Test Review Quiz

1. Which of the following is the most common cause of airway obstruction?

The tongue

Foreign bodies

Upper airway edema

Food

2. A high-pitched inspiratory noise caused by a partial upper airway obstruction is called:

Stridor

Dysphonia

Rhonchi

Wheezing

3. When swallowing occurs, the structure that occludes the tracheal opening to prevent aspiration of food and liquids is the:

Cricoid cartilage.

Epiglottis.

Pyriform fossa.

Uvula.

4. Applying posteriorly directed pressure on the cricoid cartilage to facilitate endotracheal intubation is also referred to as:

Cricothyroidotomy.

Cricoid pressure.

Digital intubation.

Retrograde intubation.

5. Which of the following terms can be defined as the activities of the body that allow the maintenance of physiologic stability?

Sympathetic tone

Homeostasis

Inflammation

General adaption syndrome

6. Shock can best be described as:

Decreased cardiac output.

A decrease in myocardial contractility.

A state of inadequate tissue perfusion.

Hypotension

7. Using microdrip IV tubing, how many drops of fluid equal 1 mL?

60

10

20

15

8. Insertion of an endotracheal tube too far is likely to result in ventilation of:

The right lung only.

The left lung only.

Only the lower lobes of both lungs.

Neither lung.

9. Which of the following devices is known as a dual lumen airway?

CombiTube

Endotracheal tube

Laryngeal mask airway

King LTD airway

10. Which of the following is the generic name of a drug

Diazepam

Excedrin

Tylenol

Motrin

11. Which of the following is a loop diuretic?

Something else

Furosemide(Lasix)

Something completely else

Mannitol(Osmitrol)

12. Which of the following basic airway adjuncts prevents the tongue from falling back to occlude the airway?

Yankauer catheter

Laryngeal mask airway

Nasal cannula

Oropharyngeal airway

13. You are to give Mr. Jenkins 50 mg of Toradol (ketorolac) IM for musculoskeletal pain. Ketorolac is supplied 60 mg/2 ml. What volume of drug (in mL) is to be drawn up for administration?

0.17

1.7

17

170

Master Formula: DD x Wt x SS / CC x T
Desired Dose= 50mg.
Concentration = 60mg/2ml (this can be reduced to 30mg/1ml).
50mg divided by 30mg. gives you 1.7ml

Explanation

Master Formula: DD x Wt x SS / CC x T
Desired Dose= 50mg.
Concentration = 60mg/2ml (this can be reduced to 30mg/1ml).
50mg divided by 30mg. gives you 1.7ml

14. While caring for a 60-year-old male with a suspected femur fracture, your partner accidentally administers the full vial of morphine sulfate (15 mg) when only 4 mg was ordered. What adverse effects are likely to occur in this patient?

Hypotension and respiratory depression

Hypotension and tachypnea

Sedation and hypertension

Widened QRS and respiratory depression

15. The general term for creating, storing, and using energy in the body is:

Homeostasis

Metabolism

Anabolism

Catabolism

16. Which of the following factors may contribute to the development of disease in geriatric patients?

Genetic predisposition

Pre-existing disease(s)

Inadequate nutrition

All of these

17. Which of the following is NOT one of the main sources of drugs?

Plants

Synthetic materials

Heavy metals

Animals

18. Having a patient swallow a tablet of medication with a drink of water is an example of which route of medication administration?

Buccal

Sublingual

Aural

Oral

19. A beta2 specific agonist causes which of the following physiologic responses?"

Bronchodilation

Bronchoconstriction

Decreased heart rate

Increased heart rate

20. The respiratory rate may be greater than normal because of:

Alcoholic beverage ingestion.

The use of medications such as diazepam or morphine.

Being asleep or nearly asleep.

Metabolic acidosis.

21. Normal saline solution contains ________ percent sodium chloride.

90

0.09

0.9

9.0

22. A drop in blood pressure of greater than 10 torr during inspiration is called:

Pulsus paradoxus.

Pulsus obliterans.

Pulsus tardus.

Pulsus alternans.

23. In a patient experiencing a myocardial infarction, a medication that reduces afterload is beneficial because it:"

Reduces the workload of the heart, reducing myocardial oxygen consumption.

Reduces the blood flow to unnecessary areas, redirecting blood to the heart.

Improves the stroke volume of blood ejected from the heart by also reducing preload.

