Rmapa Set 2- Physical Security

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Rmapa Quizzes & Trivia

Physical security is the protection of personnel, hardware, programs, networks, and data from physical circumstances and events that could cause serious losses or damage to an enterprise, agency, or institution. This includes protection from fire, natural disasters, burglary, theft, vandalism, and terrorism.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The degree of protection desired in any installation is predicated upon an analysis of the following two factors:

    • A.

      Cost and environmental conditions

    • B.

      Criticality and vulnerability

    • C.

      Cost and vulnerability

    • D.

      Cost and criticality

    Correct Answer
    B. Criticality and vulnerability
    Explanation
    The degree of protection desired in any installation is determined by analyzing the criticality and vulnerability of the installation. Criticality refers to the importance or significance of the installation, while vulnerability refers to the susceptibility of the installation to potential threats or risks. By considering both factors, one can determine the level of protection needed to safeguard the installation effectively.

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  • 2. 

    The process used by the security manager in establishing priorities of protection of assets is known as:

    • A.

      Security survey

    • B.

      Vulnerability study

    • C.

      Risk analysis

    • D.

      Inspection review

    Correct Answer
    B. Vulnerability study
    Explanation
    A vulnerability study is the process used by the security manager in establishing priorities of protection of assets. This study involves identifying and assessing the vulnerabilities or weaknesses in the security system or infrastructure. By conducting a vulnerability study, the security manager can determine which assets are most at risk and prioritize their protection accordingly. This process helps in allocating resources effectively and implementing appropriate security measures to mitigate potential threats.

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  • 3. 

    The type of fencing generally used for protection of permanent limited and exclusion areas is:

    • A.

      Chain link

    • B.

      Concertina

    • C.

      Barbed wire

    • D.

      Barbed tape

    Correct Answer
    A. Chain link
    Explanation
    Chain link fencing is generally used for protection of permanent limited and exclusion areas. It is a type of fencing made of interlocking steel wires formed into a diamond pattern. Chain link fencing provides a strong and durable barrier, making it suitable for security purposes. It is commonly used in residential, commercial, and industrial settings to prevent unauthorized access and secure property boundaries.

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  • 4. 

    For general security usage, excluding the top guard, chain link fence should be:

    • A.

      7 gauge wire and a minimum of 10 feet high

    • B.

      9 gauge wire and eight feet high

    • C.

      9 gauge wire and seven feet high

    • D.

      10 gauge wire and seven feet high

    Correct Answer
    C. 9 gauge wire and seven feet high
    Explanation
    A chain link fence is commonly used for security purposes. The gauge of the wire refers to its thickness, with a lower gauge indicating a thicker wire. Therefore, a higher gauge wire (9 gauge) would be more suitable for security usage as it is thicker and stronger. Additionally, the fence should be seven feet high to provide adequate security and prevent unauthorized access.

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  • 5. 

    Excluding the top guard, standard barbed wire fencing intended to prevent human trespassing should not be less than:

    • A.

      7 feet high

    • B.

      6 feet high

    • C.

      10 feet high

    • D.

      8 feet high

    Correct Answer
    A. 7 feet high
    Explanation
    Standard barbed wire fencing intended to prevent human trespassing should not be less than 7 feet high. This height is necessary to deter individuals from climbing or jumping over the fence. A fence that is 6 feet high may still be accessible to some people, while a fence that is 10 feet or 8 feet high may be unnecessarily tall and more costly to install and maintain. Therefore, 7 feet high is the most suitable height for a standard barbed wire fence to effectively prevent human trespassing.

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  • 6. 

    In a barbed wire fence, the distance between strands should not exceed:

    • A.

      4 inches

    • B.

      3 inches

    • C.

      5 inches

    • D.

      6 inches

    Correct Answer
    D. 6 inches
    Explanation
    In a barbed wire fence, the distance between strands should not exceed 6 inches. This is because a smaller distance between strands ensures better security and prevents animals or intruders from easily passing through the fence. A larger distance between strands would create gaps that could be exploited, reducing the effectiveness of the fence as a barrier. Therefore, it is important to maintain a maximum distance of 6 inches between strands in a barbed wire fence.

