Test Review Quiz

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Chemical Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following medications has the shortest half-life?
    • A. 

      Verapamil

    • B. 

      Epininephrine

    • C. 

      Digitalis

    • D. 

      Adenosine

  • 2. 
    Aspirin is beneficial to patients with a history of cardiac disease because it: 
    • A. 

      Provides analgesia

    • B. 

      Inhibits Platelet Aggregation

    • C. 

      Inhibits the clotting cascade

    • D. 

      Causes thrombolysis

  • 3. 
    The study of the basic processes that determine the duration and intensity of a drug's effect and how those drugs are absorbed, distributed, biotransformed, and eliminated is called:"
    • A. 

      Pharmacodynamics

    • B. 

      Drug Profiling

    • C. 

      Polypharmacy

    • D. 

      Pharmacokinetics

  • 4. 
    How a drug interacts with the body to cause its effects is called:"
    • A. 

      Bioequivalence

    • B. 

      Pharmacokinetics

    • C. 

      Pharmacodynamics

    • D. 

      Pharmacology

  • 5. 
    A drug that blocks the muscarinic receptors in the peripheral nervous system would be classified as:
    • A. 

      Sympathomimetic

    • B. 

      Sympatholytic

    • C. 

      Parasympathomimetic

    • D. 

      Parasympatholytic

  • 6. 
    The time from when a drug is administered until it reaches the minimum effective concentration is known as the
    • A. 

      Peak action

    • B. 

      Therapeutic interval

    • C. 

      Onset of action

    • D. 

      Duration of action

  • 7. 
    Sympathetic nervous system stimulation that results in vasoconstriction and some bronchoconstriction is most likely affecting:”
    • A. 

      Beta2 receptor sites

    • B. 

      Alpha1 receptor sites

    • C. 

      Beta1 receptor sites

    • D. 

      Alpha2 receptor sites

  • 8. 
    In a patient experiencing a myocardial infarction, a medication that reduces afterload is beneficial because it:"
    • A. 

      Reduces the workload of the heart, reducing myocardial oxygen consumption.

    • B. 

      Reduces the blood flow to unnecessary areas, redirecting blood to the heart.

    • C. 

      Improves the stroke volume of blood ejected from the heart by also reducing preload.

    • D. 

      Prolongs the Q-T interval, thereby allowing time for complete atrial contribution to the ventricles.

  • 9. 
    In the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), which element is most responsible for widespread vasoconstriction?"
    • A. 

      Angiotensin I

    • B. 

      Angiotensinogen

    • C. 

      Angiotensin Converting Enzyme

    • D. 

      Angiotensin II

  • 10. 
    Naloxone is an ________ to opioid receptors.
    • A. 

      Agonist

    • B. 

      Agonist-antagonist

    • C. 

      Antagonist

    • D. 

      Analgesic

  • 11. 
    A beta2 specific agonist causes which of the following physiologic responses?"
    • A. 

      Bronchodilation

    • B. 

      Bronchoconstriction

    • C. 

      Decreased heart rate

    • D. 

      Increased heart rate

  • 12. 
    At the cellular level, the treatment of seizures is generally accomplished by _______ the influx of _______ ions into the neural cells
    • A. 

      Enchancing, potassium

    • B. 

      Inhibiting, potassium

    • C. 

      Inhibiting, sodium and calcium

    • D. 

      Enhancing, sodium and calcium

  • 13. 
     A larger-than-expected dose of adenosine may be necessary in patients regularly taking:
    • A. 

      Amphetamines

    • B. 

      Benzodiazepines

    • C. 

      Class I antidysrhythmics

    • D. 

      Certain bronchodilators

  • 14. 
    Which of the following is a loop diuretic?             
    • A. 

      Something else

    • B. 

      Furosemide(Lasix)

    • C. 

      Something completely else

    • D. 

      Mannitol(Osmitrol)

  • 15. 
    The type of blood that may be administered to all people in an emergency, regardless of their blood type, is:
    • A. 

      O negative

    • B. 

      AB positive

    • C. 

      AB negative

    • D. 

      O positive

  • 16. 
    Which of the following is NOT one of the body's three chief lines of defense against infection and injury? 
    • A. 

      Anatomic barriers

    • B. 

      Inflammatory response

    • C. 

      Homeopathic secretions

    • D. 