Prolongs the Q-T interval, thereby allowing time for complete atrial contribution to the ventricles.

24. According to Frank-Starling's Law, the administration of nitroglycerin will result in preload, stroke volume, and myocardial oxygen demand.

Decreased, decreased, decreased

Increased, increased, decreased

Decreased, increased, decreased

Decreased, decreased, increased

25. The maximum ﬂow rate to be used with a nasal cannula is ______ liters per minute

2

4

6

8

26. Substances that separate into electrically charged particles in water are known as:

Electrolytes.

Elements.

Anions.

Molecules.

27. When using a colorimetric end-tidal carbon dioxide detector, the absence of carbon dioxide in exhaled air after six breaths indicates the endotracheal tube has been placed:

In the right mainstem bronchus.

In the esophagus.

In the left mainstem bronchus.

In the trachea.

The lungs exhale co2. if your device isnt detecting co2, your not in the trachea. your most likely in the esophagus.

Explanation

The lungs exhale co2. if your device isnt detecting co2, your not in the trachea. your most likely in the esophagus.

28. The type of blood that may be administered to all people in an emergency, regardless of their blood type, is:

O negative

AB positive

AB negative

O positive

29. An adult patient with a pulse who has been intubated due to respiratory arrest should be ventilated ________ times per minute.

6

10

20

24

30. When a bag-valve ventilation device is used without supplemental oxygen, it delivers an oxygen concentration of ________ percent.

40

21

60

26

31. A drug that serves as a sodium channel blocker will have the greatest effect on which phase of ion exchange in the normal, fast-potential cardiac cell?

0

1

2

3

32. When preparing for venipuncture, a constricting band should be applied tight enough to restrict ________ flow.

Venous but not arterial

Arterial but not venous

Neither arterial and venous

Both arterial and venous

33. A fine, bubbling sound heard on inspiration and associated with fluid in the alveoli and terminal bronchioles is called:

Bronchovesicular

Rales(crackles)

Rhonchi

Pleural friction

Bubbly sound, Snap,crackle and pop.

Explanation

Bubbly sound, Snap,crackle and pop.

34. A solid disk of compressed medicated powder intended to be chewed and swallowed or swallowed whole, and which may be scored to permit breaking, is known as a:

Puvule

Capsule

Tablet

Lozenge

35. Naloxone is an ________ to opioid receptors.

Agonist

Agonist-antagonist

Antagonist

Analgesic

36. In an adult, the narrowest part of the airway is the:

Glottis

Hypopharynx

Cricoid cartilage

Trachea

37. Progressively deeper, faster breathing alternating gradually with shallow, slower breathing is called:

Cheyne-Stokes respirations

Kussmaul's respirations

Biot's respirations

Agonal respirations

38. End-tidal colorimetric capnography measures:

Carbon dioxide in exhaled air.

The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood.

The amount of carbon dioxide dissolved in plasma.

The percentage of hemoglobin saturated with carbon dioxide.

39. Which of the following medications has the shortest half-life?

Verapamil

Epininephrine

Digitalis

Adenosine

Adenosine has a half life of 6-10 seconds

Explanation

Adenosine has a half life of 6-10 seconds

40. Adequate perfusion depends upon:

Adequate blood pressure and the presence of oxygen in the blood.

The presence of oxygen in the blood.

Adequate blood pressure.

Adequate production of carbon dioxide.

41. Which of the following is a disadvantage of pulmonary drug administration via nebulizer or metered dose inhaler?

It requires a larger dose than other routes.

It requires that the patient have adequate ventilation.

Pulmonary absorption is a slow route for drug administration.

Side effects are more likely with pulmonary drug administration.

42. ________ are the most common type of cell in the blood.