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  • 7. 

    Standard barbed wire is twisted double-strand:

    • A.

      9 gauge wire

    • B.

      14 gauge wire

    • C.

      13 gauge wire

    • D.

      12 gauge wire

    Correct Answer
    D. 12 gauge wire
    Explanation
    Standard barbed wire is typically made with 12 gauge wire. Gauge refers to the thickness of the wire, with a lower gauge number indicating a thicker wire. In this case, 12 gauge wire is thicker than 9, 14, and 13 gauge wire, making it more suitable for creating the twisted double-strand structure of barbed wire. Thicker wire provides better durability and strength, which is important for a fencing material designed to deter and contain livestock or mark boundaries.

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  • 8. 

    Top guard must consist of: 

    • A.

      3 strands of barbed wire or tape

    • B.

      2 strands of barbed wire or tape

    • C.

      4 strands of barbed wire or tape

    • D.

      6 strands of barbed wire or tape

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 strands of barbed wire or tape
    Explanation
    The top guard must consist of 3 strands of barbed wire or tape. This means that there should be three separate strands of either barbed wire or tape installed at the top of the guard. This configuration provides an effective deterrent and barrier, preventing unauthorized access or intrusion.

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  • 9. 

    Top guard supporting arms should be permanently affixed to the top of fence posts to increase the overall height of the fence at least:

    • A.

      2 feet

    • B.

      1 foot

    • C.

      3 feet

    • D.

      3-1/2 feet

    Correct Answer
    B. 1 foot
    Explanation
    The top guard supporting arms should be permanently affixed to the top of fence posts to increase the overall height of the fence by at least 1 foot. This means that when the top guard supporting arms are added to the fence posts, the height of the fence should be increased by a minimum of 1 foot.

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  • 10. 

    Strands of barbed wire or tape used as a top guard on a fence should be spaced:

    • A.

      2 inches apart

    • B.

      3 inches apart

    • C.

      4 inches apart

    • D.

      6 inches apart

    Correct Answer
    D. 6 inches apart
    Explanation
    Barbed wire or tape used as a top guard on a fence should be spaced 6 inches apart. This spacing allows for maximum security and deterrence by preventing animals or intruders from easily crossing the fence. A wider spacing would make it easier for someone to climb or squeeze through the fence, while a narrower spacing may cause the wire or tape to become tangled or less effective in preventing access. Therefore, spacing the strands 6 inches apart is the most appropriate choice.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following characteristic of protective lighting is incorrect?

    • A.

      Lighting is expensive to maintain

    • B.

      It usually requires less intensify than working light

    • C.

      It may also provide personal protection by reducing advantages of concealment

    • D.

      It should not be used as a psychological deterrent only

    Correct Answer
    A. Lighting is expensive to maintain
    Explanation
    The given statement is incorrect because protective lighting is not necessarily expensive to maintain. While there may be some costs associated with installing and maintaining the lighting system, it is not inherently expensive. The other characteristics mentioned in the options are correct, such as the fact that protective lighting usually requires less intensity than working light, it can provide personal protection by reducing advantages of concealment, and it should not be used solely as a psychological deterrent.

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  • 12. 

    Lighting units of 4 general types are used for protective lighting systems. Which of the following is not used?

    • A.

      Continuous

    • B.

      Intermittent

    • C.

      Standby

    • D.

      Movable

    Correct Answer
    B. Intermittent
    Explanation
    The question asks for the type of lighting unit that is not used in protective lighting systems. The options provided are Continuous, Intermittent, Standby, and Movable. Continuous, Standby, and Movable are all types of lighting units that can be used in protective lighting systems. Therefore, the correct answer is Intermittent, as it is the type of lighting unit that is not used in protective lighting systems.

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  • 13. 

