speech and expression, also includes the Right to telecast. Hence, the government having monopoly over Electronic media is akin to curbing the right of the citizen to telecast.

57. Consider the following statements: I. Collegium to appoint Chief Justice of High court of a state consists of Chief Justice of India and four senior most judges of Supreme court. II. Collegium to appoint judges of High court of a state consists of Chief Justice of India and two senior most judges of High court. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

I Only

II Only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

Collegium to appoint Chief Justice of High court of a state consists of Chief Justice of India and two senior most judges of Supreme court.
Collegium to appoint Chief Justice of High court of a state consists of Chief Justice of India and two senior most judges of Supreme court.

Explanation

Collegium to appoint Chief Justice of High court of a state consists of Chief Justice of India and two senior most judges of Supreme court.
Collegium to appoint Chief Justice of High court of a state consists of Chief Justice of India and two senior most judges of Supreme court.

58. Consider the following statements about the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI): 1. The CBI functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs. 2. The director of the CBI is appointed by the President on the advice of the Union cabinet. 3. CBI derives its power to investigate from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946. Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?

1 only

3 only

1 and 3

1, 2 and 3

The CBI, functions under Department of Personnel, Ministry of Personnel, Pension & Public Grievances. It is the nodal police agency in India which coordinates investigation on behalf of Interpol Member countries. CBI derives power to investigate from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946 The amended Delhi Special Police Establishment Act (2014) empowers a committee to appoint the director of CBI.
The committee consists the following people:
1. Prime Minister – chairperson
2. Leader of Opposition – member
3. Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court Judge recommended by the Chief Justice – member

Explanation

The CBI, functions under Department of Personnel, Ministry of Personnel, Pension & Public Grievances. It is the nodal police agency in India which coordinates investigation on behalf of Interpol Member countries. CBI derives power to investigate from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946 The amended Delhi Special Police Establishment Act (2014) empowers a committee to appoint the director of CBI.
The committee consists the following people:
1. Prime Minister – chairperson
2. Leader of Opposition – member
3. Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court Judge recommended by the Chief Justice – member

59. Consider the following statements: I. Maximum strength of State legislative assembly of all states in India is fixed at 500. II. In some states, some members of legislative assemblies are elected indirectly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

I Only

II Only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

The legislative assembly consists of representatives directly elected by the people on the basis of universal adult franchise. Its maximum strength is fixed at 500 and minimum strength at 60. It means that its strength varies from 60 to 500 depending on the population size of the state. However, in case of Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Goa, the minimum number is fixed at 30 and in case of Mizoram and Nagaland, it is 40 and 46 respectively. Further, some members of the legislative assemblies in Sikkim and Nagaland are also elected indirectly.

Explanation

The legislative assembly consists of representatives directly elected by the people on the basis of universal adult franchise. Its maximum strength is fixed at 500 and minimum strength at 60. It means that its strength varies from 60 to 500 depending on the population size of the state. However, in case of Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Goa, the minimum number is fixed at 30 and in case of Mizoram and Nagaland, it is 40 and 46 respectively. Further, some members of the legislative assemblies in Sikkim and Nagaland are also elected indirectly.

60. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is planning to come up with a ‘sandbox’ policy. What is the ‘sandbox’ approach?

SEBI raids to crackdown on hoax trading of shares

Trial of a concept before final adaptation

Segregation of stressed assets from the rest of the mutual funds

Attachment of mutual funds folios of bankrupt companies.

A sandbox approach denotes the trial of a concept before final adaptation, thus minimising the impact of any failure. The Sandbox policy will allow companies to test products in small scale in a closed environment, a particular geography or among a set of users, before they are allowed roll out commercially meeting all regulations.

Explanation

A sandbox approach denotes the trial of a concept before final adaptation, thus minimising the impact of any failure. The Sandbox policy will allow companies to test products in small scale in a closed environment, a particular geography or among a set of users, before they are allowed roll out commercially meeting all regulations.

61. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) I. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government. II. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

I Only

II Only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), is statutory organization, was constituted in September, 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. So statement I is wrong.
National Green Tribunal (NGT) was set up in 2010 under the NGT Act, 2010, for the purpose of effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection. The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice. The Tribunal is mandated to make an endeavor for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing.

Explanation

Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), is statutory organization, was constituted in September, 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. So statement I is wrong.
National Green Tribunal (NGT) was set up in 2010 under the NGT Act, 2010, for the purpose of effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection. The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice. The Tribunal is mandated to make an endeavor for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing.

62. Consider the following statements regarding office of the Governor: I. It is an independent constitutional office. II. Governor’s office is under the control of the Central government Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

I Only

II Only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

Governor is appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal. In a way, he is a nominee of the Central government. But, as held by the Supreme Court in 1979, the office of governor of a state is not an employment under the Central government. It is an independent constitutional office and is not under the control of or subordinate to the Central government.

Explanation

Governor is appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal. In a way, he is a nominee of the Central government. But, as held by the Supreme Court in 1979, the office of governor of a state is not an employment under the Central government. It is an independent constitutional office and is not under the control of or subordinate to the Central government.

63. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

In conflicts between the fundamental rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy, it is the former that always prevails.

Though Directive Principles of State Policy are not legally enforceable, they do have political justifiability.

All of the above are correct.

Refer Article 31 C of the Indian Constitution.

Explanation

Refer Article 31 C of the Indian Constitution.

64. Which of the following statements is true regarding the MPLADS scheme? 1. A Nominated MP must choose a constituency from the state of his domicile to implement the MPLADS scheme. 2. The scheme is funded and administered through the Union Ministry of Finance. Codes:

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

The MPLADS allots Rs.5 crore per year to each Member of Parliament (MP) to be spent on projects of their choice in their constituency. Lok Sabha MP has to choose a gram panchayat from the constituency he/she represents and the Rajya Sabha MP chooses it from the state he/she represents. A Nominated MP can choose any constituency from whole of India. MPs cannot pick villages which belong to themselves or their spouses. The scheme is funded and administered through the Union Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).

