Pumper Driver Exam Trivia Quiz

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Pumper Driver Exam Trivia Quiz - Quiz

If you are preparing for the licensed pumper driver exam, you can take the below practice questions and answers. We have designed this operator pumper quiz to help improve your understanding and prepare better. A pumper is a person who tends, operates, and cares for a pump. Also, someone who knows how to handle electric motors, steam turbines, and internal combustion engines. So, if you want to be a pumper driver, this quiz will help you to check your knowledge and skills about the same.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The minimum qualifications for driver/operators are set by NFPA 1002, Standard for:

    • A.

      Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program.

    • B.

      Fire Apparatus Driver/Operator Professional Qualifications.

    • C.

      Comprehensive Occupational Medical Program for Fire Departments.

    • D.

      Fire Fighter Professional Qualifications.

    Correct Answer
    B. Fire Apparatus Driver/Operator Professional Qualifications.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Fire Apparatus Driver/Operator Professional Qualifications. This is because NFPA 1002 is the standard that sets the minimum qualifications for driver/operators. The other options listed are not directly related to driver/operator qualifications.

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  • 2. 

    A fire apparatus with a primary purpose of transporting 1,000 or more gallons of water is considered to be a/an:

    • A.

      Aerial device

    • B.

      Midi pumper

    • C.

      Tanker/tender.

    • D.

      Attack pumper.

    Correct Answer
    C. Tanker/tender.
    Explanation
    A fire apparatus with a primary purpose of transporting 1,000 or more gallons of water is considered to be a tanker/tender. This type of vehicle is specifically designed to carry large quantities of water to the scene of a fire, where it can be used to supplement the water supply for firefighting operations. Tanker/tenders are commonly used in rural areas or locations where a reliable water source may not be readily available. They play a crucial role in ensuring that an adequate water supply is available for firefighting efforts.

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  • 3. 

    Which manufacturer was the first to introduce the aerial truck?

    • A.

      Pierce

    • B.

      American La France

    • C.

      FMC

    • D.

      Seagrave

    Correct Answer
    D. Seagrave
    Explanation
    Seagrave was the first manufacturer to introduce the aerial truck.

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  • 4. 

    The two tests that must be performed by the manufacturer if the requirements of NFPA 1901 are included in the apparatus bid specifications are the:

    • A.

      Road and brake tests.

    • B.

      Brake and hydrostatic tests.

    • C.

      Engine and hydrostatic tests.

    • D.

      Road and hydrostatic tests.

    Correct Answer
    D. Road and hydrostatic tests.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is road and hydrostatic tests. NFPA 1901 is a standard for automotive fire apparatus, and it includes specific requirements for testing the apparatus. The road test is necessary to ensure that the apparatus can perform safely and effectively on the road. The hydrostatic test is used to check the integrity of the apparatus's water tanks and pump system. Therefore, these two tests are essential for manufacturers to perform if the requirements of NFPA 1901 are included in the bid specifications.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is a result of over-throttling?

    • A.

      Overheating of engine coolant

    • B.

      Additional fuel consumption and loss of power

    • C.

      Oil thickening

    • D.

      White smoke from the exhaust

    Correct Answer
    B. Additional fuel consumption and loss of power
    Explanation
    Over-throttling refers to the act of opening the throttle of an engine beyond its recommended limits. This can result in additional fuel consumption and loss of power. When the throttle is opened too much, the engine is forced to work harder, consuming more fuel than necessary. This excessive fuel consumption leads to a decrease in power output, as the engine struggles to cope with the increased load. Therefore, the correct answer is additional fuel consumption and loss of power.

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  • 6. 

    The left side of an apparatus is also known as the:

    • A.

      Street side

    • B.

      Officer side.

    • C.

      Firefighter side.

    • D.

      Curb side.

    Correct Answer
    A. Street side
    Explanation
    The left side of an apparatus is commonly referred to as the "street side" because it faces the street when the apparatus is parked or in use. This term is used to easily identify and communicate the location of the apparatus, especially in emergency situations. The other options, such as officer side, firefighter side, and curb side, do not specifically indicate the side facing the street.

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  • 7. 

    When driving an apparatus, remain in the highest gear that allow the apparatus to ___________ and still have some power in reserve for acceleration.

