Principles Of Pediatric Anesthesia Quiz! Trivia

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1. The best way to administer an IV fluid bolus to an infant is through use of a pressure bag to administer fluid quickly.

Explanation

Administering an IV fluid bolus to an infant through the use of a pressure bag is not the best way. Infants have delicate veins that can be easily damaged by the high pressure exerted by a pressure bag. A more appropriate method is to use a syringe or an infusion pump to administer the fluid slowly and carefully, taking into consideration the infant's size and condition.

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Principles Of Pediatric Anesthesia Quiz! Trivia - Quiz

There are many instances where children must be given anaesthesia, but due to how fragile they are several ways that it can be done, either through gas flowing through a mask or a needle. As an anaesthetist, you should know how to handle different kids and their reaction to some... see moreof these methods and effects of the drugs. BY taking this quiz, you will be able to assess your knowledge. Check them out!
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2. Halothane causes more myocardial depression than any of the other inhalational agents and increases the risk of arrhythmia associated with epinephrine by 4 times.

Explanation

Halothane is an inhalational anesthetic that has been shown to cause more depression of the heart muscle compared to other inhalational agents. This means that it can negatively impact the heart's ability to contract and pump blood effectively. Additionally, halothane has been found to increase the risk of arrhythmia, or abnormal heart rhythms, when used in conjunction with epinephrine. The combination of halothane and epinephrine can increase the risk of arrhythmia by four times. Therefore, the statement that halothane causes more myocardial depression than other inhalational agents and increases the risk of arrhythmia associated with epinephrine is true.

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3. You are assessing 4 yr old Madelyn prior to her going in for enucleation of her left eye. When you see her in pre-op she appears to be a little under the weather. She is sneezing and has yellow mucus coming to her nose. You listen to her lungs and hear a slight wheeze while her mom says she began to run a temperature late last night. She appears fine and is watching and giggling at a children's show on a portable DVD player her mother brought to calm her.  What do you do for this patient?

Explanation

Based on the symptoms described, including sneezing, yellow mucus, wheezing, and a temperature, it suggests that Madelyn may have an upper respiratory infection or a possible respiratory illness. These symptoms may indicate that Madelyn is not in optimal health for the surgery, as it could increase the risk of complications during and after the procedure. Therefore, it would be appropriate to talk to the surgeon about the possibility of cancelling the surgery until Madelyn's condition improves.

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4. Which of the following will not trigger Malignant Hyperthermia?

Explanation

Vecuronium is a muscle relaxant that does not trigger Malignant Hyperthermia (MH). MH is a potentially life-threatening reaction to certain medications used during general anesthesia, such as succinylcholine and inhalation anesthetics like desflurane and isoflurane. MH causes a rapid increase in body temperature, muscle rigidity, and other symptoms. However, vecuronium does not have a known association with MH and is considered safe to use in patients at risk for this condition.

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5. Which of the following would not be an appropriate way to reduce intra-op heat loss in the pediatric patient?

Explanation

Using cloths dipped in 40°C water and placing them onto a child's head during a procedure would not be an appropriate way to reduce intra-op heat loss in a pediatric patient. This is because placing warm cloths on the head can lead to excessive heat loss through the scalp, which is a large surface area for heat transfer. It is important to use methods that provide controlled and regulated heat to the patient, such as the use of an overhead radiant heating unit, a water mattress with circulating warm water, or a Bair hugger placed on the child's body.

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6. A healthy pediatric patient with no pre-existing congenital anomalies does not need any preop lab tests if the procedure is expected to have minimal blood loss.

Explanation

For a healthy pediatric patient with no pre-existing congenital anomalies, preoperative lab tests may not be necessary if the procedure is expected to have minimal blood loss. This is because in such cases, the risk of complications or abnormalities is low, and the benefits of performing the tests may not outweigh the potential discomfort or inconvenience for the patient. However, it is important to note that the decision to omit preop lab tests should be made by a healthcare professional based on a thorough assessment of the patient's medical history and the specific procedure being performed.