Explanation

The MPLADS allots Rs.5 crore per year to each Member of Parliament (MP) to be spent on projects of their choice in their constituency. Lok Sabha MP has to choose a gram panchayat from the constituency he/she represents and the Rajya Sabha MP chooses it from the state he/she represents. A Nominated MP can choose any constituency from whole of India. MPs cannot pick villages which belong to themselves or their spouses. The scheme is funded and administered through the Union Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).

65. Consider the following statements: I. Constitution has established Gram Nyayalas as the Fourth tier of Judiciary at village level. II. Central government appoints the Gram Nyayalaya Adhikaris. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

I Only

II Only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

Gram Nyayalaya Act, 2008 established Gram Nyayalayas at village level
State government appoints Gram Nyayalaya Adhikaris in consultation with the High Court of the state.

Explanation

Gram Nyayalaya Act, 2008 established Gram Nyayalayas at village level
State government appoints Gram Nyayalaya Adhikaris in consultation with the High Court of the state.

66. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct regarding the Fast Track Courts (FTCs) in India? 1. FTCs are not bound by the rules of evidence provided in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and Criminal Procedure Code. 2. The parties of the case are allowed to be represented by the lawyers. 3. The decisions of FTCs are not subject to appeal before the higher courts. 4. The funds for setting up of FTCs have been provided by the Central government to decrease the pendency particularly in those cases involving under trails. Select from the codes given below:

2 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 3 and 4 only

All of the above

The FTCs are non-regular courts which have been established by the state governments. They have been functioning since 1st April 2001. They have been established for speeding up of trails of long pending cases particularly those involving under trails. It is presided by a retired judge of the rank of additional sessions judge or above who is appointed for a term of not more than 2 years at a time. It follows strictly the rules of evidence provided in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and Criminal Procedure Code and applies relevant provisions of the penal law while deciding the case. The parties of the case are allowed to be represented by the lawyers and the decisions of an FTC are subject to appeal before the regular court. The funds for setting up of FTCs now have to be borne by the State governments. Hence statement 1, 3 and 4 only are correct.

Explanation

The FTCs are non-regular courts which have been established by the state governments. They have been functioning since 1st April 2001. They have been established for speeding up of trails of long pending cases particularly those involving under trails. It is presided by a retired judge of the rank of additional sessions judge or above who is appointed for a term of not more than 2 years at a time. It follows strictly the rules of evidence provided in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and Criminal Procedure Code and applies relevant provisions of the penal law while deciding the case. The parties of the case are allowed to be represented by the lawyers and the decisions of an FTC are subject to appeal before the regular court. The funds for setting up of FTCs now have to be borne by the State governments. Hence statement 1, 3 and 4 only are correct.

67. Consider the following regarding External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs): 1. ECBs refer to the commercial loans which the government takes from the foreign banks. 2. RBI recently capped it to 6.5% of the GDP. Which of the following are correct?

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

An external commercial borrowing (ECB) is an instrument used in India to facilitate Indian companies to raise money outside the country in foreign currency. The government of India permits Indian corporates to raise money via ECB for expansion of existing capacity as well as for fresh investments. So, Statement 1 is incorrect.The total external commercial borrowings (ECB) will now be rule-based and will be capped at 6.5 per cent of the gross domestic product, the RBI said in a statement recently.

Explanation

An external commercial borrowing (ECB) is an instrument used in India to facilitate Indian companies to raise money outside the country in foreign currency. The government of India permits Indian corporates to raise money via ECB for expansion of existing capacity as well as for fresh investments. So, Statement 1 is incorrect.The total external commercial borrowings (ECB) will now be rule-based and will be capped at 6.5 per cent of the gross domestic product, the RBI said in a statement recently.

68. Consider the following with respect to the power of the Supreme Court to Punish for contempt. 1. The Supreme Court derives its power of contempt from the Constitution. 2. Civil contempt of court most often happens when someone fails to adhere to an order from the court,. Codes:

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

The Supreme Court derives its power of contempt from the Contempts of Court act. Civil contempt of court most often happens when someone fails to adhere to an order from the court,.

Explanation

The Supreme Court derives its power of contempt from the Contempts of Court act. Civil contempt of court most often happens when someone fails to adhere to an order from the court,.

69. With reference to the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) consider the following statements: 1. It has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act of 1987. 2. It provides free Legal Services to all sections of the Indian society. 3. The Chief Justice of India is the Executive Chairman of it. Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

All of the above

The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act of 1987. Hence statement 1 is correct. The NALSA has been constituted to provide free Legal Services to the weaker sections of the society. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The Chief Justice of India is the Executive Chairman of the NALSA. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Explanation

The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act of 1987. Hence statement 1 is correct. The NALSA has been constituted to provide free Legal Services to the weaker sections of the society. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The Chief Justice of India is the Executive Chairman of the NALSA. Hence statement 3 is correct.

70. Despite police being the subject of state list, the Parliament has enacted Police Forces (Restriction of Rights) Act, 1966. Which of the following articles of the constitution enabled the Parliament to enact this law?

Article 249.

Article 253.

Article 35.

Article 252.

Article 35 in The Constitution Of India states that Parliament shall have, and the Legislature of a State shall not have, power to make laws with respect to any of the matters which under clause ( 3 ) of Article 16, clause ( 3 ) of Article 32, Article 33 and Article 34 may be provided for by law made by Parliament; Since the Police Forces (Restriction of Rights) Act, 1966 deals with restricting the rights of the Police, the state legislature cannot enact laws on it.

Explanation

Article 35 in The Constitution Of India states that Parliament shall have, and the Legislature of a State shall not have, power to make laws with respect to any of the matters which under clause ( 3 ) of Article 16, clause ( 3 ) of Article 32, Article 33 and Article 34 may be provided for by law made by Parliament; Since the Police Forces (Restriction of Rights) Act, 1966 deals with restricting the rights of the Police, the state legislature cannot enact laws on it.