      Immune response

  • 17. 
    B-Lymphocytes are primarily responsible for:
    • A. 

      Neutralizing antigens

    • B. 

      Producing antibodies

    • C. 

      Directly attacking antigens

    • D. 

      Producing antigens

  • 18. 
    Poisons released from bacterial cells when they die are known as:  
    • A. 

      Exotoxins

    • B. 

      Ectotoxins

    • C. 

      Endotoxins

    • D. 

      Epitoxins

  • 19. 
    Adequate perfusion depends upon:  
    • A. 

      Adequate blood pressure and the presence of oxygen in the blood.

    • B. 

      The presence of oxygen in the blood.

    • C. 

      Adequate blood pressure.

    • D. 

      Adequate production of carbon dioxide.

  • 20. 
    Blood pressure is represented by:  
    • A. 

      Cardiac output multiplied by peripheral vascular resistance.

    • B. 

      Stroke volume multiplied by heart rate.

    • C. 

      The difference between preload and afterload.

    • D. 

      The difference between cardiac contractile force and peripheral vascular resistance.

  • 21. 
    Your patient is presenting with rapid onset hypotension, tachycardia, and absent radial pulses. Which type of shock is LEAST likely to be the cause? 
    • A. 

      Hypovolemic

    • B. 

      Septic

    • C. 

      Cardiogenic

    • D. 

      Neurogenic

  • 22. 
    Normal saline solution contains ________ percent sodium chloride.
    • A. 

      90

    • B. 

      0.09

    • C. 

      0.9

    • D. 

      9.0

  • 23. 
    The process that produces an increase in cell size as a result of increasing workload is known as:
    • A. 

      Hyperplasia

    • B. 

      Hypertrophy

    • C. 

      Metaplasia

    • D. 

      Atrophy

  • 24. 
    Shock can best be described as:  
    • A. 

      Decreased cardiac output.

    • B. 

      A decrease in myocardial contractility.

    • C. 

      A state of inadequate tissue perfusion.

    • D. 

      Hypotension

  • 25. 
    The maximum volume of medication to be delivered into the deltoid muscle is ________ mL.
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      1

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      5

  • 26. 
    Using microdrip IV tubing, how many drops of fluid equal 1 mL?
    • A. 

      60

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      20

    • D. 

      15

  • 27. 
    Which of the following is a disadvantage of pulmonary drug administration via nebulizer or metered dose inhaler?
    • A. 

      It requires a larger dose than other routes.

    • B. 

      It requires that the patient have adequate ventilation.

    • C. 

      Pulmonary absorption is a slow route for drug administration.

    • D. 

      Side effects are more likely with pulmonary drug administration.

  • 28. 
    When preparing for venipuncture, a constricting band should be applied tight enough to restrict ________ flow.
    • A. 

      Venous but not arterial

    • B. 

      Arterial but not venous

    • C. 

      Neither arterial and venous

    • D. 

      Both arterial and venous

  • 29. 
    Which of the following is NOT a percutaneous route of medication administration?
    • A. 

      Buccal

    • B. 

      Sublingual

    • C. 

      Transdermal

    • D. 

      Inhalation

  • 30. 
    Beta adrenergic antagonists reduce hypertension through all of the following effects EXCEPT:  
    • A. 

      Diminishing reflex tachycardia as a compensatory response.

    • B. 

      A negative inotropic effect.

    • C. 

      Suppressing renin release from the kidneys.

    • D. 

      Reduction of peripheral vascular resistance through vasodilation.

  • 31. 
    Immediate intubation should be considered for trauma patients with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of ________ or lower.  
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      10

  • 32. 
    Which of the following medications would most likely be considered for emergent treatment in the prehospital management of hypertensive crisis?   
    • A. 

      Enalaprilat (Vasotec IV)

    • B. 

      Nifedipine (Procardia)

    • C. 

      Nitroglycerin paste (Nitro-Bid)

    • D. 

      Labetalol (Normodyne)

  • 33. 
    The tip of the endotracheal tube for the pediatric patient should be inserted ________ cm below the vocal cords.  
    • A. 

      1-2

    • B. 

      3-4

    • C. 

      2-3

    • D. 

      4-5

  • 34. 
    In which of the following situations would you expect end tidal carbon dioxide levels to be very low, despite a patent airway?   
    • A. 

