Rt Simulation Examination 5

1. Ultrasound Imaging, which involves exposing part of the body to high-frequency sound waves to produce pictures of the inside of the body, is also known as what?

Intonography

Resonography

Sonography

Harmonography

Ultrasound imaging, also known as sonography, is a medical technique that uses high-frequency sound waves to create images of the inside of the body. This method is commonly used for diagnostic purposes, such as examining organs, tissues, and blood vessels. The term "sonography" accurately describes the process of using sound waves to produce images, making it the correct answer. "Intonography," "resonography," and "harmonography" are not recognized terms in the field of medical imaging.

Explanation

Ultrasound imaging, also known as sonography, is a medical technique that uses high-frequency sound waves to create images of the inside of the body. This method is commonly used for diagnostic purposes, such as examining organs, tissues, and blood vessels. The term "sonography" accurately describes the process of using sound waves to produce images, making it the correct answer. "Intonography," "resonography," and "harmonography" are not recognized terms in the field of medical imaging.

2. Which of the following CT studies of the head is typically performed without a contrast agent?

Ct angiogram for circle of Willis

Coronal scan to r/o pituitary tumor

CT of brain to r/o subdural hematoma

Ct of brain to r/o metastatic disease

A CT scan of the brain to rule out a subdural hematoma is typically performed without a contrast agent because the presence of blood in the subdural space can be easily detected without the need for contrast enhancement. Contrast agents are typically used in CT angiograms to visualize blood vessels, in coronal scans to evaluate pituitary tumors, and in CT scans to rule out metastatic disease. However, in the case of a subdural hematoma, the blood is already present and can be easily identified on a non-contrast CT scan.

Explanation

A CT scan of the brain to rule out a subdural hematoma is typically performed without a contrast agent because the presence of blood in the subdural space can be easily detected without the need for contrast enhancement. Contrast agents are typically used in CT angiograms to visualize blood vessels, in coronal scans to evaluate pituitary tumors, and in CT scans to rule out metastatic disease. However, in the case of a subdural hematoma, the blood is already present and can be easily identified on a non-contrast CT scan.

3. During the CT exam of a knee. The PT is mostly to be in the __________ position

Ventral recumbent

Right lateral

Supine

Left lateral

During a CT exam of the knee, the patient is mostly positioned in the supine position. This means that the patient lies flat on their back with their face and torso facing upward. This position allows for better visualization and access to the knee joint during the scan. The supine position also provides a comfortable and stable position for the patient during the procedure.

Explanation

During a CT exam of the knee, the patient is mostly positioned in the supine position. This means that the patient lies flat on their back with their face and torso facing upward. This position allows for better visualization and access to the knee joint during the scan. The supine position also provides a comfortable and stable position for the patient during the procedure.

4.

Which letter corresponds to the achilles tendon?

A

H

K

I

The letter "k" corresponds to the achilles tendon. The achilles tendon is the largest tendon in the human body and connects the calf muscles to the heel bone. It is responsible for allowing the foot to point and enabling activities such as walking, running, and jumping.

Explanation

The letter "k" corresponds to the achilles tendon. The achilles tendon is the largest tendon in the human body and connects the calf muscles to the heel bone. It is responsible for allowing the foot to point and enabling activities such as walking, running, and jumping.

5.

Which letter corresponds to the right adrenal gland

A

B

C

D

The letter "a" corresponds to the right adrenal gland.

Explanation

The letter "a" corresponds to the right adrenal gland.

6. Positioning PT with the knees flexed over a foam cushion during the CT scan of the lumbar spine assists in
1 Decreasing the kyphotic curvature of lumbar spine
2 making the PT more comfortable during the exam
3 decreasing the lordotic curvature of the L-SP

1 only

2 only

3 only

2 and 3

Positioning the patient with the knees flexed over a foam cushion during the CT scan of the lumbar spine helps in two ways. Firstly, it helps in decreasing the lordotic curvature of the lumbar spine (3), which is the natural inward curve of the lower back. This positioning can help to straighten the spine and provide a clearer image during the scan. Secondly, it makes the patient more comfortable during the exam (2) by providing support and reducing strain on the lower back. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3.

Explanation

Positioning the patient with the knees flexed over a foam cushion during the CT scan of the lumbar spine helps in two ways. Firstly, it helps in decreasing the lordotic curvature of the lumbar spine (3), which is the natural inward curve of the lower back. This positioning can help to straighten the spine and provide a clearer image during the scan. Secondly, it makes the patient more comfortable during the exam (2) by providing support and reducing strain on the lower back. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3.

7. Ultrasound exams are captured in real-time, using ionizing radiation to show the structure and movement of the patient's internal organs.

True

False

Ultrasound does not use ionizing radiation, it uses sound waves.

Explanation

Ultrasound does not use ionizing radiation, it uses sound waves.

8. A common nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate gland is typically referred to as

Prostatic carcinoma

Prostatic abscess

Prostatic hypertrophy

Extrapostatic extension

Prostatic hypertrophy is the correct answer because it refers to the common nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate gland. This condition, also known as benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), is a common age-related condition in men. It occurs when the prostate gland grows in size and can cause symptoms such as urinary frequency, urgency, weak urine stream, and difficulty starting or stopping urination. Prostatic carcinoma, prostatic abscess, and extrapostatic extension are not accurate terms to describe a nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate gland.

Explanation

Prostatic hypertrophy is the correct answer because it refers to the common nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate gland. This condition, also known as benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), is a common age-related condition in men. It occurs when the prostate gland grows in size and can cause symptoms such as urinary frequency, urgency, weak urine stream, and difficulty starting or stopping urination. Prostatic carcinoma, prostatic abscess, and extrapostatic extension are not accurate terms to describe a nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate gland.

9. Which of the pelvic bones cobine(s) to form the acetabulum?

Ilium

Ischium

Pubis

A and C

A, B, and C

The acetabulum is formed by the combination of the ilium, ischium, and pubis bones. These three pelvic bones come together to create a socket-like structure that connects with the head of the femur, forming the hip joint.

Explanation

The acetabulum is formed by the combination of the ilium, ischium, and pubis bones. These three pelvic bones come together to create a socket-like structure that connects with the head of the femur, forming the hip joint.

10. The degenerative pathologic process involving the forward slipping of an upper vertebral body over a lower vertebral body is called:

Spondylolisthesis

Spondylolysis

Herniated nucleus pulposus

Spinal stenosis

a result of degenerative changes of the facet joints.

Explanation

a result of degenerative changes of the facet joints.

11. Non-contrast CT of the urinary tract is a valuable tool in the investigation of;

Transitional cell carcinoma(TCC)

Urinary tract lithiasis

Renal artery stenosis

Ureteral duplication

Lithiasis refers to the presence of stones

Explanation

Lithiasis refers to the presence of stones

12. Of the following ranges, which would be most suited for a scout image of the abdomen?

Below the diaphragm to the bottom of the kidney

To of the kidney to the level of the mid sacrum

Top of the kidney to the umbilicus

Above the diaphragm to the illiac crest

The range "above the diaphragm to the illiac crest" would be most suited for a scout image of the abdomen because it includes the entire abdominal region, from the top of the diaphragm (which separates the chest and abdomen) down to the illiac crest (the top ridge of the hip bone). This range allows for a comprehensive view of the abdomen, including the organs and structures within it. The other ranges mentioned in the question either do not cover the entire abdomen or include areas outside of the abdomen.

Explanation

The range "above the diaphragm to the illiac crest" would be most suited for a scout image of the abdomen because it includes the entire abdominal region, from the top of the diaphragm (which separates the chest and abdomen) down to the illiac crest (the top ridge of the hip bone). This range allows for a comprehensive view of the abdomen, including the organs and structures within it. The other ranges mentioned in the question either do not cover the entire abdomen or include areas outside of the abdomen.

13. During CT of the head, the gantry should be angled

15 degrees above the OML

10 degrees below the IML

0 degrees

20 degrees above the skull base

During CT of the head, angling the gantry 15 degrees above the OML (Orbitomeatal Line) is the correct approach. The OML is an imaginary line that connects the external auditory meatus to the infraorbital rim. Angling the gantry in this manner helps to align the scan with the anatomical structures of the head, providing accurate imaging of the brain and surrounding areas. This specific angle allows for optimal visualization of the cranial structures while minimizing artifacts and distortion in the images.

Explanation

During CT of the head, angling the gantry 15 degrees above the OML (Orbitomeatal Line) is the correct approach. The OML is an imaginary line that connects the external auditory meatus to the infraorbital rim. Angling the gantry in this manner helps to align the scan with the anatomical structures of the head, providing accurate imaging of the brain and surrounding areas. This specific angle allows for optimal visualization of the cranial structures while minimizing artifacts and distortion in the images.

14. Which of the following techniques assists in visualizing the vagina during the CT of the pelvis?

Tampon insertion

Precontrast and postcontrast scanning

Oral contrast

Enema contrast

Tampon insertion is a technique that can assist in visualizing the vagina during CT of the pelvis. By inserting a tampon into the vagina, it helps to provide a clear and defined outline of the vaginal canal, making it easier to visualize and interpret the CT images. This technique is commonly used in cases where specific evaluation of the vaginal anatomy is required, such as in cases of vaginal bleeding or suspected abnormalities. The tampon acts as a contrast agent, highlighting the vaginal structure and aiding in the diagnostic process.

Explanation

Tampon insertion is a technique that can assist in visualizing the vagina during CT of the pelvis. By inserting a tampon into the vagina, it helps to provide a clear and defined outline of the vaginal canal, making it easier to visualize and interpret the CT images. This technique is commonly used in cases where specific evaluation of the vaginal anatomy is required, such as in cases of vaginal bleeding or suspected abnormalities. The tampon acts as a contrast agent, highlighting the vaginal structure and aiding in the diagnostic process.