71. With reference to the Press Council of India, consider the following statements: 1. The Press Council of India is a statutory body created by Press Council Act of 1978. 2. The Press Council of India jurisdiction is only limited to print media. Which of the above-mentioned statement(s) is/are correct?

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

Press Council of India The Press Council of India is a statutory body created by Press Council Act of 1978. It is the apex body for the regulation of the Press in India. It enjoys independence from the government. It acts as the regulator that defines and discharge professional standards for the print media in India. It is considered as the most important bodies that sustain democracy and to ensure that freedom of speech. The objective of Press Council of India is to preserve the freedom of the press and of maintaining and improving the standards of the press in India. It arbitrates the complaints against and by the press for violation of ethics and for violation of the freedom of the press respectively

Explanation

Press Council of India The Press Council of India is a statutory body created by Press Council Act of 1978. It is the apex body for the regulation of the Press in India. It enjoys independence from the government. It acts as the regulator that defines and discharge professional standards for the print media in India. It is considered as the most important bodies that sustain democracy and to ensure that freedom of speech. The objective of Press Council of India is to preserve the freedom of the press and of maintaining and improving the standards of the press in India. It arbitrates the complaints against and by the press for violation of ethics and for violation of the freedom of the press respectively

72. With respect to Representation of People Act (RPA) 1950, consider the following topics it deals with: 1. Qualification of voters 2. Preparation of electoral rolls 3. Delimitation of constituencies 4. Election offences Which of the above-mentioned topic(s) is/are included in RPA 1950?

1, 2, and 3 only

2 and 4 only

All 1, 2, 3, and 4

1 and 3 only

Representation of Peoples Act 1950 (RPA Act 1950) provides for the following:
1. Qualification of voters.
2. Preparation of electoral rolls.
3. Delimitation of constituencies.
4. Allocation of seats in the Parliament and state legislatures.
Representation of Peoples Act 1951 (RPA Act 1951) provides for the following:
1. Actual conduct of elections.
2. Administrative machinery for conducting elections.
3. Poll.
4. Election offences.
5. Election disputes.
6. By-elections.
7. Registration of political parties.

Explanation

Representation of Peoples Act 1950 (RPA Act 1950) provides for the following:
1. Qualification of voters.
2. Preparation of electoral rolls.
3. Delimitation of constituencies.
4. Allocation of seats in the Parliament and state legislatures.
Representation of Peoples Act 1951 (RPA Act 1951) provides for the following:
1. Actual conduct of elections.
2. Administrative machinery for conducting elections.
3. Poll.
4. Election offences.
5. Election disputes.
6. By-elections.
7. Registration of political parties.

73. With reference to the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs) consider the following statements: 1. It has been established under the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act of 1989. 2. In addition to the Scheduled Castes the Commission discharges the similar functions for the Other Backwards Communities (OBCs) and Anglo-Indian Community. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs) is a constitutional body established under the Article 338. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Commission investigate into and report on the working of the constitutional and other legal safeguards relating to the Other Backwards Communities (OBCs) and Anglo-Indian Community. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Explanation

The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs) is a constitutional body established under the Article 338. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Commission investigate into and report on the working of the constitutional and other legal safeguards relating to the Other Backwards Communities (OBCs) and Anglo-Indian Community. Hence statement 2 is correct.

74. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? 1. The totalizer machine has been used along with the electronic voting machines (EVM) displaying the total number of votes polled. 2. Once a voter presses the button on the EVM against the chosen candidate, the Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) machines prints a slip containing name of the candidate and the election symbol and drops it automatically into a sealed box.

1 only

Both 1 and 2

2 only

Neither 1 nor 2

A totalizer is a mechanism which allows votes from 14 booths to be counted together so that voters are saved from pre-poll intimidation and post-poll harassment. Simply put, totalizer machines during elections mask booth-wise voting patterns.

Explanation

A totalizer is a mechanism which allows votes from 14 booths to be counted together so that voters are saved from pre-poll intimidation and post-poll harassment. Simply put, totalizer machines during elections mask booth-wise voting patterns.

75. Consider the following. 1. Anti defection law for cross voting during elections. 2. Model code of Conduct. 3. Voting through secret ballot. Which among the above are applicable to elections to fill a Rajya Sabha vacancy?

1 & 2 Only.

2 & 3 Only.

2 Only.

None of the above.

The party high command can issue a whip for a Rajya Sabha candidate, but anti-defection law provisions do not apply, and a defiant MLA is not disqualified from membership of the House. The Supreme Court has in the past held that open ballot votes in Rajya Sabha elections against the whip will not lead to disqualification as the Tenth Schedule, pertaining to anti-defection provisions, has a different purpose. As per the Conduct of Election Rules 1961, the procedure laid down for the Rajya Sabha elections calls for a ballot-in-secret. Secrecy under Rule 39A mandates that the elector cannot declare his ballot to anyone; any deviation results in the invalidation of the ballot by the presiding officer.
Model code of Conduct is not applicable for these elections.
Secrecy aims to protect the vote as it affords the right to the voter to keep silent over the choice of candidate. All electoral polling, either for the presidency, vice-presidency, Parliament, or state assemblies, is in essence a secret ballot.
Rule 39AA of the Conduct of Election Rules defeats this purpose. It mandates that an elector belonging to a political party must declare his vote to the party agent, if the political party has issued a whip regarding the vote. Refusing to do so is a violation of the election procedure and the vote stands invalidated.