      Room air PPV

    • B. 

      Hyperthermia

    • C. 

      Hypoventilation

    • D. 

      Cardiac arrest

  • 35. 
    Which of the following is the most common cause of airway obstruction?  
    • A. 

      The tongue

    • B. 

      Foreign bodies

    • C. 

      Upper airway edema

    • D. 

      Food

  • 36. 
    Which of the following is NOT one of the main sources of drugs?  
    • A. 

      Plants

    • B. 

      Synthetic materials

    • C. 

      Heavy metals

    • D. 

      Animals

  • 37. 
    When administering glucagon to a patient, it is important to remember that:   
    • A. 

      Glucagon will stimulate glycogenesis in a hypoglycemic patient.

    • B. 

      Glycogen stores must be available in the liver and muscle for glucagon to be effective.

    • C. 

      Glucagon can only be administered intravenously.

    • D. 

      It is only effective in patients with elevated blood glucose levels.

  • 38. 
    All of the following result from insulin EXCEPT:          
    • A. 

      Increased synthesis of proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids.

    • B. 

      Gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis.

    • C. 

      Conversion of glucose to glycogen.

    • D. 

      Increased cellular transport of glucose, potassium, and amino acids.

  • 39. 
    According to Frank-Starling's Law, the administration of nitroglycerin will result in ________ preload, ________ stroke volume, and ________ myocardial oxygen demand.
    • A. 

      Decreased, decreased, decreased

    • B. 

      Increased, increased, decreased

    • C. 

      Decreased, increased, decreased

    • D. 

      Decreased, decreased, increased

  • 40. 
    in which fluid compartment is the largest percentage of the body's water located?
    • A. 

      Intracellular

    • B. 

      Intravascular

    • C. 

      Interstitial

    • D. 

      Extracellular

  • 41. 
    While caring for a 60-year-old male with a suspected femur fracture, your partner accidentally administers the full vial of morphine sulfate (15 mg) when only 4 mg was ordered. What adverse effects are likely to occur in this patient?   
    • A. 

      Hypotension and respiratory depression

    • B. 

      Hypotension and tachypnea

    • C. 

      Sedation and hypertension

    • D. 

      Widened QRS and respiratory depression

  • 42. 
    Applying posteriorly directed pressure on the cricoid cartilage to facilitate endotracheal intubation is also referred to as:  
    • A. 

      Cricothyroidotomy.

    • B. 

      Cricoid pressure.

    • C. 

      Digital intubation.

    • D. 

      Retrograde intubation.

  • 43. 
    In an adult, the narrowest part of the airway is the:  
    • A. 

      Glottis

    • B. 

      Hypopharynx

    • C. 

      Cricoid cartilage

    • D. 

      Trachea

  • 44. 
    Which of the following may complicate airway management procedures in the pediatric patient?   
    • A. 

      The tongue occupies a greater proportion of space.

    • B. 

      The trachea narrows at the cricoid cartilage.

    • C. 

      The epiglottis is larger and floppier than in an adult.

    • D. 

      All of the above are possible complications.

  • 45. 
    Phase 0 of cardiac cell depolarization in the fast potentials is characterized by rapid:  
    • A. 

      Influx of Na+.

    • B. 

      Influx of Ca++.

    • C. 

      Efflux of Ca++.

    • D. 

      Efflux of Na+.

  • 46. 
    The maximum flow rate to be used with a nasal cannula is ______ liters per minute
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 47. 
    Which of the following is NOT a potential side effect of oral contraceptives?  
    • A. 

      Hypertensin

    • B. 

      Unintended Pregnancy

    • C. 

      Early-onset osteoporosis

    • D. 

      Thromboembolism

  • 48. 
    At the end of exhalation, the intrathoracic pressure is:  
    • A. 

      Equal to atmospheric pressure

    • B. 

      Greater than atmospheric pressure

    • C. 

      Slightly less than atmospheric pressure

    • D. 

      Significantly less than atmospheric pressure

  • 49. 
    An attempt at endotracheal intubation must not interrupt ventilations for more than ________ seconds.   
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      45

  • 50. 
    The bifurcation of the trachea is called the:
    • A. 

      Glottic opening

    • B. 

      Hilium

    • C. 

      Cricoid cartilage

    • D. 

