Signal Alliance Online Test Quiz!

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Signal Alliance Online Test Quiz! - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Who developed Yahoo?

    • A.

      Dennis Ritchie & Ken Thompson

    • B.

      David Filo & Jerry Yang

    • C.

      Vint Cerf & Robert Kahn

    • D.

      Steve Case & Jeff Bezos

    Correct Answer
    B. David Filo & Jerry Yang
    Explanation
    David Filo and Jerry Yang are the co-founders of Yahoo. They developed Yahoo in 1994 while they were students at Stanford University. They initially created Yahoo as a directory of websites, but it quickly grew into one of the most popular internet search engines and web portals. Filo and Yang played a crucial role in the early development and success of Yahoo, making them the correct answer to the question.

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  • 2. 

    Made from a variety of materials, such as carbon, which inhibits the flow of current...?

    • A.

      Choke

    • B.

      Inductor

    • C.

      Resistor

    • D.

      Capacitor

    Correct Answer
    C. Resistor
    Explanation
    A resistor is a component made from various materials, including carbon, that is designed to inhibit the flow of electric current in a circuit. It does this by providing resistance to the flow of electrons, converting electrical energy into heat. Therefore, a resistor is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to inhibit the flow of current.

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  • 3. 

    The first step to getting output from a laser is to excite an active medium. What is this process called?

    • A.

      Pumping

    • B.

      Exciting

    • C.

      Priming

    • D.

      Raising

    Correct Answer
    A. Pumping
    Explanation
    The process of exciting an active medium in order to generate output from a laser is called pumping. This involves supplying energy to the active medium, such as through electrical discharge or optical pumping, which raises the electrons to higher energy levels. Once the electrons return to their lower energy levels, they release photons, resulting in the emission of laser light.

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  • 4. 

    Which is NOT an acceptable method of distributing small power outlets throughout an open plan office area?

    • A.

      Power Poles

    • B.

      Power Skirting

    • C.

      Flush Floor Ducting

    • D.

      Extension Cords

    Correct Answer
    D. Extension Cords
    Explanation
    Extension cords are not an acceptable method of distributing small power outlets throughout an open plan office area because they are not designed for permanent installation and can pose safety hazards. Extension cords are typically used for temporary power needs and should not be used as a permanent solution for distributing power in an office space. Using power poles, power skirting, or flush floor ducting are more suitable methods for distributing power outlets in an open plan office area as they are designed for permanent installation and provide a safer and more organized solution.

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  • 5. 

    In which decade was the telegraph invented?

    • A.

      1810s

    • B.

      1840s

    • C.

      1870s

    • D.

      1890s

    Correct Answer
    B. 1840s
    Explanation
    The telegraph was invented in the 1840s. This was a significant development in communication technology, allowing messages to be transmitted over long distances using electrical signals. The invention of the telegraph revolutionized communication, making it faster and more efficient than ever before. It paved the way for further advancements in telecommunications and played a crucial role in shaping the modern world.

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  • 6. 

    Lately, you hear a clatter from your computer, especially when you load a program or call up information. What's going on?

    • A.

      It's infested with reindeer

    • B.

      Your hard disk may be headed for failure

    • C.

      A loose wire is hitting the cooling fan

    • D.

      A loud metallic clatter is normal

    Correct Answer
    B. Your hard disk may be headed for failure
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Your hard disk may be headed for failure." This is because a clattering sound coming from the computer, especially when loading a program or accessing information, is often a sign of a failing hard disk. Hard disks have moving parts, and if they become worn out or damaged, they can start making unusual noises. It is important to back up important data and consider replacing the hard disk if this issue persists.

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  • 7. 

    In which decade was the Internet first implemented?

    • A.

      1940s

    • B.

      1950s

    • C.

      1960s

    • D.

      1980s

    Correct Answer
    C. 1960s
    Explanation
    In the 1960s, the Internet was first implemented. This was a significant milestone in the development of technology and communication. During this decade, the Advanced Research Projects Agency Network (ARPANET) was created, which laid the foundation for the modern Internet. The ARPANET was a network of computers that allowed researchers and scientists to share information and collaborate on projects. This marked the beginning of the interconnected network that eventually evolved into the Internet as we know it today.

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  • 8. 

    Where are the contents of your computer's hard drive indexed?

    • A.

      Yahoo!

    • B.

      Google

    • C.

      MSN

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. None of the above
    Explanation
    The contents of a computer's hard drive are typically indexed by the operating system, not by any of the mentioned search engines. The operating system uses its own indexing system to keep track of the files and folders stored on the hard drive, allowing users to easily search for and access specific files. Therefore, the correct answer is "None of the above" as none of the mentioned search engines are responsible for indexing the contents of a computer's hard drive.

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  • 9. 

    What is a NIC?

    • A.

      Netware Intranet Controller

    • B.

      No Internet Connection

    • C.

      Network Interface Card

    • D.

      Network Interference Control

    Correct Answer
    C. Network Interface Card
    Explanation
    A NIC, or Network Interface Card, is a hardware component that allows a computer to connect to a network. It provides the physical connection between the computer and the network, enabling the computer to send and receive data over the network. This card is essential for establishing a network connection and is commonly found in desktop computers, laptops, and servers.

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  • 10. 

    The first graphical browser for the WWW was named:

    • A.

      Netscape

    • B.

      Veronica

    • C.

      Mosaic

    • D.

      Explorer

    Correct Answer
    C. Mosaic
    Explanation
    Mosaic was the first graphical browser for the World Wide Web. It was developed in 1993 by a team at the National Center for Supercomputing Applications (NCSA) at the University of Illinois. Mosaic played a significant role in popularizing the internet and making it more accessible to the general public. It introduced features like inline images and clickable hyperlinks, making web browsing a more visual and interactive experience. Netscape, Veronica, and Explorer were also popular browsers, but they came after Mosaic and built upon its innovations.

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  • 11. 

    Which of these is a documented hoax virus?

    • A.

      McDonalds screensaver

    • B.

      Alien.worm

    • C.

      Merry Xmas

    • D.

      Adolph

    Correct Answer
    A. McDonalds screensaver
    Explanation
    The McDonalds screensaver is a documented hoax virus. This means that it is a virus that was falsely reported or believed to exist, but in reality, it does not pose any threat to computer systems. It may have been created as a prank or for attention-seeking purposes. However, it is important to note that even though it is a hoax virus, it is still advisable to be cautious and avoid downloading or installing any suspicious files or programs from untrusted sources.

