SEC+ Study Guide I

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1. QUESTION NO: 814 Which of the following authentication methods increases the security of the authentication process because it must be in your physical possession?

Explanation

Smart Cards increase the security of the authentication process because they must be physically possessed by the user. Smart cards are small plastic cards that contain an embedded chip, which stores and processes data securely. The user must insert the smart card into a card reader and provide a PIN or biometric authentication to access the data stored on the card. This physical possession requirement makes it difficult for unauthorized individuals to gain access to the authentication credentials, enhancing the overall security of the authentication process.

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SEC+ Study Guide Quizzes & Trivia

This 'Sec+ Study Guide I' enhances readiness for the CompTIA Security+ exam, focusing on topics like Mandatory Access Control, audit log protection, and malware identification, crucial for cybersecurity... see moreprofessionals. see less

2. QUESTION NO: 849
Which of the following is a major reason that social engineering attacks succeed?

Explanation

Social engineering attacks often succeed due to a lack of security awareness. This means that individuals and organizations may not be adequately educated or trained on how to identify and respond to these types of attacks. Without this awareness, people may be more susceptible to manipulation and deception by attackers who use psychological tactics to gain unauthorized access to sensitive information or systems. Therefore, increasing security awareness and providing proper training can help mitigate the risk of social engineering attacks.

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3. QUESTION NO: 845 A user has received an email from a mortgage company asking for personal information including bank account numbers. This would BEST be described as:

Explanation

The email asking for personal information, including bank account numbers, is described as phishing. Phishing is a type of cyber attack where attackers impersonate legitimate organizations to trick users into revealing sensitive information or performing actions that could compromise their security. In this case, the email is attempting to deceive the user into providing personal and financial information, which could be used for fraudulent purposes.

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4. QUESTION NO: 805 Which of the following types of malicious software travels across computer networks without requiring a user to distribute the software?

Explanation

A worm is a type of malicious software that can travel across computer networks without the need for user distribution. Unlike a virus, which requires a host file or program to replicate, a worm can independently spread itself through network connections. It can exploit vulnerabilities in network protocols or use social engineering techniques to trick users into executing it. Once inside a system, a worm can replicate itself and spread to other connected devices, causing damage or stealing information. Therefore, the correct answer is worm.

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5. QUESTION NO: 810 Turnstiles, double entry doors and security guards are all prevention measures for which of the following types of social engineering?

Explanation

Turnstiles, double entry doors, and security guards are all prevention measures for piggybacking. Piggybacking refers to the act of unauthorized individuals following closely behind an authorized person to gain access to a secure area without proper authentication. These prevention measures are put in place to ensure that only authorized individuals are granted entry and to prevent unauthorized individuals from piggybacking on someone else's access.

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6. QUESTION NO: 824 Which of the following portions of a company's network is between the Internet and an internal network?

Explanation

A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is a portion of a company's network that is located between the Internet and an internal network. It acts as a buffer zone, separating the internal network from the external network (Internet). The purpose of a DMZ is to provide an additional layer of security by placing public-facing servers, such as web servers or email servers, in the DMZ. This allows external users to access these servers while keeping the internal network protected from potential threats.

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7. QUESTION NO: 806 Which of the following should be done if an audit recording fails in an information system?

Explanation

If an audit recording fails in an information system, it is important to send an alert to the appropriate personnel. This is because failing audit recordings can indicate a potential security breach or system malfunction. By alerting the appropriate personnel, they can investigate the issue, identify the cause of the failure, and take necessary actions to rectify the problem and ensure the integrity and security of the system.

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8. QUESTION NO: 864 Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) uses a PKI Trust Model where no certificate authority (CA) is subordinate to another. The model with no single trusted root is known as:

Explanation

PGP uses a PKI Trust Model where no certificate authority (CA) is subordinate to another, meaning there is no single trusted root. This model is known as "peer-to-peer." In a peer-to-peer trust model, each participant in the system has equal trust and can independently verify the authenticity of other participants' certificates without relying on a central authority. This decentralized approach enhances security and reduces the risk of a single point of failure.

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9. QUESTION NO: 822
A VPN typically provides a remote access link from one host to another over:

Explanation

A VPN (Virtual Private Network) typically provides a remote access link from one host to another over the Internet. This means that users can securely connect to a private network from a remote location using the public Internet as the medium. VPNs use encryption and other security measures to ensure that the data transmitted over the Internet remains secure and confidential. By using the Internet as the transport mechanism, VPNs offer a cost-effective and flexible solution for remote access connectivity.

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10. QUESTION NO: 857 To keep an 802.11x network from being automatically discovered, a user should:

Explanation

Turning off the SSID broadcast is the correct answer because when the SSID broadcast is disabled, the network name is not visible to devices scanning for available networks. This makes it harder for unauthorized users to discover and connect to the network. Leaving the SSID default or changing the SSID name may provide some level of security, but it does not prevent automatic discovery of the network. Activating the SSID password is important for securing the network, but it does not directly address the issue of automatic discovery.

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11. QUESTION NO: 870 A person pretends to be a telecommunications repair technician, enters a building stating that there is a networking trouble work order and requests that a security guard unlock the wiring closet. The person connects a packet sniffer to the network switch in the wiring closet and hides the sniffer behind the switch against a wall. This is an example of:

Explanation

The given scenario describes a situation where the person uses deception and manipulation to gain unauthorized access to a building and network. This type of attack is known as social engineering. Social engineering involves exploiting human psychology and trust to deceive individuals into performing actions that may compromise security. In this case, the person pretends to be a technician and tricks the security guard into unlocking the wiring closet, allowing them to connect a packet sniffer to intercept network traffic. This highlights the importance of employee awareness and training to prevent social engineering attacks.

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12. QUESTION NO: 823 Which of the following would be needed to ensure that a user who has received an email cannot claim that the email was not received?

