Information Technology Assessment! Trivia Quiz

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Questions: 40 | Attempts: 329

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Information Technology Assessment! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following is the local user with the MOST authority on a computer running Windows XP?

    • A.

      BCM user

    • B.

      Power user

    • C.

      Network Configuration Operator

    • D.

      Administrator

    Correct Answer
    D. Administrator
    Explanation
    The local user with the MOST authority on a computer running Windows XP is the Administrator. The Administrator account has full control over the system and can make changes to system settings, install software, and manage other user accounts. This account has the highest level of authority and can override any restrictions or permissions set for other user accounts.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following modes will provide retrieval of a previous computing session with the least amount of boot-up time?

    • A.

      Shutdown

    • B.

      Hibernate

    • C.

      Standby

    • D.

      Restart

    Correct Answer
    C. Standby
    Explanation
    The standby mode will provide retrieval of a previous computing session with the least amount of boot-up time. In standby mode, the computer saves the current session in its memory and enters a low-power state. This allows the computer to quickly resume the session when it is powered back on. In contrast, shutdown completely shuts down the computer and requires a full boot-up process, hibernate saves the session to the hard drive which takes longer to restore, and restart also requires a full boot-up process. Therefore, standby mode is the most efficient option for quickly retrieving a previous computing session.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following will happen when a user plugs a third-party adapter which outputs alternating current (AC) directly into a laptop?

    • A.

      The laptop will start in Safe Mode.

    • B.

      The laptop will start, however it will not charge the battery.

    • C.

      The laptop processor will be overclocked.

    • D.

      The laptop components will be damaged.

    Correct Answer
    D. The laptop components will be damaged.
    Explanation
    When a user plugs a third-party adapter which outputs alternating current (AC) directly into a laptop, the laptop components will be damaged. This is because laptops are designed to receive direct current (DC) from the adapter, and plugging in an AC adapter can cause a power surge that can damage the sensitive components of the laptop.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is a way to identify which Windows operating system is currently installed?

    • A.

      Click on Start > Run and type version/info

    • B.

      Click on Start > Run and type version info/detail

    • C.

      Right click My Computer > Manage

    • D.

      Right click My Computer > Properties

    Correct Answer
    D. Right click My Computer > Properties
    Explanation
    Right clicking on My Computer and selecting Properties allows you to view the System properties of your computer, including the operating system information. This will display the version and edition of the Windows operating system that is currently installed on the computer.

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  • 5. 

    In Windows XP, which of the following utilities is used to partition the disk?

    • A.

      Disk Management

    • B.

      System Configuration Utility

    • C.

      Registry Editor

    • D.

      Device Manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Disk Management
    Explanation
    Disk Management is a utility in Windows XP used for partitioning the disk. It allows users to create, delete, format, and resize partitions on their hard drives. This tool is essential for managing disk space and organizing data on the computer. It provides a user-friendly interface that simplifies the process of partitioning the disk, making it accessible even for non-technical users. Disk Management is a built-in feature of Windows XP and can be accessed through the Control Panel or by right-clicking on "My Computer" and selecting "Manage".

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  • 6. 

    An older printer is connected to a computer using a parallel port. Which of the following connectors is MOST likely used on the computer's parallel port?

    • A.

      DB-50 connector

    • B.

      DB-25 pin connector

    • C.

      DB-9 pin connector

    • D.

      DB-37 connector

    Correct Answer
    B. DB-25 pin connector
    Explanation
    The most likely connector used on the computer's parallel port is the DB-25 pin connector. This is because the DB-25 pin connector is commonly used for parallel ports in older printers.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following IP classes is the IP address 200.168.212.226 an example of?

    • A.

      Class C

    • B.

      Class A

    • C.

      Class B

    • D.

      Class D

    Correct Answer
    A. Class C
    Explanation
    The IP address 200.168.212.226 falls within the range of Class C IP addresses. Class C IP addresses have the first octet in the range of 192 to 223, and the remaining three octets are used to identify hosts within the network. This class allows for a large number of hosts to be connected to the network.

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  • 8. 

    The standard connector used for an UTP Ethernet connection is:

    • A.

      DB-9

    • B.