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  • 12. 

    N is an integer and n2 is divisible by 28. Which of the following must be true? I. n2 is divisible by 49. II. n is divisible by 4. III. n2/28 is divisible by 7.

    • A.

      I only

    • B.

      II only

    • C.

      I and III only

    • D.

      II and III only

    • E.

      I, II, and III

    Correct Answer
    C. I and III only
    Explanation
    If n^2 is divisible by 28, it means that n^2 is a multiple of 28. Since 28 can be factored into 2^2 * 7, this means that n^2 must be divisible by both 2^2 and 7. Therefore, I is true.

    For III to be true, n^2/28 must be divisible by 7. Since n^2 is already divisible by 28, dividing it by 28 means that it must also be divisible by 7. Therefore, III is also true.

    However, there is no information given about whether n is divisible by 4, so II cannot be determined and is not necessarily true. Therefore, the correct answer is I and III only.

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  • 13. 

    If there are 85 students in a statistics class and we assume that there are 365 days in a year, what is the probability that at least two students in the class have the same birthday (assuming birthdays are distributed independently)?

    Correct Answer
    D.
    Explanation
    The probability that at least two students in a class of 85 have the same birthday can be calculated using the concept of complementary probability. We first calculate the probability that no two students have the same birthday. The first student can have any birthday, while the second student must have a different birthday, which can be any of the remaining 364 days. Similarly, the third student can have a birthday on any of the remaining 363 days, and so on. Therefore, the probability that no two students have the same birthday is (365/365) * (364/365) * (363/365) * ... * (282/365). To find the probability that at least two students have the same birthday, we subtract this probability from 1.

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  • 14. 

    A test maker is to design a probability test from a list of 21 questions. The 21 questions are classified into three categories: hard, intermediate, and easy. If there are 7 questions in each category and the test maker is to select two questions from each category, how many different combinations of questions can the test maker put on the test?

    • A.

      (7!/(5!2!))3

    • B.

      (7!/(5!))3

    • C.

      (7!/(2!))3

    • D.

      3*29

    • E.

      72

    Correct Answer
    A. (7!/(5!2!))3
    Explanation
    The test maker needs to select 2 questions from each category, so for each category, there are 7 choose 2 combinations. Since there are 3 categories, the total number of combinations is (7 choose 2) * (7 choose 2) * (7 choose 2) = (7!/(5!2!))3.

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  • 15. 

    There are five empty chairs in a row. If six men and four women are waiting to be seated, what is the probability that the seats will be occupied by two men and three women?

    • A.

      4/21

    • B.

      5/21

    • C.

      8/21

    • D.

      9/21

    • E.

      11/21

    Correct Answer
    B. 5/21
    Explanation
    The probability of the seats being occupied by two men and three women can be calculated by dividing the number of favorable outcomes (arrangements with two men and three women) by the total number of possible outcomes. Since there are 6 men and 4 women waiting to be seated, the total number of possible outcomes is the number of ways to choose 2 men out of 6 multiplied by the number of ways to choose 3 women out of 4. This can be calculated as (6 choose 2) * (4 choose 3) = 15. Therefore, the probability is 15/210, which simplifies to 5/21.

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  • 16. 

    Mariah has decided to hire three workers. To determine whom she will hire, she has selected a group of 10 candidates. She plans to have one working interview with 3 of the 10 candidates every day to see how well they work together. How many days will it take her to have working interviews with all the different combinations of job candidates?

    • A.

      720

    • B.

      120

    • C.

      300

    • D.

      30

    • E.

      333

    Correct Answer
    B. 120
    Explanation
    Mariah has selected a group of 10 candidates and plans to have one working interview with 3 candidates every day. To find out how many days it will take for her to have working interviews with all the different combinations of candidates, we need to calculate the number of combinations. The formula to calculate the number of combinations is nCr = n! / (r!(n-r)!), where n is the total number of candidates and r is the number of candidates selected for each interview. In this case, n = 10 and r = 3. Plugging these values into the formula, we get 10! / (3!(10-3)!), which simplifies to 10! / (3!7!). This further simplifies to (10*9*8) / (3*2*1), which equals 120. Therefore, it will take Mariah 120 days to have working interviews with all the different combinations of job candidates.

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  • 17. 

    A coin has two sides. One side has the number 1 on it and the other side has the number 2 on it. If the coin is flipped three times what is the probability that the sum of the numbers on the landing side of the coin will be greater than 4?

    • A.

      3/8

    • B.

      1/16

    • C.

      1/8

    • D.

      1/2

    • E.

      1/4

    Correct Answer
    D. 1/2
    Explanation
    When a coin is flipped, there are two possible outcomes: either the number 1 or the number 2 will be on the landing side. Since the coin is flipped three times, there are a total of 2^3 = 8 possible outcomes. Out of these 8 outcomes, there are 4 outcomes where the sum of the numbers on the landing side is greater than 4: 2+2+2, 2+2+1, 2+1+2, and 1+2+2. Therefore, the probability of getting a sum greater than 4 is 4/8 = 1/2.

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  • 18. 

    Computer Games Plus needs to get rid of its copies of an old computer game. If it lowers the cost of the old computer game by $5 dollars, it can increase sales of the old computer game by 10 units and still generate exactly $100 of revenue from the old game. How many units of the old computer game did Computer Games Plus sell after implementing the new selling strategy?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      15

    • C.

      20

    • D.

      30

    • E.

      50

    Correct Answer
    C. 20
    Explanation
    By lowering the cost of the old computer game by $5, Computer Games Plus can increase sales by 10 units and still generate $100 of revenue. This means that each unit of the old computer game originally sold for $10 ($100 revenue divided by the original number of units sold). By lowering the cost by $5, the new selling price is $5. Therefore, the number of units sold after implementing the new strategy is 20 units ($100 revenue divided by the new selling price of $5 per unit).

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  • 19. 

    At a local appliance manufacturing facility, the workers received a 20% hourly pay raise due to extraordinary performance. If one worker decided to reduce the number of hours that he worked so that his overall pay would remain unchanged, by approximately what percent would he reduce the number of hours that he worked?

    • A.

      83%

    • B.

      80%

    • C.

      20%

    • D.

      17%

    • E.