Explanation

Non-repudiation is the correct answer because it provides evidence that a user has received an email and prevents them from denying its receipt. It ensures that the sender can prove that the email was successfully delivered and received by the intended recipient. This is typically achieved through the use of digital signatures or other cryptographic methods that provide authentication and non-repudiation of the message.

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13. QUESTION NO: 852 The purpose of the SSID in a wireless network is to:

Explanation

The purpose of the SSID in a wireless network is to identify the network. SSID stands for Service Set Identifier, and it is a unique name that is assigned to a wireless network. It allows devices to identify and connect to a specific network among multiple available networks in the vicinity. The SSID is broadcasted by the wireless access point (WAP), allowing devices to recognize and join the correct network. It does not define encryption protocols, secure the WAP, or protect the client.

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14. QUESTION NO: 862 Which of the following access attacks would involve looking through your files in the hopes of finding something interesting?

Explanation

Snooping is an access attack that involves looking through someone's files with the intention of finding something interesting or valuable. It is a form of unauthorized access where an individual tries to gather information or gain insights into someone's personal or confidential data without their knowledge or consent. This can include searching through digital files, emails, documents, or any other type of stored information. Snooping is a common tactic used by hackers, malicious insiders, or individuals with malicious intent to gather sensitive information for personal gain or to exploit it in some way.

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15. QUESTION NO: 865 Which of the following would be an effective way to ensure that a compromised PKI key can not access a system?

Explanation

Revoke the key would be an effective way to ensure that a compromised PKI key cannot access a system. By revoking the key, its validity is immediately terminated, preventing any further use or access to the system. This ensures that the compromised key cannot be used for any malicious activities and maintains the security of the system.

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16. QUESTION NO: 807 Which of the following types of authentication BEST describes providing a username, password and undergoing a thumb print scan to access a workstation?

Explanation

The given scenario describes the use of multiple factors for authentication. In this case, the user is required to provide a username, password, and undergo a thumbprint scan. This combination of factors, including something the user knows (password), something the user has (thumbprint), and something the user is (username), is known as multifactor authentication. It provides an additional layer of security by requiring multiple pieces of evidence to verify the user's identity before granting access to the workstation.

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17. QUESTION NO: 838 Which of the following refers to the ability to be reasonably certain that data is not modified or tampered with?

Explanation

Integrity refers to the ability to be reasonably certain that data is not modified or tampered with. This means that the data remains intact and has not been altered in any unauthorized way. Ensuring data integrity is important for maintaining the accuracy and reliability of information.

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18. QUESTION NO: 851 The authentication process where the user can access several resources without the need for multiple credentials is known as:

Explanation

Single sign-on is the authentication process that allows a user to access multiple resources or systems using a single set of credentials. This eliminates the need for the user to remember and enter multiple usernames and passwords, providing convenience and simplifying the authentication process. With single sign-on, once the user logs in to one system, they are automatically authenticated and granted access to other systems or resources without the need for additional credentials. This improves user experience, enhances security by reducing the risk of weak or reused passwords, and streamlines access management for both users and administrators.

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19. QUESTION NO: 888 A representative from the human resources department informs a security specialist that an employee has been terminated. Which of the following would be the BEST action to take?

Explanation

When an employee is terminated, it is important to disable their user accounts to prevent unauthorized access. However, it is also necessary to keep the data for a specified period of time for legal and audit purposes. This allows the company to retain any necessary information or evidence that may be required in the future. Deleting all data could potentially result in the loss of important information or evidence. Contacting the employee's supervisor regarding the disposition of user accounts may not be the best action as the HR department is responsible for managing employee accounts. Changing the employee's user password may not be sufficient as the accounts should be disabled to ensure complete security.

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20. QUESTION NO: 899 Which of the following are components of host hardening? (Select TWO).

Explanation

Host hardening is the process of securing a host or computer system by reducing its vulnerabilities. Disabling unnecessary services is an important component of host hardening as it helps to minimize the attack surface by shutting down any services that are not needed. Applying patches is also crucial as it ensures that any known vulnerabilities in the system are fixed and closed, making it less susceptible to attacks. Adding users to the administrator group and configuring the Start menu and Desktop are not directly related to host hardening.

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21. QUESTION NO: 812

Which of the following programming techniques should be used to prevent buffer overflow attacks?

Explanation

Input validation is the correct answer because it involves checking and validating user input to ensure that it meets certain criteria and is within the expected range. By validating input, potential buffer overflow attacks can be prevented because the input is checked for its length and content before it is processed. This helps to ensure that the input does not exceed the allocated buffer size, preventing the attacker from overwriting adjacent memory locations and executing malicious code.

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22. QUESTION NO: 858 Which of the following BEST describes the baseline process of securing devices on a network infrastructure?

Explanation

The baseline process of securing devices on a network infrastructure involves hardening the devices. Hardening refers to the process of configuring the devices to remove any unnecessary services or features, applying security patches and updates, and implementing security measures such as strong passwords and access controls. This helps to reduce vulnerabilities and make the devices more resistant to attacks.

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23. QUESTION NO: 874 Which of the following is the MOST effective way for an administrator to determine what security holes reside on a network?

Explanation

Performing a vulnerability assessment is the most effective way for an administrator to determine what security holes reside on a network. A vulnerability assessment involves scanning the network infrastructure and systems to identify any weaknesses or vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers. This assessment provides a comprehensive view of the network's security posture, allowing the administrator to prioritize and address the identified vulnerabilities to enhance the network's overall security. Running a port scan, running a sniffer, or installing and monitoring an IDS can also provide valuable information, but they are more focused on specific aspects of network security rather than providing a holistic assessment of vulnerabilities.

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24. QUESTION NO: 821 The employees at a company are using instant messaging on company networked computers. The MOST important security issue to address when using instant messaging is that instant messaging:

Explanation

The most important security issue to address when using instant messaging is that communications are open and unprotected. This means that the messages sent through instant messaging can be intercepted and read by unauthorized individuals. This lack of encryption and protection puts sensitive information at risk and can lead to data breaches or leaks. It is crucial to implement secure protocols and encryption methods to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of instant messaging communications.