    A series of fixed luminaries arranged to flood a given area continuously during the hours of darkness with overlapping cones of light. It is called:

    • A.

      Continuous lighting

    • B.

      Intermittent lighting

    • C.

      Standby lighting

    • D.

      Moveable lightning

    Correct Answer
    A. Continuous lighting
    Explanation
    Continuous lighting refers to a series of fixed luminaries that are arranged to flood a given area with overlapping cones of light during the hours of darkness. This type of lighting provides a consistent and uninterrupted source of light throughout the night, ensuring continuous illumination of the area. It is different from intermittent lighting, which provides light in intervals, standby lighting, which serves as a backup in case of power failure, and moveable lightning, which refers to lighting fixtures that can be easily moved or repositioned.

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  • 14. 

    Piers and docks located on an installation should be safeguarded by illuminating both water approaches and the pier area. Decks on open piers should be illuminated to at least:

    • A.

      1.5 foot candles

    • B.

      2.0 foot candles

    • C.

      0.5 foot candles

    • D.

      1.0 foot candles

    Correct Answer
    D. 1.0 foot candles
    Explanation
    Decks on open piers should be illuminated to at least 1.0 foot candles. This level of illumination is necessary to ensure sufficient visibility and safety on the pier, especially during nighttime operations. It helps individuals navigate the area, identify potential hazards, and maintain a secure environment. By providing adequate lighting, the risk of accidents and injuries can be minimized, promoting a safer working or recreational environment on the pier.

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  • 15. 

    The intrusion detection system in which a pattern of radio waves is transmitted and partially reflected back to the antenna is known as:

    • A.

      Ultrasonic system

    • B.

      Microwave system

    • C.

      Electrostatic system

    • D.

      Capacitance system

    Correct Answer
    B. Microwave system
    Explanation
    A microwave system is an intrusion detection system that transmits a pattern of radio waves and partially reflects them back to the antenna. This system is used to detect intrusions by analyzing the changes in the reflected waves caused by the presence of an object. Microwave systems are commonly used in security applications due to their ability to detect both moving and stationary objects, making them effective for perimeter protection.

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  • 16. 

    The intrusion detection system which is used on a safe, wall and openings therein in an effort to establish an electrostatic field around the object to be protected is known as a:

    • A.

      Ultrasonic system

    • B.

      Microwave system

    • C.

      Electrostatic system

    • D.

      Capacitance system

    Correct Answer
    C. Electrostatic system
    Explanation
    An electrostatic system is used to establish an electrostatic field around the object to be protected. This system is used on a safe, wall, and openings to detect any intrusion. It works by creating an electrostatic field and monitoring any disturbances or changes in the field. If there is any intrusion or movement in the protected area, it will disrupt the electrostatic field and trigger an alarm. This system is effective in detecting unauthorized access and is commonly used for security purposes.

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  • 17. 

    A sentry dog can normally not operate a full effectiveness at:

    • A.

      Ammunition storage areas

    • B.

      Gasoline storage areas

    • C.

      Radar sites

    • D.

      Warehouses

    Correct Answer
    B. Gasoline storage areas
    Explanation
    Sentry dogs are trained to detect and alert their handlers to the presence of intruders or potential threats. They are typically used in areas where there is a need for heightened security. However, they may not be able to operate at full effectiveness in gasoline storage areas. This is because gasoline is highly flammable and volatile, and the presence of a dog in such an area could pose a risk of ignition or explosion. Therefore, it is not advisable to use sentry dogs in gasoline storage areas to ensure the safety of both the dog and the facility.

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  • 18. 

    Non-insulated security containers must satisfactorily pass a drop test of:

    • A.

      15 feet

    • B.

      20 feet

    • C.

      22 feet

    • D.

      30 feet

    Correct Answer
    D. 30 feet
    Explanation
    Non-insulated security containers must satisfactorily pass a drop test of 30 feet in order to meet the required standards. This means that the containers are designed and built to withstand a fall from a height of 30 feet without any significant damage or compromise to their security features. This test ensures that the containers can effectively protect their contents even in situations where they may be dropped from a considerable height.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is not an approved UL record safe classification:

    • A.