      12%

    Correct Answer
    D. 17%
    Explanation
    If the worker received a 20% hourly pay raise, it means that his hourly wage increased by 20%. In order for his overall pay to remain unchanged, he would need to reduce the number of hours he worked by a percentage that offsets the hourly pay raise. To find this percentage, we can set up the equation: (1 - x) * (1 + 0.20) = 1, where x is the percentage reduction in hours worked. Solving for x gives us x ≈ 0.17, which is approximately 17%. Therefore, the worker would need to reduce the number of hours he worked by approximately 17% to maintain his overall pay unchanged.

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  • 20. 

    There are six different models that are to appear in a fashion show. Two are from Europe, two are from Africa, and two are from North America. If all the models from the same continent are to stand next to each other, how many ways can the fashion show organizer arrange the models?

    • A.

      48

    • B.

      64

    • C.

      24

    • D.

      8

    • E.

      72

    Correct Answer
    A. 48
    Explanation
    The fashion show organizer can arrange the models in 48 different ways. To determine this, we can consider the models from each continent as a group. There are 3 groups of models (Europe, Africa, and North America) and within each group, there are 2 models. Therefore, we can arrange the groups in 3! = 6 ways. Within each group, we can arrange the models in 2! = 2 ways. Multiplying these together, we get 6 * 2 * 2 * 2 = 48.

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  • 21. 

    At a technology consulting firm with x computers, all of which are desktops or laptops, 30% are laptops; if 80% of the total number of computers have more than 1GB of RAM and 10% of the computers with less than 1GB of RAM are laptops (and no computers have exactly 1GM of RAM), approximately what percent of the desktops have more than 1GB of RAM?

    • A.

      75%

    • B.

      60%

    • C.

      52%

    • D.

      40%

    • E.

      45%

    Correct Answer
    A. 75%
    Explanation
    Approximately 30% of the computers are laptops, which means that 70% are desktops. Since 80% of the total number of computers have more than 1GB of RAM, we can assume that the same percentage applies to both laptops and desktops. Therefore, approximately 80% of the desktops also have more than 1GB of RAM. This corresponds to the answer choice of 75%.

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  • 22. 

    A group of 5 investment bankers and 5 clients recently frequented the Fine Tiger Nigerian Restaurant. The total bill for the meal, including 20% gratuity, came to N960. On average, how much did the meal of each individual cost before gratuity?

    • A.

      N160

    • B.

      N96

    • C.

      N90

    • D.

      N80

    • E.

      N55

    Correct Answer
    D. N80
    Explanation
    The total bill for the meal, including 20% gratuity, came to N960. To find the cost of each individual's meal before gratuity, we need to divide the total bill by the number of individuals. In this case, there are 5 investment bankers and 5 clients, so a total of 10 individuals. Dividing N960 by 10 gives us N96. However, the question asks for the average cost, so we need to divide N96 by 2 (the number of groups: investment bankers and clients). N96 divided by 2 equals N48, which is the cost of each individual's meal before gratuity.

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  • 23. 

    In a local intramural basketball league, there are 10 teams and each team plays every other team exactly one time. Assuming that each game is played by only two teams, how many games are played in total?

    • A.

      100

    • B.

      90

    • C.

      50

    • D.

      45

    • E.

      10

    Correct Answer
    D. 45
    Explanation
    In a local intramural basketball league with 10 teams, each team plays every other team exactly once. To determine the total number of games played, we can use the combination formula. Since each game involves two teams, we need to find the number of combinations of 2 teams from a set of 10. The formula for this is nC2 = n! / (2!(n-2)!), where n is the number of teams. Plugging in the values, we get 10C2 = 10! / (2!(10-2)!) = 45. Therefore, a total of 45 games are played in the league.

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  • 24. 

    A box contains either blue or red flags. The total number of flags in the box is an even number. A group of children are asked to pick up two flags each. If all the flags are used up in the process such that 60% of the children have blue flags, and 55% have red flags, what percentage of children have flags of both the colors?

    • A.

      5%

    • B.

      10%

    • C.

      15%

    • D.

      20%

    • E.

      It cannot be determined

    Correct Answer
    C. 15%
    Explanation
    Since 60% of the children have blue flags and 55% have red flags, it means that 60% + 55% = 115% of the children have either blue or red flags. However, since some children may have both blue and red flags, the total percentage of children with both colors cannot exceed 100%. Therefore, the maximum percentage of children with flags of both colors is 100% - 115% = 15%.

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  • 25. 

    There are 4 more women than there are men on a local co-ed softball team. If there are a total of 16 players on the team, what is the ratio of men to women?

    • A.

      10/16

    • B.

      6/16

    • C.

      4/16

    • D.

      6/10

    • E.

      4/10

    Correct Answer
    D. 6/10
    Explanation
    Since there are 4 more women than men on the team, we can deduce that there are 6 women and 2 men. Therefore, the ratio of men to women is 2/6, which simplifies to 1/3. However, the answer choices do not include 1/3. The closest ratio is 4/10, which simplifies to 2/5. Therefore, the correct answer is 4/10.

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  • 26. 

    A computer has three hard-drives; the smallest and largest hard-drives account for 25 and 45 percent of the total storage space on the computer, respectively; due to a catastrophic error, the largest hard-drive lost approximately 22% of its storage space; after this error, the hard drive that was originally the second largest accounts for approximately what percent of the total hard-drive space on the reduced computer?

    • A.

      22%

    • B.

      33%

    • C.

      20%

    • D.

      39%

    • E.

      45%

    Correct Answer
    B. 33%
    Explanation
    After the catastrophic error, the largest hard-drive lost approximately 22% of its storage space. Therefore, the remaining storage space on the largest hard-drive is 100% - 22% = 78%. Since the smallest hard-drive accounts for 25% of the total storage space, and the largest hard-drive now accounts for 78% of the reduced storage space, the second largest hard-drive must account for the remaining percentage. Thus, the hard drive that was originally the second largest accounts for approximately 100% - 25% - 78% = 33% of the total hard-drive space on the reduced computer.

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  • 27. 

    After running a series of television advertisements, a leading beverage producer saw its sales increase by 25% to N1 million naira per month. Prior to the advertising campaign, about how many dollars in sales did the company average per day?

    • A.

      N1.25 million

    • B.

      N800,000

    • C.

      N750,000

    • D.

      N27,000

    • E.

      N10,000

    Correct Answer
    D. N27,000
    Explanation
    The question asks about the average daily sales prior to the advertising campaign. To find this, we need to divide the monthly sales (N1 million) by the number of days in a month. Assuming there are 30 days in a month, the average daily sales would be N1 million divided by 30, which equals N33,333. Therefore, the closest option to this is N27,000.