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25. QUESTION NO: 887 An organization has a hierarchical-based concept of privilege management with administrators having full access, human resources personnel having slightly less access and managers having access to their own department files only. This is BEST described as:

Explanation

The given scenario describes a privilege management system where different roles have different levels of access. Administrators have full access, human resources personnel have slightly less access, and managers have access to their own department files only. This aligns with the concept of Role Based Access Control (RBAC), where access is granted based on the roles that individuals hold within the organization. RBAC is a commonly used access control model that provides a structured approach to managing privileges and ensuring that users have the appropriate level of access based on their roles and responsibilities.

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26. QUESTION NO: 804 A user downloads and installs a new screen saver and the program starts to rename and delete random files. Which of the following would be the BEST description of this program?

Explanation

A Trojan horse is a type of malicious software that disguises itself as a legitimate program or file, tricking the user into downloading and installing it. Once installed, the Trojan horse can perform various malicious actions, such as renaming and deleting random files, as described in the question. Unlike viruses and worms, Trojan horses do not replicate themselves or spread to other systems. A logic bomb is a type of malware that is programmed to execute a malicious action at a specific time or under certain conditions. Therefore, the best description for the given scenario is a Trojan horse.

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27. QUESTION NO: 817 Which definition best defines what a challenge-response session is?

Explanation

A challenge-response session refers to a workstation or system that generates a random challenge string. This challenge string is then presented to the user, who must provide it along with the correct PIN (Personal Identification Number) in order to authenticate themselves.

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28. QUESTION NO: 840 A security specialist has downloaded a free security software tool from a trusted industry site. The source has published the MD5 hash values for the executable program. The specialist performs a successful virus scan  on the download but the MD5 hash is different. Which of the following steps should the specialist take?

Explanation

The correct answer is to avoid executing the file and contact the source website administrator. This is because the MD5 hash values are used to verify the integrity of the downloaded file. If the MD5 hash is different, it means that the file has been modified or tampered with, and it may contain malicious code. Therefore, it is important to avoid executing the file and contact the source website administrator to report the issue and seek further guidance.

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29. QUESTION NO: 885 An enclosure that prevents radio frequency signals from emanating out of a controlled environment is BEST described as which of the following?

Explanation

A Faraday cage is an enclosure made of conductive material that blocks external electromagnetic fields and prevents radio frequency signals from escaping or entering the controlled environment. It works by redistributing the electromagnetic energy around the exterior of the cage, effectively canceling out the signals. This is useful in situations where electromagnetic interference needs to be minimized or prevented, such as in sensitive electronic equipment or secure communication systems. A Faraday cage is the best choice among the given options for preventing radio frequency signals from emanating out of a controlled environment.

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30. QUESTION NO: 819 To reduce vulnerabilities on a web server, an administrator should adopt which of the following preventative measures?

Explanation

Applying the most recent manufacturer updates and patches to the server is a preventative measure to reduce vulnerabilities on a web server. Manufacturers regularly release updates and patches to address security vulnerabilities and improve the server's overall security. By keeping the server up to date with these updates, the administrator ensures that any known vulnerabilities are patched, reducing the risk of exploitation by attackers. This measure is essential in maintaining the security and integrity of the web server.

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31. QUESTION NO: 842
Which of the following would be the BEST reason to disable unnecessary services on a server?

Explanation

Disabling unnecessary services on a server reduces the attack surface, which refers to the potential entry points that attackers can exploit to gain unauthorized access. By disabling these services, the server's exposure to vulnerabilities and potential compromise is minimized. This is the best reason because it directly addresses the security aspect of server management and helps protect the server from potential attacks.

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32. QUESTION NO: 839 Disguising oneself as a reputable hardware manufacturer's field technician who is picking up a server for repair would be described as:

Explanation

Disguising oneself as a reputable hardware manufacturer's field technician in order to pick up a server for repair is an example of social engineering. Social engineering refers to the manipulation of individuals to gain unauthorized access or obtain sensitive information. In this scenario, the attacker is using deception and impersonation to gain physical access to the server, exploiting the trust placed in the reputation of the hardware manufacturer and the legitimacy of their technicians. This tactic allows the attacker to bypass security measures and potentially gain access to sensitive data or compromise the server.

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33. QUESTION NO: 844 Which of the following describes an attacker encouraging a person to perform an action in order to be successful?

Explanation

Social engineering refers to the act of manipulating or deceiving individuals into performing certain actions that may compromise their security or provide unauthorized access to systems or information. In this context, an attacker encourages a person to perform an action in order to achieve their malicious objectives. This can involve techniques such as phishing, impersonation, or psychological manipulation to trick individuals into revealing sensitive information, clicking on malicious links, or installing malicious software.

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34. QUESTION NO: 889 One of the below options are correct regarding the DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service) attack?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Use of multiple computers to attack a single organization." In a DDoS attack, multiple compromised computers are used to flood a target system or network with a high volume of traffic, overwhelming its resources and causing it to become inaccessible to legitimate users. This is done to disrupt the target's services and deny access to its resources.

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35. QUESTION NO: 820 Which of the following is a common type of attack on web servers?

Explanation

A buffer overflow is a common type of attack on web servers where an attacker sends more data than a buffer can handle, causing the excess data to overflow into adjacent memory. This can lead to the execution of malicious code or the crashing of the server.

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36. QUESTION NO: 831 A system administrator reports that an unauthorized user has accessed the network. Which of the following would be the FIRST action to take?

Explanation

The FIRST action to take when an unauthorized user has accessed the network is to contain the problem. This means isolating the affected systems or devices from the rest of the network to prevent further unauthorized access and potential damage. This step is crucial in order to minimize the impact and mitigate any potential harm caused by the unauthorized access. Once the problem is contained, further actions such as notifying management, determining the business impact, and contacting law enforcement officials can be taken.