15. The section thickness that would demonstrate the greatest detail of the paranasal sinuses is

3 mm

5 mm

7 mm

A section thickness of 3 mm would demonstrate the greatest detail of the paranasal sinuses because it is a thinner section compared to 5 mm and 7 mm. Thinner sections provide higher resolution and allow for better visualization of small structures and details. Therefore, a 3 mm section thickness would provide the best opportunity to capture the intricate details of the paranasal sinuses.

Explanation

A section thickness of 3 mm would demonstrate the greatest detail of the paranasal sinuses because it is a thinner section compared to 5 mm and 7 mm. Thinner sections provide higher resolution and allow for better visualization of small structures and details. Therefore, a 3 mm section thickness would provide the best opportunity to capture the intricate details of the paranasal sinuses.

16. Which on the following would not be considered an absolute contradiction to IV contrast during a CT exam of the kidneys

Pheochromocytoma

Acute sickle cell anemia

Allergies to shell fish

Prior major reaction to contrast

Allergies to shellfish would not be considered an absolute contradiction to IV contrast during a CT exam of the kidneys. While shellfish allergies can cause allergic reactions, they are not directly related to the administration of IV contrast. The other options, pheochromocytoma, acute sickle cell anemia, and prior major reaction to contrast, can all be contraindications for IV contrast due to potential risks and complications associated with these conditions.

Explanation

Allergies to shellfish would not be considered an absolute contradiction to IV contrast during a CT exam of the kidneys. While shellfish allergies can cause allergic reactions, they are not directly related to the administration of IV contrast. The other options, pheochromocytoma, acute sickle cell anemia, and prior major reaction to contrast, can all be contraindications for IV contrast due to potential risks and complications associated with these conditions.

17. Prior to a CT colongraphy, the patient may undrgo a process of bowel cleansing termed:

Purgation

Hydration

Catharsis

Fasting

Catharsis is the correct answer because prior to a CT colongraphy, the patient needs to undergo a process of bowel cleansing. Catharsis refers to the process of emptying the bowels through the use of laxatives or other methods to ensure that the colon is clean and free of any fecal matter or debris. This is necessary for accurate imaging and diagnosis during the CT colongraphy procedure.

Explanation

Catharsis is the correct answer because prior to a CT colongraphy, the patient needs to undergo a process of bowel cleansing. Catharsis refers to the process of emptying the bowels through the use of laxatives or other methods to ensure that the colon is clean and free of any fecal matter or debris. This is necessary for accurate imaging and diagnosis during the CT colongraphy procedure.

18. Which of the following terms is used to describe a fibroid tumor of the uterus?

Leiomyoma

Cystic teratoma

Endometriosis

Corpus luteum

identified on CT examination as a bulky

Explanation

identified on CT examination as a bulky

19. The stanford type A desecting aneurysm affects which portion of the aorta?

Ascending thoracic(arota)

Descending thoracic(arota)

Abdominal

Bifurcation

Stanford type B dissecting aneurysms affect the descending aorta

Explanation

Stanford type B dissecting aneurysms affect the descending aorta

20. CT image of the abdomen should be acquired with the PT

At full inspiration

Breathing quietly

At full expiration

Breathing normally

The CT image of the abdomen should be acquired at full expiration because this allows for better visualization of the abdominal organs and structures. When a person exhales fully, the diaphragm moves upward, pushing the abdominal organs closer to the chest. This results in better contrast and detail in the image, as there is less overlap of the organs. Additionally, acquiring the image at full expiration helps to reduce motion artifacts, as the patient is more likely to remain still during exhalation.

Explanation

The CT image of the abdomen should be acquired at full expiration because this allows for better visualization of the abdominal organs and structures. When a person exhales fully, the diaphragm moves upward, pushing the abdominal organs closer to the chest. This results in better contrast and detail in the image, as there is less overlap of the organs. Additionally, acquiring the image at full expiration helps to reduce motion artifacts, as the patient is more likely to remain still during exhalation.

21. Which of the follwoing sets of section width and spacing would be most suitable for a general survey CT oe neck?

0.75 mm thick every 0.75 mm

3 mm thick every 5 mm

3 mm thick every 3 mm

10 mm thick every 10 mm

A general survey CT of the neck requires high-resolution imaging to capture detailed structures. The set of section width and spacing that would be most suitable for this purpose is 3 mm thick every 3 mm. This means that each section will have a thickness of 3 mm and there will be no gaps larger than 3 mm between each section. This allows for a comprehensive and detailed examination of the neck area, ensuring that no important structures or abnormalities are missed.

Explanation

A general survey CT of the neck requires high-resolution imaging to capture detailed structures. The set of section width and spacing that would be most suitable for this purpose is 3 mm thick every 3 mm. This means that each section will have a thickness of 3 mm and there will be no gaps larger than 3 mm between each section. This allows for a comprehensive and detailed examination of the neck area, ensuring that no important structures or abnormalities are missed.

22. Which of the following pathologic processes may be considered an interstitial disease of the lung?

Bronchiectasis

Mediastinal lymphadenopathy

Pulmonary metastasis

Bronchogenic carcinoma

example interstitial diseases are bronchiectasis, emphysema, asbestosis, and sarcoidosis

Explanation

example interstitial diseases are bronchiectasis, emphysema, asbestosis, and sarcoidosis

23. Bowel obstruction due to loss of normal contractile motion in an area of intestine is termed:

Dyspepsia

Intussusception

Ileus

Adhesion

Ileus refers to a condition where there is a loss of normal contractile motion in a section of the intestine, leading to a bowel obstruction. This can occur due to various reasons such as inflammation, surgery, or medication side effects. Dyspepsia refers to indigestion or discomfort in the upper abdomen. Intussusception is a condition where one part of the intestine slides into another part, causing a blockage. Adhesion refers to the formation of scar tissue that can cause organs or tissues to stick together. Therefore, the correct answer is ileus.

Explanation

Ileus refers to a condition where there is a loss of normal contractile motion in a section of the intestine, leading to a bowel obstruction. This can occur due to various reasons such as inflammation, surgery, or medication side effects. Dyspepsia refers to indigestion or discomfort in the upper abdomen. Intussusception is a condition where one part of the intestine slides into another part, causing a blockage. Adhesion refers to the formation of scar tissue that can cause organs or tissues to stick together. Therefore, the correct answer is ileus.

24. Which of the following is a common complication during CT guided biopsy of the lung

Pulmonary embolism

Aspiration

Pneumoconiosis

Pnuemothorax

During a CT guided biopsy of the lung, a common complication is the development of a pneumothorax. A pneumothorax occurs when air leaks into the space between the lung and the chest wall, causing the lung to collapse partially or completely. This can happen when the needle used during the biopsy accidentally punctures the lung tissue. Pneumothorax can cause symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, and decreased oxygen levels. Prompt medical intervention is necessary to treat and manage this complication.

Explanation

During a CT guided biopsy of the lung, a common complication is the development of a pneumothorax. A pneumothorax occurs when air leaks into the space between the lung and the chest wall, causing the lung to collapse partially or completely. This can happen when the needle used during the biopsy accidentally punctures the lung tissue. Pneumothorax can cause symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, and decreased oxygen levels. Prompt medical intervention is necessary to treat and manage this complication.

25. The still viable ischemic cerebral tissue that surrounds the infarct core in a patient with an acute stroke is termed the :

Thrombolytic zone

Hemorrhage focus

Ischemic penumbra

Strocke volume

The term "ischemic penumbra" refers to the still viable ischemic cerebral tissue that surrounds the infarct core in a patient with an acute stroke. This area is at risk of becoming infarcted if blood flow is not restored promptly. It is important to identify and treat the ischemic penumbra in order to prevent further damage and improve patient outcomes.

Explanation

The term "ischemic penumbra" refers to the still viable ischemic cerebral tissue that surrounds the infarct core in a patient with an acute stroke. This area is at risk of becoming infarcted if blood flow is not restored promptly. It is important to identify and treat the ischemic penumbra in order to prevent further damage and improve patient outcomes.

26. Which of the following types of CT scanners is the best suited for the evaluation of the coronary artery disseas

Spiral

Fourth generation

Ultrafast

Third generation

The ultrafast CT scanner is the best suited for the evaluation of coronary artery disease because it can capture images of the heart in a very short amount of time, typically within a single heartbeat. This allows for detailed imaging of the coronary arteries, which are small and constantly moving, without the need for invasive procedures. The speed of the ultrafast CT scanner reduces motion artifacts and provides high-resolution images, making it an ideal choice for evaluating the presence and severity of coronary artery disease.

Explanation

The ultrafast CT scanner is the best suited for the evaluation of coronary artery disease because it can capture images of the heart in a very short amount of time, typically within a single heartbeat. This allows for detailed imaging of the coronary arteries, which are small and constantly moving, without the need for invasive procedures. The speed of the ultrafast CT scanner reduces motion artifacts and provides high-resolution images, making it an ideal choice for evaluating the presence and severity of coronary artery disease.

27. The average density of a mass within the kidney measures 75 HU. The mass is most likely

Cyst

Lipoma

Stone

Hydrocele

Lipoma has the consistency of fat and fat is 50 to 100 HU

Explanation

Lipoma has the consistency of fat and fat is 50 to 100 HU

28. To reduce peristalsis and distend the colon, __________ may be administered before a CT scan of the abd or pelvis

Diazepam

Glucagon

Prochlorperazine maleate

Bisacody

Glucagon may be administered before a CT scan of the abdomen or pelvis to reduce peristalsis and distend the colon. This is because glucagon is a hormone that relaxes the smooth muscles of the gastrointestinal tract, including the colon. By reducing peristalsis, the movement of the intestines is slowed down, allowing for better visualization of the abdominal and pelvic structures during the CT scan.