Thrombocytes

Erythocytes

Stem cells

Leukocytes

43. Which of the following is appropriate for a subcutaneous injection of medication?

Volume of 1 mL or less

18 gauge, 3/4" needle

Insertion of the needle at a 90-degree angle

Up to 2 mL of medication

44. Septic shock is precipitated by:

An overwhelming infection

Poisoning

Multiple organ dysfunction sydrome

Exposure to an antigen

45. In which of the following conditions is insertion of a nasogastric tube contraindicated?

Having a gag reflex

Facial fractures

Being awake and alert

All of these

46. Aspirin is beneﬁcial to patients with a history of cardiac disease because it:

Provides analgesia

Inhibits Platelet Aggregation

Inhibits the clotting cascade

Causes thrombolysis

47. The process that produces an increase in cell size as a result of increasing workload is known as:

Hyperplasia

Hypertrophy

Metaplasia

Atrophy

Hyper - Excessive
Trophy- Growth
Hypertrophy- Excessive Growth

Explanation

Hyper - Excessive
Trophy- Growth
Hypertrophy- Excessive Growth

48. When you are suctioning an adult patient, the onset of bradycardia is most likely due to:

Hybercarbia

Hypoxia

Stimulation of the vagus nerve

Increased intracranial pressure

The vagus nerve is associated with the parasympathetic nervous system(rest and digest). Stimulating it will dec. HR, causing bradycardia.

Explanation

The vagus nerve is associated with the parasympathetic nervous system(rest and digest). Stimulating it will dec. HR, causing bradycardia.

49. The amount of blood that returns to the heart during diastole is called:

Cardiac output.

Preload.

Myocardial capacity

Afterload

50. Immediate intubation should be considered for trauma patients with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of ________ or lower.

2

5

8

10

Less than 8, intubate. Less than 8, intubate. Less than 8, intubate. Less than 8, intubate. Less than 8, intubate. Less than 8, intubate. Less than 8, intubate. Less than 8, intubate. Less than 8, intubate. Less than 8, intubate. Less than 8, intubate. Less than 8, intubate.

Explanation

Less than 8, intubate. Less than 8, intubate. Less than 8, intubate. Less than 8, intubate. Less than 8, intubate. Less than 8, intubate. Less than 8, intubate. Less than 8, intubate. Less than 8, intubate. Less than 8, intubate. Less than 8, intubate. Less than 8, intubate.

51. Phase 0 of cardiac cell depolarization in the fast potentials is characterized by rapid:

Inﬂux of Na+.

Inﬂux of Ca++.

Efﬂux of Ca++.

Efﬂux of Na+.

52. You are managing a 29-year-old male patient who was shot in the head. There is a gurgling noise in the airway. The patient is breathing spontaneously at 42 breaths per minute, has a heart rate of 110, and a systolic pressure of 102/82. What airway intervention should be performed first on this patient?

Head-tilt chin lift maneuver

Suctioning the airway

Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway

Endotracheal intubation

53. Moderate hypoxia is indicated with a pulse oximeter reading of ________ percent.

86-91

95-100

81-85

90-94

95-100 = Normal
91-94= Mild
86-91= Moderate
81-85 = Severe

Explanation

95-100 = Normal
91-94= Mild
86-91= Moderate
81-85 = Severe

54. Which of the following would NOT be appropriate for intradermal drug administration?

27 gauge, 3/8" needle

20 gauge, 3/4" needle

25 gauge, 1" needle

25 gauge, 3/4" needle

The appropriate needle size for intradermal administration(such as a PPD test) are gauges 25-27. a 20 gauge is much too big.

Explanation

The appropriate needle size for intradermal administration(such as a PPD test) are gauges 25-27. a 20 gauge is much too big.

55. Which of the following is NOT one of the body's three chief lines of defense against infection and injury?

Anatomic barriers

Inflammatory response

Homeopathic secretions

Immune response

56. The time from when a drug is administered until it reaches the minimum effective concentration is known as the

Peak action

Therapeutic interval

Onset of action

Duration of action

57. When you are intubating a stoma site, how far beyond the distal cuff (in cm) should you insert the endotracheal tube?

1-2

3-4

2-3

4-5

58. The tip of a curved laryngoscope blade is placed correctly:

At the junction of the hard and soft palates.

At the glottic opening.

Under the epiglottis.

In the vallecula.

59. A patient was shot in the abdomen and has a resultant massive hemorrhage and hypoperfusion. Intravenous therapy would help treat the hypoperfusion by:

Increasing preload

Replacing blood constituents

Slowing the rate of hemorrhage

Increasing the heart rate

60. The bifurcation of the trachea is called the:

Glottic opening

Hilium

Cricoid cartilage

Carina

61. When correctly placed, the tip of a straight laryngoscope blade should be:

Under the epiglottis

At the uvula

At the soft palate

In the vallecula

62. Which of the following is NOT a structure of the upper airway?

Larynx

Trachea

Hypopharynx

Nasopharynx

63. How a drug interacts with the body to cause its effects is called:"

Bioequivalence

Pharmacokinetics

Pharmacodynamics

Pharmacology

64. An attempt at endotracheal intubation must not interrupt ventilations for more than ________ seconds.

10

15

30

45

65. A musical, squeaking, or whistling sound that may be heard on inspiration or expiration while auscultating lung fields is known as:

Crackles

Stridor

Rhonchi

Wheezing

Wheezing can be heard on both inspiration and expiration. opposed to stridor which is heard as a high pitched noise on inspiration. Wheezing is associated with a more "musical" sound.