      RJ-45

    • C.

      BNC

    • D.

      RJ-11

    Correct Answer
    B. RJ-45
    Explanation
    The correct answer is RJ-45. RJ-45 is the standard connector used for UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) Ethernet connections. It is a modular connector that is commonly used for Ethernet networking. RJ-45 connectors have eight pins and are designed to terminate twisted pair cables, providing a reliable and secure connection for transmitting data over Ethernet networks.

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  • 9. 

    A user reports that the computer keeps freezing. Which of the following information should the technician obtain FIRST?

    • A.

      The model number of the user's computer

    • B.

      Windows Error Reporting Log

    • C.

      The type of machine, whether it is a laptop or a desktop

    • D.

      What the user was doing when the problem occurred

    Correct Answer
    D. What the user was doing when the problem occurred
    Explanation
    To troubleshoot the issue of the computer freezing, the technician should first gather information about what the user was doing when the problem occurred. This will help the technician identify any specific actions or programs that may be causing the freezing. It can provide insight into whether the issue is related to a specific application, website, or activity. By understanding the user's actions, the technician can narrow down the potential causes and determine the appropriate troubleshooting steps to resolve the freezing problem.

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  • 10. 

    A user reports an issue that does not occur while the technician is onsite. Which of the following actions should the technician perform while troubleshooting this issue with the user?

    • A.

      Ask the user which web sites they have been viewing.

    • B.

      Tell the user that the problem is usually related to user training.

    • C.

      Ask the user a series of questions designed to narrow the scope of the problem.

    • D.

      Tell the user that the technician will solve the problem quickly.

    Correct Answer
    C. Ask the user a series of questions designed to narrow the scope of the problem.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to ask the user a series of questions designed to narrow the scope of the problem. This is the most appropriate action for the technician to take because it allows them to gather more information from the user about the issue and try to identify any patterns or specific circumstances that may be causing the problem. By asking targeted questions, the technician can gather more details and potentially uncover the root cause of the issue, even if it is not occurring while they are onsite.

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  • 11. 

    A computer will not perform the power-on self-test (POST), also no lights or sounds are emitted. Which of the following components should be checked FIRST?

    • A.

      Display adaptor

    • B.

      Power supply

    • C.

      RAM

    • D.

      Motherboard

    Correct Answer
    B. Power supply
    Explanation
    If the computer is not performing the power-on self-test (POST) and no lights or sounds are emitted, the first component that should be checked is the power supply. The power supply is responsible for providing power to all the other components in the computer, so if it is not functioning properly, none of the other components will receive power and the computer will not start.

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  • 12. 

    A technician observes that a computer's performance has decreased, and accessing large files takes more time than before. No additional programs are running, and system resource utilization is unchanged. Which of the following should the technician do to improve the computer's performance?

    • A.

      Format the hard drive

    • B.

      Perform a system restore

    • C.

      Add more RAM to the system

    • D.

      Defragment the hard drive

    Correct Answer
    D. Defragment the hard drive
    Explanation
    The technician should defragment the hard drive to improve the computer's performance. Fragmentation occurs when files are stored in non-contiguous blocks on the hard drive, causing the computer to take longer to access and load large files. By defragmenting the hard drive, the technician can rearrange the files and optimize their placement, resulting in faster access and improved performance.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following expansion interfaces can be used to plug into a wireless network adapter and provide wireless network access for a laptop computer?

    • A.

      PCMCIA

    • B.

      Serial

    • C.

      LAN

    • D.

      PCI

    Correct Answer
    A. PCMCIA
    Explanation
    The PCMCIA expansion interface can be used to plug into a wireless network adapter and provide wireless network access for a laptop computer. PCMCIA stands for Personal Computer Memory Card International Association and is commonly used for adding functionality to laptops, such as wireless networking.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following are major components of an LCD?

    • A.

      Video card

    • B.

      Screen

    • C.

      Inverter

    • D.

      Brightness

    • E.

      Contrast

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Screen
    C. Inverter
    Explanation
    The major components of an LCD are the screen and the inverter. The screen is the display panel that shows the images and videos, while the inverter is responsible for converting the direct current (DC) power from the video card into the alternating current (AC) power needed to power the backlight of the screen. The video card, brightness, and contrast are not major components of an LCD.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following Windows commands can be entered to display the working directory?