    • A.

      Idle in neutral

    • B.

      Reach 400 to 500 rpm

    • C.

      Keep up with traffic

    • D.

      Lug

    Correct Answer
    C. Keep up with traffic
    Explanation
    When driving an apparatus, it is important to remain in the highest gear that allows the apparatus to keep up with traffic and still have some power in reserve for acceleration. This means that the gear should be selected in such a way that the apparatus can maintain a speed that is in line with the flow of traffic, without straining the engine or causing it to lose power. By doing so, the driver can ensure that the apparatus is able to respond quickly and efficiently when acceleration is needed.

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  • 8. 

    On which of the following ports would you inspect the screens for rocks or debris?

    • A.

      Master stream device

    • B.

      Red booster reel

    • C.

      2-1/2

    • D.

      1'3/4

    Correct Answer
    C. 2-1/2
  • 9. 

    You are responding to an emergency on a three-lane highway during moderately heavy traffic conditions.  You are in the center lane.  The vehicle ahead, which you are rapidly overtaking, stops!  There is insufficient space to stop without striking the vehicle. Which of the following evasive tactics should be employed?

    • A.

      Brake to reduce speed as you pass on the left side of the stopped vehicle.

    • B.

      Brake to reduce speed and pass the stopped vehicle on the right.

    • C.

      Accelerate and immediately move to the left lane when passing the stopped vehicle.

    • D.

      Slowly move to the right lane and proceed on the call.

    Correct Answer
    A. Brake to reduce speed as you pass on the left side of the stopped vehicle.
    Explanation
    When responding to an emergency on a three-lane highway with moderate traffic, the safest evasive tactic is to brake to reduce speed and pass the stopped vehicle on the left side. This allows for a controlled maneuver that minimizes the risk of collision with the stopped vehicle and maintains the flow of traffic. Passing on the right side or abruptly changing lanes can be dangerous and increase the chances of an accident. By braking and passing on the left, emergency responders can safely navigate around the obstacle while minimizing the disruption to other drivers on the road.

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  • 10. 

    The engine brake and retarder are activated when:

    • A.

      The brake pedal is applied too hard.

    • B.

      The brake system fails.

    • C.

      Pressure is released from the accelerator.

    • D.

      The engine is first started.

    Correct Answer
    C. Pressure is released from the accelerator.
    Explanation
    When pressure is released from the accelerator, the engine brake and retarder are activated. This means that when the driver takes their foot off the accelerator pedal, the engine brake and retarder system kicks in to slow down the vehicle. This is a common feature in many vehicles, especially those equipped with heavy-duty engines or used for towing or hauling heavy loads. The engine brake and retarder help to reduce the wear on the vehicle's regular braking system and provide additional control and stability when descending steep slopes or during prolonged braking.

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  • 11. 

    Many accidents involving apparatus are caused by the operator:

    • A.

      Focusing too much on the traffic in front of the apparatus.

    • B.

      Stopping at intersections.

    • C.

      Misunderstanding the capabilities of the apparatus.

    • D.

      Using warning devices.

    Correct Answer
    C. Misunderstanding the capabilities of the apparatus.
    Explanation
    Accidents involving apparatus are often caused by the operator's misunderstanding of the capabilities of the apparatus. This means that the operator may not fully understand how the apparatus works, its limitations, or how to properly operate it in different situations. This lack of understanding can lead to mistakes and accidents. Focusing too much on traffic, stopping at intersections, or using warning devices are not mentioned as causes of accidents involving apparatus in the given information.

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  • 12. 

    The purpose of the confined space turnaround is to simulate:

    • A.

      Maneuvering around parked and stopped vehicles and tight corners.

    • B.

      Steering a vehicle in a straight line.

    • C.

      Reversing the direction of travel of a vehicle in a narrow street.

    • D.

      Backing a vehicle into a restricted area.

    Correct Answer
    C. Reversing the direction of travel of a vehicle in a narrow street.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the confined space turnaround is to practice reversing the direction of travel of a vehicle in a narrow street. This exercise helps drivers develop the skills needed to navigate tight spaces and make precise maneuvers when reversing. By simulating the challenges of reversing in narrow streets, drivers can become more confident and proficient in handling such situations in real-life scenarios.