Explanation

Wheezing can be heard on both inspiration and expiration. opposed to stridor which is heard as a high pitched noise on inspiration. Wheezing is associated with a more "musical" sound.

66. Which of the following may complicate airway management procedures in the pediatric patient?

The tongue occupies a greater proportion of space.

The trachea narrows at the cricoid cartilage.

The epiglottis is larger and ﬂoppier than in an adult.

All of the above are possible complications.

67. What is the preferred access site for intraosseous infusion in both pediatric and adult patients?

Distal tibia

Proximal humerus

Distal femur

Proximal tibia

68. Which of the following is a disadvantage to intravascular volume replacement with isotonic crystalloid solutions?

Two-thirds of the volume leaves the intravascular space within 1 hour.

Intracellular fluid shifts to the vascular space.

Sodium shifts into cells and potassium shifts out of cells.

There is an immediate shift of vascular volume to the interstitial space

Pumping a person with fluids will immediately raise the volume in their circulatory system. However, normal diffusion will take place and most of the fluid will move out of the space within an hour. This is opposed to a hypertonic colloid solution which will keep the volume high for a greater period of time by now only keeping fluid in the space, but pulling fluid from outside the intravascular space through osmosis.

Explanation

Pumping a person with fluids will immediately raise the volume in their circulatory system. However, normal diffusion will take place and most of the fluid will move out of the space within an hour. This is opposed to a hypertonic colloid solution which will keep the volume high for a greater period of time by now only keeping fluid in the space, but pulling fluid from outside the intravascular space through osmosis.

69. Sympathetic nervous system stimulation that results in vasoconstriction and some bronchoconstriction is most likely affecting:"

Beta2 receptor sites

Alpha1 receptor sites

Beta1 receptor sites

Alpha2 receptor sites

70. In the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), which element is most responsible for widespread vasoconstriction?"

Angiotensin I

Angiotensinogen

Angiotensin Converting Enzyme

Angiotensin II

Angiotensin I -> Angiotensin Converting Enzyme(ACE) -> Angiotensin II(Potent Vasodilator)

Explanation

Angiotensin I -> Angiotensin Converting Enzyme(ACE) -> Angiotensin II(Potent Vasodilator)

71. During spontaneous breathing, which of the following reflexes prevents overinflation of the lungs?

Cheyne-stokes

Hering-breuer

Apneustic

Cushing's

72. Which of the following best describes the body's reaction to exposure to or invasion by antigens?

Anaphylaxis

Adaption

Immune response

Tachyphylaxis

73. Mr. Hinkley is a 46-year-old with a history of pancreatitis. He has had abdominal pain and vomiting for 24 hours. The ED physician requests that you initiate an IV for rehydration. You will be using a 15 gtt/ml infusion set to administer 250 ml of 5% dextrose in NS per hour. What drip rate (at gtt/minute) is needed to deliver the fluids at this rate?

41

63

75

100

74. At the end of exhalation, the intrathoracic pressure is:

Equal to atmospheric pressure

Greater than atmospheric pressure

Slightly less than atmospheric pressure

Signiﬁcantly less than atmospheric pressure

75. If a patient were exhibiting pupillary constriction, hypersalivation, bronchial wheezing, and bradycardia, you should suspect of the nervous system.

Blockade, voluntary

Stimulation, sympathetic

Blockade, cholinergic

Stimulation, parasympathetic

76. Which of the following is NOT typically associated with Type I diabetes mellitus?

Obesity

Inadequate insulin release from the beta cells of the pancreatic islets

Juvenile onset

Insulin dependence

77. Blood pressure is represented by:

Cardiac output multiplied by peripheral vascular resistance.

Stroke volume multiplied by heart rate.

The difference between preload and afterload.

The difference between cardiac contractile force and peripheral vascular resistance.

78. All of the following statements about insulin are true EXCEPT:

It must be given subcutaneously.