    • A.

      TREE

    • B.

      CD

    • C.

      CHKDSK

    • D.

      RMDIR

    Correct Answer
    B. CD
    Explanation
    The CD command in Windows is used to change the current directory. When entered without any arguments, it displays the current working directory. Therefore, the CD command can be entered to display the working directory.

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  • 16. 

    A computer running Windows XP has three primary partitions and an extended partition. Which of the following partitions can be added with Disk Management Tools when creating another partition?

    • A.

      A primary partition

    • B.

      An enhanced partition

    • C.

      An extended partition

    • D.

      A logical partition

    Correct Answer
    D. A logical partition
    Explanation
    A logical partition can be added with Disk Management Tools when creating another partition. In this scenario, the computer already has three primary partitions and an extended partition. Since the extended partition can contain multiple logical partitions, it is possible to create another logical partition within the extended partition using Disk Management Tools.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following commands is used when trying to write a new boot sector to the system partition when using the Windows XP Recovery Console?

    • A.

      FIXMRB

    • B.

      FIXBOOT

    • C.

      BOOTCFG

    • D.

      FORMAT

    Correct Answer
    B. FIXBOOT
    Explanation
    FIXBOOT is the correct command to use when trying to write a new boot sector to the system partition using the Windows XP Recovery Console. This command is specifically designed to fix issues related to the boot sector and can be used to repair or replace the boot sector files on the system partition. FIXMRB, BOOTCFG, and FORMAT are not the appropriate commands for this task.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following should be replaced in a laser printer when documents have lines through the text?

    • A.

      Toner cartridge

    • B.

      Heads

    • C.

      Drum

    • D.

      Cylinder

    Correct Answer
    C. Drum
    Explanation
    In a laser printer, the drum is responsible for transferring the toner onto the paper. When documents have lines through the text, it indicates that there is a problem with the drum. The drum may have scratches or other damage that is causing the lines to appear on the printed documents. Therefore, replacing the drum should resolve the issue and ensure that the printed documents are clean and free from any lines.

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  • 19. 

    Fiber optic cable uses which of the following connectors to transmit signals?

    • A.

      BNC

    • B.

      MT-RJ

    • C.

      RJ-11

    • D.

      RJ-45

    Correct Answer
    B. MT-RJ
    Explanation
    Fiber optic cables use MT-RJ connectors to transmit signals. MT-RJ connectors are specifically designed for fiber optic cables and provide a reliable and efficient way to transmit data. BNC, RJ-11, and RJ-45 connectors are used for different types of cables, such as coaxial cables and Ethernet cables, but they are not used for fiber optic cables. Therefore, the correct answer is MT-RJ.

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  • 20. 

    A technician is diagnosing a customer's computer and observes that the computer is sluggish and unresponsive. Which of the following actions should the technician take?

    • A.

      Explain to the customer that the computer is outdated and the technician needs to take it back to the shop to fix it.

    • B.

      Explain the problem to the customer and show the customer how to defragment the system.

    • C.

      Perform a system restore on the computer.

    • D.

      Explain the problem to the customer in basic terms and recommend a solution.

    Correct Answer
    D. Explain the problem to the customer in basic terms and recommend a solution.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to explain the problem to the customer in basic terms and recommend a solution. This is the most appropriate action because it allows the technician to communicate effectively with the customer and provide them with a clear understanding of the problem. By recommending a solution, the technician can also provide the customer with options on how to resolve the sluggishness and unresponsiveness of the computer. This approach ensures that the customer is informed and involved in the decision-making process.

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  • 21. 

    When performing disk defragmentation in Windows XP, which of the following is the minimum percentage of free space that should be available on the drive?

    • A.

      5%

    • B.

      15%

    • C.

      30%

    • D.

      40%

    Correct Answer
    B. 15%
    Explanation
    When performing disk defragmentation in Windows XP, it is recommended to have a minimum of 15% free space available on the drive. This is because disk defragmentation requires space to rearrange and consolidate fragmented files. If there is not enough free space, the defragmentation process may not be able to complete successfully.