Explanation

Glucagon may be administered before a CT scan of the abdomen or pelvis to reduce peristalsis and distend the colon. This is because glucagon is a hormone that relaxes the smooth muscles of the gastrointestinal tract, including the colon. By reducing peristalsis, the movement of the intestines is slowed down, allowing for better visualization of the abdominal and pelvic structures during the CT scan.

29. An enterovesical fistula is an abnormal communication btw the bowel and the

Uterus

Bladder

Vagina

Umbilicus

An enterovesical fistula is an abnormal communication between the bowel and the bladder. This means that there is a passage or connection that has formed between these two organs, allowing the contents of the bowel to enter the bladder. This can lead to various symptoms such as urinary tract infections, urinary incontinence, and passage of gas or feces in the urine. Therefore, the correct answer is bladder.

Explanation

An enterovesical fistula is an abnormal communication between the bowel and the bladder. This means that there is a passage or connection that has formed between these two organs, allowing the contents of the bowel to enter the bladder. This can lead to various symptoms such as urinary tract infections, urinary incontinence, and passage of gas or feces in the urine. Therefore, the correct answer is bladder.

30. Surgical resection of the pancreas and duodenum for treatment of pancreatic carcinoma

ERCP

Cholecystectomy

Roux-en-Y anastomosis

Whipple procedure

The Whipple procedure is a surgical resection of the pancreas and duodenum commonly used to treat pancreatic carcinoma. It involves removing the head of the pancreas, the duodenum, a portion of the bile duct, and sometimes a portion of the stomach. The remaining organs are then reconnected to allow for normal digestion and bile flow. This procedure is considered the standard treatment for pancreatic carcinoma that is confined to the head of the pancreas and is performed to remove the tumor and prevent its spread.

Explanation

The Whipple procedure is a surgical resection of the pancreas and duodenum commonly used to treat pancreatic carcinoma. It involves removing the head of the pancreas, the duodenum, a portion of the bile duct, and sometimes a portion of the stomach. The remaining organs are then reconnected to allow for normal digestion and bile flow. This procedure is considered the standard treatment for pancreatic carcinoma that is confined to the head of the pancreas and is performed to remove the tumor and prevent its spread.

31. Which of the following types of contrast material may be used during CT evaluation of the pelvis
1. IV contrast
2. low density barium sulfate solution
3. oil based contrast

1 only

2 only

1 and 2

1, 2, and 3

During CT evaluation of the pelvis, both IV contrast and low density barium sulfate solution may be used as types of contrast material. IV contrast is a type of contrast material that is injected into the patient's vein, which helps to enhance the visibility of blood vessels, organs, and other structures in the pelvis. Low density barium sulfate solution is another type of contrast material that is ingested orally, and it helps to highlight the gastrointestinal tract and any abnormalities in the pelvis. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2.

Explanation

During CT evaluation of the pelvis, both IV contrast and low density barium sulfate solution may be used as types of contrast material. IV contrast is a type of contrast material that is injected into the patient's vein, which helps to enhance the visibility of blood vessels, organs, and other structures in the pelvis. Low density barium sulfate solution is another type of contrast material that is ingested orally, and it helps to highlight the gastrointestinal tract and any abnormalities in the pelvis. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2.

32. Which of the following may be included as part of a routin preparation for a general contrast-enhanced CT examination of the abdomen and pelvis?

Instructing the pt to take nothing by mouth for 4 hrs prior to exam

1200 mL of oral contrast agent administered 90 min. prior to exam

Having the patient drink 4 liters of polyethylene glycol (peg) 24 hrs prior to exam

A only

A and B

The correct answer is A and B. Instructing the patient to take nothing by mouth for 4 hours prior to the exam helps ensure that the stomach and intestines are empty, allowing for better visualization of the abdominal and pelvic structures. Administering 1200 mL of oral contrast agent 90 minutes before the exam helps to enhance the visibility of the gastrointestinal tract and any abnormalities within it. Therefore, both of these measures are commonly included as part of the routine preparation for a general contrast-enhanced CT examination of the abdomen and pelvis.

Explanation

The correct answer is A and B. Instructing the patient to take nothing by mouth for 4 hours prior to the exam helps ensure that the stomach and intestines are empty, allowing for better visualization of the abdominal and pelvic structures. Administering 1200 mL of oral contrast agent 90 minutes before the exam helps to enhance the visibility of the gastrointestinal tract and any abnormalities within it. Therefore, both of these measures are commonly included as part of the routine preparation for a general contrast-enhanced CT examination of the abdomen and pelvis.

33. The tird ventricle of the brain communicates with the fourth ventricle through the:

Anterior commissure

Septum pellucidum

Cerebral aqueduct

Fornix

The cerebral aqueduct is a narrow canal that connects the third ventricle of the brain to the fourth ventricle. It is located within the midbrain, specifically in the region called the mesencephalon. This canal allows for the passage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) between the two ventricles. CSF is a clear fluid that surrounds and protects the brain and spinal cord, and it plays a crucial role in maintaining the brain's homeostasis. Therefore, the cerebral aqueduct serves as a vital pathway for the circulation of CSF within the brain.

Explanation

The cerebral aqueduct is a narrow canal that connects the third ventricle of the brain to the fourth ventricle. It is located within the midbrain, specifically in the region called the mesencephalon. This canal allows for the passage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) between the two ventricles. CSF is a clear fluid that surrounds and protects the brain and spinal cord, and it plays a crucial role in maintaining the brain's homeostasis. Therefore, the cerebral aqueduct serves as a vital pathway for the circulation of CSF within the brain.

34.

Which letter corresponds to the inferior vena cava?

A

B

C

D

The letter "c" corresponds to the inferior vena cava. The inferior vena cava is a large vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the lower body to the right atrium of the heart.

Explanation

The letter "c" corresponds to the inferior vena cava. The inferior vena cava is a large vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the lower body to the right atrium of the heart.

35. During a spiral or helical CT examination, the scanner acquires data:

Continusly as the patient travels throught the gantry

One section at a time

In the form of a complete volumetric data set

A & B

A & C

During a spiral or helical CT examination, the scanner acquires data continuously as the patient travels through the gantry and in the form of a complete volumetric data set. This means that the scanner captures data in a continuous manner as the patient moves through the scanner, allowing for a more efficient and faster scanning process. Additionally, the scanner collects data in the form of a complete volumetric data set, which means that it captures images of the entire area being scanned, providing a comprehensive view of the anatomy.

Explanation

During a spiral or helical CT examination, the scanner acquires data continuously as the patient travels through the gantry and in the form of a complete volumetric data set. This means that the scanner captures data in a continuous manner as the patient moves through the scanner, allowing for a more efficient and faster scanning process. Additionally, the scanner collects data in the form of a complete volumetric data set, which means that it captures images of the entire area being scanned, providing a comprehensive view of the anatomy.

36. The epithelial lining of the urinary tract called the:

Omentum

Haustrum

Urothelium

Pyelocalyx

site of transitional cell carcinoma (TCC), common malignacy of the bladder, ureters, and kidneys

Explanation

site of transitional cell carcinoma (TCC), common malignacy of the bladder, ureters, and kidneys

37. The Lisfranc joint is the articulation between the:

Tarsals and metatarsals

Tarsals and lower leg

Metatarsals and phalanges

Metatarsals and tarsals

site complex fractures and dislocations of the foot

Explanation

site complex fractures and dislocations of the foot

38.

This image was aquired with localizers placed

Using the axial to place the localizers perpendicular to the supraspinatus tendon

Using the axial to place the localizers parallel to the supraspinatus tendon

The correct answer is using the axial to place the localizers parallel to the supraspinatus tendon. This means that the localizers were positioned in such a way that they align with the supraspinatus tendon in a parallel manner. This is important for accurate imaging and assessment of the supraspinatus tendon, as it allows for clear visualization and measurement of any abnormalities or pathology. Placing the localizers perpendicular to the supraspinatus tendon would not provide the same level of detail and accuracy in imaging.

Explanation

The correct answer is using the axial to place the localizers parallel to the supraspinatus tendon. This means that the localizers were positioned in such a way that they align with the supraspinatus tendon in a parallel manner. This is important for accurate imaging and assessment of the supraspinatus tendon, as it allows for clear visualization and measurement of any abnormalities or pathology. Placing the localizers perpendicular to the supraspinatus tendon would not provide the same level of detail and accuracy in imaging.

39. The condition of intermittent cramping pain in the legs due to poor circulation is called

Varices

Claudication

Stenosis

Thrombosis

Claudication is the correct answer because it refers to the condition of intermittent cramping pain in the legs caused by poor circulation. This pain typically occurs during physical activity and is relieved with rest. Varices, stenosis, and thrombosis are not specifically related to poor circulation and do not describe the symptoms mentioned in the question.

Explanation

Claudication is the correct answer because it refers to the condition of intermittent cramping pain in the legs caused by poor circulation. This pain typically occurs during physical activity and is relieved with rest. Varices, stenosis, and thrombosis are not specifically related to poor circulation and do not describe the symptoms mentioned in the question.