It is classified as either natural (regular) or modified.

It is available as short, intermediate, or long acting.

It can now be produced through recombinant DNA technology.

it can be given IV too..

Explanation

it can be given IV too..

79. When administering glucagon to a patient, it is important to remember that:

Glucagon will stimulate glycogenesis in a hypoglycemic patient.

Glycogen stores must be available in the liver and muscle for glucagon to be effective.

Glucagon can only be administered intravenously.

It is only effective in patients with elevated blood glucose levels.

glucagon breaks down glycogen(glycogen then further breaks down into glucose,thereby raising blood sugar) stores in the liver and muscle. If a person has no storage available to break down. the medication wont do shit.

Explanation

glucagon breaks down glycogen(glycogen then further breaks down into glucose,thereby raising blood sugar) stores in the liver and muscle. If a person has no storage available to break down. the medication wont do shit.

80. The study of the basic processes that determine the duration and intensity of a drug's effect and how those drugs are absorbed, distributed, biotransformed, and eliminated is called:"

Pharmacodynamics

Drug Profiling

Polypharmacy

Pharmacokinetics

81. A drug that blocks the muscarinic receptors in the peripheral nervous system would be classified as:

Sympathomimetic

Sympatholytic

Parasympathomimetic

Parasympatholytic

The two subdivisions of acetylcholine are muscarinic and nicotonic. acetylcholine is synonymous with parasympathetic nervous system, as is mucarinic receptors. So if you replaced muscarinic with "parasympathetic" , the question would read " a drug that blocks the PARASYMPATHETIC receptors" would be classified as:"

Explanation

The two subdivisions of acetylcholine are muscarinic and nicotonic. acetylcholine is synonymous with parasympathetic nervous system, as is mucarinic receptors. So if you replaced muscarinic with "parasympathetic" , the question would read " a drug that blocks the PARASYMPATHETIC receptors" would be classified as:"

82. The maximum volume of medication to be delivered into the deltoid muscle is ________ mL.

3

1

2

5

83. As the thoracic cavity begins to expand, the intrathoracic pressure:

Does not change.

Is greater than atmospheric pressure.

Is the same as atmospheric pressure.

Is less than atmospheric pressure.

When you inhale, your chest expands and, like diffusion, air moves from an area of higher concentration (the outside) to lower concentration(inside). So. chest cavity has an intrathoracic pressure less than atmospheric pressure.

Explanation

When you inhale, your chest expands and, like diffusion, air moves from an area of higher concentration (the outside) to lower concentration(inside). So. chest cavity has an intrathoracic pressure less than atmospheric pressure.

84. If you were to administer an antidysrhythmic drug that was a complete sodium channel blocker, which of the following would you expect?

. It would prevent the efflux (outflow) of calcium from within the cell.

It would impede the sodium-potassium pump from replacing the ions to their original locations.

It would cause excessive muscular contraction, because sodium is the principal cation in myofibril contraction.

It would prevent the development of phase 0, thereby inhibiting depolarization.

Depolarization is caused by the rapid influx of sodium. a complete sodium channel blocker which blocks the influx of sdoium, will inhibit(prevent) depolarization.

Explanation

Depolarization is caused by the rapid influx of sodium. a complete sodium channel blocker which blocks the influx of sdoium, will inhibit(prevent) depolarization.

85. in which fluid compartment is the largest percentage of the body's water located?

Intracellular

Intravascular

Interstitial

Extracellular

Intracellular contains 75% of the body's water,

Explanation

Intracellular contains 75% of the body's water,

86. Which of the following is NOT a percutaneous route of medication administration?

Buccal

Sublingual

Transdermal

Inhalation

87. The hypoxic drive is stimulated by:

High PaCO2.

Low PaO2.

High PaO2.

Low PaCO2.

The problem with giving oxygen to a person who has a hypoxic drive is that breathing is stimulated by low levels of O2, and on the opposite end of the spectrum, breathing is inhibited by high levels of O2. Putting a non-rebreathing on them and pumping them with high oxygen levels will inhibit their breathing.
Hypoxic Drive:
Stimulated by Low O2 (in this question Pa02, the Pa just meaning the measurement of arterial gas)
Inhibited by High O2

Explanation

The problem with giving oxygen to a person who has a hypoxic drive is that breathing is stimulated by low levels of O2, and on the opposite end of the spectrum, breathing is inhibited by high levels of O2. Putting a non-rebreathing on them and pumping them with high oxygen levels will inhibit their breathing.
Hypoxic Drive:
Stimulated by Low O2 (in this question Pa02, the Pa just meaning the measurement of arterial gas)
Inhibited by High O2

88. Which classification of drugs affecting the autonomic nervous system would be best suited to treat a patient with spinal shock?