      Carina

  • 51. 
    As the thoracic cavity begins to expand, the intrathoracic pressure:
    • A. 

      Does not change.

    • B. 

      Is greater than atmospheric pressure.

    • C. 

      Is the same as atmospheric pressure.

    • D. 

      Is less than atmospheric pressure.

  • 52. 
    When you are intubating a stoma site, how far beyond the distal cuff (in cm) should you insert the endotracheal tube?
    • A. 

      1-2

    • B. 

      3-4

    • C. 

      2-3

    • D. 

      4-5

  • 53. 
    Progressively deeper, faster breathing alternating gradually with shallow, slower breathing is called:
    • A. 

      Cheyne-Stokes respirations

    • B. 

      Kussmaul's respirations

    • C. 

      Biot's respirations

    • D. 

      Agonal respirations

  • 54. 
    You are managing a 29-year-old male patient who was shot in the head. There is a gurgling noise in the airway. The patient is breathing spontaneously at 42 breaths per minute, has a heart rate of 110, and a systolic pressure of 102/82. What airway intervention should be performed first on this patient?
    • A. 

      Head-tilt chin lift maneuver

    • B. 

      Suctioning the airway

    • C. 

      Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway

    • D. 

      Endotracheal intubation

  • 55. 
    When you are suctioning an adult patient, the onset of bradycardia is most likely due to:
    • A. 

      Hybercarbia

    • B. 

      Hypoxia

    • C. 

      Stimulation of the vagus nerve

    • D. 

      Increased intracranial pressure

  • 56. 
    In which of the following conditions is insertion of a nasogastric tube contraindicated?
    • A. 

      Having a gag reflex

    • B. 

      Facial fractures

    • C. 

      Being awake and alert

    • D. 

      All of these

  • 57. 
    An adult patient with a pulse who has been intubated due to respiratory arrest should be ventilated ________ times per minute.
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      20

    • D. 

      24

  • 58. 
    Insertion of an endotracheal tube too far is likely to result in ventilation of:
    • A. 

      The right lung only.

    • B. 

      The left lung only.

    • C. 

      Only the lower lobes of both lungs.

    • D. 

      Neither lung.

  • 59. 
    During spontaneous breathing, which of the following reflexes prevents overinflation of the lungs?
    • A. 

      Cheyne-stokes

    • B. 

      Hering-breuer

    • C. 

      Apneustic

    • D. 

      Cushing's

  • 60. 
    When correctly placed, the tip of a straight laryngoscope blade should be:
    • A. 

      Under the epiglottis

    • B. 

      At the uvula

    • C. 

      At the soft palate

    • D. 

      In the vallecula

  • 61. 
    The tip of a curved laryngoscope blade is placed correctly:          
    • A. 

      At the junction of the hard and soft palates.

    • B. 

      At the glottic opening.

    • C. 

      Under the epiglottis.

    • D. 

      In the vallecula.

  • 62. 
    A high-pitched inspiratory noise caused by a partial upper airway obstruction is called:
    • A. 

      Stridor

    • B. 

      Dysphonia

    • C. 

      Rhonchi

    • D. 

      Wheezing

  • 63. 
    A fine, bubbling sound heard on inspiration and associated with fluid in the alveoli and terminal bronchioles is called:
    • A. 

      Bronchovesicular

    • B. 

      Rales(crackles)

    • C. 

      Rhonchi

    • D. 

      Pleural friction

  • 64. 
    A musical, squeaking, or whistling sound that may be heard on inspiration or expiration while auscultating lung fields is known as:
    • A. 

      Crackles

    • B. 

      Stridor

    • C. 

      Rhonchi

    • D. 

      Wheezing

  • 65. 
    When a bag-valve ventilation device is used without supplemental oxygen, it delivers an oxygen concentration of ________ percent.
    • A. 

      40

    • B. 

      21

    • C. 

      60

    • D. 

      26

  • 66. 
    Which of the following terms can be defined as the activities of the body that allow the maintenance of physiologic stability?
    • A. 

      Sympathetic tone

    • B. 

      Homeostasis

    • C. 

      Inflammation

    • D. 

      General adaption syndrome

  • 67. 
    Which of the following best describes the body's reaction to exposure to or invasion by antigens?
    • A. 

      Anaphylaxis

    • B. 

      Adaption

    • C. 

      Immune response

    • D. 