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  • 28. 

    Solution x contains 75% water and 25% oil; how many more liters of water than liters of oil are in 200 liters of solution x?

    • A.

      125

    • B.

      175

    • C.

      150

    • D.

      50

    • E.

      100

    Correct Answer
    E. 100
    Explanation
    In 200 liters of solution x, there are 150 liters of water and 50 liters of oil. The question asks for the difference between the amount of water and oil, which is 150 - 50 = 100 liters. Therefore, there are 100 more liters of water than oil in the solution.

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  • 29. 

    Walking across campus, a student interviewed a group of students. 25% of the students took a finance class last semester, 50% took a marketing class last semester, and 40% took neither a finance nor a marketing class last semester. What percent of the students in the group took both a finance and a marketing class?

    • A.

      60%

    • B.

      50%

    • C.

      25%

    • D.

      15%

    • E.

      10%

    Correct Answer
    D. 15%
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 15%. This can be determined by subtracting the percentage of students who took neither a finance nor a marketing class (40%) from the total percentage of students who took either a finance or a marketing class (100% - 40% = 60%). Since the total percentage of students who took both a finance and a marketing class cannot exceed the total percentage of students who took either class, the maximum percentage of students who took both classes is equal to the percentage of students who took either class (60%). Therefore, the percent of students in the group who took both a finance and a marketing class is 15% (60% - 45% = 15%).

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  • 30. 

    At a technology consulting firm with x computers, all of which are desktops or laptops, 30% are laptops; if 80% of the total number of computers have more than 1GB of RAM and 10% of the computers with less than 1GB of RAM are laptops (and no computers have exactly 1GM of RAM), approximately what percent of the desktops have more than 1GB of RAM?

    • A.

      75%

    • B.

      60%

    • C.

      52%

    • D.

      40%

    • E.

      45%

    Correct Answer
    A. 75%
    Explanation
    Approximately 30% of the computers are laptops, which means that 70% are desktops. Out of the total number of computers, 80% have more than 1GB of RAM. Since no computers have exactly 1GB of RAM, all the computers with less than 1GB of RAM are desktops. We know that 10% of the computers with less than 1GB of RAM are laptops, so the remaining 90% must be desktops. Therefore, approximately 90% of the desktops have more than 1GB of RAM.

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  • 31. 

    Correct the part of the sentence underlined. Choose from the given options. Written in Austria in 1762, the composer of Symphony No. 5 was a brilliant musician, Franz Joseph Haydn, who many later called the "Father of the Symphony" for his contribution to classical music while court musician for the Esterhazy family.

    • A.

      The composer of Symphony No. 5 was a brilliant musician, Franz Joseph Haydn, who many later called the "Father of the Symphony" for his

    • B.

      Franz Joseph Haydn's Symphony No. 5, who many later called the "Father of the Symphony" for his

    • C.

      Symphony No. 5 was composed by a brilliant musician, Franz Joseph Haydn, who many later called the "Father of the Symphony" for his

    • D.

      Symphony No. 5's composer was a brilliant musician, Franz Joseph Haydn, whom many later called the "Father of the Symphony" for his

    • E.

      Symphony No. 5 was composed by a brilliant musician, Franz Joseph Haydn, whom many later called the "Father of the Symphony" for his

    Correct Answer
    E. Symphony No. 5 was composed by a brilliant musician, Franz Joseph Haydn, whom many later called the "Father of the Symphony" for his
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Symphony No. 5 was composed by a brilliant musician, Franz Joseph Haydn, whom many later called the 'Father of the Symphony' for his." This option correctly identifies Franz Joseph Haydn as the composer of Symphony No. 5 and uses the appropriate verb "composed." Additionally, it correctly uses the pronoun "whom" to refer to Haydn, as it is the object of the verb "called."

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  • 32. 

    Correct the part of the sentence underlined. Choose from the given options. Just as listening to Franklin D. Roosevelt's famous fireside chats helps students of history understand the 1930s, an era marked by incredible domestic economic distress and unparalleled foreign conflict, so Abraham Lincoln's famous Second Inaugural Address helps students grasp the immense strife and challenge America faced in the post-Civil War era.

    • A.

      So Abraham Lincoln's famous Second Inaugural Address helps students grasp the immense strife and challenge America faced in the post-Civil War era.

    • B.

      Abraham Lincoln's famous Second Inaugural Address helps students grasp the post-Civil War era, a time of immense domestic challenge and strife.

    • C.

      Reading Abraham Lincoln's famous Second Inaugural Address helps students grasp the post-Civil War era, a time of immense domestic challenge and strife

    • D.

      So reading Abraham Lincoln's famous Second Inaugural Address helps students grasp the post-Civil War era, a time of immense domestic challenge and strife

    • E.

      So reading Abraham Lincoln's famous Second Inaugural Address helps students grasp a time of immense domestic challenge and strife--the post-Civil War era

    Correct Answer
    D. So reading Abraham Lincoln's famous Second Inaugural Address helps students grasp the post-Civil War era, a time of immense domestic challenge and strife
    Explanation
    Abraham Lincoln's famous Second Inaugural Address helps students understand the post-Civil War era, which was characterized by significant domestic challenges and strife. Reading this address allows students to gain insight into the immense difficulties that America faced during this time.

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  • 33. 

    Correct the part of the sentence underlined. Choose from the given options. Although many citizens enjoy spacious and well-kept state parks, some fiscally conservative State Representatives are quick to point out that maintaining state parks cost far more than other state land.

    • A.

      Maintaining state parks cost far more than other state land

    • B.

      State parks costs far more to maintain than other state land does

    • C.

      Maintaining state parks costs far more than other state land

    • D.

      State parks cost far more to maintain than other state land does

    • E.

      To maintain state parks is far more expensive than other state land

    Correct Answer
    D. State parks cost far more to maintain than other state land does
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "state parks cost far more to maintain than other state land does." This option correctly rephrases the sentence to show that the cost of maintaining state parks is higher compared to the cost of maintaining other state land.

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  • 34. 

    Correct the part of the sentence underlined. Choose from the given options. During the 1992 Presidential campaign, President George H. W. Bush and his promise four years earlier to never raise taxes experienced considerable criticism from economic conservatives who felt betrayed by Bush's 1990 tax-hike, which he implemented over the objections of economic conservatives who decried tax hikes, insisted that low taxes created wealth, and contended that deregulation promoted innovation.