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37. QUESTION NO: 876 A small manufacturing company wants to deploy secure wireless on their network. Which of the following wireless security protocols could be used? (Select TWO).

Explanation

WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) and WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access) are both wireless security protocols that can be used to secure a wireless network. WEP was the original security protocol for wireless networks but is now considered to be weak and easily cracked. WPA, on the other hand, is a more secure protocol that provides stronger encryption and authentication. Therefore, both WEP and WPA can be used to deploy secure wireless on a network.

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38. QUESTION NO: 818 For which reason are clocks used in Kerberos authentication?

Explanation

Clocks are used in Kerberos authentication to ensure that tickets expire correctly. Kerberos uses time-based tickets that have a limited validity period. The clocks on the client and server machines need to be synchronized to ensure that the tickets are valid and not expired. The clocks are used to track the time and determine when a ticket should expire, preventing unauthorized access to the system.

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39. QUESTION NO: 837 Which of the following describes a server or application that is accepting more input than the server or application is expecting?

Explanation

A buffer overflow occurs when a server or application is accepting more input than it is expecting, causing the excess data to overflow into adjacent memory. This can lead to the corruption of data, system crashes, and potentially allow attackers to execute malicious code. It is a common vulnerability that can be exploited to gain unauthorized access to a system or cause it to become unresponsive.

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40. QUESTION NO: 808 Which of the following steps is MOST often overlooked during the auditing process?

Explanation

Reviewing event logs regularly is often overlooked during the auditing process. Event logs contain valuable information about system activities and can help identify any suspicious or unauthorized activities. Regularly reviewing event logs allows auditors to detect and investigate any potential security breaches or anomalies. However, it is a step that is often neglected, leading to missed opportunities for identifying and addressing security issues.

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41. QUESTION NO: 900 Which of the following common attacks would the attacker capture the user's login information and replay it again later?

Explanation

A replay attack is a type of attack where the attacker captures the user's login information and then replays it at a later time to gain unauthorized access. This attack takes advantage of the fact that login information, such as usernames and passwords, are often sent in plain text or easily decrypted formats. By capturing this information, the attacker can impersonate the user and gain access to their accounts or sensitive information.

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42. QUESTION NO: 882 Non-repudiation is enforced by which of the following?

Explanation

Digital signatures are used to enforce non-repudiation. Non-repudiation ensures that the sender of a message cannot deny sending it, and the recipient cannot deny receiving it. Digital signatures provide a way to verify the authenticity and integrity of a message by using a cryptographic algorithm. The sender signs the message with their private key, and the recipient can verify the signature using the sender's public key. This ensures that the message has not been tampered with and can be attributed to the sender, thus enforcing non-repudiation.

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43. QUESTION NO: 890 An SMTP server is the source of email spam in an organization. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

Explanation

The most likely cause of an SMTP server being the source of email spam in an organization is that anonymous relays have not been disabled. Anonymous relays allow anyone to send emails through the SMTP server without authentication, making it easy for spammers to abuse the server. By disabling anonymous relays, only authenticated users will be able to send emails, reducing the risk of spam being sent from the server.

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44. QUESTION NO: 894 Which of the following types of programs autonomously replicates itself across networks?

Explanation

A worm is a type of program that can autonomously replicate itself across networks. Unlike viruses, worms do not need to attach themselves to a host file or program in order to spread. They can spread independently by exploiting vulnerabilities in computer systems or by using network connections. This allows them to quickly infect multiple computers and networks, causing widespread damage. Unlike Trojan horses or spyware, worms focus on replication and spreading rather than on stealing information or gaining unauthorized access.

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45. QUESTION NO: 854 Which of the following is often misused by spyware to collect and report a user's activities?

Explanation

Tracking cookies are often misused by spyware to collect and report a user's activities. Tracking cookies are small text files that are stored on a user's computer by websites they visit. These cookies are used to track the user's browsing behavior and collect information such as search history, visited websites, and online preferences. Spyware can exploit tracking cookies to gather personal information without the user's consent or knowledge. This misuse of tracking cookies by spyware poses a significant privacy and security risk for users.

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46. QUESTION NO: 855 Choose the figure which represents the number of ports in the TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) which are vulnerable to being scanned, attacked, and exploited.

Explanation

The correct answer is 65,535 ports. This is because TCP/IP uses a 16-bit address field in its header, which allows for a maximum of 65,535 different port numbers. These port numbers are used to identify specific processes or services running on a device, and some of them may be vulnerable to scanning, attacking, or exploitation if not properly secured.

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47. QUESTION NO: 861 Fiber optic cable is considered safer than CAT5 because fiber optic cable: (Select TWO).

Explanation

Fiber optic cable is considered safer than CAT5 because it is not susceptible to interference. Unlike copper-based cables, fiber optic cables transmit data using light signals, which are not affected by electromagnetic interference or radio frequency interference. Additionally, fiber optic cables are hard to tap into. Since they transmit data as light pulses through thin strands of glass or plastic, any attempt to tap into the cable and intercept the data would cause the light signal to be disrupted, making it difficult for unauthorized access.

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48. QUESTION NO: 803 Non-essential services are often appealing to attackers because non-essential services: (Select TWO)

Explanation

Non-essential services are often appealing to attackers because they are not typically configured correctly or secured. This means that they may have weak security measures in place, making them easier for attackers to exploit. Additionally, non-essential services may sustain attacks that go unnoticed because they are not as closely monitored or prioritized by security systems. This allows attackers to potentially gain unauthorized access or carry out malicious activities without being detected.

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49. QUESTION NO: 871 Which of the following definitions would be correct regarding Active Inception?