40. The volume and density of calcium measured in the coronary arteries on MDCT examination are quantified with use of a value called the:

Euler constant

Housfield number

Agatston score

Lambert-Beer value

The Agatston score is used to quantify the volume and density of calcium measured in the coronary arteries on MDCT examination. It is a value that helps assess the amount of calcified plaque in the arteries, which is an indicator of coronary artery disease. The score is calculated by multiplying the area of calcified plaque by a density factor derived from the peak Hounsfield units. Higher Agatston scores indicate a higher risk of cardiovascular events.

Explanation

The Agatston score is used to quantify the volume and density of calcium measured in the coronary arteries on MDCT examination. It is a value that helps assess the amount of calcified plaque in the arteries, which is an indicator of coronary artery disease. The score is calculated by multiplying the area of calcified plaque by a density factor derived from the peak Hounsfield units. Higher Agatston scores indicate a higher risk of cardiovascular events.

41. A focused, thin section axial CT acquisition through just the regionof the vocal cords should extend:

From external auditory to the mandible

From above the hyoid bone inferiorly through the cricoid cartilage

From the cricoid cartilage inferiorly through sternoclavicular joint

From hard palate inferiorly to the hyoid bone

The correct answer is from above the hyoid bone inferiorly through the cricoid cartilage. This is because the vocal cords are located in the larynx, which is situated between the hyoid bone and the cricoid cartilage. Therefore, a focused, thin section axial CT acquisition through just the region of the vocal cords should capture this specific area.

Explanation

The correct answer is from above the hyoid bone inferiorly through the cricoid cartilage. This is because the vocal cords are located in the larynx, which is situated between the hyoid bone and the cricoid cartilage. Therefore, a focused, thin section axial CT acquisition through just the region of the vocal cords should capture this specific area.

42. The prone position may be used for a postmyelogram CT examination of the lumbar spine in an effort to :

Reduce the lordotic curve

Decrease patient gonadal radiation dose

Reduce metrizamide pooling

Increase the lordotic curve

The prone position is used for a postmyelogram CT examination of the lumbar spine to reduce metrizamide pooling. Metrizamide is a contrast agent that is injected into the spinal canal during a myelogram to help visualize the spinal cord and nerves. When the patient is in the prone position, gravity helps to distribute the metrizamide more evenly throughout the spinal canal, reducing the pooling of the contrast agent in certain areas. This allows for better visualization of the entire lumbar spine during the CT examination.

Explanation

The prone position is used for a postmyelogram CT examination of the lumbar spine to reduce metrizamide pooling. Metrizamide is a contrast agent that is injected into the spinal canal during a myelogram to help visualize the spinal cord and nerves. When the patient is in the prone position, gravity helps to distribute the metrizamide more evenly throughout the spinal canal, reducing the pooling of the contrast agent in certain areas. This allows for better visualization of the entire lumbar spine during the CT examination.

43. Delayed post-contrast acquistion of the lower extremities following a CTA of the pulmonary arteries is termed:

CT venography

CT perfusion

Femoral CTA

Iliac CTA

After the CTPA acquisition, a delay of 2 to 3 minutes is employed, and an acquisition is made from iliac crest to ankles CT venography (CTV)

Explanation

After the CTPA acquisition, a delay of 2 to 3 minutes is employed, and an acquisition is made from iliac crest to ankles CT venography (CTV)

44. Pixels vs Resolution

(Pixel width) ( Slice) / Pixel Ht = Resolution

(Pixel ht) (Pixel Width) (Slice) = Resolution

(Pixel Ht) (Slice) / (Pixel Width)= Resolution

Slice / (pixel ht) (Pixel Width) = Resolution

The formula (Pixel ht) (Pixel Width) (Slice) = Resolution is the correct answer because it correctly calculates the resolution by multiplying the pixel height, pixel width, and slice. This formula takes into account all three variables to determine the resolution, which is the total number of pixels in an image or display.

Explanation

The formula (Pixel ht) (Pixel Width) (Slice) = Resolution is the correct answer because it correctly calculates the resolution by multiplying the pixel height, pixel width, and slice. This formula takes into account all three variables to determine the resolution, which is the total number of pixels in an image or display.

45. Which of the following terms describes the appearance of a acute subdural hematoma on a CT image

Radiolucent

Hyperdense

Hypodense

Isodense

A hyperdense appearance on a CT image refers to an area that appears brighter or denser than the surrounding tissues. In the context of an acute subdural hematoma, this means that the blood clot is more opaque and stands out prominently on the CT scan. This is due to the high density of blood compared to the brain tissue.

Explanation

A hyperdense appearance on a CT image refers to an area that appears brighter or denser than the surrounding tissues. In the context of an acute subdural hematoma, this means that the blood clot is more opaque and stands out prominently on the CT scan. This is due to the high density of blood compared to the brain tissue.

46. The average density of a mass within the kidney measure -75 Hounsfield units (HU). the mass is most likely a:

Cyst

Lipoma

Stone

Hydrocele

fat is -50 to -100

Explanation

fat is -50 to -100

47. Arterial phase CT imaging of the liver is used to optimally demonstrate which of the following?

Fatty inflitration

Hepatic cysts

Portal vein thrombosis

Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)

HCC hypervascular lesions that appear hyperdense

Explanation

HCC hypervascular lesions that appear hyperdense

48. The accumulation of gas within a degenerating intervertebral dis is called

Aeration effect

Vacuum phenomenon

Oxygen saturation point

Carbonization sign

The correct answer is "vacuum phenomenon." The accumulation of gas within a degenerating intervertebral disc is known as the vacuum phenomenon. This occurs when the disc degenerates and gas, primarily nitrogen, enters the disc space. The gas accumulates and forms a vacuum, which can be seen on imaging studies such as X-rays or MRI scans. The vacuum phenomenon is often associated with disc degeneration and can be a sign of disc herniation or other spinal conditions.

Explanation

The correct answer is "vacuum phenomenon." The accumulation of gas within a degenerating intervertebral disc is known as the vacuum phenomenon. This occurs when the disc degenerates and gas, primarily nitrogen, enters the disc space. The gas accumulates and forms a vacuum, which can be seen on imaging studies such as X-rays or MRI scans. The vacuum phenomenon is often associated with disc degeneration and can be a sign of disc herniation or other spinal conditions.

49. Which of the following anatomic organs is located within the peritoneal cavity?

Pancrease

Kidneys

Uterus

Liver

contains stomach, liver, gallbladder, spleen, ovaries, transverse colon, and most of small bowel

Explanation

contains stomach, liver, gallbladder, spleen, ovaries, transverse colon, and most of small bowel

50. Complete CT examinations of the chest for investigation of bronchogenic carcinoma should include sections from the:

Mandible through the liver

Apices to the diaphragm

Top of the apices through the liver

Clavicles through the adrenals

A complete CT examination of the chest for investigation of bronchogenic carcinoma should include sections from the top of the apices through the liver. This is because bronchogenic carcinoma primarily affects the lungs, and therefore it is important to include the entire lung field in the imaging. The apices are the uppermost part of the lungs, and including them in the scan ensures that any abnormalities in that area can be detected. The liver is included in the scan because it is a common site for metastasis of bronchogenic carcinoma.

Explanation

A complete CT examination of the chest for investigation of bronchogenic carcinoma should include sections from the top of the apices through the liver. This is because bronchogenic carcinoma primarily affects the lungs, and therefore it is important to include the entire lung field in the imaging. The apices are the uppermost part of the lungs, and including them in the scan ensures that any abnormalities in that area can be detected. The liver is included in the scan because it is a common site for metastasis of bronchogenic carcinoma.

51. After initiation of rapid bolus administration of iodinated contrast material, the pancreatic phase of contrast enhancement occurs at approximatly

15-25 sec

35-45 sec

60-70 sec

120-180 sec

The pancreatic phase of contrast enhancement occurs approximately 35-45 seconds after the initiation of rapid bolus administration of iodinated contrast material. This means that during this time frame, the contrast material reaches and enhances the pancreatic tissue, allowing for better visualization and assessment of the pancreas during imaging studies such as computed tomography (CT) scans.

Explanation

The pancreatic phase of contrast enhancement occurs approximately 35-45 seconds after the initiation of rapid bolus administration of iodinated contrast material. This means that during this time frame, the contrast material reaches and enhances the pancreatic tissue, allowing for better visualization and assessment of the pancreas during imaging studies such as computed tomography (CT) scans.

52. Often evaluated during body CTA examinations, the branches of the celiac axis are the:

Left gastric artery

Common hepatic artery

Splenic artery

B and c

A,b, and c

The branches of the celiac axis that are often evaluated during body CTA examinations include the left gastric artery, common hepatic artery, and splenic artery. These arteries are important in supplying blood to various organs in the abdominal region.

Explanation

The branches of the celiac axis that are often evaluated during body CTA examinations include the left gastric artery, common hepatic artery, and splenic artery. These arteries are important in supplying blood to various organs in the abdominal region.

53. Quantitative CT is a specialized technique used most often for the diagnosis of

Lymphoma

Osteoporosis

Renal cyst

Hemangioma

Quantitative is used for the mineral content of the bone

Explanation

Quantitative is used for the mineral content of the bone

54. After the IV administration of contrast, a hepatic hemangioma my become __________ and no longer appear on the CT image.

Hypodense

Radiolucent

Isodense

Hyperdense

After the IV administration of contrast, a hepatic hemangioma may become isodense and no longer appear on the CT image. This means that the hemangioma will have the same density as the surrounding liver tissue, making it difficult to distinguish on the CT scan. Contrast agents enhance the blood vessels and surrounding tissues, causing the previously hypodense hemangioma to become isodense, blending in with the rest of the liver.