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  • 13. 

    To effectively judge the ability of a vehicle to pass through areas of restricted horizontal and vertical openings, the operator must know:

    • A.

      Department standard operating guidelines.

    • B.

      Vehicle dimensions.

    • C.

      The vehicle's weight.

    • D.

      Governed speed.

    Correct Answer
    B. Vehicle dimensions.
    Explanation
    To effectively judge the ability of a vehicle to pass through areas of restricted horizontal and vertical openings, the operator must know the vehicle dimensions. This is because knowing the dimensions of the vehicle will help the operator determine whether the vehicle can fit through the openings without causing any damage or getting stuck. The department standard operating guidelines, vehicle weight, and governed speed are also important factors, but they do not directly relate to the ability of the vehicle to pass through restricted openings.

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  • 14. 

    Studies have shown that an emergency vehicle going faster than _____________ mph can possibly outrun its own audible warning devices.

    • A.

      70

    • B.

      50

    • C.

      35

    • D.

      15

    Correct Answer
    B. 50
    Explanation
    An emergency vehicle going faster than 50 mph can possibly outrun its own audible warning devices. This means that the sound produced by the vehicle's warning devices cannot travel faster than the vehicle itself when it exceeds this speed. As a result, it becomes difficult for other drivers or pedestrians to hear the warning sounds and be aware of the approaching emergency vehicle. Therefore, it is important for emergency vehicles to maintain a speed below 50 mph to ensure that their audible warning devices are effective in alerting others to their presence.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is not used as an auxiliary braking device on a diesel-powered fire apparatus?

    • A.

      Transmission brake

    • B.

      Transmission retarder

    • C.

      Exhaust brake

    • D.

      Electromagnetic retarder

    Correct Answer
    A. Transmission brake
    Explanation
    A transmission brake is not used as an auxiliary braking device on a diesel-powered fire apparatus. The other options, such as transmission retarder, exhaust brake, and electromagnetic retarder, are commonly used as auxiliary braking devices on such vehicles. The transmission brake, on the other hand, is not designed or used for this purpose.

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  • 16. 

    When responding to a vehicle fire you should not position the apparatus any closer than _____________ feet where it could become an exposure.

    • A.

      30

    • B.

      20

    • C.

      40

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    When responding to a vehicle fire, it is important not to position the apparatus any closer than 30 feet where it could become an exposure. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of the firefighters and prevent the spreading of the fire to the apparatus. By maintaining a distance of 30 feet, firefighters can effectively control the fire and minimize the risk of further damage or injuries.

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  • 17. 

    The purpose of an inverter on an apparatus is to transform:

    • A.

      AC current into DC current.

    • B.

      12 volts to 24 volts.

    • C.

      220 volts to 110 volts.

    • D.

      DC current into AC current.

    Correct Answer
    D. DC current into AC current.
    Explanation
    An inverter is a device that converts direct current (DC) into alternating current (AC). This is done by using electronic components to change the direction of the current flow, creating an oscillating current similar to what is found in household electrical systems. This is useful in situations where AC power is needed but only DC power is available, such as in solar power systems or in vehicles with battery power.

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  • 18. 

    While conducting a pump capacity test, if the net pump pressure is correct but the nozzle flow (gpm) is too high, the:

    • A.

      Discharge gate must be opened further.

    • B.

      Discharge gate must be closed further.

    • C.

      Throttle setting must be reduced.

    • D.

      Both B and C are correct.

    Correct Answer
    D. Both B and C are correct.
    Explanation
    If the net pump pressure is correct but the nozzle flow (gpm) is too high, it means that the pump is delivering the correct pressure but the flow rate is higher than desired. To reduce the flow rate, the discharge gate must be closed further, which restricts the flow of water. Additionally, the throttle setting must be reduced, which decreases the speed of the pump and subsequently reduces the flow rate. Therefore, both options B and C are correct as they both contribute to reducing the nozzle flow.

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  • 19. 

    When pumping from draft, which of the following conditions affect(s) a pump's ability?

    • A.

      Water temperature

    • B.

      Barometric pressure

    • C.

      Air temperature

    • D.