Explanation

The party high command can issue a whip for a Rajya Sabha candidate, but anti-defection law provisions do not apply, and a defiant MLA is not disqualified from membership of the House. The Supreme Court has in the past held that open ballot votes in Rajya Sabha elections against the whip will not lead to disqualification as the Tenth Schedule, pertaining to anti-defection provisions, has a different purpose. As per the Conduct of Election Rules 1961, the procedure laid down for the Rajya Sabha elections calls for a ballot-in-secret. Secrecy under Rule 39A mandates that the elector cannot declare his ballot to anyone; any deviation results in the invalidation of the ballot by the presiding officer.
Model code of Conduct is not applicable for these elections.
Secrecy aims to protect the vote as it affords the right to the voter to keep silent over the choice of candidate. All electoral polling, either for the presidency, vice-presidency, Parliament, or state assemblies, is in essence a secret ballot.
Rule 39AA of the Conduct of Election Rules defeats this purpose. It mandates that an elector belonging to a political party must declare his vote to the party agent, if the political party has issued a whip regarding the vote. Refusing to do so is a violation of the election procedure and the vote stands invalidated.

76. Consider the following authorities. 1. Election Commission of India. 2. Chief Secretary of a State. 3. All India Service Officers. 4. Legislative Assembly of a state. The writ of certiorari can be issued against which of the above bodies?

1 Only

2, 3 & 4 Only.

1, 2 & 3 Only.

All of these.

The Election Commission of India, being a quasi judicial body can be subjected to the writ of certiorari. Supreme court has ruled that this writ can also be issued against administrative authorities. Chief Secretary of a State and All India Service Officials are administrative authorities. Whereas, this writ cannot be issued against a legislative body.

Explanation

The Election Commission of India, being a quasi judicial body can be subjected to the writ of certiorari. Supreme court has ruled that this writ can also be issued against administrative authorities. Chief Secretary of a State and All India Service Officials are administrative authorities. Whereas, this writ cannot be issued against a legislative body.

77. The Gram Sabha: 1. is a body made of elected representatives 2. is constituted for five years 3. has no nominated representatives Select the correct statements from the codes given below:

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

3 only

1, 2 and 3

“Gram Sabha” means a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls comprised within the area of Panchayat at the village level. Thus, first statement is incorrect. In the Panchayat Raj System Gram Sabha is the only permanent unit and not constituted for five years contrary to the Panchayat samitis.

Explanation

“Gram Sabha” means a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls comprised within the area of Panchayat at the village level. Thus, first statement is incorrect. In the Panchayat Raj System Gram Sabha is the only permanent unit and not constituted for five years contrary to the Panchayat samitis.

78. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State? 1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly 2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State 3. Dissolution of the local bodies Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

During president’s rule is in operation, the state executive is dismissed and the state legislature is either suspended or dissolved. So dissolution is not ‘necessarily’ the consequence.
When the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister. The state governor, on behalf of the President, carries on the state administration with the help of the chief secretary of the state or the advisors appointed by the President.

Explanation

During president’s rule is in operation, the state executive is dismissed and the state legislature is either suspended or dissolved. So dissolution is not ‘necessarily’ the consequence.
When the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister. The state governor, on behalf of the President, carries on the state administration with the help of the chief secretary of the state or the advisors appointed by the President.

79. Governor’s rule has been imposed in the state of Jammu and kashmir recently. It is called the President’s rule in the rest of India. Which of the following is true regarding the Governor’s rule in Jammu and Kashmir ?

Article 356 of the Constitution is not applicable to the state of J&K.

The failure of governmental function results in Governor’s rule under Section 92 of the constitution of J&K.

The Governor’s rule can be imposed indefinitely in J&K provided that such a proclamation is approved by the Parliament.

All of the above statements are true.

The failure of governmental function results in Governor’s rule under Section 92 of the constitution of Jammu and Kashmir. The Governor later obtains the consent of the President of India. It is only when the Governor’s rule is not revoked for six months that the President’s rule is imposed in the state under Article 356. The restrictions regarding the time limit of the imposition of such a rule are applicable to the state of J & K.

Explanation

The failure of governmental function results in Governor’s rule under Section 92 of the constitution of Jammu and Kashmir. The Governor later obtains the consent of the President of India. It is only when the Governor’s rule is not revoked for six months that the President’s rule is imposed in the state under Article 356. The restrictions regarding the time limit of the imposition of such a rule are applicable to the state of J & K.

80. Consider the following statements about the Citizenship Act, 1955: 1. It identifies the persons who became citizens of India at the commencement of the Constitution. 2. It also prescribes the ways of losing citizenship. 3. As per the Act, a person cannot acquire citizenship by the way of ‘Incorporation of territory’. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

1, 2 and 3

None

Citizenship Act, 1955 The Act provides for acquisition and loss of citizenship after the commencement of the Constitution. The Act prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship:
1. Birth
2. Descent
3. Registration
4. Naturalisation
5. Incorporation of territory
The Act prescribes three ways of losing citizenship whether acquired under the Act or prior to it under the Constitution:
1.By Renunciation
2.By Termination
3.By Deprivation
The Constitution deals with the citizenship from Articles 5 to 11 under Part II. However, it contains neither any permanent nor any elaborate provisions in this regard. It only identifies the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement (i.e., on January 26, 1950). IT does not deal with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement.

Explanation

Citizenship Act, 1955 The Act provides for acquisition and loss of citizenship after the commencement of the Constitution. The Act prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship:
1. Birth
2. Descent
3. Registration
4. Naturalisation
5. Incorporation of territory
The Act prescribes three ways of losing citizenship whether acquired under the Act or prior to it under the Constitution:
1.By Renunciation
2.By Termination
3.By Deprivation
The Constitution deals with the citizenship from Articles 5 to 11 under Part II. However, it contains neither any permanent nor any elaborate provisions in this regard. It only identifies the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement (i.e., on January 26, 1950). IT does not deal with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement.

81. A: The ordinance making power of the President is coextensive with the law making powers of the Parliament in all respects except duration. R: Ordinance making power of the president is a parallel power of legislation.. Codes:

Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

If A is true but R is false

If A is false but R is true

Though the ordinance making power is coextensive with the law making powers of the Parliament, i.e the President can promulgate ordinances on all the subjects on the union list. An ordinance is also subject to same constitutional limitation as an act of the Parliament. However, the ordinance making power of the President is not a Parallel power of legislation because, the President can’t promulgate ordinances, when the Parliament is in session.