      350-4

    • B.

      350-3

    • C.

      350-2

    • D.

      350-1

    Correct Answer
    B. 350-3
    Explanation
    The UL record safe classification system is used to determine the fire resistance of safes. The numbers in the classification represent the number of hours the safe can withstand a fire without the internal temperature rising above a certain threshold. A higher number indicates a higher level of fire resistance. In this case, 350-3 is not an approved UL record safe classification because it does not follow the pattern of increasing numbers.

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  • 20. 

    The acceptable vault construction of insulated doors is a minimum reinforced thickness of:

    • A.

      12”

    • B.

      10”

    • C.

      8”

    • D.

      6”

    Correct Answer
    D. 6”
    Explanation
    The acceptable vault construction of insulated doors requires a minimum reinforced thickness of 6 inches. This means that the doors must have a thickness of at least 6 inches in order to meet the standards for vault construction. This thickness ensures that the doors are strong and sturdy enough to provide insulation and security for the vault. A thinner thickness may not provide adequate insulation or protection, making it unacceptable for vault construction.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following would be an acceptable computer media storage classification?

    • A.

      350-4

    • B.

      450-4

    • C.

      250-4

    • D.

      150-4

    Correct Answer
    D. 150-4
    Explanation
    The given answer, 150-4, would be an acceptable computer media storage classification because it follows the pattern of a numerical value followed by a hyphen and another numerical value. This format is commonly used to classify computer media storage, where the first number typically represents the storage capacity and the second number represents the speed or other specifications.

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  • 22. 

    A "relock" on a vault automatically stops the bolt mechanism from operating when:

    • A.

      A switch is flipped

    • B.

      A timer is used

    • C.

      When there is an attack on the door or combination lock

    • D.

      Locked by remote control

    Correct Answer
    C. When there is an attack on the door or combination lock
    Explanation
    When there is an attack on the door or combination lock, a "relock" on a vault automatically stops the bolt mechanism from operating. This means that if someone tries to forcefully break into the vault or tamper with the combination lock, the relock feature will engage and prevent the bolt mechanism from functioning, providing an additional layer of security.

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  • 23. 

    Security vaults differ from sales in that:

    • A.

      They are tested by Underwriters laboratories for burglary resistance

    • B.

      They do not have both fire and burglary resisting properties

    • C.

      Steel is used

    • D.

      They are permanently affixed to building

    Correct Answer
    D. They are permanently affixed to building
    Explanation
    Security vaults differ from safes in that they are permanently affixed to a building. Unlike safes, which can be moved or transported, security vaults are designed to be a permanent fixture within a building. This ensures that they cannot be easily tampered with or stolen. The other options listed in the question, such as being tested for burglary resistance, not having both fire and burglary resisting properties, and the use of steel, are not exclusive to security vaults and can also apply to safes.

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  • 24. 

    The weakness of the burning bar as a burglar tool is:

    • A.

      It will not burn through concrete

    • B.

      Produces large volumes of smoke

    • C.

      Actual heat is not intense enough

    • D.

      It requires tanks of hydrogen

    Correct Answer
    B. Produces large volumes of smoke
    Explanation
    The burning bar is a tool commonly used by burglars to cut through various materials, such as metal and wood. However, its weakness lies in the fact that it produces large volumes of smoke. This can be a major disadvantage for burglars as the smoke can easily attract attention and raise suspicion. Therefore, despite its effectiveness in cutting through certain materials, the burning bar's production of smoke makes it a less desirable tool for burglars.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is not correct with regard to safes?

    • A.

      UL classification labels are removed from all safes exposed to fires

    • B.

      Record safes are designed to resist fires only

    • C.

      Money safes have accredited fire resistance

    • D.