      All of the above are correct.

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above are correct.
    Explanation
    The ability of a pump to pump from draft is affected by all of the mentioned conditions. Water temperature can affect the density and viscosity of the water, which in turn affects the pump's efficiency. Barometric pressure affects the atmospheric pressure that the pump has to overcome, and air temperature can affect the density of the air, which can impact the pump's performance. Therefore, all of these conditions can have an influence on a pump's ability when pumping from draft.

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  • 20. 

    The ________________ ist he major component of the centrifugal pump because it provides velocity to the water.

    • A.

      Volute

    • B.

      Vane

    • C.

      Impeller

    • D.

      Housing

    Correct Answer
    C. Impeller
    Explanation
    The impeller is the major component of the centrifugal pump because it provides velocity to the water. The impeller is a rotating disc with blades or vanes that push the water outward, creating centrifugal force. This force increases the velocity of the water, allowing it to be pumped efficiently through the system. Without the impeller, the pump would not be able to generate the necessary velocity to move the water effectively.

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  • 21. 

    ______________________ consist of a small return (bypass) water line connected from the discharge side of the pump back to the intake side of the pump.

    • A.

      Around-the-pump proportioners

    • B.

      Bypass-type balanced pressure proportioners

    • C.

      Variable-flow variable-rate direct injection systems

    • D.

      Batch mixing

    Correct Answer
    A. Around-the-pump proportioners
    Explanation
    Around-the-pump proportioners consist of a small return (bypass) water line connected from the discharge side of the pump back to the intake side of the pump. This allows for a portion of the water to be diverted and mixed with the foam concentrate before being reintroduced into the water stream. This system is commonly used in firefighting to ensure a consistent and accurate mixture of foam concentrate with water, without the need for additional equipment or complex mixing processes.

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  • 22. 

    In a ________________ hydrant, a small drain valve opens as the hydrant is closed.

    • A.

      Dry-barrel

    • B.

      Dry

    • C.

      High-pressure

    • D.

      Wet-barrel

    Correct Answer
    A. Dry-barrel
    Explanation
    In a dry-barrel hydrant, a small drain valve opens as the hydrant is closed. This allows any remaining water in the hydrant to drain out, preventing it from freezing and causing damage during cold weather. Unlike wet-barrel hydrants, which have water constantly present in the barrel, dry-barrel hydrants are designed to remain empty when not in use. This feature makes dry-barrel hydrants more suitable for areas with freezing temperatures.

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  • 23. 

    For business and industrial districts, water mains should be at least _____________ inches.

    • A.

      8

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      12

    • D.

      6

    Correct Answer
    A. 8
    Explanation
    For business and industrial districts, water mains should be at least 8 inches. This is because these areas typically have higher water demands and require larger pipes to accommodate the flow. A larger pipe diameter allows for more water to be delivered to the businesses and industries in these districts, ensuring an adequate water supply for their operations.

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  • 24. 

    The part of the total pressure not used to overcome friction or gravity while forcing water through fire hose, pipe, fittings, and adapters is known as:

    • A.

      Friction loss.

    • B.

      Residual pressure.

    • C.

      Flow pressure.

    • D.

      Static pressure.

    Correct Answer
    B. Residual pressure.
    Explanation
    Residual pressure refers to the part of the total pressure that is not utilized in overcoming friction or gravity while pushing water through a fire hose, pipe, fittings, and adapters. This remaining pressure can be used for other purposes, such as maintaining a steady flow or overcoming additional obstacles in the water system.

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  • 25. 

    The recommended nozzle pressure for 2-1/2" hand lines with solid bore tips is ____________ psi.

    • A.

      80

    • B.

      100

    • C.

      150

    • D.

      50

    Correct Answer
    D. 50
    Explanation
    The recommended nozzle pressure for 2-1/2" hand lines with solid bore tips is 50 psi. This pressure is sufficient to provide a steady and effective stream of water while allowing the firefighters to maintain control of the hose. Higher pressures may cause the stream to become too powerful and difficult to handle, while lower pressures may result in an inadequate flow of water. Therefore, 50 psi is the optimal nozzle pressure for this type of hand line.

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  • 26. 