Explanation

Though the ordinance making power is coextensive with the law making powers of the Parliament, i.e the President can promulgate ordinances on all the subjects on the union list. An ordinance is also subject to same constitutional limitation as an act of the Parliament. However, the ordinance making power of the President is not a Parallel power of legislation because, the President can’t promulgate ordinances, when the Parliament is in session.

82. The Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) India Index baseline report has been released by the NITI Aayog. Consider the following statements regarding it. 1. SDG India Index score ranges from 0 to 1, with 1 denoting the achievement of the national target set for 2030. 2. SDG India Index measures the progress across all 17 Sustainable Development Goals. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

•The NITI Aayog has released the Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) India Index, which comprehensively documents the progress made by India’s States and Union Territories towards implementing the 2030 United Nations’ Sustainable Development Goals targets. •Himachal Pradesh, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu have been ranked highest in terms of being on track to achieve the United Nations’ SDG. The average Indian score was 57
•The SDG India Index was developed in collaboration with the Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation (MoSPI), Global Green Growth Institute and United Nations in India.
•The Index spans 13 out of 17 SDGs. Progress on SDGs 12, 13 & 14 could not be measured as relevant State/UT level data were not available and SDG 17 was left out as it focuses on international partnerships.
•A composite score was computed between the range of 0-100 for each State and UT.

Explanation

•The NITI Aayog has released the Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) India Index, which comprehensively documents the progress made by India’s States and Union Territories towards implementing the 2030 United Nations’ Sustainable Development Goals targets. •Himachal Pradesh, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu have been ranked highest in terms of being on track to achieve the United Nations’ SDG. The average Indian score was 57
•The SDG India Index was developed in collaboration with the Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation (MoSPI), Global Green Growth Institute and United Nations in India.
•The Index spans 13 out of 17 SDGs. Progress on SDGs 12, 13 & 14 could not be measured as relevant State/UT level data were not available and SDG 17 was left out as it focuses on international partnerships.
•A composite score was computed between the range of 0-100 for each State and UT.

83. Consider the following statements about Bharat Ratna Award: 1. The number of annual awards is restricted to maximum of three in particular year. 2. Selection of the person(s) conferred with the award is done by a committee appointed by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

The number of annual awards is restricted to a maximum of three in a particular year. On conferment of the award, the recipient receives a Sanad(certificate) signed by the President and a medallion. The Award does not carry any monetary grant. The recommendations for Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister himself to the President. No formal recommendations for this are necessary.

Explanation

The number of annual awards is restricted to a maximum of three in a particular year. On conferment of the award, the recipient receives a Sanad(certificate) signed by the President and a medallion. The Award does not carry any monetary grant. The recommendations for Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister himself to the President. No formal recommendations for this are necessary.

84. With reference to the proposed Unified Water Dispute Tribunal consider the following statements: 1. It envisages constituting a standalone Tribunal with permanent establishment and permanent office space and infrastructure. 2. The proposed Dispute Resolution Committee (DRC) will be constituted by the Supreme Court. 3. It provides for a fixed time period for resolutions of the water disputes. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Only 1 and 2

All of the above

Only 1 and 3

Only 2 and 3

The Inter-State River Water Disputes (Amendment) Bill, 2017 amends the existing ISRWD Act, 1956. The Bill envisages constituting a standalone Tribunal with permanent establishment and permanent office space and infrastructure so as to obviate with the need to set up a separate Tribunal for each water dispute which is invariably a time- consuming process. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Bill includes a provision for establishment of a Dispute Resolution Committee (DRC) by the Central Government for resolving disputes amicably. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The Bill envisages resolution of inter-State water disputes within a maximum period of one year and six months. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Explanation

The Inter-State River Water Disputes (Amendment) Bill, 2017 amends the existing ISRWD Act, 1956. The Bill envisages constituting a standalone Tribunal with permanent establishment and permanent office space and infrastructure so as to obviate with the need to set up a separate Tribunal for each water dispute which is invariably a time- consuming process. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Bill includes a provision for establishment of a Dispute Resolution Committee (DRC) by the Central Government for resolving disputes amicably. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The Bill envisages resolution of inter-State water disputes within a maximum period of one year and six months. Hence statement 3 is correct.

85. With reference to the family courts in India consider the following statements: 1. These are the specialized courts which exclusively deal with family matters. 2. They have restrictive jurisdiction and does not have the power to decide on issues of contempt. 3. They are established by the Union Government in consultation with the High Court concerned. Which of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

3 only

2 only

The Family Courts Act of 1984 provides for the establishment of family courts as Specialized Courts which exclusively deals with the family matters. The main purpose is to assist the smooth and effective disposal of cases relating to family matters. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Family Courts Act provides restrictive jurisdiction for Family Court and does not give the power to decide issues of contempt of court. Hence statement 2 is correct.The Family Courts are established by the State Governments in consultation with the High Courts. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Explanation

The Family Courts Act of 1984 provides for the establishment of family courts as Specialized Courts which exclusively deals with the family matters. The main purpose is to assist the smooth and effective disposal of cases relating to family matters. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Family Courts Act provides restrictive jurisdiction for Family Court and does not give the power to decide issues of contempt of court. Hence statement 2 is correct.The Family Courts are established by the State Governments in consultation with the High Courts. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

86. Consider the following statements regarding Central Bureau of Investigation: 1. It is statutory body established under Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946. 2. The CBI is a multidisciplinary investigation agency of the Government of India which undertakes investigation of corruption, economic offences and cases of conventional crime. Choose the incorrect statement(s):

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

The CBI owes its origin to the Delhi Special Police Establishment, established in 1941, to enquire into cases of corruption in the procurement during the Second World War. Based on the recommendations of the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption, CBI was established by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the status of an attached office. The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.The CBI is the main investigating agency of the Central Government.
The CBI is a multidisciplinary investigation agency of the Government of India and undertakes investigation of corruption-related cases, economic offences and cases of conventional crime.

