Endo Quiz Nsm 2015

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| By SmithNephew1
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Quizzes Created: 7 | Total Attempts: 917
Questions: 16 | Attempts: 98

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the below implant(s) is/are designed for use in a rotator cuff repair?

    • A.

      SpeedLock

    • B.

      SpeedScrew

    • C.

      Healicoil

    • D.

      Bioraptor

    • E.

      B and C

    • F.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. B and C
    Explanation
    Implants designed for use in a rotator cuff repair include the Healicoil and Bioraptor. The SpeedLock and SpeedScrew implants are not specifically designed for this purpose. Therefore, the correct answer is B and C.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the below are used in a labral repair?

    • A.

      SpeedStitch, SpeedLock, SpeedScrew

    • B.

      SmartStitch, MiniMagnum, SpeedLock

    • C.

      SpeedStitch, SpeedLock, MiniMagnum

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. SpeedStitch, SpeedLock, MiniMagnum
    Explanation
    SpeedStitch, SpeedLock, and MiniMagnum are all used in a labral repair. These are different types of surgical instruments or devices commonly used in orthopedic procedures to repair a torn labrum, which is a ring of cartilage that surrounds the socket of a joint. SpeedStitch is a type of suture used to stitch the torn labrum back together. SpeedLock and MiniMagnum are both types of anchors that are inserted into the bone to secure the repaired labrum in place. Therefore, all of the options listed contain instruments or devices that are used in a labral repair.

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  • 3. 

    What is the resolution of the 660 Camera System?

    • A.

      1024 X 768

    • B.

      1280 X 1024

    • C.

      1920 X 1080

    • D.

      1920 X 1200

    Correct Answer
    C. 1920 X 1080
    Explanation
    The resolution of the 660 Camera System is 1920 X 1080. This means that the camera captures images and videos with a width of 1920 pixels and a height of 1080 pixels. Higher resolution allows for more detailed and clearer images and videos.

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  • 4. 

    What kind of stitch does the SmartStitch device lay?

    • A.

      Simple stitch

    • B.

      Modified Mason-Allen

    • C.

      Incline Mattress

    • D.

      Rip Stop stitch

    Correct Answer
    C. Incline Mattress
    Explanation
    The SmartStitch device lays an Incline Mattress stitch.

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  • 5. 

    ArthroCare's unique waveform has a sharp leading edge that requires less time to generate plasma and therefore allows more time for active ablation. By contrast, other controllers have a higher frequency sine waveform that delivers a gradual ramp and requires more time to reach the maximum voltage for tissue ablation, thereby allowing less time for tissue removal.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    ArthroCare's unique waveform with a sharp leading edge allows for quicker plasma generation, giving more time for active ablation. Other controllers with a higher frequency sine waveform deliver a gradual ramp, taking more time to reach the maximum voltage for tissue ablation, resulting in less time for tissue removal. This statement suggests that ArthroCare's waveform is more efficient and effective for tissue ablation compared to other controllers.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following are main advantages Coblation offers surgeons?

    • A.

      Coblation opertates at lower temperatures than other RF based technologies

    • B.

      Coblation ablates more efficiently due to higher power

    • C.

      The 100um-200um plasma field allows for precise removal of soft tissue with minimal thermal damage to untargeted tissue

    • D.

      A and C

    Correct Answer
    D. A and C
    Explanation
    Coblation offers surgeons two main advantages. Firstly, it operates at lower temperatures compared to other RF based technologies. This is beneficial as it reduces the risk of thermal damage to surrounding tissues during the procedure. Secondly, Coblation allows for precise removal of soft tissue with minimal thermal damage to untargeted tissue, thanks to the 100um-200um plasma field it creates. These advantages make Coblation a preferred choice for surgeons.

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  • 7. 

    The mechansim of action of the plasma on tissue is?

    • A.

      The disintegration of organic bonds within targeted tissue

    • B.

      Heated through molecular friction

    • C.

      Mechanically removing tissue from bone

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. The disintegration of organic bonds within targeted tissue
    Explanation
    Plasma, in this context, refers to the fourth state of matter consisting of highly energized ions and electrons. When plasma comes into contact with tissue, it causes the disintegration of organic bonds within the targeted tissue. This can lead to the breakdown and destruction of the tissue. Therefore, the correct answer is the disintegration of organic bonds within targeted tissue.

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  • 8. 

    Plasma ablates tissue through a _____ process, as highly-energized particles in the plasma break down molecules in the tissue.

    • A.

      Shrinking

    • B.

      Thermal

    • C.

      Conduction

    • D.

      Chemical

    Correct Answer
    D. Chemical
    Explanation
    Plasma ablates tissue through a chemical process, as highly-energized particles in the plasma break down molecules in the tissue. This suggests that the plasma interacts with the tissue at a molecular level, causing chemical reactions that result in tissue ablation. The other options, such as shrinking, thermal, and conduction, do not accurately describe the mechanism by which plasma ablates tissue.

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  • 9. 

    How many reported cases of AVN (avascualar necrosis) have been reported in the literature directly related to a Coblation wand?

    • A.