Explanation

Active Inception refers to the act of placing a computer system between the sender and receiver to capture information. This involves intercepting and monitoring the communication between two parties without their knowledge or consent. It allows the interceptor to gather sensitive data, such as passwords, credit card information, or other confidential details. This definition distinguishes Active Inception from the other options, which involve activities like looking through files, monitoring network traffic, or listening to conversations, but not necessarily intercepting information in the same way.

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50. QUESTION NO: 892 Default passwords in hardware and software should be changed:

Explanation

Default passwords in hardware and software should be changed when the hardware or software is turned on. This is because default passwords are often well-known and easily exploitable by attackers. Changing the default password immediately upon turning on the hardware or software helps to ensure that unauthorized individuals cannot gain access to the system. It is important to change default passwords as soon as possible to enhance the security of the system and protect against potential threats.

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51. QUESTION NO: 893 An organization needs to monitor all network traffic as it traverses their network. Which item should be used by the technician?

Explanation

A protocol analyzer is the appropriate tool to use in order to monitor all network traffic as it traverses an organization's network. A protocol analyzer captures and analyzes network packets, allowing technicians to examine the data being transmitted and received on the network. This tool helps identify network performance issues, troubleshoot network problems, and detect any suspicious or unauthorized activity on the network. It is an essential tool for network monitoring and analysis.

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52. QUESTION NO: 809 Kerberos uses which of the following ports by default?

Explanation

Kerberos uses port 88 by default. Kerberos is a network authentication protocol that works on the basis of tickets to allow secure communication between clients and servers. Port 88 is specifically designated for Kerberos authentication services. This port is used for the exchange of authentication messages between the client and the Key Distribution Center (KDC), which is the central authentication server in a Kerberos environment.

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53. QUESTION NO: 828 Giving each user or group of users only the access they need to do their job is an example of which of the following security principals?

Explanation

Giving each user or group of users only the access they need to do their job is an example of the principle of least privilege. This principle ensures that users are granted the minimum necessary privileges required to perform their tasks, reducing the potential for unauthorized access or accidental misuse of resources. By limiting access rights, organizations can minimize the risk of data breaches and unauthorized actions, enhancing overall security posture.

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54. QUESTION NO: 883 Which of the following would be the MOST effective backup site for disaster recovery?

Explanation

A hot site would be the most effective backup site for disaster recovery because it is a fully operational data center that is ready to take over operations immediately in the event of a disaster. It has all the necessary infrastructure, hardware, and software in place to quickly resume business operations without any significant downtime. This makes it the ideal choice for organizations that require minimal disruption and can afford the higher costs associated with maintaining a fully functional backup site.

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55. QUESTION NO: 891 The first step in creating a security baseline would be:

Explanation

Creating a security policy is the first step in creating a security baseline because it establishes the guidelines and rules for securing an organization's systems and data. A security policy outlines the objectives, responsibilities, and procedures that need to be followed to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information. It provides a framework for implementing security controls and helps in identifying and addressing potential risks and threats. Therefore, creating a security policy is essential before undertaking other security measures such as identifying use cases, installing software patches, and conducting vulnerability testing.

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56. QUESTION NO: 811 Spam is considered a problem even when deleted before being opened because spam:

Explanation

Spam wastes company bandwidth because it consumes network resources and slows down internet speed. When spam emails are received, they take up storage space and require data to be transferred across the network, which can cause congestion and reduce the overall performance of the network. This can negatively impact productivity and increase costs for the company.

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57. QUESTION NO: 813 Which of the following authentication systems make use of the KDC Key Distribution Center?

Explanation

Kerberos is the correct answer because it is an authentication protocol that uses a Key Distribution Center (KDC) to authenticate users and provide them with tickets for accessing network services. The KDC acts as a trusted third party that authenticates users and issues session keys that are used for secure communication between the user and the network services. This allows for secure authentication and authorization in a network environment. Certificates, security tokens, and CHAP are not directly related to the use of a KDC for authentication.

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58. QUESTION NO: 829
A company implements an SMTP server on their firewall. This implementation would violate which of the following security principles?

Explanation

The implementation of an SMTP server on a firewall violates the principle of "Use a device as intended." Firewalls are designed to control and monitor network traffic based on predetermined rules, not to function as email servers. By using the firewall as an SMTP server, the company is not utilizing the device for its intended purpose, which could lead to security vulnerabilities and potential breaches.

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59. QUESTION NO: 863
A company wants to implement a VLAN. Senior management believes that a VLAN will be secure because authentication is accomplished by MAC addressing and that dynamic trunking protocol (DTP) will facilitate network efficiency. Which of the following issues should be discussed with senior management before VLAN implementation?

Explanation

The correct answer is "MAC addresses can be spoofed and DTP allows rogue network devices to configure ports." This answer highlights two important security concerns with implementing a VLAN. MAC addresses can be easily spoofed, meaning that an attacker can impersonate a legitimate device on the network. This can lead to unauthorized access and potential security breaches. Additionally, DTP (dynamic trunking protocol) can allow rogue network devices to configure ports, which can also lead to unauthorized access and potential network vulnerabilities. It is important to discuss these issues with senior management to ensure that appropriate security measures are in place before implementing a VLAN.

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60. QUESTION NO: 846 Which of the following connectivity is required for a web server that is hosting an SSL based web site?

Explanation

For a web server hosting an SSL based website, inbound connectivity on port 443 is required. Port 443 is the default port for HTTPS traffic, which is used to securely transmit data over the internet. Inbound connectivity on this port allows the server to receive incoming requests from clients and respond with the requested web pages or resources. It is important for SSL based websites as SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) is the standard security technology for establishing an encrypted link between a web server and a browser, ensuring that the data transmitted remains confidential and secure.

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61. QUESTION NO: 848 Which of the following is used to determine equipment status and modify the configuration or settings of network devices?

Explanation

SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used to determine the status of network equipment and make changes to their configuration or settings. It is a protocol that allows network administrators to manage and monitor network devices, such as routers, switches, and servers. SNMP enables the collection and organization of information about network devices, including their performance, availability, and health. It also provides a means for remote management and configuration of these devices, making it an essential tool for network administration. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is used for automatically assigning IP addresses to devices on a network. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending emails. CHAP (Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol) is a security protocol used in PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol) for authentication purposes.