      Tachyphylaxis

  • 68. 
    ________ are the most common type of cell in the blood.
    • A. 

      Thrombocytes

    • B. 

      Erythocytes

    • C. 

      Stem cells

    • D. 

      Leukocytes

  • 69. 
    The general term for creating, storing, and using energy in the body is:
    • A. 

      Homeostasis

    • B. 

      Metabolism

    • C. 

      Anabolism

    • D. 

      Catabolism

  • 70. 
    Substances that separate into electrically charged particles in water are known as:
    • A. 

      Electrolytes.

    • B. 

      Elements.

    • C. 

      Anions.

    • D. 

      Molecules.

  • 71. 
    Which of the following factors may contribute to the development of disease in geriatric patients? 
    • A. 

      Genetic predisposition

    • B. 

      Pre-existing disease(s)

    • C. 

      Inadequate nutrition

    • D. 

      All of these

  • 72. 
    Which of the following antihypertensive medications is an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor? 
    • A. 

      Labetalol (Normodyne)

    • B. 

      Clonidine (Catapres)

    • C. 

      Reserpine (Serpalan)

    • D. 

      Captopril (Capoten)

  • 73. 
    All of the following statements about insulin are true EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      It must be given subcutaneously.

    • B. 

      It is classified as either natural (regular) or modified.

    • C. 

      It is available as short, intermediate, or long acting.

    • D. 

      It can now be produced through recombinant DNA technology.

  • 74. 
    The amount of blood that returns to the heart during diastole is called:
    • A. 

      Cardiac output.

    • B. 

      Preload.

    • C. 

      Myocardial capacity

    • D. 

      Afterload

  • 75. 
    If you were to administer an antidysrhythmic drug that was a complete sodium channel blocker, which of the following would you expect?
    • A. 

      . It would prevent the efflux (outflow) of calcium from within the cell.

    • B. 

      It would impede the sodium-potassium pump from replacing the ions to their original locations.

    • C. 

      It would cause excessive muscular contraction, because sodium is the principal cation in myofibril contraction.

    • D. 

      It would prevent the development of phase 0, thereby inhibiting depolarization.

  • 76. 
    A drug that serves as a sodium channel blocker will have the greatest effect on which phase of ion exchange in the normal, fast-potential cardiac cell?
    • A. 

      0

    • B. 

      1

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      3

  • 77. 
    Which of the following is NOT a structure of the upper airway?
    • A. 

      Larynx

    • B. 

      Trachea

    • C. 

      Hypopharynx

    • D. 

      Nasopharynx

  • 78. 
    A drop in blood pressure of greater than 10 torr during inspiration is called:
    • A. 

      Pulsus paradoxus.

    • B. 

      Pulsus obliterans.

    • C. 

      Pulsus tardus.

    • D. 

      Pulsus alternans.

  • 79. 
    A patient was shot in the abdomen and has a resultant massive hemorrhage and hypoperfusion. Intravenous therapy would help treat the hypoperfusion by:
    • A. 

      Increasing preload

    • B. 

      Replacing blood constituents

    • C. 

      Slowing the rate of hemorrhage

    • D. 

      Increasing the heart rate

  • 80. 
    The hypoxic drive is stimulated by:
    • A. 

      High PaCO2.

    • B. 

      Low PaO2.

    • C. 

      High PaO2.

    • D. 

      Low PaCO2.

  • 81. 
    Which of the following devices is known as a dual lumen airway?
    • A. 

      CombiTube

    • B. 

      Endotracheal tube

    • C. 

      Laryngeal mask airway

    • D. 

      King LTD airway

  • 82. 
    Which of the following basic airway adjuncts prevents the tongue from falling back to occlude the airway?
    • A. 

      Yankauer catheter

    • B. 

      Laryngeal mask airway

    • C. 

      Nasal cannula

    • D. 

      Oropharyngeal airway

  • 83. 
    Which of the following is appropriate for a subcutaneous injection of medication?
    • A. 

      Volume of 1 mL or less

    • B. 

      18 gauge, 3/4" needle

    • C. 

      Insertion of the needle at a 90-degree angle

    • D. 

      Up to 2 mL of medication

  • 84. 
    What is the preferred access site for intraosseous infusion in both pediatric and adult patients?
    • A. 

      Distal tibia

    • B. 