Alpha antagonist

Alpha agonist

Beta antagonist

Beta agonist

89. Which of the following is the correct order of events after an endotracheal tube has been properly inserted?

Inflate the cuff with 5-10 cc of air, auscultate the epigastrium and then lungs, and secure the tube.

90. Poisons released from bacterial cells when they die are known as:

Exotoxins

Ectotoxins

Endotoxins

Epitoxins

91. All of the following result from insulin EXCEPT:

Increased synthesis of proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids.

Gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis.

Conversion of glucose to glycogen.

Increased cellular transport of glucose, potassium, and amino acids.

92. With which of the following conditions should you NOT attempt endotracheal intubation of the patient unless airway failure is imminent?

Pulmonary embolism

Respiratory Syncytical Virus (RSV)

COPD

Epiglottitis

93. a significant characteristic of digitalis preparations is that they:

Have a negative inotropic effect.

Are not prodysrhythmic drugs.

Have a positive chronotropic effect.

Have a very narrow therapeutic index.

94. At the cellular level, the treatment of seizures is generally accomplished by _ the influx of _ ions into the neural cells

Enchancing, potassium

Inhibiting, potassium

Inhibiting, sodium and calcium

Enhancing, sodium and calcium

by inhibiting sodium and calcium, depolarization is slowed. thereby preventing seizures from occuring.

Explanation

by inhibiting sodium and calcium, depolarization is slowed. thereby preventing seizures from occuring.

95. B-Lymphocytes are primarily responsible for:

Neutralizing antigens

Producing antibodies

Directly attacking antigens

Producing antigens

96. Your patient is presenting with rapid onset hypotension, tachycardia, and absent radial pulses. Which type of shock is LEAST likely to be the cause?

Hypovolemic

Septic

Cardiogenic

Neurogenic

97. Which of the following is NOT a potential side effect of oral contraceptives?

Hypertensin

Unintended Pregnancy

Early-onset osteoporosis

Thromboembolism

98. Which of the following medications would most likely be considered for emergent treatment in the prehospital management of hypertensive crisis?

Enalaprilat (Vasotec IV)

Nifedipine (Procardia)

Nitroglycerin paste (Nitro-Bid)

Labetalol (Normodyne)

99. The tip of the endotracheal tube for the pediatric patient should be inserted ________ cm below the vocal cords.

1-2

3-4

2-3

4-5

100. Mrs. Bertrand is having a cholecystectomy this evening. To prevent dehydration, she is to receive 5% dextrose in 0.45% saline solution at a rate of 150 mL/hour. Using 20 gtt/ml tubing, what is the drip rate in gtt/minute?

150

75

60

50

DD= 150mL/hour
SS= 20gtts/ml
T=60(minutes)
150mL x 20 divided by 60 equals 50 drops per min.

Explanation

DD= 150mL/hour
SS= 20gtts/ml
T=60(minutes)
150mL x 20 divided by 60 equals 50 drops per min.

101. In which of the following situations would you expect end tidal carbon dioxide levels to be very low, despite a patent airway?

Room air PPV

Hyperthermia

Hypoventilation

Cardiac arrest

102. Which of the following antihypertensive medications is an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor?

Labetalol (Normodyne)

Clonidine (Catapres)

Reserpine (Serpalan)

Captopril (Capoten)

103. The use of tobacco, because of its nicotine content, may cause subtle symptoms due to stimulation of the:

Parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.

Nicotinic receptor sites at the neuromuscular junction in the sympathetic nervous system.

Sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.

Sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system

104. Your patient weighs 22 lbs. and is to receive 0.02 mg/kg of atropine IVP. You have a multidose vial of atropine containing 20 ml at a concentration of 0.04 mg/ml. What volume (in mL) of medication is to be injected?

0.5

2.5

0.25

5

0.02(mg/kg) x 10(kg) divided by 0.04.(mg/ml) = 5ml

Explanation

0.02(mg/kg) x 10(kg) divided by 0.04.(mg/ml) = 5ml

105. You are caring for a 48-year-old patient with acute onset pulmonary edema secondary to an acute myocardial infarction. He has rales (crackles) in both lung fields and wheezes in the bronchial regions. His blood pressure is 160/90, his pulse is 112, and his respirations are 32. Which of the following medications is indicated FIRST, and why?