Explanation

After the IV administration of contrast, a hepatic hemangioma may become isodense and no longer appear on the CT image. This means that the hemangioma will have the same density as the surrounding liver tissue, making it difficult to distinguish on the CT scan. Contrast agents enhance the blood vessels and surrounding tissues, causing the previously hypodense hemangioma to become isodense, blending in with the rest of the liver.

55. Certain ultrasound machines are capable of Doppler Ultrasound, a special ultrasound technique that evaluates blood flow through a blood vessel, including the patient's major arteries and veins. Which of the following is NOT a type of Doppler Ultrasound?

Color Doppler

Phase Doppler

Power Doppler

Spectral Doppler

Phase Doppler is not a type of Doppler Ultrasound. Doppler ultrasound is used to evaluate blood flow through blood vessels by measuring the frequency shift of sound waves reflected off moving blood cells. Color Doppler, Power Doppler, and Spectral Doppler are all types of Doppler Ultrasound that provide different information about blood flow. Color Doppler displays blood flow in color, Power Doppler detects even low-velocity blood flow, and Spectral Doppler analyzes the velocity and direction of blood flow. However, Phase Doppler is not a recognized type of Doppler Ultrasound.

Explanation

Phase Doppler is not a type of Doppler Ultrasound. Doppler ultrasound is used to evaluate blood flow through blood vessels by measuring the frequency shift of sound waves reflected off moving blood cells. Color Doppler, Power Doppler, and Spectral Doppler are all types of Doppler Ultrasound that provide different information about blood flow. Color Doppler displays blood flow in color, Power Doppler detects even low-velocity blood flow, and Spectral Doppler analyzes the velocity and direction of blood flow. However, Phase Doppler is not a recognized type of Doppler Ultrasound.

56. Diffuse fatty inflitration of the hepatic parenchyma may be referred to as:

Chromatosis

Steatosis

Cirrhosis

Lipomatosis

Steatosis refers to the diffuse fatty infiltration of the liver parenchyma. It is a condition characterized by the accumulation of fat within the liver cells. This can occur due to various factors such as obesity, alcohol abuse, diabetes, and certain medications. Steatosis is considered an early stage of liver disease and if left untreated, it can progress to more severe conditions such as cirrhosis. Lipomatosis refers to the abnormal accumulation of fat in non-adipose tissues, while chromatosis and cirrhosis are not specifically related to fatty infiltration of the liver.

Explanation

Steatosis refers to the diffuse fatty infiltration of the liver parenchyma. It is a condition characterized by the accumulation of fat within the liver cells. This can occur due to various factors such as obesity, alcohol abuse, diabetes, and certain medications. Steatosis is considered an early stage of liver disease and if left untreated, it can progress to more severe conditions such as cirrhosis. Lipomatosis refers to the abnormal accumulation of fat in non-adipose tissues, while chromatosis and cirrhosis are not specifically related to fatty infiltration of the liver.

57. The imaging plane that is parallel to the foot's plantar surface is called

Coronal plane

Sagittal plane

Axial plane

Oblique axial plane

The axial plane is the correct answer because it refers to an imaging plane that is parallel to the foot's plantar surface. This plane divides the body into superior and inferior portions, making it ideal for visualizing structures in the foot from a side view. The coronal plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions, the sagittal plane divides it into left and right portions, and the oblique axial plane is not a recognized term in anatomy.

Explanation

The axial plane is the correct answer because it refers to an imaging plane that is parallel to the foot's plantar surface. This plane divides the body into superior and inferior portions, making it ideal for visualizing structures in the foot from a side view. The coronal plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions, the sagittal plane divides it into left and right portions, and the oblique axial plane is not a recognized term in anatomy.

58. Which of the following contrast media may be utilized during the CT evaluation of the gastrointestinal tract?

Diatrizoate meglumine (Gastrografin)

Effervescent agents

Iopamidol (Isovue)

A and c

A,b,and c

Diatrizoate meglumine (Gastrografin), effervescent agents, and iopamidol (Isovue) may all be utilized as contrast media during the CT evaluation of the gastrointestinal tract.

Explanation

Diatrizoate meglumine (Gastrografin), effervescent agents, and iopamidol (Isovue) may all be utilized as contrast media during the CT evaluation of the gastrointestinal tract.

59. During HRCT of the lungs, edematous changes in the posterior lungs may be differentiated by positioning of the patient in th e---------postion

Left lateral decub

Right lateral decub

Supine

Prone

edematous changes often seen in the lung bases

Explanation

edematous changes often seen in the lung bases

60. When choosing a window to display a CT image, the width defines the

Midpoint of the range of pixels displayed

Range of CT numbers to be displayed

Range of pixel values included in a ROI

Average CT number of the tissue on interest

The width of a window in displaying a CT image refers to the range of CT numbers that will be displayed. The CT numbers represent the density or attenuation of the tissues in the image. By adjusting the width, the user can control the range of CT numbers that are visible, allowing for better visualization of specific tissues or structures.

Explanation

The width of a window in displaying a CT image refers to the range of CT numbers that will be displayed. The CT numbers represent the density or attenuation of the tissues in the image. By adjusting the width, the user can control the range of CT numbers that are visible, allowing for better visualization of specific tissues or structures.

61. During CT perfusion studies, the quantity of blood (in mL) that moves through 100 g of tissue each minute is termed the:

Mean transit time (MTT)

Cerebral blood flow (CBF)

Cerebral blood volum (CBV)

Percentage washout value (PWV)

During CT perfusion studies, the quantity of blood that moves through 100 g of tissue each minute is termed cerebral blood flow (CBF). This measurement is important in assessing the perfusion of blood to the brain and can provide valuable information about the health and function of brain tissue. By measuring the CBF, doctors can identify areas of reduced blood flow, which may indicate ischemia or other vascular abnormalities. This information can help guide treatment decisions and monitor the effectiveness of interventions aimed at improving blood flow to the brain.

Explanation

During CT perfusion studies, the quantity of blood that moves through 100 g of tissue each minute is termed cerebral blood flow (CBF). This measurement is important in assessing the perfusion of blood to the brain and can provide valuable information about the health and function of brain tissue. By measuring the CBF, doctors can identify areas of reduced blood flow, which may indicate ischemia or other vascular abnormalities. This information can help guide treatment decisions and monitor the effectiveness of interventions aimed at improving blood flow to the brain.

62. Owing to its excessive density, barium sulfate may be used in CT exams only suspensions with concentrations of

1-3% barium sulfate

5-7% barium sulfate

10-13% barium sulfate

25-30% barium sulfate

Barium sulfate is commonly used as a contrast agent in CT exams to enhance the visibility of certain organs and tissues. However, using a high concentration of barium sulfate can lead to complications such as barium sulfate precipitates and increased radiation dose. Therefore, the correct concentration range for barium sulfate suspensions in CT exams is 1-3%, which provides sufficient contrast without causing any adverse effects.

Explanation

Barium sulfate is commonly used as a contrast agent in CT exams to enhance the visibility of certain organs and tissues. However, using a high concentration of barium sulfate can lead to complications such as barium sulfate precipitates and increased radiation dose. Therefore, the correct concentration range for barium sulfate suspensions in CT exams is 1-3%, which provides sufficient contrast without causing any adverse effects.

63. The intensity of the CT x ray beam can be increased by

Increasing filtration

Decreasing collimation

Decreasing applied tube voltage

Increasing collimation

Decreasing collimation refers to narrowing the X-ray beam, which results in a higher intensity of the beam. This is because when the collimation is decreased, the X-ray beam is focused on a smaller area, concentrating the energy and increasing the intensity. Therefore, decreasing collimation is a way to increase the intensity of the CT X-ray beam.

Explanation

Decreasing collimation refers to narrowing the X-ray beam, which results in a higher intensity of the beam. This is because when the collimation is decreased, the X-ray beam is focused on a smaller area, concentrating the energy and increasing the intensity. Therefore, decreasing collimation is a way to increase the intensity of the CT X-ray beam.

64. After initiation of rapid bolus administration of an iodinated contrast agent, the arterial phase of hepatic contrast enhancement occurs at aproximately:

15-20 sec

25-35 sec

60-70 sec

120-180 sec

After the rapid bolus administration of an iodinated contrast agent, the arterial phase of hepatic contrast enhancement occurs at approximately 25-35 seconds. This is because the contrast agent quickly enters the bloodstream and is rapidly distributed to the liver via the hepatic artery. The arterial phase is characterized by intense enhancement of the hepatic vasculature, allowing for better visualization of the arterial supply to the liver.

Explanation

After the rapid bolus administration of an iodinated contrast agent, the arterial phase of hepatic contrast enhancement occurs at approximately 25-35 seconds. This is because the contrast agent quickly enters the bloodstream and is rapidly distributed to the liver via the hepatic artery. The arterial phase is characterized by intense enhancement of the hepatic vasculature, allowing for better visualization of the arterial supply to the liver.

65. An enema is indicated prior to a CT examination of the pelvis to administer postitive contrast material into the large bowel. Which of the following dosages would be sufficient to opacify the rectosigmoid region?

150-250 ml

300-500 ml

500-750 ml

900-1100 ml

An enema is a procedure used to introduce contrast material into the large bowel for imaging purposes. In this case, the enema is being done prior to a CT examination of the pelvis to opacify the rectosigmoid region. The correct dosage range for opacifying the rectosigmoid region is 150-250 ml. This amount of contrast material is sufficient to provide clear imaging of the area without causing excessive distention or discomfort to the patient.

Explanation

An enema is a procedure used to introduce contrast material into the large bowel for imaging purposes. In this case, the enema is being done prior to a CT examination of the pelvis to opacify the rectosigmoid region. The correct dosage range for opacifying the rectosigmoid region is 150-250 ml. This amount of contrast material is sufficient to provide clear imaging of the area without causing excessive distention or discomfort to the patient.