      Quality equipment

    Correct Answer
    C. Money safes have accredited fire resistance
    Explanation
    The statement "Money safes have accredited fire resistance" is not correct. While record safes are designed to resist fires and have UL classification labels, indicating their fire resistance, money safes do not necessarily have accredited fire resistance. Money safes are typically designed to protect against theft rather than fire.

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  • 26. 

    The symbol "TRTL" indicates:

    • A.

      Safe is resistant to torches

    • B.

      Safe is resistant to tools

    • C.

      Safe is resistant to both torches and tools

    • D.

      Nothing pertaining to torches or tools

    Correct Answer
    C. Safe is resistant to both torches and tools
    Explanation
    The symbol "TRTL" indicates that the safe is resistant to both torches and tools.

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  • 27. 

    Illumination intensity minimums for lighting of the perimeter of restricted area is:

    • A.

      0.15 foot candles

    • B.

      0.40 foot candles

    • C.

      1.00 foot candles

    • D.

      2.00 foot candles

    Correct Answer
    B. 0.40 foot candles
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0.40 foot candles. This means that the minimum illumination intensity required for lighting the perimeter of a restricted area is 0.40 foot candles. Foot candles is a unit of measurement used to quantify the amount of light that falls on a surface. In this case, it is important to have a minimum illumination intensity of 0.40 foot candles to ensure adequate lighting for the perimeter of the restricted area.

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  • 28. 

    The temperature at which paper may be destroyed is:

    • A.

      200 F

    • B.

      250 F

    • C.

      300 F

    • D.

      350 F

    Correct Answer
    D. 350 F
    Explanation
    Paper can be destroyed at high temperatures because it is made of cellulose, a complex organic compound that breaks down when exposed to heat. As the temperature increases, the cellulose molecules start to break apart, leading to the destruction of the paper. Therefore, the correct answer is 350 F, as it is the highest temperature listed and would cause the most significant damage to the paper.

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  • 29. 

    Electronic process media can begin to deteriorate at:

    • A.

      100 F

    • B.

      125 F

    • C.

      150 F

    • D.

      200 F

    Correct Answer
    C. 150 F
    Explanation
    Electronic process media, such as CDs, DVDs, and hard drives, are sensitive to heat. At temperatures above 150 F, these media can start to deteriorate and become damaged. The high temperature can cause the materials to warp, melt, or degrade, leading to data loss or corruption. Therefore, it is important to store and handle electronic process media in environments that are below 150 F to ensure their longevity and reliability.

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  • 30. 

    UL classified safes must be anchored to the floor or weigh at least:

    • A.

      750 lbs

    • B.

      1,000 lbs

    • C.

      1,250 lbs

    • D.

      1,500 lbs

    Correct Answer
    A. 750 lbs
    Explanation
    UL classified safes must be anchored to the floor or weigh at least 750 lbs. This requirement ensures that the safe is secure and cannot be easily moved or stolen. By either being anchored to the floor or weighing a minimum of 750 lbs, the safe provides a high level of protection for valuable items or sensitive documents. The weight requirement ensures that the safe is sturdy and difficult to tamper with, adding an extra layer of security.

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  • 31. 

    The interior height of a vault should not exceed:

    • A.

      8 feet

    • B.

      9 feet

    • C.

      10 feet

    • D.

      12 feet

    Correct Answer
    D. 12 feet
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 12 feet because a vault is typically designed to be secure and prevent unauthorized access. By limiting the interior height to 12 feet, it becomes more difficult for intruders to reach or manipulate items stored at higher levels. This height restriction helps ensure the safety and security of the vault's contents.

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  • 32. 

    A system using inaudible sound waves to detect the presence of an intruder or other disturbance of the inaudible sound system is known as:

    • A.

      Motion detection system

    • B.

      Sonic motion detection

    • C.

      Ultrasonic motion detection

    • D.