Explanation

The CBI owes its origin to the Delhi Special Police Establishment, established in 1941, to enquire into cases of corruption in the procurement during the Second World War. Based on the recommendations of the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption, CBI was established by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the status of an attached office. The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.The CBI is the main investigating agency of the Central Government.
The CBI is a multidisciplinary investigation agency of the Government of India and undertakes investigation of corruption-related cases, economic offences and cases of conventional crime.

87. Which of the following provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment act are to be mandatorily included in the state laws? 1. Establishment of Gram Sabha. 2. Establishment of ward committees. 3. Functions and powers of Gram Sabha. 4. Duration of Panchayati raj institutions. 5. Three tier structure.

1,2,3,4,5.

1,3,4,5 Only

1,4,5 Only

1,3,5 Only

The mandatory provisions are : 3 tier structure, Reservation., establishment of Gram Sabha, Duration of Panchayati raj, State election commission, State Finance commission.
Functions and powers of Gram Sabha are under voluntary provisions.

Explanation

The mandatory provisions are : 3 tier structure, Reservation., establishment of Gram Sabha, Duration of Panchayati raj, State election commission, State Finance commission.
Functions and powers of Gram Sabha are under voluntary provisions.

88. Consider the following regarding statements regarding Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Bill, 2018, recently passed by the Lok Sabha: 1. The Bill provides for reservations in employment for them under OBC category. 2. The Bill criminalizes begging by the transgenders. 3. The Bill extends protection to them in case of sexual assaults or rape. Which of the following are incorrect?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

2 only

1 and 3 only

The Bill does not provide for employment opportunities through reservations, disregarding the directions of the Court in NALSA “to treat them as socially and educationally backward classes of citizens and extend all kinds of reservation in cases of admission in educational institutions and for public appointments.” ▪ The Bill criminalises begging, thereby targeting transgender persons who rely on begging for sustenance. ▪ The Bill fails to extend protection to transgender persons who might be victims of sexual assault or rape, as the Indian Penal Code recognises rape in strict terms of men and women as perpetrator and victim, respectively. While the Bill makes “sexual abuse” punishable, with a disproportionate punishment of imprisonment only up to two years, it does not define the acts that constitute sexual offences, making it complicated for transgender persons to report such crimes and access justice.

Explanation

The Bill does not provide for employment opportunities through reservations, disregarding the directions of the Court in NALSA “to treat them as socially and educationally backward classes of citizens and extend all kinds of reservation in cases of admission in educational institutions and for public appointments.” ▪ The Bill criminalises begging, thereby targeting transgender persons who rely on begging for sustenance. ▪ The Bill fails to extend protection to transgender persons who might be victims of sexual assault or rape, as the Indian Penal Code recognises rape in strict terms of men and women as perpetrator and victim, respectively. While the Bill makes “sexual abuse” punishable, with a disproportionate punishment of imprisonment only up to two years, it does not define the acts that constitute sexual offences, making it complicated for transgender persons to report such crimes and access justice.

89. Who among the following aids the President of India in notifying the date of election of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

Pro tem Speaker.

Minister for Parliamentary Affairs.

Election Commission of India.

Secretary General, Loksabha.

Newly elected Member of Parliament from Lok Sabha elects the Speaker among themselves. It is desired Speaker should be someone who understands Lok Sabha functions and it is someone accepted among the ruling and opposition parties.
MP’s propose a name to Pro-term speaker. These names are notified to President of India. President through their aid Secretary General notifies the election date. If only name is proposed, Speaker is elected without any formal vote. However, if more than 1 nominations are received. A division(vote) is called. MPs vote for their candidate on such date notified by President. Successful candidate is elected as Speaker of the Lok Sabha until next general election.

Explanation

Newly elected Member of Parliament from Lok Sabha elects the Speaker among themselves. It is desired Speaker should be someone who understands Lok Sabha functions and it is someone accepted among the ruling and opposition parties.
MP’s propose a name to Pro-term speaker. These names are notified to President of India. President through their aid Secretary General notifies the election date. If only name is proposed, Speaker is elected without any formal vote. However, if more than 1 nominations are received. A division(vote) is called. MPs vote for their candidate on such date notified by President. Successful candidate is elected as Speaker of the Lok Sabha until next general election.

90. Consider the following statements with respect to National Green Tribunal (NGT): 1. Only a judge of Supreme Court can be appointed as the chairman of the Tribunal. 2. Members of the tribunal are not eligible for re-appointment 3. The NGT is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. 4. NGT cannot impose penalties under Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2 and 3 only

All of the above

National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a statutory body established under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment. It has a full-time chairperson and following members: a chairman, at least 10 and maximum 20 Full time judicial members and at least 10 and maximum 20 full time experts appointed by the Central government. The person should have been either a Judge of India’s Supreme Court or Chief Justice of a High Court in India to be appointed as the chairman. The chairman and members of the Tribunal hold office for a term of 5yrs and are not eligible for re-appointment. It has Original Jurisdiction on matters of “substantial question relating to environment” and “damage to the environment due to specific activity”. The NGT is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice. NGT is also not bound by the rules of evidence as enshrined in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. Hence statement 2, 3 and 4 only are correct

Explanation

National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a statutory body established under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment. It has a full-time chairperson and following members: a chairman, at least 10 and maximum 20 Full time judicial members and at least 10 and maximum 20 full time experts appointed by the Central government. The person should have been either a Judge of India’s Supreme Court or Chief Justice of a High Court in India to be appointed as the chairman. The chairman and members of the Tribunal hold office for a term of 5yrs and are not eligible for re-appointment. It has Original Jurisdiction on matters of “substantial question relating to environment” and “damage to the environment due to specific activity”. The NGT is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice. NGT is also not bound by the rules of evidence as enshrined in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. Hence statement 2, 3 and 4 only are correct

91. Consider the following statements: I. A member of either House of Parliament can be appointed as a Governor. II. When the same person is appointed as the governor of two or more states, the emoluments and allowances payable to him are shared by the states in such proportion as determined by the Parliament.. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

I Only

II Only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

The Constitution lays down the following conditions for the the governor’s office:
1. He should not be a member of either House of Parliament or a House of the state legislature. If any such person is appointed as governor, he is deemed to have vacated his seat in that House on the date on which he enters upon his office as the governor.
2. When the same person is appointed as the governor of two or more states, the emoluments and allowances payable to him are shared by the states in such proportion as determined by the president.