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  • 22. 

    To boot Windows into Safe Mode, which of the following keys should be pressed while booting ?

    • A.

      F9

    • B.

      F8

    • C.

      F3

    • D.

      F1

    Correct Answer
    B. F8
    Explanation
    To boot Windows into Safe Mode, the key that should be pressed while booting is F8. Safe Mode is a diagnostic mode in Windows that allows the operating system to start with only the necessary drivers and services, which can help troubleshoot issues. By pressing F8 during the boot process, the user can access the Advanced Boot Options menu, where they can select Safe Mode as the boot option.

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  • 23. 

    A user is reporting that their Windows XP computer is slow. When a technician arrives, they find many unwanted programs running at startup. Which application will allow the technician to keep the unwanted programs from running at startup?

    • A.

      MSCONFIG

    • B.

      SYSTRAY

    • C.

      WINLOGON

    • D.

      REGSVR32

    Correct Answer
    A. MSCONFIG
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MSCONFIG. MSCONFIG is a system configuration utility in Windows XP that allows users to manage the startup programs. By using MSCONFIG, the technician can disable the unwanted programs from running at startup, which can help improve the computer's performance and make it faster.

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  • 24. 

    A technician wishes to make changes to a system file, but the file is set as hidden and read-only. Which tool could they use to make the file writeable and viewable from Windows Explorer?

    • A.

      MSCONFIG.EXE

    • B.

      REGEDIT.EXE

    • C.

      ATTRIB.EXE

    • D.

      SFC.EXE

    Correct Answer
    C. ATTRIB.EXE
    Explanation
    The technician can use ATTRIB.EXE to make the file writeable and viewable from Windows Explorer. ATTRIB.EXE is a command-line tool that allows users to change the attributes of files or directories, including the hidden and read-only attributes. By using ATTRIB.EXE and specifying the appropriate parameters, the technician can remove the hidden and read-only attributes from the system file, making it writeable and viewable in Windows Explorer.

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  • 25. 

    A user is scanning a document and changes the settings to scan the same document in color. This will cause the uncompressed file size to increase by:

    • A.

      Two times

    • B.

      Three times

    • C.

      Four times

    • D.

      Eight times

    Correct Answer
    B. Three times
    Explanation
    When a user scans a document in color instead of black and white, the uncompressed file size will increase by three times. This is because color images have three color channels (red, green, and blue), while black and white images only have one channel. Each color channel adds more information to the image, resulting in a larger file size. Therefore, scanning a document in color will cause the file size to increase by three times.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following file types would be the BEST to transmit a scanned image file that would be a suitable size to transmit through e-mail?

    • A.

      PPT

    • B.

      DOC

    • C.

      TIFF

    • D.

      JPEG

    Correct Answer
    D. JPEG
    Explanation
    JPEG would be the best file type to transmit a scanned image file through email because it is a compressed file format that reduces the file size without significantly compromising the image quality. This makes it ideal for sending large image files over email, as it ensures that the file is small enough to be easily transmitted and received without causing any issues with file size limitations or slow download speeds.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is the fastest wireless standard?

    • A.

      802.3

    • B.

      802.11g

    • C.

      802.11n

    • D.

      802.5

    Correct Answer
    C. 802.11n
    Explanation
    802.11n is the fastest wireless standard because it supports a higher data transfer rate compared to the other options listed. It operates on both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands and uses multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO) technology to improve signal strength and reduce interference. This allows for faster and more reliable wireless connections, making it the preferred choice for high-speed internet access and streaming applications.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following provides the ability to mask internal IP addresses while mapping those addresses to a common external IP address?

    • A.

      IMAP

    • B.

      NAT

    • C.

      DNS

    • D.

      WINS

    Correct Answer
    B. NAT
    Explanation
    NAT (Network Address Translation) provides the ability to mask internal IP addresses while mapping those addresses to a common external IP address. This allows multiple devices within a network to share a single public IP address, enhancing security and conserving IP address space. NAT works by modifying the source and/or destination IP addresses in IP packets as they pass through a router or firewall, allowing internal devices to communicate with external networks without revealing their actual IP addresses.