    • A.

      President George H. W. Bush and his promise four years earlier to never raise taxes experienced considerable criticism from economic conservatives who felt betrayed by Bush’s 1990 tax-hike, which he implemented over the objections of economic conservatives who decried tax hikes, insisted that low taxes created wealth, and contended that deregulation promoted innovation

    • B.

      President George H. W. Bush experienced considerable criticism from economic conservatives who felt betrayed by Bush’s 1990 tax-hike, which he implemented despite his past promises and the objections of economic conservatives who decried tax hikes, insisted that low taxes created wealth, and contended that deregulation promoted innovation

    • C.

      President George H. W. Bush and his promise four years earlier to never raise taxes experienced considerable criticism from economic conservatives who felt betrayed by Bush’s 1990 tax-hike, which he implemented despite his past promises, the objections of economic conservatives who decried tax hikes, the insistence that low taxes create wealth, and the contention that deregulation promoted innovation

    • D.

      President George H. W. Bush experienced considerable criticism from economic conservatives who felt betrayed by Bush’s 1990 tax-hike, which he implemented despite his past promises and the objections of economic conservatives who decried tax hikes, having insisted that low taxes created wealth and contending that deregulation promotes innovation

    • E.

      President George H. W. Bush experienced considerable criticism from economic conservatives who felt betrayed by Bush’s 1990 tax-hike, which he implemented despite his past promises and the objections of economic conservatives who decried tax hikes, insist that low taxes created wealth, and contend that deregulation promoted innovation

    Correct Answer
    B. President George H. W. Bush experienced considerable criticism from economic conservatives who felt betrayed by Bush’s 1990 tax-hike, which he implemented despite his past promises and the objections of economic conservatives who decried tax hikes, insisted that low taxes created wealth, and contended that deregulation promoted innovation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "President George H. W. Bush experienced considerable criticism from economic conservatives who felt betrayed by Bush's 1990 tax-hike, which he implemented despite his past promises and the objections of economic conservatives who decried tax hikes, insisted that low taxes created wealth, and contended that deregulation promoted innovation." This option accurately reflects the idea that President Bush faced criticism for breaking his promise not to raise taxes, and it also includes the objections of economic conservatives who believed that low taxes were beneficial and that deregulation promoted innovation.

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  • 35. 

    Correct the part of the sentence underlined. Choose from the given options. Under most conditions, an atom of one of the noble gases is inert because their outer orbital contains the maximum number of electrons; the completion of their outer orbital makes these elements more stable and less able to react with other atoms and molecules.

    • A.

      Because their outer orbital contains the maximum number of electrons; the completion of their outer orbital makes these elements more stable and less able to react with other atoms and molecules.

    • B.

      Because its outer orbital contains the maximum number of electrons; the completion of the outer orbital makes the atoms of the elements more stable and less able to react with other atoms and molecules.

    • C.

      Because its outer orbital contains the maximum number of electrons, which makes these elements more stable and less able to react with other atoms and molecules.

    • D.

      Because their outer orbital contains the maximum number of electrons, making these elements more stable and less able to react with other atoms and molecules.

    • E.

      Because their outer orbital contains the maximum number of electrons, and the completion of their outer orbitals makes these elements more stable and less able to react with other atoms and molecules.

    Correct Answer
    B. Because its outer orbital contains the maximum number of electrons; the completion of the outer orbital makes the atoms of the elements more stable and less able to react with other atoms and molecules.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "because its outer orbital contains the maximum number of electrons; the completion of the outer orbital makes the atoms of the elements more stable and less able to react with other atoms and molecules." This answer is correct because it correctly uses the singular pronoun "its" to refer to "an atom" and "the atoms" in the sentence. It also uses the correct form of the verb "makes" to agree with the singular subject "the completion of the outer orbital." This answer provides a clear and grammatically correct statement.

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  • 36. 

    Correct the part of the sentence underlined. Choose from the given options. By confronting a devastated economy through actions such as creating the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, opening the Securities and Exchange Commission, suspending the gold standard, launching massive public works programs, and improving the morale of a demoralized nation through his fireside chats, First Inaugural address, and other motivational speeches, Franklin Roosevelt both lifted the spirits of Americans across the country and set the United States on a course that helped propel it out of the Great Depression.

    • A.

      Launching massive public works programs, and improving the morale of a demoralized nation through his fireside chats

    • B.

      And launching massive public works programs, and improving the morale of a demoralized nation through his fireside chats

    • C.

      And launching massive public works programs, and by improving the morale of a nation demoralized through his fireside chats

    • D.

      And through the launch of massive public works programs, and by improving the morale of a demoralized nation through his fireside chats

    • E.

      And launching massive public works programs, and by improving the morale of a demoralized nation through his fireside chats

    Correct Answer
    E. And launching massive public works programs, and by improving the morale of a demoralized nation through his fireside chats
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "and launching massive public works programs, and by improving the morale of a demoralized nation through his fireside chats." This option correctly uses parallel structure by starting each action with "launching" and "improving." Additionally, the use of "by" before "improving" shows that improving the morale is the means by which he lifted the spirits of the nation.

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  • 37. 

    Correct the part of the sentence underlined. Choose from the given options. In his best-selling book The Omnivore's Dilemma, which social critics see as yet another piece of evidence to support their thesis of a burgeoning interest in natural food among Americans, Michael Pollan elucidates industrial farming, explains organic farming, and discusses hunting and gathering food for oneself.

    • A.

      In his best-selling book The Omnivore's Dilemma, which social critics see as yet another piece of evidence to support their thesis of a burgeoning interest in natural food among Americans, Michael Pollan elucidates industrial farming, explains organic farming, and discusses hunting and gathering food for oneself.

    • B.

      Michael Pollan, in his best-selling book The Omnivore’s Dilemma, which social critics see as yet another piece of evidence to support their thesis of a burgeoning interest in natural foods among Americans, elucidates industrial farming, explaining organic farming and discussing hunting and gathering food for oneself.

    • C.

      In his best-selling book The Omnivore’s Dilemma, elucidating industrial farming, explaining organic farming, and discussing hunting and gathering food for oneself, Michael Pollan gives social critics yet another piece of evidence to support their thesis of a burgeoning interest in natural food among Americans.

    • D.