    Theoretically, the maximum distance a pump can lift water at sea level

    • A.

      25.3

    • B.

      20

    • C.

      14.7

    • D.

      33.8

    Correct Answer
    D. 33.8
    Explanation
    The given options represent different units of pressure, specifically in terms of pounds per square inch (psi). The question is asking for the maximum distance that a pump can lift water at sea level, which is determined by the maximum pressure that the pump can generate. The highest value among the given options is 33.8 psi, which indicates the maximum pressure that the pump can generate and therefore the maximum distance it can lift water at sea level.

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  • 27. 

    The recommended method of determining the exact friction loss of any appliance is to:

    • A.

      Check NFPA 1091.

    • B.

      Run tests with each appliance used by the department.

    • C.

      Review manufacturer's specifications.

    • D.

      Check NFPA 1901.

    Correct Answer
    B. Run tests with each appliance used by the department.
    Explanation
    The recommended method of determining the exact friction loss of any appliance is to run tests with each appliance used by the department. This is because different appliances may have different levels of friction loss due to variations in design, size, and other factors. By conducting tests with each appliance, the department can accurately measure the friction loss and adjust their operations accordingly. Checking NFPA 1091 and NFPA 1901 may provide some guidelines and standards, but they may not provide the exact friction loss for each specific appliance. Reviewing the manufacturer's specifications can also be helpful, but conducting tests is the most reliable method for determining the exact friction loss.

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  • 28. 

    One gallon of water weighs ___________ pounds.

    • A.

      7.12

    • B.

      8.33

    • C.

      9.12

    • D.

      5.60

    Correct Answer
    B. 8.33
    Explanation
    One gallon of water weighs approximately 8.33 pounds. This is a standard conversion commonly used in various industries and everyday life. It is important to know this conversion factor when dealing with water-related measurements or calculations.

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  • 29. 

    The first step in developing a pump chart is to:

    • A.

      List the nozzle pressure for each nozzle or device used.

    • B.

      Calculate the required pump discharge pressures for each layout.

    • C.

      Identify all nozzles, devices, and layouts used by the department.

    • D.

      Enter the gallons-per-minute flowing for each nozzle or device.

    Correct Answer
    C. Identify all nozzles, devices, and layouts used by the department.
    Explanation
    The first step in developing a pump chart is to identify all nozzles, devices, and layouts used by the department. This step is crucial because it allows the department to have a comprehensive understanding of all the equipment and configurations they have available. By identifying all the nozzles, devices, and layouts, the department can ensure that they have accurate and up-to-date information for their pump chart. This information is essential for calculating the required pump discharge pressures and effectively utilizing the pump during firefighting operations.

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  • 30. 

    In a continuous shuttle operation, what is the approximate available gpm for fire flow if: Tanker/tender A 3000 tanker/tender, trip time 12 minutes Tanker/tender B 2500 tanker/tender, trip time 10 minutes Tanker/tender C 1000 tanker/tender, trip time 10 minutes

    • A.

      2166 gpm

    • B.

      203 gpm

    • C.

      540 gpm

    • D.

      6501 gpm

    Correct Answer
    C. 540 gpm
  • 31. 

    During an extended period of pumping, a gradual increase in engine temperature is noted.  The first step to reduce this condition would be:

    • A.

      Increase pressure.

    • B.

      Shut down operation.

    • C.

      Gradually open "engine cooler."

    • D.

      Decrease RPM.

    Correct Answer
    C. Gradually open "engine cooler."
    Explanation
    During an extended period of pumping, the engine temperature gradually increases. To reduce this condition, the first step would be to gradually open the "engine cooler." By doing so, the cooler air will be allowed to flow into the engine, helping to lower its temperature. Increasing pressure, shutting down operation, or decreasing RPM would not directly address the issue of reducing engine temperature.

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  • 32. 

    NFPA 1901 requires an apparatus rated as a pumper to carry a minimum of ______________ 2-1/2" or larger supply/attack hose.

    • A.

      400 feet

    • B.

      200 feet

    • C.

      1,000 feet

    • D.