Explanation

The Constitution lays down the following conditions for the the governor’s office:
1. He should not be a member of either House of Parliament or a House of the state legislature. If any such person is appointed as governor, he is deemed to have vacated his seat in that House on the date on which he enters upon his office as the governor.
2. When the same person is appointed as the governor of two or more states, the emoluments and allowances payable to him are shared by the states in such proportion as determined by the president.

92. Swayangsiddha scheme of the West Bengal can be linked to the provisions of which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India ?

Article 14.

Article 25.

Article 23

Article 24.

To curb human trafficking Bengal state police has come up with a self-reliance scheme known as Swayangsiddha. This can be linked to Article 23 which prohibits the traffic in human beings and forced labor such as begar. The Human Trafficking is the illegal trade in human beings for the purposes of commercial sexual xploitation, prostitution or forced labor.

Explanation

To curb human trafficking Bengal state police has come up with a self-reliance scheme known as Swayangsiddha. This can be linked to Article 23 which prohibits the traffic in human beings and forced labor such as begar. The Human Trafficking is the illegal trade in human beings for the purposes of commercial sexual xploitation, prostitution or forced labor.

93. Which of the following is true regarding the distinguished jurist that can be appointed to the committee looking into the Impeachment of a Supreme Court?

He should be distinguished Jurist in the Opinion of the President.

He should be distinguished Jurist in the Opinion the prime Minister.

He should be distinguished Jurist in the Opinion the Presiding officer of the House

He should be distinguished Jurist in the Opinion of the house.

94. Which of the following is correct statement?

High court can hear matter of criminal cases in the first instance.

High court can hear appeals in constitutional matters.

President can create common high court for two or more states.

None of the above

High court and Supreme court has Civil Original jurisdiction but not Criminal Original jurisdiction.
Appellate jurisdiction of High court does not cover constitutional matters. It is because the subordinate courts in India does not interpret constitution.
7th Constitutional Amendment Act empowered Parliament to create common high court for two or more states. President works with the aid and advice of Council of Ministers,i.e., the executive. Thus, President is not empowered to create a common high court.

Explanation

High court and Supreme court has Civil Original jurisdiction but not Criminal Original jurisdiction.
Appellate jurisdiction of High court does not cover constitutional matters. It is because the subordinate courts in India does not interpret constitution.
7th Constitutional Amendment Act empowered Parliament to create common high court for two or more states. President works with the aid and advice of Council of Ministers,i.e., the executive. Thus, President is not empowered to create a common high court.

95. In which of the following cases does the Supreme Court have the Original Jurisdiction?

Cases related to the violation of Fundamental Rights.

Election Petitions.

Dispute of commercial nature between the centre of the States.

None of the above.

96. Consider the following statements: I. Constitution provided for the reservation of seats for scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and backward classes in the assembly of each state on the basis of population ratios. II. This reservation is to last until 2020. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

I Only

II Only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

The Constitution provided for the reservation of seats for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the assembly of each state on the basis of population ratios.
Originally, this reservation was to operate for ten years (i.e., up to 1960). But this duration has been extended continuously since then by 10 years each time. Now, under the 95th Amendment Act of 2009, this reservation is to last until 2020.

Explanation

The Constitution provided for the reservation of seats for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the assembly of each state on the basis of population ratios.
Originally, this reservation was to operate for ten years (i.e., up to 1960). But this duration has been extended continuously since then by 10 years each time. Now, under the 95th Amendment Act of 2009, this reservation is to last until 2020.

97. In context of the Gram Nyayalaya, consider the following statements: 1. Gram Nyayalayas are mobile village courts in India established under Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 for speedy and easy access to justice system in the rural areas of India. 2. It exercises the powers of both Criminal and Civil Courts. 3. The presiding officer (Nyayadhikari) is appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Court of the State concerned. 4. The Gram Nyayalayas will not be bound by the rules of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 but shall be guided by the principles of natural justice and subject to any rule made by the High Court. Which of the above-mentioned statement(s) is/are correct?

All of the above

1, 2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 4 only

1, 3 and 4 only

Gram Nyayalayas are mobile village courts in India established under Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 for speedy and easy access to justice system in the rural areas of India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Gram Nyayalaya is a mobile court and exercises the powers of both Criminal and Civil Courts; i.e., the seat of the Gram Nyayalaya will be located at the headquarters of the intermediate Panchayat, but they will go to villages, work there and dispose of the cases. It can try criminal cases, civil suits, claims or disputes which are specified in the First Schedule and the Second Schedule to the Gram Nyayalaya Act and the scope of these cases can be amended by the Central as well as the State Governments, as per their respective legislative competence. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Gram Nyayalaya are courts of Judicial Magistrate of the first class and its presiding officer (Nyayadhikari) is appointed by the State Government in consultation with the High Court of the State concerned. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
The Gram Nyayalaya will not be bound by the rules of evidence provided in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 but shall be guided by the principles of natural justice and subject to any rule made by the High Court. Hence statement 4 is correct