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62. QUESTION NO: 873
Which of the following would be MOST desirable when attacking encrypted data?

Explanation

A weak key would be the most desirable when attacking encrypted data because it would make it easier to decrypt the data. A weak key refers to a key that does not provide sufficient randomness or complexity, making it more vulnerable to brute force or other attacks. By exploiting a weak key, an attacker can potentially decrypt the encrypted data without having to break the encryption algorithm itself.

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63. QUESTION NO: 886 On the basis of certain ports, which of the following will allow wireless access to network resources?

Explanation

802.1x is a network access control protocol that provides authentication and authorization for devices trying to connect to a network. It allows for wireless access to network resources by verifying the identity of the user or device attempting to connect and granting access based on predetermined policies. This protocol ensures that only authorized devices are able to access the network, thereby enhancing network security.

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64. QUESTION NO: 850 Which of the following types of backups requires that files and software that have been changed since the last full backup be copied to storage media?

Explanation

Differential backups require that files and software that have been changed since the last full backup be copied to storage media. This means that only the files that have been modified or added since the last full backup are included in the backup, making it faster and requiring less storage space compared to a full backup.

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65. QUESTION NO: 866 Which of the following describes the validation of a message's origin?

Explanation

Non-repudiation refers to the assurance that the sender of a message cannot deny sending it. It ensures that the origin of a message is validated and provides evidence that the message was indeed sent by the claimed sender. This is achieved through the use of digital signatures or other cryptographic mechanisms that can uniquely identify the sender and verify the integrity of the message. Non-repudiation is important in legal and business contexts where proof of communication is required to hold parties accountable for their actions.

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66. QUESTION NO: 881 The Diffie-Hellman encryption algorithm relies on which of the following?

Explanation

The Diffie-Hellman encryption algorithm relies on key exchange. This algorithm allows two parties to establish a shared secret key over an insecure communication channel. The parties generate their own private keys and exchange public keys. By using mathematical operations, they can derive the same secret key without ever transmitting it over the channel. This key can then be used for secure communication.

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67. QUESTION NO: 830 A company is upgrading the network and needs to reduce the ability of users on the same floor and network segment to see each other's traffic. Which of the following network devices should be used?

Explanation

A switch should be used to reduce the ability of users on the same floor and network segment to see each other's traffic. Unlike a hub, which broadcasts traffic to all connected devices, a switch directs traffic only to the intended recipient. This improves network security by preventing unauthorized access to data packets. A router is used to connect different networks, while a firewall is a security device that filters network traffic. Therefore, a switch is the most appropriate network device for this scenario.

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68. QUESTION NO: 835 Which of the following protocols are not recommended due to them supplying passwords and information over the network?

Explanation

SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is not recommended due to its capability of supplying passwords and information over the network. This protocol is primarily used for managing and monitoring network devices, but it lacks proper security measures to protect sensitive data. SNMP utilizes community strings for authentication, which can be easily intercepted and exploited by malicious actors. Therefore, it is advised to avoid using SNMP for transmitting passwords and confidential information to ensure network security.

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69. QUESTION NO: 816 Which password management system best provides for a system with a large number of users?

Explanation

Self service password reset management systems are the best option for a system with a large number of users because they allow users to reset their own passwords without the need for IT support. This reduces the burden on IT staff and increases efficiency. Users can easily reset their passwords through a self-service portal, which saves time and resources. Additionally, self service password reset management systems often include security features such as multi-factor authentication, ensuring that only authorized users can reset their passwords.

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70. QUESTION NO: 896 An end-to-end traffic performance guarantee made by a service provider to a customer is a:

Explanation

An end-to-end traffic performance guarantee made by a service provider to a customer is referred to as an SLA (Service Level Agreement). This agreement outlines the level of service that the provider will deliver to the customer, including factors such as network availability, response time, and throughput. The SLA ensures that the service provider is accountable for meeting the agreed-upon performance standards and provides a measure of assurance to the customer.

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71. QUESTION NO: 847 Malicious port scanning is a method of attack to determine which of the following?

Explanation

Malicious port scanning is a technique used by attackers to identify the fingerprint of the operating system. By scanning the open ports on a system, the attacker can gather information about the services and protocols running on the system, which can help them determine the operating system being used. This information can be used to exploit vulnerabilities specific to that operating system and launch targeted attacks.

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72. QUESTION NO: 802 Audit log information can BEST be protected by: (Select TWO).

Explanation

Audit log information can be best protected by implementing access controls that restrict usage and recording the logs to write-once media. Access controls ensure that only authorized individuals can access and modify the audit logs, reducing the risk of unauthorized tampering or deletion. Recording the logs to write-once media, such as a read-only DVD or a write-once hard drive, prevents any modifications to the logs once they have been recorded, ensuring their integrity and reliability for future analysis and investigation. Using a VPN, IDS, IPS, or firewall can provide additional security measures but may not directly address the protection of audit log information.

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73. QUESTION NO: 826 Which of the following types of firewalls provides inspection at layer 7 of the OSI model?

Explanation

An application-proxy firewall provides inspection at layer 7 of the OSI model. This type of firewall acts as an intermediary between the client and server, allowing it to examine and filter application-layer traffic. It can analyze the content of the traffic, including specific protocols and applications, to make more informed decisions about allowing or blocking certain connections. This level of inspection offers greater control and security compared to other types of firewalls that operate at lower layers of the OSI model.

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74. QUESTION NO: 827 A newly hired security specialist is asked to evaluate a company's network security. The security specialist discovers that users have installed personal software; the network OS has default settings and no patches have been installed and passwords are not required to be changed regularly. Which of the following would be the FIRST step to take?