      800 feet

    Correct Answer
    D. 800 feet
    Explanation
    NFPA 1901, which is a standard for fire apparatus, mandates that a pumper should have a minimum of 800 feet of 2-1/2" or larger supply/attack hose. This requirement ensures that the pumper has enough hose to effectively supply water to the fire scene and carry out firefighting operations. Having a sufficient length of hose allows firefighters to reach distant water sources and provide a continuous water supply, which is crucial in controlling and extinguishing fires.

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  • 33. 

    In a relay pump operation, any adjustment of pressure at the source pumper is made to maintain the minimum _______ pressure at the next pumper in line.

    • A.

      Static

    • B.

      Intake

    • C.

      Flow

    • D.

      Discharge

    Correct Answer
    B. Intake
    Explanation
    In a relay pump operation, any adjustment of pressure at the source pumper is made to maintain the minimum intake pressure at the next pumper in line. This means that the pressure is adjusted at the source pumper to ensure that the next pumper receives enough intake pressure to effectively carry out its tasks. By maintaining the minimum intake pressure, the relay pump operation can continue smoothly and efficiently.

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  • 34. 

    Tanker/tenders are commonly unloaded by:

    • A.

      Dumping the water into portable tanks using gravity.

    • B.

      Dumping the water into a portable tank using a jet-assisted dump valve.

    • C.

      Pumping the water into a dump tank using two 3-inch lines.

    • D.

      A and B are both correct.

    Correct Answer
    D. A and B are both correct.
    Explanation
    Tanker/tenders can be unloaded in two ways: by dumping the water into portable tanks using gravity or by dumping the water into a portable tank using a jet-assisted dump valve. Both methods are correct and commonly used for unloading tanker/tenders.

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  • 35. 

    Specific gravity is best defined as:

    • A.

      The density of liquids in relation to water.

    • B.

      Atmospheric pressure.

    • C.

      The viscosity of water in relation to solids.

    • D.

      Static pressure.

    Correct Answer
    A. The density of liquids in relation to water.
    Explanation
    Specific gravity is a measure of the density of a substance in relation to the density of water. It is commonly used to compare the density of liquids to that of water, as water has a specific gravity of 1. If the specific gravity of a liquid is less than 1, it is less dense than water and will float, while a specific gravity greater than 1 indicates that the liquid is denser than water and will sink. Therefore, the correct answer is "the density of liquids in relation to water."

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  • 36. 

    Which type of foam application system is the most common system used in the fire service today?

    • A.

      Balance pressure system

    • B.

      Around the pump system

    • C.

      CAFS

    • D.

      Metering system

    Correct Answer
    A. Balance pressure system
    Explanation
    The balance pressure system is the most common foam application system used in the fire service today. This system utilizes a balance between the pressure of the water and the pressure of the foam concentrate to create a consistent and effective foam solution. It is widely used because it is reliable, easy to operate, and provides a consistent foam quality regardless of changes in water pressure. Additionally, it allows for easy adjustment of foam concentrate ratios, making it versatile for different firefighting scenarios.

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  • 37. 

    Pump discharge pressures in excess of ____________ psi are not encouraged unless the standpipe system has been designed to withstand higher pressures.

    • A.

      200

    • B.

      150

    • C.

      175

    • D.

      100

    Correct Answer
    A. 200
    Explanation
    Pump discharge pressures in excess of 200 psi are not encouraged unless the standpipe system has been designed to withstand higher pressures. This means that the standpipe system may not be able to handle pressures higher than 200 psi, so it is not recommended to exceed this limit unless the system has been specifically designed to handle higher pressures.

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  • 38. 

    The purpose of the fire department check valve in a fire department connection is to:

    • A.

      Prevent the domestic water supply from entering the riser.

    • B.

      Prevent water from a sprinkler system from flowing back into the fire department connection.

    • C.

      Prevent water flow into the main drain.

    • D.

      Prevent excess pressure from damaging the system.

    Correct Answer
    B. Prevent water from a sprinkler system from flowing back into the fire department connection.
    Explanation
    The fire department check valve in a fire department connection is designed to prevent water from a sprinkler system from flowing back into the fire department connection. This is important because if water were to flow back into the connection, it could contaminate the domestic water supply or interfere with the operation of the fire department's equipment. By preventing this backflow, the check valve helps to ensure the integrity and effectiveness of the sprinkler system and the fire department's response to emergencies.