      Proximal humerus

    • C. 

      Distal femur

    • D. 

      Proximal tibia

  • 85. 
    The respiratory rate may be greater than normal because of:
    • A. 

      Alcoholic beverage ingestion.

    • B. 

      The use of medications such as diazepam or morphine.

    • C. 

      Being asleep or nearly asleep.

    • D. 

      Metabolic acidosis.

  • 86. 
    When swallowing occurs, the structure that occludes the tracheal opening to prevent aspiration of food and liquids is the:
    • A. 

      Cricoid cartilage.

    • B. 

      Epiglottis.

    • C. 

      Pyriform fossa.

    • D. 

      Uvula.

  • 87. 
    Moderate hypoxia is indicated with a pulse oximeter reading of ________ percent.
    • A. 

      86-91

    • B. 

      95-100

    • C. 

      81-85

    • D. 

      90-94

  • 88. 
    Which of the following is the generic name of a drug
    • A. 

      Diazepam

    • B. 

      Excedrin

    • C. 

      Tylenol

    • D. 

      Motrin

  • 89. 
    The use of tobacco, because of its nicotine content, may cause subtle symptoms due to stimulation of the:
    • A. 

      Parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.

    • B. 

      Nicotinic receptor sites at the neuromuscular junction in the sympathetic nervous system.

    • C. 

      Sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.

    • D. 

      Sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system

  • 90. 
    a significant characteristic of digitalis preparations is that they:
    • A. 

      Have a negative inotropic effect.

    • B. 

      Are not prodysrhythmic drugs.

    • C. 

      Have a positive chronotropic effect.

    • D. 

      Have a very narrow therapeutic index.

  • 91. 
    Which of the following is a disadvantage to intravascular volume replacement with isotonic crystalloid solutions?
    • A. 

      Two-thirds of the volume leaves the intravascular space within 1 hour.

    • B. 

      Intracellular fluid shifts to the vascular space.

    • C. 

      Sodium shifts into cells and potassium shifts out of cells.

    • D. 

      There is an immediate shift of vascular volume to the interstitial space

  • 92. 
    Which of the following would NOT be appropriate for intradermal drug administration?
    • A. 

      27 gauge, 3/8" needle

    • B. 

      20 gauge, 3/4" needle

    • C. 

      25 gauge, 1" needle

    • D. 

      25 gauge, 3/4" needle

  • 93. 
    Having a patient swallow a tablet of medication with a drink of water is an example of which route of medication administration?
    • A. 

      Buccal

    • B. 

      Sublingual

    • C. 

      Aural

    • D. 

      Oral

  • 94. 
    You are to give Mr. Jenkins 50 mg of Toradol (ketorolac) IM for musculoskeletal pain. Ketorolac is supplied 60 mg/2 ml. What volume of drug (in mL) is to be drawn up for administration?
    • A. 

      0.17

    • B. 

      1.7

    • C. 

      17

    • D. 

      170

  • 95. 
    Ms. Krinklebine is experiencing right lower quadrant pain following a syncopal episode. She reports her last menstrual period (LMP) was about 6 weeks ago. While she is awaiting an abdominal CT, the surgery resident asks that you initiate an IV of lactated Ringer's solution using a blood set (10 gtt/mL) and infuse 1,000 ml over 1 hour. What drip rate (in gtt/minute) will you use to attain this rate of administration?
    • A. 

      17

    • B. 

      600

    • C. 

      67

    • D. 

      167

  • 96. 
    Mrs. Bertrand is having a cholecystectomy this evening. To prevent dehydration, she is to receive 5% dextrose in 0.45% saline solution at a rate of 150 mL/hour. Using 20 gtt/ml tubing, what is the drip rate in gtt/minute?
    • A. 

      150

    • B. 

      75

    • C. 

      60

    • D. 

      50

  • 97. 
    Mr. Hinkley is a 46-year-old with a history of pancreatitis. He has had abdominal pain and vomiting for 24 hours. The ED physician requests that you initiate an IV for rehydration. You will be using a 15 gtt/ml infusion set to administer 250 ml of 5% dextrose in NS per hour. What drip rate (at gtt/minute) is needed to deliver the fluids at this rate?
    • A. 

      41

    • B. 

      63

    • C. 

      75

    • D. 