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7. What IM emergency drugs should you always have available for pediatric inhalation induction (assuming child has no IV access)? TWO ANSWERS

Explanation

The correct answer is Sux 5 mg/kg and Atropine 0.02 mg/kg. These drugs are commonly used for pediatric inhalation induction when the child does not have IV access. Sux (Succinylcholine) is a neuromuscular blocking agent that helps achieve muscle relaxation during intubation. Atropine is a medication that can be used to increase heart rate and prevent bradycardia during the induction process. These drugs are essential in ensuring a smooth and safe induction for pediatric patients.

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8. What would be an appropriate size ETT for a 9 yr old child weighing  33 kg?

Explanation

An appropriate size endotracheal tube (ETT) for a 9-year-old child weighing 33 kg would be 6. The size of the ETT is determined based on the age, weight, and height of the patient. In this case, a size 6 ETT is suitable for a child of this age and weight. The ETT should be of the appropriate size to ensure proper ventilation and oxygenation during anesthesia or respiratory support.

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9. Which of the following disease states is associated with an increased risk of Malignant hyperthermia?

Explanation

Muscular Dystrophy is associated with an increased risk of Malignant hyperthermia. Muscular Dystrophy is a group of genetic disorders that cause progressive weakness and loss of muscle mass. Malignant hyperthermia is a potentially life-threatening reaction to certain medications used during anesthesia, characterized by a rapid rise in body temperature and muscle rigidity. People with Muscular Dystrophy have a higher susceptibility to developing Malignant hyperthermia due to the underlying muscle abnormalities and dysfunction associated with the condition. Therefore, Muscular Dystrophy is the correct answer.

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10. What side effect is commonly associated with fentanyl that we are concerned about during anesthesia?

Explanation

Chest wall rigidity is a common side effect associated with fentanyl during anesthesia. This refers to the tightening and stiffening of the muscles in the chest, making it difficult for the patient to breathe. It can lead to respiratory distress and compromise the patient's ability to maintain adequate oxygen levels. Anesthesiologists are concerned about this side effect because it can potentially result in serious complications if not promptly recognized and managed.

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11. The majority of pediatric cardiac arrests occur when?

Explanation

Pediatric cardiac arrests primarily occur during the induction phase. This phase refers to the initial administration of anesthesia and the process of preparing the patient for surgery. It involves the use of medications and techniques to induce unconsciousness and ensure a smooth transition to the maintenance phase. During induction, there is a higher risk of cardiac arrest due to factors such as the administration of anesthesia drugs and the stress of intubation. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare providers to closely monitor the patient's vital signs and be prepared to respond quickly in case of any complications.

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12. Which of the following is not part of stage 2 PACU’s standard monitoring?

Explanation

Fluid balance is not part of stage 2 PACU's standard monitoring. Stage 2 PACU, also known as the post-anesthesia care unit, is responsible for monitoring the patient's vital signs and ensuring their stability after surgery. This includes monitoring the patient's heart rate, oxygen saturation levels, and blood pressure. However, fluid balance monitoring, which involves assessing the patient's intake and output of fluids, is typically not included as part of the standard monitoring in stage 2 PACU.

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13. In children, ETCO2 is particularly important to monitor because of which of the following reasons?

Explanation

ETCO2, or end-tidal carbon dioxide, is particularly important to monitor in children for several reasons. Firstly, it can provide the earliest indication of malignant hyperthermia (MH), a potentially life-threatening condition that can occur during anesthesia. Secondly, ETCO2 monitoring can detect hypoxia, which is the most common cause of pediatric arrest. Lastly, it allows healthcare providers to assess the adequacy of ventilation, ensuring that the child is receiving enough oxygen and having proper gas exchange. Therefore, the correct answer is "All the above."

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14. Which of the following is the most common reason for the cancellation of pediatric procedures?

Explanation

Upper respiratory infections are the most common reason for the cancellation of pediatric procedures. This is because these infections can cause complications during the procedure, such as difficulty breathing or increased risk of infection. It is important to ensure that the child is in good health before proceeding with any medical procedure to minimize any potential risks or complications.

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15. When doing a pedi drug set up, it is recommended to draw up your drugs in ‘unit dose’ syringes.

Explanation

Drawing up drugs in 'unit dose' syringes during a pedi drug set up is recommended because it ensures accurate dosing and minimizes the risk of medication errors. Unit dose syringes contain pre-measured amounts of medication, which eliminates the need for manual calculations and reduces the chances of overdosing or underdosing. This practice also promotes patient safety by preventing contamination and cross-contamination of medications. Additionally, using unit dose syringes simplifies the administration process, saves time, and improves efficiency in pediatric medication management.