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  • 39. 

    Which primer utilizes the venturi principle?

    • A.

      Rotary-gear primer

    • B.

      Rotary-vane primer

    • C.

      Vacuum primer

    • D.

      Exhaust primer

    Correct Answer
    D. Exhaust primer
    Explanation
    The exhaust primer utilizes the venturi principle. The venturi principle states that as the speed of a fluid increases, its pressure decreases. In the case of an exhaust primer, the engine's exhaust gases are used to create a low-pressure area, which draws fuel from the fuel system into the engine. This is achieved by directing the exhaust gases through a venturi-shaped tube, creating suction that pulls the fuel into the engine.

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  • 40. 

    A 5" diameter hose would be expected to flow approximately the same amount as:

    • A.

      Three 2-1/2" hoses.

    • B.

      Four 2-1/2" hoses.

    • C.

      Five 2-1/2" hoses.

    • D.

      Two 2-1/2" hoses.

    Correct Answer
    B. Four 2-1/2" hoses.
    Explanation
    A 5" diameter hose has a larger cross-sectional area compared to a 2-1/2" hose. Therefore, it can accommodate a greater volume of water flow. The answer "four 2-1/2" hoses" suggests that four smaller hoses with a 2-1/2" diameter would be needed to match the flow rate of a single 5" hose. This is because the combined cross-sectional area of four 2-1/2" hoses is equivalent to the cross-sectional area of a single 5" hose, allowing for a similar amount of water to flow through.

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  • 41. 

    Indications of cavitation include all of the following except:

    • A.

      Air escaping from pump vent.

    • B.

      Increase in RPM will greatly increase pressure.

    • C.

      Vibration.

    • D.

      Fluctuating gauge readings.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air escaping from pump vent.
    Explanation
    Indications of cavitation in a pump include an increase in RPM greatly increasing pressure, vibration, and fluctuating gauge readings. However, air escaping from the pump vent is not an indication of cavitation. Cavitation occurs when the pressure in a liquid drops below its vapor pressure, causing the formation of vapor bubbles that collapse and cause damage to the pump. Air escaping from the pump vent could indicate a different issue, such as a leak or improper venting, but not cavitation.

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  • 42. 

    The flow or quantity of water moving through a hose or nozzle is measured by its volume and is usually given in:

    • A.

      Psi.

    • B.

      Gpm.

    • C.

      Gph.

    • D.

      KPPa.

    Correct Answer
    B. Gpm.
    Explanation
    The flow or quantity of water moving through a hose or nozzle is measured by its volume and is usually given in gallons per minute (gpm). PSI (pounds per square inch) is a unit of pressure, not flow rate. GPH (gallons per hour) and kPPa (kiloPascals) are also not commonly used units for measuring water flow. Therefore, the correct answer is gpm.

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  • 43. 

    In-line relay valves allow for:

    • A.

      Draining of the relay line.

    • B.

      Increasing the size of the hose used in the relay.

    • C.

      Late-arriving pumpers to hook up without interrupting operations.

    • D.

      Maintaining a constant pressure.

    Correct Answer
    C. Late-arriving pumpers to hook up without interrupting operations.
    Explanation
    In-line relay valves allow for late-arriving pumpers to hook up without interrupting operations. This means that even if a pumper arrives late to the scene, they can still connect to the relay line without causing any disruption or interruption to the ongoing operations. The in-line relay valve provides a seamless connection for late-arriving pumpers, ensuring a continuous flow of water and maintaining the efficiency of the firefighting efforts.

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  • 44. 

    When using an in-line eductor, the back pressure must not exceed ____________ pressure.

    • A.

      65-70 percent of the inlet

    • B.

      94-99 percent of the outlet

    • C.

      40-50 percent of the outlet

    • D.

      20-25 percent of the inlet

    Correct Answer
    A. 65-70 percent of the inlet
    Explanation
    When using an in-line eductor, the back pressure must not exceed 65-70 percent of the inlet pressure. This is because the eductor relies on the pressure difference between the inlet and outlet to create suction and draw in the desired fluid. If the back pressure exceeds this range, it can impede the flow and reduce the effectiveness of the eductor. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the back pressure remains within the specified range to maintain optimal performance.