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  • 29. 

    A user reports that they are not able to save changes to a text document they have opened from the company file server. Which of the following is MOST likely to be causing the issue?

    • A.

      The user is trying to overwrite a file with a newer timestamp than the locally cached file.

    • B.

      The file server has gone down for planned maintenance.

    • C.

      The user's permissions do not allow them to write to the file.

    • D.

      The file server is out of disk space.

    Correct Answer
    C. The user's permissions do not allow them to write to the file.
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of the issue is that the user's permissions do not allow them to write to the file. This means that they do not have the necessary rights or privileges to make changes and save them to the file.

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  • 30. 

    An angry customer has called and is upset about a delay in the repair of their computer. After answering the phone, which of the following actions should a technician take FIRST?

    • A.

      Place the customer on hold.

    • B.

      Listen to the customer's concerns.

    • C.

      Tell the customer that it is the part supplier's fault and provide the supplier's number.

    • D.

      Ask the customer to call back later to speak with a supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    B. Listen to the customer's concerns.
    Explanation
    The first action a technician should take when dealing with an angry customer is to listen to their concerns. This allows the technician to understand the customer's problem and show empathy towards their frustration. By actively listening, the technician can gather important information about the issue and begin working towards a solution. Placing the customer on hold, blaming the part supplier, or asking them to call back later may only escalate the situation further and should be avoided until the customer's concerns have been addressed.

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  • 31. 

    A technician needs to test a power supply but does not have a dedicated power supply tester. Which of the following tools could be used to test a power supply's output?

    • A.

      Digital multi-meter

    • B.

      Loop-back plug

    • C.

      RJ-45 crimper

    • D.

      CAT5 tester

    Correct Answer
    A. Digital multi-meter
    Explanation
    A digital multi-meter can be used to test a power supply's output by measuring the voltage, current, and resistance. It can be used to check if the power supply is providing the correct voltage and if it is functioning properly. Additionally, it can also be used to test the continuity of the power supply's cables and connections. The other options - loop-back plug, RJ-45 crimper, and CAT5 tester - are not suitable for testing a power supply's output.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following types of disk arrays provide the MOST fault tolerance?

    • A.

      Striping

    • B.

      Mirroring

    • C.

      Extending

    • D.

      Spanning

    Correct Answer
    B. Mirroring
    Explanation
    Mirroring provides the most fault tolerance among the given options. In mirroring, data is duplicated on multiple disks, creating an exact copy of the data. This means that if one disk fails, the data can still be accessed from the other disk, ensuring high availability and fault tolerance. Striping, extending, and spanning do not provide the same level of fault tolerance as mirroring, as they do not duplicate the data across multiple disks.

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  • 33. 

    A customer reports that their laptop's screen has suddenly become dim and barely readable. The video output is correct when the laptop is hooked up to an external monitor. After verifying that all user settings are correct, which of the following components should be replaced FIRST to attempt to repair the problem?

    • A.

      Graphics controller

    • B.

      Inverter board

    • C.

      Video memory

    • D.

      Motherboard

    Correct Answer
    B. Inverter board
    Explanation
    The inverter board is responsible for providing power to the laptop's screen. If the screen has suddenly become dim and barely readable, it suggests that there may be an issue with the inverter board. By replacing the inverter board, it is likely that the problem with the screen's brightness will be resolved.

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  • 34. 

    A technician is upgrading the memory on a laptop that has a front-side bus speed of 400MHz. Which of the following memory module types has the minimum data transfer rate necessary to support this upgrade?

    • A.

      PC2700

    • B.

      PC2100

    • C.

      PC3200

    • D.

      PC1600

    Correct Answer
    C. PC3200
    Explanation
    The front-side bus speed of 400MHz indicates that the laptop requires a memory module with a minimum data transfer rate of 400MHz. Among the given options, PC3200 is the only memory module type that meets this requirement as it has a data transfer rate of 400MHz. PC2700 has a data transfer rate of 333MHz, PC2100 has a data transfer rate of 266MHz, and PC1600 has a data transfer rate of 200MHz, all of which are lower than the required 400MHz. Therefore, PC3200 is the correct answer.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following is the maximum number of devices that may be connected to a single USB port?