Explanation

Gram Nyayalayas are mobile village courts in India established under Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 for speedy and easy access to justice system in the rural areas of India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Gram Nyayalaya is a mobile court and exercises the powers of both Criminal and Civil Courts; i.e., the seat of the Gram Nyayalaya will be located at the headquarters of the intermediate Panchayat, but they will go to villages, work there and dispose of the cases. It can try criminal cases, civil suits, claims or disputes which are specified in the First Schedule and the Second Schedule to the Gram Nyayalaya Act and the scope of these cases can be amended by the Central as well as the State Governments, as per their respective legislative competence. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Gram Nyayalaya are courts of Judicial Magistrate of the first class and its presiding officer (Nyayadhikari) is appointed by the State Government in consultation with the High Court of the State concerned. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
The Gram Nyayalaya will not be bound by the rules of evidence provided in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 but shall be guided by the principles of natural justice and subject to any rule made by the High Court. Hence statement 4 is correct

98. Consider the following statements with respect to National Commission for Women: 1. It is a constitutional body created under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990. 2. It consists of a chairperson, five members and member secretary nominated by the central government. 3. The Commission presents an annual report to the President on works done towards the safeguards for women. Choose the incorrect statement(s):

2 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

All of the above

National Commission for Women The National Commission for Women is a statutory body established in January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990.
Composition: The NCW is made up of a chairperson, five members and a member secretary. A person ‘committed to the cause of women” is nominated and appointed as Chairperson by the Central Government. The Five members are also nominated by the central Government. They are “persons of ability, integrity and standing who have had experience in law or legislation, trade unionism, management of an industry or organization committed to increasing the employment potential of women, women’s voluntary organizations (including women activists), administration, economic development, health, education or social welfare. One member must be from SC / ST. Chairperson and members are removed by Central Government.
Present reports to central government on work done towards these safeguards.

Explanation

National Commission for Women The National Commission for Women is a statutory body established in January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990.
Composition: The NCW is made up of a chairperson, five members and a member secretary. A person ‘committed to the cause of women” is nominated and appointed as Chairperson by the Central Government. The Five members are also nominated by the central Government. They are “persons of ability, integrity and standing who have had experience in law or legislation, trade unionism, management of an industry or organization committed to increasing the employment potential of women, women’s voluntary organizations (including women activists), administration, economic development, health, education or social welfare. One member must be from SC / ST. Chairperson and members are removed by Central Government.
Present reports to central government on work done towards these safeguards.

99. Consider the following statements about Train-18 (T-18): 1. It has been designed and developed by the Rail Coach Factory. 2. It is set to replace the Rajdhani trains of Indian Railways. 3. It has been named ‘T-18’ as it has been developed within 18 months. 4. Its approximate cost of production per train is 6 crores, 40% less than its global competitors. Which of the above statements are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only

1, 2 and 3 only

4 only

3 and 4 only

Train 18, Indian Railways’ first 160 kmph capable self-propelled train set, rolls out today! Made in just 18 months, Train 18 is an engine-less train set to replace Shatabdi trains. The 16 coach fully AC train set has been manufactured at Integral Coach Factory, Chennai under the ‘Make in India’ initiative. Statement 1 is wrong. Rail Coach Factory is located at Raebareli. It has been named ‘T-18’ because its rollout year 2018. ‘T-20’ will be rolled out in 2020 to replace the Rajdhani trains. Statement 4 is correct

Explanation

Train 18, Indian Railways’ first 160 kmph capable self-propelled train set, rolls out today! Made in just 18 months, Train 18 is an engine-less train set to replace Shatabdi trains. The 16 coach fully AC train set has been manufactured at Integral Coach Factory, Chennai under the ‘Make in India’ initiative. Statement 1 is wrong. Rail Coach Factory is located at Raebareli. It has been named ‘T-18’ because its rollout year 2018. ‘T-20’ will be rolled out in 2020 to replace the Rajdhani trains. Statement 4 is correct

100. Which of the following are true regarding the Krishna River Management Board? 1. Krishna River Management Board is constituted under the provisions of Article 262 of the Indian Constitution.. 2. Chief Ministers of all the states through which river Krishna flows through are members of the apex council of this board. . Codes:

Only 1.

Only 2

Both 1 & 2.

Neither 1 nor 2.

The Andhra Pradesh Re-Organization Act, 2014 was promulgated in Parliament by the Central Government for the bifurcation of the erstwhile State of Andhra Pradesh into the States of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, and under the Presidential Orders, Ministry of Law and Justice published the Act vide Gazette No.6 (part-2) of 2014 on 1st March 2014. Part IX of the Act deals with Management and Development of Water Resources of the successor States.
In exercise of the powers conferred under section 85 (part IX) of the Andhra Pradesh Re-Organization Act, 2014, the Central Government constituted KRMB for the administration, regulation, maintenance and operation of such projects, as may be notified by the Central Government from time to time.According to the ANDHRA PRADESH REORGANISATION ACT, 2014 under clause (1) of section 84, the Central Government shall, on and from the appointed day, constitute an Apex Council for the supervision of the functioning of the Krishna River Management Board.
The Apex Council shall consist of-
(a) Minister of Water Resources, Government of India-Chairperson;
(b) Chief Minister of State of Andhra Pradesh-Member;
(c) Chief Minister of State of Telangana-Member.

Explanation

The Andhra Pradesh Re-Organization Act, 2014 was promulgated in Parliament by the Central Government for the bifurcation of the erstwhile State of Andhra Pradesh into the States of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, and under the Presidential Orders, Ministry of Law and Justice published the Act vide Gazette No.6 (part-2) of 2014 on 1st March 2014. Part IX of the Act deals with Management and Development of Water Resources of the successor States.
In exercise of the powers conferred under section 85 (part IX) of the Andhra Pradesh Re-Organization Act, 2014, the Central Government constituted KRMB for the administration, regulation, maintenance and operation of such projects, as may be notified by the Central Government from time to time.According to the ANDHRA PRADESH REORGANISATION ACT, 2014 under clause (1) of section 84, the Central Government shall, on and from the appointed day, constitute an Apex Council for the supervision of the functioning of the Krishna River Management Board.
The Apex Council shall consist of-
(a) Minister of Water Resources, Government of India-Chairperson;
(b) Chief Minister of State of Andhra Pradesh-Member;
(c) Chief Minister of State of Telangana-Member.