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  • 45. 

    Foam extinguishes fire in several ways. Term:  Suppressing Definition:  _____________

    • A.

      Intervening between the fuel and the fire

    • B.

      Reducing the temperature of the fuel and adjacent surfaces

    • C.

      Preventing air and flammable vapors from combining

    • D.

      Establishing a perimeter for foam concentrate

    Correct Answer
    C. Preventing air and flammable vapors from combining
    Explanation
    Foam extinguishes fire by preventing air and flammable vapors from combining. This means that the foam creates a barrier between the fuel and the air, effectively cutting off the oxygen supply to the fire. Without oxygen, the fire cannot continue to burn and is extinguished.

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  • 46. 

    Foam extinguishes fire in several ways. Term:  Separating Definition:  _____________

    • A.

      Intervening between the fuel and the fire

    • B.

      Reducing the temperature of the fuel and adjacent surfaces

    • C.

      Preventing air and flammable vapors from combining

    • D.

      Establishing a perimeter for foam concentrate

    Correct Answer
    A. Intervening between the fuel and the fire
    Explanation
    The term "separating" refers to the action of intervening between the fuel and the fire. Foam extinguishes fire by creating a physical barrier between the fuel and the fire, preventing the fire from spreading further. This separation helps to contain the fire and prevent it from causing more damage.

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  • 47. 

    Foam extinguishes fire in several ways. Term:  Cooling Definition:  _____________

    • A.

      Intervening between the fuel and the fire

    • B.

      Reducing the temperature of the fuel and adjacent surfaces

    • C.

      Preventing air and flammable vapors from combining

    • D.

      Establishing a perimeter for foam concentrate

    Correct Answer
    B. Reducing the temperature of the fuel and adjacent surfaces
    Explanation
    Foam extinguishes fire by reducing the temperature of the fuel and adjacent surfaces. When foam is applied to a fire, it creates a cooling effect that lowers the temperature, making it more difficult for the fire to sustain itself and spread. This cooling action helps to prevent the fire from reigniting and also protects nearby surfaces from heat damage. By reducing the temperature, foam helps to control and extinguish the fire effectively.

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  • 48. 

    The foam application technique that directs the foam stream on the ground near the front edge of a burning liquid pool or spill is the:

    • A.

      Bank-down method.

    • B.

      Rain-down method.

    • C.

      Roll-on method.

    • D.

      Direct-application method.

    Correct Answer
    C. Roll-on method.
    Explanation
    The roll-on method is the foam application technique that directs the foam stream on the ground near the front edge of a burning liquid pool or spill. This method involves rolling the foam along the ground, creating a foam blanket that moves towards the fire, suppressing the flames and preventing the spread of the fire. It is an effective technique for controlling and extinguishing liquid fires.

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  • 49. 

    When positioning a pumper to supply a fire department connection, the driver must consider the:

    • A.

      Positioning requirements of other apparatus.

    • B.

      Square footage of the building.

    • C.

      Size of the riser.

    • D.

      Floor of the fire involvement.

    Correct Answer
    A. Positioning requirements of other apparatus.
    Explanation
    When positioning a pumper to supply a fire department connection, the driver must consider the positioning requirements of other apparatus. This means that the driver needs to take into account the location and placement of other fire trucks and equipment at the scene. By considering the positioning requirements of other apparatus, the driver can ensure that the pumper is positioned in a way that allows for efficient operation and coordination with other firefighting resources. This is important for effective firefighting and ensuring that all necessary equipment is properly positioned to combat the fire.

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  • 50. 

    Apparatus equipped with water tanks of 500 gallons or less must provide a tank-to-pump flow rate of ___________ gpm.  Those with tanks larger than 500 gallons must provide ___________ gpm.

    • A.

      250, 500

    • B.

      200, 400

    • C.

      500, 750

    • D.

      500, 700

    Correct Answer
    A. 250, 500
    Explanation
    Apparatus equipped with water tanks of 500 gallons or less must provide a tank-to-pump flow rate of 250 gpm. Those with tanks larger than 500 gallons must provide a tank-to-pump flow rate of 500 gpm.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • May 26, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 19, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Jb121257
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