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      63

    • C.

      127

    • D.

      511

    Correct Answer
    C. 127
    Explanation
    A single USB port can support up to 127 devices. This is because USB uses a protocol called USB hub, which allows multiple devices to be connected to a single port through daisy-chaining. Each USB hub can support up to 127 devices, including the hub itself. Therefore, the maximum number of devices that can be connected to a single USB port is 127.

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  • 36. 

    When a screw is dropped inside a printer during a repair, which of the following tools should be used to retrieve the screw ?

    • A.

      Chip extractor

    • B.

      Vacuum

    • C.

      Extension Magnet

    • D.

      Long needle-nose pliers

    Correct Answer
    C. Extension Magnet
    Explanation
    An extension magnet is the best tool to use for retrieving a screw that has been dropped inside a printer during a repair. This tool has a long, slender design that allows it to reach into tight spaces and its magnetic tip can attract and hold onto the screw, making it easy to retrieve. The other options, such as a chip extractor, vacuum, or long needle-nose pliers, may not be as effective in retrieving the screw from inside the printer.

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  • 37. 

    A work order states that a laser printer is not properly affixing toner to the paper. After the paper comes out of the printer, the toner falls off the page. The user has changed the toner cartridge twice with no improvement in print quality. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

    • A.

      The imaging drum is not fully discharging.

    • B.

      The fuser is malfunctioning.

    • C.

      The primary corona wire is receiving no power.

    • D.

      The laser scanner is defective.

    Correct Answer
    B. The fuser is malfunctioning.
    Explanation
    The fuser is responsible for fixing the toner onto the paper by applying heat and pressure. If the toner is falling off the page, it suggests that the fuser is not functioning properly and is not able to properly fuse the toner onto the paper. This is the most likely cause for the issue described in the work order.

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  • 38. 

    A technician is working on a laser printer. After printing several pages to replicate the problem, the technician unplugs the printer and begins repairs. Which of the following should the technician avoid touching to keep themselves from being burned?

    • A.

      Separation pad

    • B.

      Pickup roller

    • C.

      Drum

    • D.

      Fuser

    Correct Answer
    D. Fuser
    Explanation
    The technician should avoid touching the fuser to keep themselves from being burned. The fuser is a component in the laser printer that uses heat and pressure to fuse the toner onto the paper. It can reach very high temperatures during operation, and touching it while it is still hot can result in burns. Therefore, it is important for the technician to avoid touching the fuser until it has cooled down.

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  • 39. 

    A technician is about to service a computer. Which of the following steps should they take first?

    • A.

      The technician should disconnect the hard drive to avoid file corruption.

    • B.

      The technician should open up the case with a properly sized screwdriver to avoid stripping the screws.

    • C.

      The technician should move the computer to a carpeted area to avoid impact damage.

    • D.

      The technician should put on an anti-static strap to avoid electrostatic discharge (ESD) damage.

    Correct Answer
    D. The technician should put on an anti-static strap to avoid electrostatic discharge (ESD) damage.
    Explanation
    The technician should put on an anti-static strap to avoid electrostatic discharge (ESD) damage. This is the first step that should be taken because ESD can cause damage to sensitive electronic components in the computer. By wearing an anti-static strap, the technician can safely discharge any built-up static electricity in their body and prevent it from damaging the computer. This step is crucial to ensure the safety of both the technician and the computer during the servicing process.

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  • 40. 

    When the fan in a power supply fails, which of the following actions should be taken?

    • A.

      Replace the fan inside of the power supply.

    • B.

      Add an external cooling device.

    • C.

      Repair the fan inside of the power supply.

    • D.

      Replace the power supply.

    Correct Answer
    D. Replace the power supply.
    Explanation
    When the fan in a power supply fails, the best course of action is to replace the power supply. The fan in a power supply is essential for cooling the components and preventing overheating. If the fan fails, the power supply may not be able to cool itself properly, leading to potential damage or failure of the power supply itself. Therefore, replacing the power supply is the most effective solution to ensure proper cooling and prevent any further issues.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
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  • Oct 10, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Toptiercomputer
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