      Radio frequency motion detection

    Correct Answer
    C. Ultrasonic motion detection
    Explanation
    Ultrasonic motion detection is the correct answer because it refers to a system that uses inaudible sound waves to detect the presence of an intruder or disturbance. Ultrasonic waves have a frequency above the range of human hearing, making them ideal for detecting motion without being detected by humans. This technology is commonly used in security systems to detect unauthorized movement and trigger alarms or other security measures.

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  • 33. 

    The weakest area in a window is usually:

    • A.

      The sash

    • B.

      Frames

    • C.

      Glass

    • D.

      The putty

    Correct Answer
    C. Glass
    Explanation
    Glass is the weakest area in a window because it is more prone to breakage and damage compared to other components such as the sash, frames, and putty. Glass is a fragile material and can easily crack or shatter under pressure or impact. It is also susceptible to weather conditions and can be affected by extreme temperatures, causing it to expand or contract and potentially break. Therefore, the glass is considered the weakest point in a window structure.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is considered to be the most resistant to blast from explosion?

    • A.

      Thick brick or concrete walls

    • B.

      Thick earthen barricades

    • C.

      Steel-frame building walls

    • D.

      Thick, reinforced concrete walls

    Correct Answer
    D. Thick, reinforced concrete walls
    Explanation
    Thick, reinforced concrete walls are considered to be the most resistant to blast from an explosion. This is because concrete is a strong and durable material that can withstand high levels of pressure and impact. The reinforcement, such as steel bars or mesh, adds further strength and stability to the structure, making it more resistant to blasts. Additionally, the thickness of the walls provides an additional layer of protection, absorbing and dispersing the energy from the explosion. Therefore, thick, reinforced concrete walls are the most suitable choice for withstanding blast forces.

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  • 35. 

    A type of glass used in street-level windows or displays where security is necessary and which is composed of two sheets of ordinary glass bonded to an intervening layer of plastic material is known as:

    • A.

      Tempered glass

    • B.

      Plastic coated glass

    • C.

      Vinyl coated glass

    • D.

      Laminated glass

    Correct Answer
    D. Laminated glass
    Explanation
    Laminated glass is a type of glass used in street-level windows or displays where security is necessary. It is composed of two sheets of ordinary glass bonded to an intervening layer of plastic material. This design makes the glass stronger and more resistant to breaking, as the plastic layer holds the glass fragments together when shattered. Laminated glass is commonly used in areas where safety and security are a concern, as it provides protection against forced entry, vandalism, and even some forms of severe weather.

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  • 36. 

    The type of glass which is often utilized for both safety and security purposes because it is 3 to 5 times stronger than regular glass and 5 times as resistant to heat is:

    • A.

      Tempered glass

    • B.

      Coated glass

    • C.

      Plastic coated glass

    • D.

      Reflected glass

    Correct Answer
    A. Tempered glass
    Explanation
    Tempered glass is often utilized for safety and security purposes because it is 3 to 5 times stronger than regular glass and 5 times as resistant to heat. This type of glass is created through a process of heating and rapid cooling, which increases its strength and durability. It is commonly used in applications where there is a risk of breakage, such as car windows, shower doors, and building facades. Tempered glass is also designed to break into small, dull pieces rather than sharp shards, reducing the risk of injury in case of breakage.

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  • 37. 

    The mechanical lock longest in use and which has practically no security value is:

    • A.

      The lever lock

    • B.

      The warded lock

    • C.

      The wafer tumbler lock

    • D.

      The pin tumbler lock

    Correct Answer
    B. The warded lock
    Explanation
    The warded lock is the mechanical lock longest in use and has practically no security value. Warded locks have a simple design, with a set of wards or obstacles that block the rotation of the lock unless the correct key is inserted. However, these locks are easily picked or bypassed using simple tools like skeleton keys. Therefore, while they may have been used for a long time, they offer minimal security compared to more modern lock designs.

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  • 38. 

    Probably the most widely-used lock for both exterior building doors and interior room doors is the:

    • A.

      Warded lock

    • B.

      Pin tumbler lock

    • C.