Morphine sulfate to decreaseanxiety and reduce afterload

Furosemide (Lasix) to achieve a diuresis and remove a portion offluids from the intravascular space

Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) to reduce preload and afterload toredistribute fluids to the periphery.

Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) to vasodilate the coronaryvessels to maximize myocardial oxygen supply

106. Which of the following is NOT associated with the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system?

Cholinergic

Vagal Tone

Craniosacral

Thoracolumbar

107. A larger-than-expected dose of adenosine may be necessary in patients regularly taking:

Amphetamines

Benzodiazepines

Class I antidysrhythmics

Certain bronchodilators

Certain bronchodilators, such as theophyline, compete for the same receptor site as adenosine. therefore, you need a larger dose of adenosine in order to "knock off" the theophyline that is already occupying the the receptor site.

Explanation

Certain bronchodilators, such as theophyline, compete for the same receptor site as adenosine. therefore, you need a larger dose of adenosine in order to "knock off" the theophyline that is already occupying the the receptor site.

108. Ms. Krinklebine is experiencing right lower quadrant pain following a syncopal episode. She reports her last menstrual period (LMP) was about 6 weeks ago. While she is awaiting an abdominal CT, the surgery resident asks that you initiate an IV of lactated Ringer's solution using a blood set (10 gtt/mL) and infuse 1,000 ml over 1 hour. What drip rate (in gtt/minute) will you use to attain this rate of administration?

17

600

67

167

109. Beta adrenergic antagonists reduce hypertension through all of the following effects EXCEPT:

Diminishing reﬂex tachycardia as a compensatory response.

A negative inotropic effect.

Suppressing renin release from the kidneys.

Reduction of peripheral vascular resistance through vasodilation.

Test Review Quiz

1. Which of the following is the most common cause of airway obstruction?

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. A high-pitched inspiratory noise caused by a partial upper airway obstruction is called:

3. When swallowing occurs, the structure that occludes the tracheal opening to prevent aspiration of food and liquids is the:

4. Applying posteriorly directed pressure on the cricoid cartilage to facilitate endotracheal intubation is also referred to as:

5. Which of the following terms can be defined as the activities of the body that allow the maintenance of physiologic stability?

6. Shock can best be described as:

7. Using microdrip IV tubing, how many drops of fluid equal 1 mL?

8. Insertion of an endotracheal tube too far is likely to result in ventilation of:

9. Which of the following devices is known as a dual lumen airway?

10. Which of the following is the generic name of a drug

11. Which of the following is a loop diuretic?

12. Which of the following basic airway adjuncts prevents the tongue from falling back to occlude the airway?

13. You are to give Mr. Jenkins 50 mg of Toradol (ketorolac) IM for musculoskeletal pain. Ketorolac is supplied 60 mg/2 ml. What volume of drug (in mL) is to be drawn up for administration?

14. While caring for a 60-year-old male with a suspected femur fracture, your partner accidentally administers the full vial of morphine sulfate (15 mg) when only 4 mg was ordered. What adverse effects are likely to occur in this patient?

15. The general term for creating, storing, and using energy in the body is:

16. Which of the following factors may contribute to the development of disease in geriatric patients?

17. Which of the following is NOT one of the main sources of drugs?

18. Having a patient swallow a tablet of medication with a drink of water is an example of which route of medication administration?

19. A beta2 specific agonist causes which of the following physiologic responses?"

20. The respiratory rate may be greater than normal because of:

21. Normal saline solution contains ________ percent sodium chloride.

22. A drop in blood pressure of greater than 10 torr during inspiration is called:

23. In a patient experiencing a myocardial infarction, a medication that reduces afterload is beneficial because it:"

24. According to Frank-Starling's Law, the administration of nitroglycerin will result in ________ preload, ________ stroke volume, and ________ myocardial oxygen demand.

25. The maximum ﬂow rate to be used with a nasal cannula is ______ liters per minute

26. Substances that separate into electrically charged particles in water are known as:

27. When using a colorimetric end-tidal carbon dioxide detector, the absence of carbon dioxide in exhaled air after six breaths indicates the endotracheal tube has been placed:

28. The type of blood that may be administered to all people in an emergency, regardless of their blood type, is:

29. An adult patient with a pulse who has been intubated due to respiratory arrest should be ventilated ________ times per minute.