      Four...only the cases of Drs. Lu and Markel

    • B.

      Over 98 in published literature

    • C.

      24

    • D.

      0

    Correct Answer
    D. 0
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0 because the question asks for the number of reported cases of AVN directly related to a Coblation wand in the literature. However, the given options do not provide any reported cases related to a Coblation wand.

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  • 10. 

    Generally speaking with regards to Coblation, what are the two areas of knee arthroscopy that are the most widely adopted? in other words, what are the two easiest treatments to introduce a new surgeon to Coblation

    • A.

      ACL debridement and Lateral Release

    • B.

      Chondroplasty and Meniscectomy

    • C.

      Chondroplasty and Lateral Release

    • D.

      ACL debridement and Meniscectomy

    Correct Answer
    A. ACL debridement and Lateral Release
    Explanation
    ACL debridement and Lateral Release are the two easiest treatments to introduce a new surgeon to Coblation. These procedures are widely adopted in knee arthroscopy. ACL debridement involves removing damaged tissue from the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL), while Lateral Release involves releasing tight structures on the outside of the knee to improve patellar tracking. Both procedures can be effectively performed using Coblation technology, which uses radiofrequency energy to remove tissue and create a controlled healing response. Therefore, these two treatments are commonly used as a starting point for surgeons learning to use Coblation in knee arthroscopy.

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  • 11. 

    The Coblation treatment on sensitive structures such as cartilage is most effective at settings...

    • A.

      7-9

    • B.

      4-5

    • C.

      1-3

    • D.

      Coag (blue pedal/button)

    Correct Answer
    A. 7-9
    Explanation
    The Coblation treatment is a surgical technique that uses radiofrequency energy to remove or reshape tissue. When treating sensitive structures like cartilage, it is important to use the most effective settings to minimize damage and achieve the desired outcome. The answer of 7-9 suggests that these settings are the most effective for the Coblation treatment on sensitive structures like cartilage.

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  • 12. 

    In the following group of intra-operative variables, which has the greatest impact on plasma formation, consistency and control?

    • A.

      Suction/Flow

    • B.

      Tissue quality

    • C.

      Space to work in the joint

    • D.

      Movement of the wand

    Correct Answer
    A. Suction/Flow
    Explanation
    Suction/Flow has the greatest impact on plasma formation, consistency, and control during surgery. Suction helps to remove excess fluids and debris from the surgical site, which can affect the formation and control of plasma. It also helps to maintain a consistent flow of fluids, ensuring proper irrigation and preventing the buildup of excessive heat. Therefore, the suction/flow variable is crucial in maintaining a clear and controlled surgical field, which ultimately impacts the formation and control of plasma during the procedure.

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  • 13. 

    The Ambient Wand is indicating the temperature of what?

    • A.

      The tip of the Wand

    • B.

      The temperature of the surrounding tissue

    • C.

      The saline irrigant in the joint space

    Correct Answer
    C. The saline irrigant in the joint space
    Explanation
    The Ambient Wand is a device used in medical procedures to measure the temperature of the saline irrigant in the joint space. This is important because the temperature of the saline irrigant can affect the success of the procedure and the comfort of the patient. By measuring the temperature, medical professionals can ensure that the saline irrigant is at the optimal temperature for the procedure.

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  • 14. 

    What is the major difference between the 2008 and 2010 Spahn studies?

    • A.

      1-year versus 4-year follow up

    • B.

      Different patient populations

    • C.

      Different wands used (Paragon vs. SuperMultiVac)

    • D.

      One study had only chondromalacia and the other had BOTH chondromalacia and a meniscal tear

    Correct Answer
    A. 1-year versus 4-year follow up
    Explanation
    The major difference between the 2008 and 2010 Spahn studies is the duration of the follow-up period. The 2008 study followed up with the patients for 1 year, while the 2010 study followed up for 4 years. This difference in follow-up duration allows for a longer-term assessment of the outcomes and effectiveness of the treatment or intervention being studied.

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  • 15. 

    What does the CL stand for in Endobutton CL?

    • A.

      Closed loop

    • B.

      Continuous loop

    • C.

      Cruciate loop

    • D.

      Constrained ligament

    Correct Answer
    B. Continuous loop
    Explanation
    The CL in Endobutton CL stands for Continuous loop. This suggests that the Endobutton device has a loop design that allows for continuous and uninterrupted movement or tension in the ligament it is used for.

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  • 16. 

    In 2013 Barrow et al published a paper comparing fixed and adjustable loops for ACL reconstruction, what was the outcome?

    • A.

      There was no difference between fixed and adjustable loops

    • B.

      Tightrope RT lengthened 42.45mm

    • C.

      Endobutton lengthened 1.34mm

    • D.

      Both b and c

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Both b and c
    Explanation
    The outcome of the study conducted by Barrow et al in 2013 comparing fixed and adjustable loops for ACL reconstruction was that both the Tightrope RT and Endobutton lengthened the ACL by different amounts. The Tightrope RT lengthened it by 42.45mm, while the Endobutton lengthened it by 1.34mm. Therefore, the correct answer is "Both b and c."

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 30, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    SmithNephew1
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