      Disc tumbler lock

    • D.

      Lever lock

    Correct Answer
    B. Pin tumbler lock
    Explanation
    The pin tumbler lock is the most widely-used lock for both exterior building doors and interior room doors. This type of lock consists of a cylinder that contains multiple pins of varying lengths. When the correct key is inserted into the lock, the pins align at the shear line, allowing the lock to be turned and the door to be opened. The pin tumbler lock is popular due to its durability, security, and ease of use.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is not an authentic characteristic of the guard operation:

    • A.

      Guards are costly

    • B.

      Guards are generally recognized as an essential element in the protection of assets and personnel

    • C.

      Guards are the only element of protection which can be depended upon to give complete security

    • D.

      Guards can also perform as a public relations representative when properly trained

    Correct Answer
    C. Guards are the only element of protection which can be depended upon to give complete security
    Explanation
    The given statement that "Guards are the only element of protection which can be depended upon to give complete security" is not an authentic characteristic of the guard operation. While guards are recognized as an essential element in protection and can provide security, they are not the only element that can ensure complete security. Other security measures such as surveillance systems, alarms, access control systems, and security protocols also contribute to overall security. Therefore, relying solely on guards for complete security would be inaccurate.

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  • 40. 

    Each guard post that is manned 24 hours a day. 7 days a week properly

    • A.

      3 guards

    • B.

      6 guards

    • C.

      2 guards

    • D.

      4.5 guards

    Correct Answer
    D. 4.5 guards
  • 41. 

    Usually in facilities where visitors are to be escorted, this is done by:

    • A.

      Guards

    • B.

      Individuals being visited

    • C.

      Special escort service

    • D.

      Supervisor of unit visited

    Correct Answer
    B. Individuals being visited
    Explanation
    In facilities where visitors are required to be escorted, the responsibility of escorting them typically falls on the individuals they are visiting. These individuals are familiar with the facility and can guide the visitors throughout their visit, ensuring their safety and adherence to any rules or regulations. This approach allows for a more personalized and efficient escorting process, as the individuals being visited are already present in the facility and can easily accompany the visitors.

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  • 42. 

    One of the main reasons for not arming private security guards is:

    • A.

      The cost of extra equipment

    • B.

      The extra salary costs

    • C.

      Very few are qualified to handle them

    • D.

      The typical business or government facility is not customarily a place where violent crime occurs

    Correct Answer
    D. The typical business or government facility is not customarily a place where violent crime occurs
    Explanation
    Arming private security guards is not common in typical business or government facilities because these places are generally not prone to violent crime. Therefore, there is no need to incur the cost of extra equipment or extra salary costs for arming the guards. Additionally, very few individuals are qualified to handle weapons, which further reduces the likelihood of arming private security guards in such locations.

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  • 43. 

    The argument usually used by contract guard representatives as a selling point in their service is:

    • A.

      Better trained

    • B.

      Non-union

    • C.

      No administrative problems

    • D.

      Reduction in cost

    Correct Answer
    D. Reduction in cost
    Explanation
    Contract guard representatives often promote their service by emphasizing the reduction in cost compared to hiring in-house security staff. This selling point appeals to businesses looking to cut expenses while still ensuring adequate security measures. By outsourcing security services to contract guards, companies can save on hiring, training, and administrative costs associated with maintaining an in-house security team. This argument suggests that contracting guards is a cost-effective solution for businesses seeking reliable security services.

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  • 44. 

    The most important written instructions for the guard force are known as:

    • A.

      Memoranda

    • B.

      Post orders

    • C.

      High policy

    • D.

      Operational orders

    Correct Answer
    B. Post orders
    Explanation
    Post orders are the most important written instructions for the guard force. These orders provide specific guidelines and procedures that the guards need to follow while performing their duties. Post orders outline the responsibilities, tasks, and protocols that guards must adhere to in order to maintain security and safety at their assigned posts. These orders are essential for ensuring consistency, efficiency, and effectiveness in the guard force's operations. Memoranda, high policy, and operational orders may also provide instructions, but post orders are specifically designed for the guard force and are considered the most important.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following should be required criteria of post orders?