Explanation

The first step to take in this situation would be to enforce the security policy. This is because the security specialist has identified several security vulnerabilities, such as the installation of personal software, default settings on the network OS, lack of software patches, and no requirement for regular password changes. Enforcing the security policy would address these vulnerabilities by implementing measures such as removing personal software, configuring appropriate settings on the network OS, installing software patches, and implementing password management policies. By doing so, the security specialist can improve the overall network security posture of the company.

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75. QUESTION NO: 860 A company wants to connect the network to a manufacturer's network to be able to order parts. Which of the following types of networks should the company implement to provide the connection while limiting the services allowed over the connection?

Explanation

An extranet is a private network that allows controlled access to specific external users, such as business partners or suppliers. By implementing an extranet, the company can connect its network to the manufacturer's network and establish a secure and limited connection for ordering parts. This ensures that only authorized services and information are accessible over the connection, providing a secure and controlled environment for the business transaction.

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76. QUESTION NO: 880
Which of the following would be an example of a hardware device where keys can be stored? (Select TWO).

Explanation

A smart card is a hardware device that can store keys. It is a small plastic card with an embedded integrated circuit chip that can securely store and process data. Smart cards are commonly used for authentication and secure access control systems.

A PCMCIA card, also known as a PC card, is another hardware device that can store keys. It is a credit card-sized device that can be inserted into a PCMCIA slot on a computer or laptop. PCMCIA cards are often used for adding additional functionality to a computer, such as additional storage or network connectivity.

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77. QUESTION NO: 801 Which of the following access decisions are based on a Mandatory Access Control (MAC) environment?

Explanation

Sensitivity labels are used in a Mandatory Access Control (MAC) environment to determine access decisions. MAC is a security model where access controls are based on labels assigned to subjects (users, processes) and objects (files, resources). Sensitivity labels indicate the level of sensitivity or classification of an object, and access decisions are made based on the comparison of the sensitivity labels of subjects and objects. Access control lists, ownership, and group membership are typically used in discretionary access control (DAC) environments, where access decisions are based on the discretion of the owner or the group.

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78. QUESTION NO: 825 Which of the following is MOST often used to allow a client or partner access to a network?

Explanation

An extranet is a private network that allows external clients or partners to access certain parts of a company's network. It provides a secure and controlled way for these external users to connect and collaborate with the company's internal network and resources. This is often used when there is a need for collaboration, sharing of information, or providing access to specific services to external parties while maintaining security and privacy.

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79. QUESTION NO: 815 Which of the following statements regarding authentication protocols is FALSE?

Explanation

MS-CHAP version 1 is not capable of mutual authentication of both the client and the server. It only provides authentication of the client to the server.

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80. QUESTION NO: 833 The CHAP (Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol) sends a logon request from the client to the server, and the server sends a challenge back to the client. At which stage does the CHAP protocol perform the handshake process? Choose the best complete answer.

Explanation

The CHAP protocol performs the handshake process at the stage when the connection is established and at whichever time after the connection has been established. This means that the handshake process can occur multiple times during the duration of the connection, providing an additional layer of authentication and security.

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81. QUESTION NO: 869 When setting password rules, which of the following would lower the level of security of a network?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Complex passwords that users cannot remotely change are randomly generated by the administrator and given to users." This lowers the level of security because users are not able to choose their own passwords, which means they may not remember them and may write them down, making them more susceptible to being compromised. Additionally, if the passwords are randomly generated and given to users, there is a higher chance that they will be easily forgotten or not properly safeguarded.

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82. QUESTION NO: 834 Which of the following are nonessential protocols and services?

Explanation

TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) is a nonessential protocol and service. It is a simplified version of FTP (File Transfer Protocol) and is primarily used for transferring small files. Unlike other protocols like NNTP, DNS, and ICMP, TFTP is not essential for the basic functioning of a network. It is commonly used in situations where a lightweight and basic file transfer mechanism is required, such as in network booting or firmware updates.

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83. QUESTION NO: 868 Which of the following types of encryption would be BEST to use for a large amount of data?

Explanation

Symmetric encryption would be the best choice for a large amount of data because it is faster and more efficient than asymmetric encryption. In symmetric encryption, the same key is used for both encryption and decryption, which allows for faster processing of large amounts of data. Asymmetric encryption, on the other hand, uses different keys for encryption and decryption, which can be slower and more resource-intensive when dealing with large volumes of data. ROT13 and hash are not encryption methods, but rather encoding and hashing techniques respectively, and are not suitable for encrypting large amounts of data.

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84. QUESTION NO: 841 Which of the following identifies the layer of the OSI model where SSL provides encryption?

Explanation

SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) provides encryption at the Session layer of the OSI model. The Session layer is responsible for establishing, managing, and terminating sessions between applications. SSL ensures secure communication by encrypting the data exchanged between the client and the server, protecting it from unauthorized access or tampering. This layer also handles authentication and establishes a secure connection before data transmission begins. Therefore, SSL operates at the Session layer to provide encryption for secure communication.

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85. QUESTION NO: 853 Which of the following would be the MOST common method for attackers to spoof email?

Explanation

Open relays are commonly used by attackers to spoof email. Open relays are mail servers that allow anyone to send email through them without authentication. Attackers can take advantage of these open relays to send emails that appear to be from a different source, making it difficult to trace the origin of the email. This method is often used in phishing attacks and spam campaigns.

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86. QUESTION NO: 859 Which of the following could cause communication errors with an IPSec VPN tunnel because of changes made to the IP header?

Explanation

NAT (Network Address Translation) could cause communication errors with an IPSec VPN tunnel because it modifies the IP header of the packets. NAT translates the private IP addresses of the internal network to a public IP address, which can cause issues with the IPSec VPN tunnel as the original IP header information is changed. This can result in the IPSec VPN tunnel not being able to properly decrypt and process the packets, leading to communication errors.