66. MPR and volume-rendered 3D images for a carotid artery CTA may be improved by

Reducing kvp for increase in displayed vessel opacification and contrast

Retrospective reconstructions with a 50% overlap

Bolus-tracking software to maximize contrast enhancement

A and c

A,b,and c

The correct answer is a, b, and c. MPR and volume-rendered 3D images for a carotid artery CTA can be improved by reducing kvp for an increase in displayed vessel opacification and contrast. This means that by reducing the kvp, the images will have better visibility of the blood vessels. Retrospective reconstructions with a 50% overlap can also improve the images. This means that by reconstructing the images with a 50% overlap, more information can be captured and displayed. Finally, using bolus-tracking software can maximize contrast enhancement. This means that by using this software, the contrast between different structures in the images can be enhanced, leading to better visualization.

Explanation

The correct answer is a, b, and c. MPR and volume-rendered 3D images for a carotid artery CTA can be improved by reducing kvp for an increase in displayed vessel opacification and contrast. This means that by reducing the kvp, the images will have better visibility of the blood vessels. Retrospective reconstructions with a 50% overlap can also improve the images. This means that by reconstructing the images with a 50% overlap, more information can be captured and displayed. Finally, using bolus-tracking software can maximize contrast enhancement. This means that by using this software, the contrast between different structures in the images can be enhanced, leading to better visualization.

67. The presence of outpocketings in the wall of the colon is referred to as

Intussusception

Diverticulitis

Polyps

Diverticulosis

Diverticulosis refers to the presence of outpocketings in the wall of the colon. These outpocketings are called diverticula. Diverticulosis is a common condition, especially in older adults. It is usually asymptomatic and does not cause any problems. However, if the diverticula become inflamed or infected, it can lead to diverticulitis. Intussusception refers to the telescoping of one part of the intestine into another, while polyps are abnormal growths that can develop in the colon. Therefore, the correct answer is Diverticulosis.

Explanation

Diverticulosis refers to the presence of outpocketings in the wall of the colon. These outpocketings are called diverticula. Diverticulosis is a common condition, especially in older adults. It is usually asymptomatic and does not cause any problems. However, if the diverticula become inflamed or infected, it can lead to diverticulitis. Intussusception refers to the telescoping of one part of the intestine into another, while polyps are abnormal growths that can develop in the colon. Therefore, the correct answer is Diverticulosis.

68. A specialized CT examination involving the administration of an enteral contrast agent directly into the small bowel via nasogastric tube is called

CT enteroclysis

CT colonography

CT enterography

CT colonoscopy

CT enteroclysis is a specialized CT examination that involves the administration of an enteral contrast agent directly into the small bowel via a nasogastric tube. This procedure allows for detailed imaging of the small intestine and helps to diagnose conditions such as Crohn's disease, tumors, and obstructions. CT colonography, on the other hand, is a technique used to visualize the colon and rectum, while CT enterography is a similar procedure that focuses on imaging the small intestine. CT colonoscopy involves the use of a flexible tube to examine the colon.

Explanation

CT enteroclysis is a specialized CT examination that involves the administration of an enteral contrast agent directly into the small bowel via a nasogastric tube. This procedure allows for detailed imaging of the small intestine and helps to diagnose conditions such as Crohn's disease, tumors, and obstructions. CT colonography, on the other hand, is a technique used to visualize the colon and rectum, while CT enterography is a similar procedure that focuses on imaging the small intestine. CT colonoscopy involves the use of a flexible tube to examine the colon.

69.

The letter d represents the

Deltoid insertion

Supraspinatus tendon

Rotator cuff

Humeral head

The correct answer is Supraspinatus tendon. The letter "d" represents the supraspinatus tendon, which is one of the four tendons that make up the rotator cuff in the shoulder. The supraspinatus tendon attaches the supraspinatus muscle to the humerus bone and plays a crucial role in shoulder stability and movement.

Explanation

The correct answer is Supraspinatus tendon. The letter "d" represents the supraspinatus tendon, which is one of the four tendons that make up the rotator cuff in the shoulder. The supraspinatus tendon attaches the supraspinatus muscle to the humerus bone and plays a crucial role in shoulder stability and movement.

70. Phase and frequency vs resolution

(Phase step/FOV) (Freq step/FOV) (Sl) = mm3

(PE/FOV/Fr E /FOV)/ Sl = mm3

(FOV/PE) (FOV/FrE) (Sl) = mm3

Sl/ (FOV/PE)(FOV/FrE)= mm3

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

71. Which on the following are reasons for IV contrast to be administered during CT evaluation of the pelvis.
1 Distension and contrast enhancement of the bladder
2 Visualization of the rectosigmoid junction
3 Diferentiation of blood vessels and pelvic lymph nodes

1 only

1 and 2

1 and 3

1, 2, and 3

The correct answer is 1 and 3. The administration of IV contrast during CT evaluation of the pelvis is necessary for two main reasons. Firstly, it helps in the distension and contrast enhancement of the bladder, which allows for better visualization and assessment of the bladder wall and any abnormalities present. Secondly, IV contrast aids in the differentiation of blood vessels and pelvic lymph nodes, making it easier to identify and evaluate any abnormalities or pathology in these structures. Therefore, the administration of IV contrast is important for these two reasons during CT evaluation of the pelvis.

Explanation

The correct answer is 1 and 3. The administration of IV contrast during CT evaluation of the pelvis is necessary for two main reasons. Firstly, it helps in the distension and contrast enhancement of the bladder, which allows for better visualization and assessment of the bladder wall and any abnormalities present. Secondly, IV contrast aids in the differentiation of blood vessels and pelvic lymph nodes, making it easier to identify and evaluate any abnormalities or pathology in these structures. Therefore, the administration of IV contrast is important for these two reasons during CT evaluation of the pelvis.

72. Coronary artery calcium (CAC) quantitation by MDCT exam is used primarily to assess:

Aortic aneurysm

Atherosclerotic disease

Coronary artery stenosis

Ejection fraction

MDCT exam is a diagnostic tool used to measure the amount of calcium in the coronary arteries. The presence of calcium in the coronary arteries indicates the presence of atherosclerosis, which is the buildup of plaque in the arteries. Therefore, the primary purpose of CAC quantitation by MDCT exam is to assess atherosclerotic disease. This test helps in identifying individuals at risk for coronary artery disease and allows for early intervention and treatment.

Explanation

MDCT exam is a diagnostic tool used to measure the amount of calcium in the coronary arteries. The presence of calcium in the coronary arteries indicates the presence of atherosclerosis, which is the buildup of plaque in the arteries. Therefore, the primary purpose of CAC quantitation by MDCT exam is to assess atherosclerotic disease. This test helps in identifying individuals at risk for coronary artery disease and allows for early intervention and treatment.

73. At what percentage of overlap should CT sections be reconstructed to improve the quality of multiplannar reformation (MPR) images?

10%

25%

50%

100%

CT sections should be reconstructed with a 50% overlap to improve the quality of multiplanar reformation (MPR) images. This percentage of overlap ensures that there is enough information from adjacent sections to accurately reconstruct the images in different planes. With a 50% overlap, the MPR images will have better resolution, reduced artifacts, and improved visualization of anatomical structures compared to lower percentages of overlap.

Explanation

CT sections should be reconstructed with a 50% overlap to improve the quality of multiplanar reformation (MPR) images. This percentage of overlap ensures that there is enough information from adjacent sections to accurately reconstruct the images in different planes. With a 50% overlap, the MPR images will have better resolution, reduced artifacts, and improved visualization of anatomical structures compared to lower percentages of overlap.

74. The firm, outer portion of each intervertebral disc is called the:

Nucleus pulposus

Nucleus prepositus

Anulus fibrosus

Anulus stapedius

The correct answer is anulus fibrosus. The anulus fibrosus refers to the firm, outer portion of each intervertebral disc. It is made up of tough, fibrous cartilage that surrounds the nucleus pulposus, the inner gel-like substance of the disc. The anulus fibrosus provides support and stability to the disc, preventing the nucleus pulposus from bulging out or herniating.

Explanation

The correct answer is anulus fibrosus. The anulus fibrosus refers to the firm, outer portion of each intervertebral disc. It is made up of tough, fibrous cartilage that surrounds the nucleus pulposus, the inner gel-like substance of the disc. The anulus fibrosus provides support and stability to the disc, preventing the nucleus pulposus from bulging out or herniating.

75. Vital components of a CT urogram (CT-IVP) protocol include:

1200 to1500 ml of a positive oral contrast agent 90 min rior to examination

Thin section excretory phase imaging of the entire urinary tract

Volume-rendered 3D and maximum intensity projection (MIP) imaging of the urinary tract

B and c

A , b, and c

The correct answer is "b and c". This means that the vital components of a CT urogram (CT-IVP) protocol include thin section excretory phase imaging of the entire urinary tract, as well as volume-rendered 3D and maximum intensity projection (MIP) imaging of the urinary tract. The answer excludes the option of 1200 to 1500 ml of a positive oral contrast agent 90 min prior to the examination, indicating that this is not a vital component of the protocol.

Explanation

The correct answer is "b and c". This means that the vital components of a CT urogram (CT-IVP) protocol include thin section excretory phase imaging of the entire urinary tract, as well as volume-rendered 3D and maximum intensity projection (MIP) imaging of the urinary tract. The answer excludes the option of 1200 to 1500 ml of a positive oral contrast agent 90 min prior to the examination, indicating that this is not a vital component of the protocol.

76.