    • A.

      Each order should deal with multiple subjects

    • B.

      The order should be detailed

    • C.

      The order should be written at the lowest level possible

    • D.

      Orders should be indexed sparingly

    Correct Answer
    C. The order should be written at the lowest level possible
    Explanation
    The requirement for post orders to be written at the lowest level possible ensures that the instructions are clear and specific. By providing detailed instructions at the lowest level, it reduces the chances of misinterpretation or confusion among the subjects who need to follow the orders. Writing orders at a higher level may leave room for ambiguity and may not address all the necessary details. Therefore, it is important for post orders to be written at the lowest level possible to ensure effective communication and execution of the instructions.

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  • 46. 

    The guard’s primary record of significant events affecting facility protection is called:

    • A.

      The guard log

    • B.

      Ingress log

    • C.

      Egress log

    • D.

      Daily record manual

    Correct Answer
    A. The guard log
    Explanation
    The guard's primary record of significant events affecting facility protection is called the guard log. This log serves as a documentation of important incidents, activities, and observations made by the guard while on duty. It is crucial for maintaining security and providing a historical record of events that can be referred to in case of investigations or audits. The guard log helps in ensuring accountability, monitoring security measures, and identifying any patterns or trends that may require attention.

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  • 47. 

    The sensor which is used when air turbulence is present in the protected room and when there are no potential false alarm sources outside the room and in the field of the detector is:

    • A.

      Acoustic detector

    • B.

      Vibration detector

    • C.

      Microwave motion detector

    • D.

      Ultrasonic motion detector

    Correct Answer
    C. Microwave motion detector
    Explanation
    The microwave motion detector is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to detect motion in the presence of air turbulence. It is not affected by potential false alarm sources outside the protected room or in the detector's field. The microwave technology used in this detector allows it to accurately detect motion even in challenging environments, making it an ideal choice for situations where air turbulence is present.

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  • 48. 

    The sensor which is used when light air turbulence, vibration and motion outside the room are present is:

    • A.

      Acoustic detector

    • B.

      Vibration detector

    • C.

      Microwave motion detector

    • D.

      Ultrasonic motion detector

    Correct Answer
    A. Acoustic detector
    Explanation
    The acoustic detector is used when there is light air turbulence, vibration, and motion outside the room. This sensor is designed to detect sound waves and can pick up on disturbances caused by these external factors. It is specifically sensitive to acoustic vibrations and is commonly used in security systems to detect any unusual or suspicious noises.

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  • 49. 

    Foil used as a detector on a glass window to signal a surreptitious or forcible penetration is an example of:

    • A.

      Microwave sensor

    • B.

      Capacitance sensor

    • C.

      Vibrator sensor

    • D.

      Electro-mechanical sensor

    Correct Answer
    C. Vibrator sensor
    Explanation
    A foil used as a detector on a glass window to signal a surreptitious or forcible penetration is an example of a vibrator sensor. This type of sensor works by detecting vibrations or movement. In this case, the foil is likely attached to the glass window in such a way that any penetration or tampering would cause it to vibrate or move, triggering an alarm or signaling a breach.

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  • 50. 

    The type of sensor designed to place a current-carrying conductor between an intruder and an area to be protected is known as:

    • A.

      Electro-mechanical sensor

    • B.

      Microwave sensor

    • C.

      Capacitance sensor

    • D.

      Audio sensor

    Correct Answer
    A. Electro-mechanical sensor
    Explanation
    An electro-mechanical sensor is designed to detect intruders by placing a current-carrying conductor between the intruder and the protected area. This type of sensor uses the principle of electrical conductivity to detect any changes in the current flow caused by the presence of an intruder. By monitoring the current, the sensor can determine if there is an unauthorized entry and trigger an alarm or other security measures.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 26, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Rssmc
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