      100

  • 98. 
    Your patient weighs 22 lbs. and is to receive 0.02 mg/kg of atropine IVP. You have a multidose vial of atropine containing 20 ml at a concentration of 0.04 mg/ml. What volume (in mL) of medication is to be injected?
    • A. 

      0.5

    • B. 

      2.5

    • C. 

      0.25

    • D. 

      5

  • 99. 
    A solid disk of compressed medicated powder intended to be chewed and swallowed or swallowed whole, and which may be scored to permit breaking, is known as a:
    • A. 

      Puvule

    • B. 

      Capsule

    • C. 

      Tablet

    • D. 

      Lozenge

  • 100. 
    Which classification of drugs affecting the autonomic nervous system would be best suited to treat a patient with spinal shock?
    • A. 

      Alpha antagonist

    • B. 

      Alpha agonist

    • C. 

      Beta antagonist

    • D. 

      Beta agonist

  • 101. 
    When using a colorimetric end-tidal carbon dioxide detector, the absence of carbon dioxide in exhaled air after six breaths indicates the endotracheal tube has been placed:
    • A. 

      In the right mainstem bronchus.

    • B. 

      In the esophagus.

    • C. 

      In the left mainstem bronchus.

    • D. 

      In the trachea.

  • 102. 
    End-tidal colorimetric capnography measures:
    • A. 

      Carbon dioxide in exhaled air.

    • B. 

      The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood.

    • C. 

      The amount of carbon dioxide dissolved in plasma.

    • D. 

      The percentage of hemoglobin saturated with carbon dioxide.

  • 103. 
    Which of the following is the correct order of events after an endotracheal tube has been properly inserted?
    • A. 

      Inflate the cuff with 5-10 cc of air, secure the tube, listen for equal breath sounds bilaterally, and listen for breath sounds over the epigastrium.

    • B. 

      Inflate the cuff with 5-10 cc of air, auscultate the epigastrium and then lungs, and secure the tube.

    • C. 

      Secure the tube, listen for breath sounds over the epigastrium and listen for equal breath sounds bilaterally, and inflate the cuff with 5-10 cc of air.

    • D. 

      Inflate the cuff with 5-10 cc of air, listen for breath sounds over the epigastrium, listen for equal breath sounds bilaterally, and secure the tube.

  • 104. 
    You are caring for a 48-year-old patient with acute onset pulmonary edema secondary to an acute myocardial infarction. He has rales (crackles) in both lung fields and wheezes in the bronchial regions. His blood pressure is 160/90, his pulse is 112, and his respirations are 32. Which of the following medications is indicated FIRST, and why?
    • A. 

      Morphine sulfate to decrease anxiety and reduce afterload

    • B. 

      Furosemide (Lasix) to achieve a diuresis and remove a portion of fluids from the intravascular space

    • C. 

      Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) to reduce preload and afterload to redistribute fluids to the periphery.

    • D. 

      Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) to vasodilate the coronary vessels to maximize myocardial oxygen supply

  • 105. 
    If a patient were exhibiting pupillary constriction, hypersalivation, bronchial wheezing, and bradycardia, you should suspect ________ of the ________ nervous system.
    • A. 

      Blockade, voluntary

    • B. 

      Stimulation, sympathetic

    • C. 

      Blockade, cholinergic

    • D. 

      Stimulation, parasympathetic

  • 106. 
    Which of the following is NOT associated with the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system?
    • A. 

      Cholinergic

    • B. 

      Vagal Tone

    • C. 

      Craniosacral

    • D. 

      Thoracolumbar

  • 107. 
    Which of the following is NOT typically associated with Type I diabetes mellitus?
    • A. 

      Obesity

    • B. 

      Inadequate insulin release from the beta cells of the pancreatic islets

    • C. 

      Juvenile onset

    • D. 

      Insulin dependence

  • 108. 
    Septic shock is precipitated by:
    • A. 

      An overwhelming infection

    • B. 

      Poisoning

    • C. 

      Multiple organ dysfunction sydrome

    • D. 

      Exposure to an antigen

  • 109. 
    With which of the following conditions should you NOT attempt endotracheal intubation of the patient unless airway failure is imminent?
    • A. 

      Pulmonary embolism

    • B. 

      Respiratory Syncytical Virus (RSV)

    • C. 

      COPD

    • D. 

      Epiglottitis