      Michael Pollan, in his best-selling book The Omnivore’s Dilemma, serving as yet another piece of evidence to support the thesis of a burgeoning interest in natural food among Americans, elucidates industrial farming, explains organic farming, and discusses hunting and gathering food for oneself.

    • E.

      In his best-selling book The Omnivore's Dilemma, which is seen by social critics as yet another piece of evidence to support their thesis of a burgeoning interest in natural food among Americans, Michael Pollan elucidates industrial farming, explaining organic farming and discussing hunting and gathering food for oneself.

    Correct Answer
    A. In his best-selling book The Omnivore's Dilemma, which social critics see as yet another piece of evidence to support their thesis of a burgeoning interest in natural food among Americans, Michael Pollan elucidates industrial farming, explains organic farming, and discusses hunting and gathering food for oneself.
    Explanation
    Michael Pollan, in his best-selling book The Omnivore's Dilemma, serves as yet another piece of evidence to support the thesis of a burgeoning interest in natural food among Americans. He elucidates industrial farming, explains organic farming, and discusses hunting and gathering food for oneself.

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  • 38. 

    Correct the part of the sentence underlined. Choose from the given options.  By the year 2000, A Tale of Two Cities, Charles Dickens' gripping book portraying the suffering of the proletariat under the brutal subjugation of the French aristocracy had around 200 million copies in print, making it more than that of almost any other English book ever written.

    • A.

      Book portraying the suffering of the proletariat under the brutal subjugation of the French aristocracy had around 200 million copies in print, making it more than

    • B.

      Book portraying the suffering of the proletariat under the brutal subjugation of the French aristocracy had around 200 million copies in print, which is more than

    • C.

      Book portraying the suffering of the proletariat under the brutal subjugation of the French aristocracy, had around 200 million copies in print, more than

    • D.

      Book portraying the suffering of the proletariat under the brutal subjugation of the French aristocracy, had around 200 million copies in print, making it more than

    • E.

      Book portraying the suffering of the proletariat under the brutal subjugation of the French aristocracy had around 200 million copies in print and is more than

    Correct Answer
    C. Book portraying the suffering of the proletariat under the brutal subjugation of the French aristocracy, had around 200 million copies in print, more than
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "book portraying the suffering of the proletariat under the brutal subjugation of the French aristocracy, had around 200 million copies in print, more than". This option correctly combines the two independent clauses and maintains the parallel structure of the sentence.

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  • 39. 

    Correct the part of the sentence underlined. Choose from the given options. Recent elections in a relatively young and historically unstable country in East Africa saw record numbers of voters, the peaceful rejection of an incumbent administration, the unprecedented access of media, campaigning marked by civility, and a renewing of nationalism.

    • A.

      Numbers of voters, the peaceful rejection of an incumbent administration, the unprecedented access of media, campaigning marked by civility, and a renewing of nationalism

    • B.

      Voter turnout, the peaceful rejection of an incumbent administration, unprecedented media access, campaigning marked by civility, and a renewing of nationalism

    • C.

      Voter turnout, the rejection of an incumbent administration in a peaceful manner, the unprecedented access of media, campaigns marked by civility, and renewed nationalism

    • D.

      Numbers of voters, the peaceful rejection of an incumbent administration, unprecedented media access, campaigns marked by civility, and renewed nationalism

    • E.

      Voter turnout, the peaceful rejection of an incumbent administration, unprecedented media access, campaigns marked by civility, and renewed nationalism

    Correct Answer
    E. Voter turnout, the peaceful rejection of an incumbent administration, unprecedented media access, campaigns marked by civility, and renewed nationalism
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "voter turnout, the peaceful rejection of an incumbent administration, unprecedented media access, campaigns marked by civility, and renewed nationalism." This option provides a more concise and clear description of the events in the recent elections in East Africa. It replaces "numbers of voters" with "voter turnout" to be more specific and accurate. It also rephrases "the access of media" to "unprecedented media access" for better clarity. Finally, it changes "campaigning marked by civility" to "campaigns marked by civility" and "a renewing of nationalism" to "renewed nationalism" for grammatical correctness.

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  • 40. 

    Correct the part of the sentence underlined. Choose from the given options. During the summer of 2008, an unemployed investment banker with over 25 years of experience named Joshua Persky made news by walking the streets of New York City's financial district in a suit with a sandwich board advertising his services. Many social commentators disagreed on the implications of this, either seeing Joshua's efforts as a desperate and unprofessional manner to seek a job or they viewed Joshua's strategy as a savvy means to attract attention to an overly qualified individual.

    • A.

      Either seeing Joshua's efforts as a desperate and unprofessional manner to seek a job or they viewed Joshua's strategy as a savvy means to attract attention to an overly qualified individual.

    • B.

      Either seeing Joshua's efforts as a desperate and unprofessional manner to seek a job or viewing Joshua's strategy as a savvy means to attract attention to an overly qualified individual.

    • C.

      Seeing either Joshua's efforts as a desperate and unprofessional manner to seek a job or viewing Joshua's strategy as a savvy means to attract attention to an overly qualified individual.

    • D.

      Either seeing Joshua's efforts as a desperate and as an unprofessional manner to seek a job or viewing Joshua's strategy as a savvy means to attract attention to an overly qualified individual.

    • E.

      Seeing either Joshua's efforts as a desperate and unprofessional manner to seek a job or they viewed Joshua's strategy as a savvy means to attract attention to an overly qualified individual.

    Correct Answer
    B. Either seeing Joshua's efforts as a desperate and unprofessional manner to seek a job or viewing Joshua's strategy as a savvy means to attract attention to an overly qualified individual.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "either seeing Joshua's efforts as a desperate and unprofessional manner to seek a job or viewing Joshua's strategy as a savvy means to attract attention to an overly qualified individual." The original sentence is grammatically incorrect because it uses the verb "seeing" twice instead of using "seeing" and "viewing" to provide parallel structure. The corrected answer maintains parallelism by using "seeing" and "viewing" correctly.

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  • 41. 

    Samuel is obviously a bad fisherman. During the past season, in which he and the five members of his team spent four months on a boat together off Dutch Harbor, AK, he caught fewer fish than any of his teammates. Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument above?

    • A.

      Two seasons ago, Samuel fished on another boat off Dutch Harbor and caught more fish than any other member of that boat.

    • B.

      Before becoming a fisherman, Samuel piloted a fishing boat whose members regularly caught record numbers of fish.

    • C.

      While fishing this past season, Samuel fell sick for a week and did not catch any fish during this time.