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87. QUESTION NO: 879 The MOST common exploits of Internet-exposed network services are due to:

Explanation

Buffer overflows are the most common exploits of Internet-exposed network services. This occurs when a program tries to store more data in a buffer than it can hold, causing the excess data to overflow into adjacent memory locations. Attackers can exploit this vulnerability by injecting malicious code into the overflowed buffer, which can then be executed by the program. This allows them to gain unauthorized access, control the program, or even crash the system. Buffer overflows are a serious security concern and can lead to various attacks, such as remote code execution and privilege escalation.

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88. QUESTION NO: 867 Using software on an individual computer to generate a key pair is an example of which of the following approaches to PKI architecture?

Explanation

Using software on an individual computer to generate a key pair is an example of a decentralized approach to PKI architecture. In a decentralized PKI, the responsibility for generating and managing key pairs is distributed among individual users or devices. This allows for greater control and autonomy over the generation and management of keys, as each user or device can independently generate their own key pair without relying on a central authority. This approach also provides a higher level of security, as the keys are not concentrated in a single location or controlled by a single entity.

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89. QUESTION NO: 832 A companys security' specialist is securing a web server that is reachable from the Internet. The web server is located in the core internal corporate network. The network cannot be redesigned and the server cannot be moved. Which of the following should the security specialist implement to secure the web server? (Select TWO).

Explanation

The security specialist should implement a host-based IDS (Intrusion Detection System) to monitor and detect any suspicious activity on the web server itself. This will help in identifying any potential attacks or breaches on the server. Additionally, a host-based firewall should be implemented to control and filter the incoming and outgoing traffic specifically for the web server. This will provide an additional layer of protection by allowing only authorized traffic to access the server and blocking any unauthorized attempts.

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90. QUESTION NO: 878 Which of the following is the MOST significant flaw in Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) authentication?

Explanation

The most significant flaw in Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) authentication is that a user must trust the public key that is received. This means that if an attacker is able to intercept and replace the public key, they can impersonate the intended recipient and decrypt or modify the encrypted communication. This flaw undermines the trust and security of the authentication process in PGP.

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91. QUESTION NO: 836 Most key fob based identification systems use which of the following types of authentication mechanisms?(Select TWO).

Explanation

Most key fob based identification systems use username/password and token authentication mechanisms. The username/password mechanism requires the user to enter a unique username and password combination to authenticate their identity. The token mechanism involves the use of a physical device, such as a key fob, that generates a unique code or password that is used for authentication. These two mechanisms provide an additional layer of security to ensure that only authorized individuals can access the system.

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92. QUESTION NO: 895 Which of the following BEST describes an attempt to transfer DNS zone data?

Explanation

Reconnaissance refers to the act of gathering information about a target system or network. In the context of DNS (Domain Name System), transferring zone data involves obtaining information about the DNS records and configurations for a specific domain or zone. This can be done for various purposes, such as mapping out the network infrastructure or identifying potential vulnerabilities. Therefore, the option "Reconnaissance" best describes the act of attempting to transfer DNS zone data.

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93. QUESTION NO: 897 Which of the following statements are true regarding File Sharing?

Explanation

The given statement is true. When files are stored on a workstation, the connection between the workstations for file sharing is referred to as a peer-to-peer connection. In a peer-to-peer connection, each workstation can act as both a client and a server, allowing files to be shared directly between them without the need for a central server. This is in contrast to client-server connections, where files are stored on a central server and accessed by clients.

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94. QUESTION NO: 872 Nmap has been run against a server and more open ports than expected have been discovered. Which of the following would be the FIRST step to take?

Explanation

The correct answer is to examine the process using the ports. By examining the process, it can be determined whether the open ports are legitimate or if they indicate a potential security vulnerability. This step is crucial in understanding the reason behind the unexpected open ports and taking appropriate action to mitigate any potential risks.

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95. QUESTION NO: 884 Which of the following describes backing up files and software that have changed since the last full or incremental backup?

Explanation

An incremental backup is a type of backup that only backs up files and software that have changed since the last full or incremental backup. This means that it only backs up the changes made since the last backup, making it quicker and more efficient compared to a full backup.

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96. QUESTION NO: 843 A user is assigned access rights explicitly. This is a feature of which of the following access control models?

Explanation

In Discretionary Access Control (DAC), access rights are assigned explicitly by the owner or administrator of the resource. This means that the user has the discretion to grant or revoke access to others. In contrast, in Mandatory Access Control (MAC), access rights are determined by system policies and cannot be overridden by individual users. Rule Based Access Control (RBAC) and Role Based Access Control (RBAC) are different models that also define access rights, but they are not based on explicit assignment by individual users.

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97. QUESTION NO: 856 Which of the following would be considered a detrimental effect of a virus hoax? (Select TWO).

Explanation

A virus hoax can have a detrimental effect on technical support resources as they may be overwhelmed with increased user calls seeking assistance and clarification regarding the hoax. Additionally, users who fall for the hoax may be tricked into changing their system configuration, which can lead to system instability or vulnerability.

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98. QUESTION NO: 898 A honeypot is used to:

Explanation

A honeypot is a decoy system that is intentionally left vulnerable to attract attackers. By allowing attackers to interact with the honeypot, administrators can observe their tactics, techniques, and procedures, gather intelligence about their methods, and potentially identify new threats. This can help administrators better understand the attacker's behavior and enhance their defensive measures to protect the actual network.

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99. QUESTION NO: 875 A company has instituted a VPN to allow remote users to connect to the office. As time progresses multiple security associations are created with each association being more secure. Which of the following should be implemented to automate the selection of the BEST security association for each user?

Explanation

IKE (Internet Key Exchange) should be implemented to automate the selection of the best security association for each user. IKE is a protocol used to establish and manage security associations in a VPN. It negotiates the encryption algorithms, authentication methods, and other parameters required for secure communication between the remote user and the office. By implementing IKE, the VPN can automatically select the most appropriate security association based on the user's requirements and the available options.

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