The highlighted area represents

Deltoid muscle

Supraspinatus tendon

Infraspinatus

Posterior labrum

The highlighted area represents the infraspinatus muscle. The infraspinatus muscle is one of the four muscles that make up the rotator cuff in the shoulder. It is located on the posterior aspect of the scapula and helps to externally rotate and stabilize the shoulder joint. The supraspinatus tendon is located above the infraspinatus muscle and helps to initiate abduction of the arm. The deltoid muscle is a large muscle that covers the shoulder joint and is responsible for various movements of the arm. The posterior labrum is a cartilaginous structure that helps to deepen the socket of the shoulder joint.

Explanation

The highlighted area represents the infraspinatus muscle. The infraspinatus muscle is one of the four muscles that make up the rotator cuff in the shoulder. It is located on the posterior aspect of the scapula and helps to externally rotate and stabilize the shoulder joint. The supraspinatus tendon is located above the infraspinatus muscle and helps to initiate abduction of the arm. The deltoid muscle is a large muscle that covers the shoulder joint and is responsible for various movements of the arm. The posterior labrum is a cartilaginous structure that helps to deepen the socket of the shoulder joint.

77. The abdominal aorta bifurcates at the level of

T10

T12

L2

L4

The correct answer is L4 because the abdominal aorta bifurcates into the left and right common iliac arteries at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra (L4). This is an important anatomical landmark as it marks the transition from the abdominal aorta to the lower extremities.

Explanation

The correct answer is L4 because the abdominal aorta bifurcates into the left and right common iliac arteries at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra (L4). This is an important anatomical landmark as it marks the transition from the abdominal aorta to the lower extremities.

78. Simple cysts of the kidney have average attenuation values in the range of

-40 to 0 HU

0 to 20 HU

30 to 50 HU

Above 60 HU

Simple cysts of the kidney typically have average attenuation values in the range of 0 to 20 HU. Attenuation values are measurements of how much the X-ray beam is weakened as it passes through different tissues. Simple cysts are fluid-filled sacs that are usually benign and do not cause any symptoms. They appear as low-density areas on CT scans, meaning they allow more X-ray beams to pass through them and have lower attenuation values. Therefore, the correct answer is 0 to 20 HU.

Explanation

Simple cysts of the kidney typically have average attenuation values in the range of 0 to 20 HU. Attenuation values are measurements of how much the X-ray beam is weakened as it passes through different tissues. Simple cysts are fluid-filled sacs that are usually benign and do not cause any symptoms. They appear as low-density areas on CT scans, meaning they allow more X-ray beams to pass through them and have lower attenuation values. Therefore, the correct answer is 0 to 20 HU.

79. Which of the following areas of the head commonly become calcified
1 Thalamus
2 pineal gland
3 choroid plexus

2 only

1 and 3

2 and 3

1, 2, and 3

The pineal gland and the choroid plexus commonly become calcified in the head. The pineal gland is a small endocrine gland located in the brain that produces melatonin, and calcification of the pineal gland is a common finding in older individuals. The choroid plexus is a network of blood vessels in the brain that produces cerebrospinal fluid, and calcification of the choroid plexus can occur as a normal part of aging or due to certain medical conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3.

Explanation

The pineal gland and the choroid plexus commonly become calcified in the head. The pineal gland is a small endocrine gland located in the brain that produces melatonin, and calcification of the pineal gland is a common finding in older individuals. The choroid plexus is a network of blood vessels in the brain that produces cerebrospinal fluid, and calcification of the choroid plexus can occur as a normal part of aging or due to certain medical conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3.

80. Air trapping within the trachea and bronchial tree may be optimally demonstrated with multiplanar volume reconstruction (MPVRs) of the thorax known as:

Maximum intensity projections (MIPs)

3D volume renderings

Shaded-surface displays (SSDs)

Minimum intensity projections (min-IPs)

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

81. After the injection of IV contrast during a CT exam of the brain, which of the following anatomic areas does not enhance?

Anterior communicating artery

Choroid plexus

Posterior horn of lateral ventricle

Dura mater

After the injection of IV contrast during a CT exam of the brain, the blood vessels and areas with increased blood flow enhance due to the contrast agent. The anterior communicating artery, choroid plexus, and dura mater are all areas that have a rich blood supply and therefore enhance on the CT scan. However, the posterior horn of the lateral ventricle does not have a significant blood supply and therefore does not enhance on the CT scan.

Explanation

After the injection of IV contrast during a CT exam of the brain, the blood vessels and areas with increased blood flow enhance due to the contrast agent. The anterior communicating artery, choroid plexus, and dura mater are all areas that have a rich blood supply and therefore enhance on the CT scan. However, the posterior horn of the lateral ventricle does not have a significant blood supply and therefore does not enhance on the CT scan.

82. Which of the following phases of renal contrast enhancement best demonstrates transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) of the bladder?

Early arterial

Corticomedullary

Nephrographic

Excretory

Excretory phase of renal contrast enhancement best demonstrates transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) of the bladder. During this phase, the contrast agent has been filtered by the kidneys and is excreted into the bladder. TCC is a type of bladder cancer that arises from the transitional epithelium lining the bladder. By the excretory phase, the contrast agent has reached the bladder, allowing for better visualization and detection of any abnormalities, such as TCC.

Explanation

Excretory phase of renal contrast enhancement best demonstrates transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) of the bladder. During this phase, the contrast agent has been filtered by the kidneys and is excreted into the bladder. TCC is a type of bladder cancer that arises from the transitional epithelium lining the bladder. By the excretory phase, the contrast agent has reached the bladder, allowing for better visualization and detection of any abnormalities, such as TCC.

83. Accurate demonstration of --------------------would most likely required the intravenous injection of an iodinated contrast agent during a CT study of the chest

Bronchiectasis

Pneumonia

Mediastinal lymphadenopathy

Plumonary nodule

In order to accurately demonstrate mediastinal lymphadenopathy during a CT study of the chest, it is most likely necessary to administer an intravenous injection of an iodinated contrast agent. This contrast agent helps to enhance the visibility of the lymph nodes and surrounding structures, allowing for a clearer and more detailed image. This is particularly important in the case of mediastinal lymphadenopathy, as it involves the enlargement of lymph nodes in the mediastinum, which is the central area of the chest. By using the contrast agent, it becomes easier for radiologists to identify and evaluate any abnormalities or changes in the lymph nodes.

Explanation

In order to accurately demonstrate mediastinal lymphadenopathy during a CT study of the chest, it is most likely necessary to administer an intravenous injection of an iodinated contrast agent. This contrast agent helps to enhance the visibility of the lymph nodes and surrounding structures, allowing for a clearer and more detailed image. This is particularly important in the case of mediastinal lymphadenopathy, as it involves the enlargement of lymph nodes in the mediastinum, which is the central area of the chest. By using the contrast agent, it becomes easier for radiologists to identify and evaluate any abnormalities or changes in the lymph nodes.

84. SNR and bandwidth relationship

SNR = change in NEX or new NEX / old NEX

SNR = sq rt of change in bandwidth or new RBW / old RBW

SNR = 1/sq rt of change in BW or 1 / (new RBW / old RBW)

SNR = 1 / sq rt of change in BW or 1 / (old / RBW /new RBW)

The given equation SNR = 1/sq rt of change in BW or 1 / (new RBW / old RBW) suggests that SNR is inversely proportional to the square root of the change in bandwidth or the ratio of new RBW to old RBW. This means that as the change in bandwidth or the ratio of new RBW to old RBW increases, the SNR decreases. Conversely, as the change in bandwidth or the ratio of new RBW to old RBW decreases, the SNR increases. This relationship indicates that a narrower bandwidth or a smaller ratio of new RBW to old RBW leads to a higher SNR.

Explanation

The given equation SNR = 1/sq rt of change in BW or 1 / (new RBW / old RBW) suggests that SNR is inversely proportional to the square root of the change in bandwidth or the ratio of new RBW to old RBW. This means that as the change in bandwidth or the ratio of new RBW to old RBW increases, the SNR decreases. Conversely, as the change in bandwidth or the ratio of new RBW to old RBW decreases, the SNR increases. This relationship indicates that a narrower bandwidth or a smaller ratio of new RBW to old RBW leads to a higher SNR.

85. High resolution CT of the chest incorporates which of the following protocols?

10mm sections standard algorithm

10mm sections, bone algorithm

3mm sections, standard algorithm

1mm sections, bone algorithm

High resolution CT of the chest incorporates 1mm sections and the bone algorithm. This protocol allows for a detailed examination of the chest, with thin sections providing high-resolution images. The bone algorithm enhances visualization of bony structures, allowing for better evaluation of any abnormalities or pathologies related to the bones in the chest.

Explanation

High resolution CT of the chest incorporates 1mm sections and the bone algorithm. This protocol allows for a detailed examination of the chest, with thin sections providing high-resolution images. The bone algorithm enhances visualization of bony structures, allowing for better evaluation of any abnormalities or pathologies related to the bones in the chest.

86. The enhancement washout technique for CT characterization of adrenal masses includes:

Thin section pre-contrast acquisition through the adrenals

Arterial phase post-contrast acquisition through the adrenals

10 to 15 minute delayed post-contrast acquisition through the adrenals

A and C

B and C

The enhancement washout technique for CT characterization of adrenal masses includes thin section pre-contrast acquisition through the adrenals and 10 to 15 minute delayed post-contrast acquisition through the adrenals. This technique allows for the evaluation of the washout characteristics of the adrenal mass, which can help differentiate between benign and malignant lesions. The pre-contrast acquisition provides baseline information about the mass, while the delayed post-contrast acquisition allows for assessment of the washout of contrast material from the mass. By combining these two acquisitions, radiologists can make a more accurate characterization of the adrenal mass.