    • D.

      Unlike the other fishermen on his boat, at the order of the captain, Samuel fished this past season with experimental bait.

    • E.

      Amongst the fishing community in Dutch Harbor, Samuel has a reputation for being an especially bad fisherman.

    Correct Answer
    D. Unlike the other fishermen on his boat, at the order of the captain, Samuel fished this past season with experimental bait.
    Explanation
    The fact that Samuel fished with experimental bait weakens the argument because it introduces a potential variable that could have affected his catch. It is possible that the experimental bait was not effective in attracting fish, which could explain why Samuel caught fewer fish than his teammates. This suggests that Samuel's poor performance may not be solely due to his fishing abilities, but rather a result of the circumstances and factors beyond his control.

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  • 42. 

    Virtually all health experts agree that second-hand smoke poses a serious health risk. After the publication of yet another research paper explicating the link between exposure to second-hand smoke and a shorter life span, some members of the State House of Representatives proposed a ban on smoking in most public places in an attempt to promote quality of life and length of lifespan. Which of the following, if true, provides the most support for the actions of the State Representatives?

    • A.

      The amount of damaging chemicals and fumes released into the air by cigarette smoke is far less than the amount released from automobiles, especially from older models.

    • B.

      Banning smoking in most public places will not considerably reduce the percent of the population in the state in question that smokes.

    • C.

      The state whose legislators are proposing the tough smoking legislation has a relatively high percent of its population that smoke.

    • D.

      Another state that enacted a similar law a decade ago saw a statistically significant drop in lung-cancer rates among non-smokers.

    • E.

      A nearby state up-wind has the highest number of smokers in the country.

    Correct Answer
    D. Another state that enacted a similar law a decade ago saw a statistically significant drop in lung-cancer rates among non-smokers.
    Explanation
    This answer supports the actions of the State Representatives because it provides evidence of the positive impact of enacting a similar law in another state. The fact that there was a statistically significant drop in lung-cancer rates among non-smokers suggests that banning smoking in public places can effectively reduce the health risks associated with second-hand smoke. This information strengthens the argument for implementing a ban on smoking in most public places to promote a better quality of life and longer lifespan.

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  • 43. 

    Net Neutrality stipulates that Internet service providers (ISP) cannot partition their bandwidth such that different types of Internet communications have different maximum bandwidth capacities. For example, an ISP cannot relegate high bandwidth voice-over-IP (VoIP) traffic to a separate tunnel in an attempt to ensure that users of low-bandwidth functions such as plain-text email are not slowed down by the high-bandwidth users. Some individuals support implementing Net Neutrality on the principle that one group (i.e., users of high-bandwidth services) should not be effectively penalized for the actions of another group (i.e., users of slow-bandwidth services, who have a special traffic lane carved out for them, thereby slowing high-bandwidth users). Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument of the supporters of Net Neutrality mentioned above?

    • A.

      The jobs of many high-bandwidth users require these individuals to use high-bandwidth services.

    • B.

      Placing no restrictions on the bandwidth of individuals who use high-bandwidth services would force ISPs to purchase massive amounts of expensive additional bandwidth, disproportionately increasing the price of access for low-bandwidth users.

    • C.

      A strong and well respected lobbying firm recently revealed it has been hired by large telecommunications firms to oppose Net Neutrality on the grounds that it infringes upon a private company's ability to do business.

    • D.

      One country that mandated Net Neutrality saw a decrease in satisfaction of Internet users.

    • E.

      A recent court ruling upheld the principle that technology companies cannot discriminate in whom they serve or how they serve users.

    Correct Answer
    B. Placing no restrictions on the bandwidth of individuals who use high-bandwidth services would force ISPs to purchase massive amounts of expensive additional bandwidth, disproportionately increasing the price of access for low-bandwidth users.
    Explanation
    If it is true that placing no restrictions on the bandwidth of individuals who use high-bandwidth services would force ISPs to purchase massive amounts of expensive additional bandwidth, this weakens the argument of supporters of Net Neutrality. It suggests that implementing Net Neutrality would result in a disproportionate increase in the price of access for low-bandwidth users, which goes against the principle of not penalizing one group for the actions of another. This undermines the argument that Net Neutrality is necessary to prevent the slowing down of high-bandwidth users by low-bandwidth users.

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  • 44. 

    Eating beets significantly lowers the risk of cancer, according to an article in a nutritional magazine. The article refers to a study that found that people who consumed one or more beets per day were half as likely to be diagnosed with the disease as people who did not. Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument in the magazine article?

    • A.

      Another study found that people who consumed one tablespoon of flax seed oil per day were more than four times less likely to be diagnosed with cancer as those who did not.

    • B.

      Participants in the study reported consuming no vegetables other than beets.

    • C.

      The study was only conducted in one city.

    • D.

      In another experiment, cancer patients who ate one or more beets per day were no more likely to recover than those who ate no beets.

    • E.

      The participants in the study who ate beets were more likely to exercise regularly than those who did not eat beets.

    Correct Answer
    E. The participants in the study who ate beets were more likely to exercise regularly than those who did not eat beets.
    Explanation
    This answer weakens the argument because it suggests that the lower risk of cancer could be attributed to the participants' exercise habits rather than their consumption of beets. It implies that exercise, not beets, may be the primary factor in reducing the risk of cancer.

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  • 45. 

    During the past 20 years, computer scientists focused increasingly on starting and running successful businesses. However, since businesses must be profitable, computer scientists must focus on developing products that generate profit. Consequently, computer science has lost its creative aspect. Which of the following assumptions is most necessary in order for the conclusion above to be drawn from the argument above?

    • A.

      All computer programs must lack creativity in order to be well received.

    • B.

      Some computer scientists entirely disregarded creativity and chose instead to pursue profit.

    • C.

      A program cannot be both creative and profitable.

    • D.

      Computer scientists are obsessed with the profitability of their work.

    • E.

      Non-profit institutions use large amounts of software.

    Correct Answer
    C. A program cannot be both creative and profitable.
    Explanation
    The conclusion that computer science has lost its creative aspect is based on the assumption that a program cannot be both creative and profitable. This assumption is necessary because it implies that computer scientists must prioritize profitability over creativity, leading to the loss of the creative aspect in computer science. If it were possible for a program to be both creative and profitable, then the argument's conclusion would not hold true.

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  • 46. 