30. When a bag-valve ventilation device is used without supplemental oxygen, it delivers an oxygen concentration of ________ percent.

31. A drug that serves as a sodium channel blocker will have the greatest effect on which phase of ion exchange in the normal, fast-potential cardiac cell?

32. When preparing for venipuncture, a constricting band should be applied tight enough to restrict ________ flow.

33. A fine, bubbling sound heard on inspiration and associated with fluid in the alveoli and terminal bronchioles is called:

34. A solid disk of compressed medicated powder intended to be chewed and swallowed or swallowed whole, and which may be scored to permit breaking, is known as a:

35. Naloxone is an ________ to opioid receptors.

36. In an adult, the narrowest part of the airway is the:

37. Progressively deeper, faster breathing alternating gradually with shallow, slower breathing is called:

38. End-tidal colorimetric capnography measures:

39. Which of the following medications has the shortest half-life?

40. Adequate perfusion depends upon:

41. Which of the following is a disadvantage of pulmonary drug administration via nebulizer or metered dose inhaler?

42. ________ are the most common type of cell in the blood.

43. Which of the following is appropriate for a subcutaneous injection of medication?

44. Septic shock is precipitated by:

45. In which of the following conditions is insertion of a nasogastric tube contraindicated?

46. Aspirin is beneﬁcial to patients with a history of cardiac disease because it:

47. The process that produces an increase in cell size as a result of increasing workload is known as:

48. When you are suctioning an adult patient, the onset of bradycardia is most likely due to:

49. The amount of blood that returns to the heart during diastole is called:

50. Immediate intubation should be considered for trauma patients with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of ________ or lower.

51. Phase 0 of cardiac cell depolarization in the fast potentials is characterized by rapid:

53. Moderate hypoxia is indicated with a pulse oximeter reading of ________ percent.

54. Which of the following would NOT be appropriate for intradermal drug administration?

55. Which of the following is NOT one of the body's three chief lines of defense against infection and injury?

56. The time from when a drug is administered until it reaches the minimum effective concentration is known as the

57. When you are intubating a stoma site, how far beyond the distal cuff (in cm) should you insert the endotracheal tube?

58. The tip of a curved laryngoscope blade is placed correctly:

59. A patient was shot in the abdomen and has a resultant massive hemorrhage and hypoperfusion. Intravenous therapy would help treat the hypoperfusion by:

60. The bifurcation of the trachea is called the:

61. When correctly placed, the tip of a straight laryngoscope blade should be:

62. Which of the following is NOT a structure of the upper airway?

63. How a drug interacts with the body to cause its effects is called:"

64. An attempt at endotracheal intubation must not interrupt ventilations for more than ________ seconds.

65. A musical, squeaking, or whistling sound that may be heard on inspiration or expiration while auscultating lung fields is known as:

66. Which of the following may complicate airway management procedures in the pediatric patient?

67. What is the preferred access site for intraosseous infusion in both pediatric and adult patients?

68. Which of the following is a disadvantage to intravascular volume replacement with isotonic crystalloid solutions?

69. Sympathetic nervous system stimulation that results in vasoconstriction and some bronchoconstriction is most likely affecting:"

70. In the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), which element is most responsible for widespread vasoconstriction?"

71. During spontaneous breathing, which of the following reflexes prevents overinflation of the lungs?

72. Which of the following best describes the body's reaction to exposure to or invasion by antigens?

74. At the end of exhalation, the intrathoracic pressure is:

75. If a patient were exhibiting pupillary constriction, hypersalivation, bronchial wheezing, and bradycardia, you should suspect ________ of the ________ nervous system.

76. Which of the following is NOT typically associated with Type I diabetes mellitus?

77. Blood pressure is represented by:

78. All of the following statements about insulin are true EXCEPT:

79. When administering glucagon to a patient, it is important to remember that:

24. According to Frank-Starling's Law, the administration of nitroglycerin will result in preload, stroke volume, and myocardial oxygen demand.

75. If a patient were exhibiting pupillary constriction, hypersalivation, bronchial wheezing, and bradycardia, you should suspect of the nervous system.

94. At the cellular level, the treatment of seizures is generally accomplished by _ the influx of _ ions into the neural cells