Explanation

The enhancement washout technique for CT characterization of adrenal masses includes thin section pre-contrast acquisition through the adrenals and 10 to 15 minute delayed post-contrast acquisition through the adrenals. This technique allows for the evaluation of the washout characteristics of the adrenal mass, which can help differentiate between benign and malignant lesions. The pre-contrast acquisition provides baseline information about the mass, while the delayed post-contrast acquisition allows for assessment of the washout of contrast material from the mass. By combining these two acquisitions, radiologists can make a more accurate characterization of the adrenal mass.

87. The adjacent pixels are measured to have difference of 1 HU unit. This amount to a tissue density difference of approximately

0.1%

1.0%

10%

25%

The adjacent pixels having a difference of 1 HU unit indicates a very small difference in tissue density. This suggests that the tissue densities are almost identical, with a difference of only 0.1%.

Explanation

The adjacent pixels having a difference of 1 HU unit indicates a very small difference in tissue density. This suggests that the tissue densities are almost identical, with a difference of only 0.1%.

88. Which of the following technologic advances has led to the development of spiral and helical CT scanning
1 slip ring technology
2 electron beam technology
3 high efficiency x ray tubes

1 only

1 and 2

1 and 3

1, 2, and 3

Spiral and helical CT scanning require continuous rotation of the CT scanner and a constant power supply. Slip ring technology allows for the continuous rotation of the scanner without the need to stop and reverse direction. High efficiency x-ray tubes are necessary to produce the high-quality images required for spiral and helical CT scanning. Electron beam technology is not directly related to the development of spiral and helical CT scanning. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 3.

Explanation

Spiral and helical CT scanning require continuous rotation of the CT scanner and a constant power supply. Slip ring technology allows for the continuous rotation of the scanner without the need to stop and reverse direction. High efficiency x-ray tubes are necessary to produce the high-quality images required for spiral and helical CT scanning. Electron beam technology is not directly related to the development of spiral and helical CT scanning. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 3.

89.

The letter a corresponds to

Styloid of the clavicle

Supraspinatus tendon

Deltoid insertion

Superior labrium

The letter "a" corresponds to the superior labrum. The superior labrum is a ring of cartilage that surrounds the glenoid cavity of the scapula. It provides stability to the shoulder joint and serves as an attachment point for the long head of the biceps tendon. This structure is important for maintaining proper shoulder function and preventing injury.

Explanation

The letter "a" corresponds to the superior labrum. The superior labrum is a ring of cartilage that surrounds the glenoid cavity of the scapula. It provides stability to the shoulder joint and serves as an attachment point for the long head of the biceps tendon. This structure is important for maintaining proper shoulder function and preventing injury.

90. Which of the following IV contrast phases does the bladder wall enhance

Early arterial

Corticomedullary

Nephrographic

Excretory

Nephrographic (70-90 sec)

Explanation

Nephrographic (70-90 sec)

91. What is the relationship of slice and SNR?

SNR = change in slice= new / old

SNR = Sq rt of change of slice = 1/ (new/old)

SNR = 1/ sq rt of slice = sq rt of 1 / (new/old)

SNR = change in slice = old/ new

The given equations show different ways to calculate the Signal-to-Noise Ratio (SNR) in relation to the change in slice. The correct answer states that the SNR is equal to the change in slice, which is represented by the ratio of the new slice value divided by the old slice value.

Explanation

The given equations show different ways to calculate the Signal-to-Noise Ratio (SNR) in relation to the change in slice. The correct answer states that the SNR is equal to the change in slice, which is represented by the ratio of the new slice value divided by the old slice value.

92. Which of the following would be suitable range for contrast volume for a intrathecal injection during a post myelogram CT exam of the L-spine in adult PT?

1-3 ml

5-9 ml

12-14 ml

18-22 ml

The suitable range for contrast volume for an intrathecal injection during a post myelogram CT exam of the L-spine in adult PT is 12-14 ml. This volume range is likely determined based on the specific needs of the exam and the patient's condition, ensuring that enough contrast is used to provide clear imaging results without excessive volume that could cause complications.

Explanation

The suitable range for contrast volume for an intrathecal injection during a post myelogram CT exam of the L-spine in adult PT is 12-14 ml. This volume range is likely determined based on the specific needs of the exam and the patient's condition, ensuring that enough contrast is used to provide clear imaging results without excessive volume that could cause complications.

93. Which of the following DFOV should be chosen for a CT exam of the T-spine of a PT whose thorax measures 40cm?

15cm

25cm

32cm

42cm

You want to target the T-spine by reducing your DFOV.

Explanation

You want to target the T-spine by reducing your DFOV.

94. Matrix vs FOV

SNR = 1/(new phase step/ old phase step)

SNR = (change in phase step)sq = (old ph/new ph)sq

SNR= sq rt of change in phase step = 1/ sq rt of (new/old phase)

SNR 1/ sq rt of change in phase = 1/ sq rt of (old / new)

The given equation SNR = 1/(new phase step/ old phase step) represents the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) in terms of the ratio of the new phase step to the old phase step. This equation suggests that as the new phase step increases relative to the old phase step, the SNR decreases, indicating a decrease in the quality of the signal compared to the noise. Conversely, as the new phase step decreases relative to the old phase step, the SNR increases, indicating an improvement in the signal quality relative to the noise.

Explanation

The given equation SNR = 1/(new phase step/ old phase step) represents the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) in terms of the ratio of the new phase step to the old phase step. This equation suggests that as the new phase step increases relative to the old phase step, the SNR decreases, indicating a decrease in the quality of the signal compared to the noise. Conversely, as the new phase step decreases relative to the old phase step, the SNR increases, indicating an improvement in the signal quality relative to the noise.

95. Accurate demonstration of ____________ would most likely require the IV injection of contrast during CT study of the ABD.

Appendicitis

Renal stone

Diverticullitis

Renal cyst

The Kidney will flash during IV contrast injection

Explanation

The Kidney will flash during IV contrast injection

96. Dynamic CT scanning involves which of the following technical considerations?
1 Data acquisition with PT continuously moving through the gantry
2 bolus administration of iodinated IV contrast
3 rapid scanning with minimal interscan delays

1 only

1 and 3

2 and 3

1, 2, and 3

Dynamic CT scanning involves rapid scanning with minimal interscan delays and bolus administration of iodinated IV contrast. Rapid scanning with minimal interscan delays is necessary to capture the dynamic changes in the contrast enhancement of the tissues. Bolus administration of iodinated IV contrast is important to enhance the visibility of blood vessels and tissues during the scan. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3.

Explanation

Dynamic CT scanning involves rapid scanning with minimal interscan delays and bolus administration of iodinated IV contrast. Rapid scanning with minimal interscan delays is necessary to capture the dynamic changes in the contrast enhancement of the tissues. Bolus administration of iodinated IV contrast is important to enhance the visibility of blood vessels and tissues during the scan. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3.

97. FOV vs. SNR

SNR = (Old FOV/ new FOV)sq

SNR = sq rt (old FOV/ new FOV)

SNR = sq rt of change in FOV= sq rt ( new/old FOV)

SNR = (new FOV/ old FOV) sq

The given equation SNR = (new FOV/ old FOV) sq suggests that the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) is directly proportional to the square of the ratio of new field of view (FOV) to old FOV. In other words, as the new FOV increases relative to the old FOV, the SNR also increases. This implies that a larger FOV can improve the SNR, potentially leading to better image quality and more accurate measurements.

Explanation

The given equation SNR = (new FOV/ old FOV) sq suggests that the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) is directly proportional to the square of the ratio of new field of view (FOV) to old FOV. In other words, as the new FOV increases relative to the old FOV, the SNR also increases. This implies that a larger FOV can improve the SNR, potentially leading to better image quality and more accurate measurements.

98. A solitary pulmonary nodule can be assumed to be benign when its average density is with in the following ranges

10-30 HU

45-80 HU

100-140 HU

165-200 HU

A solitary pulmonary nodule can be assumed to be benign when its average density is within the range of 165-200 HU. This range indicates a higher density compared to the other options provided. Generally, a higher density suggests the presence of calcification or fibrosis, which are commonly associated with benign nodules. Therefore, a nodule with an average density in this range is more likely to be benign rather than malignant.

Explanation

A solitary pulmonary nodule can be assumed to be benign when its average density is within the range of 165-200 HU. This range indicates a higher density compared to the other options provided. Generally, a higher density suggests the presence of calcification or fibrosis, which are commonly associated with benign nodules. Therefore, a nodule with an average density in this range is more likely to be benign rather than malignant.

99. The recommended scan field of view (SFOV) for a CT examination of the cervical spine is:

9.6 cm

15.0 cm

25.0 cm

50.0 cm

DFOV between 10 and 15 cm

Explanation

DFOV between 10 and 15 cm

100. NEX vs SNR

SNR = change in NEX= old/ new NEX

SNR = (Change in NEX)sq = (new/old Nex)sq

SNR = 1/ sq rt of change in NEX + Sq rt (new/old NEX)

SNR = (Change in NEX)sq rt = (new/old NEX)sq rt

The given answer states that SNR is equal to the square root of the change in NEX, which is also equal to the square root of the ratio of new NEX to old NEX. This implies that SNR is directly proportional to the square root of the change in NEX and the square root of the ratio of new NEX to old NEX.

Explanation

The given answer states that SNR is equal to the square root of the change in NEX, which is also equal to the square root of the ratio of new NEX to old NEX. This implies that SNR is directly proportional to the square root of the change in NEX and the square root of the ratio of new NEX to old NEX.