    Most scientists believe that the decay of the ozone layer is a cause of global warming. With a weaker ozone layer, additional wavelengths of light reach the earth. However, the danger posed by ozone decay is not limited to global warming. The decay of the ozone layer, which enables more harmful wavelengths of light to reach the earth's surface, is also believed to cause permanent eye damage in some animals. Which of the following is most strongly supported by the statements above?

    • A.

      All wavelengths of light from the sun that damage the eyes of animals are blocked by a healthy ozone layer.

    • B.

      Some animals do not experience damage to their eyes when exposed to unfiltered waves of light.

    • C.

      Only a handful of animal species live in places where they are exposed to the damaging light waves.

    • D.

      The rising temperature of the earth poses a severe threat to animals.

    • E.

      Some wavelengths of light that engender eye damage in certain animals are more likely to hit the earth due to ozone decay.

    Correct Answer
    E. Some wavelengths of light that engender eye damage in certain animals are more likely to hit the earth due to ozone decay.
    Explanation
    The statement mentions that the decay of the ozone layer enables more harmful wavelengths of light to reach the earth's surface, which is believed to cause permanent eye damage in some animals. This supports the idea that some wavelengths of light that cause eye damage are more likely to hit the earth due to ozone decay.

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  • 47. 

    Authors writing detective stories frequently include a brilliant detective and an incompetent investigator who embark on separate paths in an attempt to solve a crime. The separate accounts frequently consist of the incompetent investigator becoming distracted by the criminals' well-planned attempts and the competent detective solving the case after a violent confrontation. Many literary analysts believe authors often choose this storyline in an attempt to provide readers additional complexity and challenge in solving the investigation. Which of the following most logically follows from the statements above?

    • A.

      A well-written detective story consists of an investigation being undertaken by a competent and incompetent investigator.

    • B.

      Some authors use an incompetent investigator to show the complexities of an investigation.

    • C.

      Authors never write stories with incompetent investigators who solve a case correctly.

    • D.

      Authors can use the separate investigative accounts to make predicting the correct outcome of the investigation more difficult.

    • E.

      Authors write stories with competent and incompetent investigators to show the complexity of real life.

    Correct Answer
    D. Authors can use the separate investigative accounts to make predicting the correct outcome of the investigation more difficult.
    Explanation
    Some authors use an incompetent investigator to show the complexities of an investigation.

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  • 48. 

    In an attempt to abate the pernicious decline in MicroChip's revenue brought about by shrinking demand that is accompanying an economic recession, MicroChip is offering customers a 50% discount for the next three months on all purchases fully paid for within 15 days. Which of the following assumptions most underlies the chip maker's offer of a discount?

    • A.

      MicroChip expects this discount to help the company retain existing customers and gain new ones, enabling the firm to survive in the long-term.

    • B.

      There are no other competing chip companies with prices lower than the reduced price.

    • C.

      The government will provide massive technology tax credits to businesses, spurring them to purchase chips and other related products.

    • D.

      The government will not pursue MircoChip if in fact its behavior in offering a deep discount amounts to a violation of predatory pricing laws.

    • E.

      The decrease in revenue brought about by the reduction in price will be smaller than the anticipated increase in revenue brought about by the increase in demand (spurred by the reduction in price).

    Correct Answer
    E. The decrease in revenue brought about by the reduction in price will be smaller than the anticipated increase in revenue brought about by the increase in demand (spurred by the reduction in price).
    Explanation
    The assumption underlying MicroChip's offer of a discount is that the decrease in revenue caused by the reduction in price will be outweighed by the anticipated increase in revenue resulting from the increase in demand. In other words, MicroChip believes that the discount will attract enough customers to generate more sales and ultimately lead to higher overall revenue.

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  • 49. 

    Political Commentator: In order for a democracy to flourish, it is essential that political and journalistic freedom of expression exist. Even if commentators voice ideas that do not support the current government, a society is strengthened by the variety of views expressed. Yet, our government continues to exercise a stranglehold on certain forms of speech. It is essential that the government loosen its control on the media. Despite the potential short-term instability this may cause the country, it will strengthen the long-term health of the country. Which of the following expresses the conclusion of the argument?

    • A.

      The government is exercising too much control over the media

    • B.

      The government needs to open the media and release its hold on certain forms of speech

    • C.

      Democracy requires a strong and free press

    • D.

      Even ideas not supportive of democracy can strengthen a government

    • E.

      The future of the media lies in the hands of the government

    Correct Answer
    B. The government needs to open the media and release its hold on certain forms of speech
    Explanation
    The conclusion of the argument is that the government needs to open the media and release its hold on certain forms of speech. This is evident from the statement that "It is essential that the government loosen its control on the media." The argument emphasizes the importance of political and journalistic freedom of expression in a democracy and suggests that despite potential short-term instability, it will strengthen the long-term health of the country.

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  • 50. 

    Years ago, some in the government's intelligence community feared the work of telecommunications researchers at then-emerging private security firms. The government experts concluded that these private firms posed the biggest risk to successful government espionage. As the private security firms began publicly releasing and advertising encryption algorithms and other security products, these government experts saw support for their conclusion when an encryption algorithm that government experts could not break began appearing in countless emails. Which of the following, if true, most weakens the conclusion of the government experts referred to above?

    • A.

      Shortly before the government experts reached their conclusions, two private security companies each claimed to have developed "the world's strongest email encryption algorithm"

    • B.

      The private security firms' decision to advertise their products and sell them publicly led to other members of the private sector and academia scrutinizing the encryption algorithms.

    • C.

      An open-source encryption algorithm, developed by an academic and freely available from popular websites, is recognized by numerous ex-government code breakers as the most unbreakable algorithm ever developed.

    • D.

      An enemy government recently succeeded in placing a spy within the government espionage operations referred to above.

    • E.

      To strengthen the reputation of the private security firms, employees of these firms publish information about the strength of their products and the benefits of using them.

    Correct Answer
    C. An open-source encryption algorithm, developed by an academic and freely available from popular websites, is recognized by numerous ex-government code breakers as the most unbreakable algorithm ever developed.
    Explanation
    The statement that an open-source encryption algorithm, developed by an academic and freely available from popular websites, is recognized by numerous ex-government code breakers as the most unbreakable algorithm ever developed weakens the conclusion of the government experts. This suggests that there are other encryption algorithms available that are even more secure than the one being advertised by the private security firms. If there are stronger encryption algorithms out there, it undermines the claim that the private firms pose the biggest risk to government espionage.

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  • Mar 17, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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