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16. What would be an appropriate dose of pre-op versed for a 6 yr old child weighing 24 kg?

Explanation

An appropriate dose of pre-op versed for a 6-year-old child weighing 24 kg would be 12 mg PO. PO stands for "per os" which means orally. This means that the child should take the medication by mouth. It is important to consider the weight and age of the child when determining the appropriate dose to ensure safety and effectiveness of the medication.

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17. Most pediatric arrests are due to ________ causes in children.

Explanation

Most pediatric arrests are due to respiratory causes in children. This means that the majority of cardiac arrests in children are caused by problems with the respiratory system. This could include conditions such as choking, asthma, pneumonia, or other respiratory illnesses that can lead to a lack of oxygen and ultimately cardiac arrest. It is important to identify and address respiratory issues in children to prevent potential cardiac arrests.

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18. What would be an appropriate sized ETT for a 3 yr old child weighing 18 kg?

Explanation

An appropriate sized endotracheal tube (ETT) for a 3-year-old child weighing 18 kg would be 4.5. The size of the ETT is determined based on the weight and age of the child, as well as other factors such as the size of the child's airway. In this case, a 4.5 ETT would be suitable for the child's weight and age.

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19. What is an appropriate hourly maintenance fluid rate for a child weighing 15 kg?

Explanation

An appropriate hourly maintenance fluid rate for a child weighing 15 kg is 50 ml. This is because maintenance fluid requirements are usually calculated based on body weight, and a commonly used formula is 4-2-1, which means 4 ml/kg/hr for the first 10 kg, 2 ml/kg/hr for the next 10 kg, and 1 ml/kg/hr for every kg above 20 kg. Therefore, for a child weighing 15 kg, the appropriate hourly maintenance fluid rate would be 50 ml.

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20. What is the most important componenent of the physical exam for down syndrome patients?

Explanation

Airway examination and neck stability are the most important components of the physical exam for Down syndrome patients because individuals with Down syndrome often have anatomical abnormalities that can affect their airway and neck stability. They may have a smaller airway, a larger tongue, and decreased muscle tone in the neck, which can increase the risk of airway obstruction and breathing difficulties. Therefore, it is crucial to assess the airway and neck stability in order to ensure the safety and well-being of Down syndrome patients during medical examinations and procedures.

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21. Which of the following reasons explains why opioids appear to be more potent in neonates?

Explanation

Neonates have a more permeable blood-brain barrier, allowing opioids to enter the brain more easily. Additionally, their metabolic capabilities are decreased, resulting in slower breakdown and elimination of opioids from the body. Lastly, neonates have increased sensitivity of their respiratory centers, making them more susceptible to the respiratory depressant effects of opioids. Therefore, all of these reasons combined explain why opioids appear to be more potent in neonates.

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22. Which of the following is not a risk factor associated with cardiac arrests in the pediatric patient?

Explanation

Children 1-4 years old is not a risk factor associated with cardiac arrests in pediatric patients. This age group is generally considered to have a lower risk compared to other age groups. Risk factors such as emergency surgery, ASA 3-5 (American Society of Anesthesiologists physical status classification), and congenital airway deformities are known to increase the risk of cardiac arrests in pediatric patients.

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23. Which of the following properly describes the most common preceding events to a pediatric cardiac arrest?

Explanation

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24. You are auscultating heart sounds on a 7 yr old child and hear a short, soft, systolic murmur.  How would you classify this murmur?

Explanation

Based on the given information, the murmur heard in the 7-year-old child is described as short and soft. A short, soft, systolic murmur is typically considered innocent or benign in children. Innocent murmurs are common in children and are usually harmless, often due to the normal flow of blood through the heart. Therefore, the correct classification for this murmur would be innocent.

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25. For a normal inhalational induction your N2O should be at ______ and your O2 should be at ________ to start out with.

Explanation

For a normal inhalational induction, the N2O concentration should be at 70% and the O2 concentration should be at 30% to start out with. This is because a higher concentration of N2O helps to provide analgesia and reduce the patient's awareness during the induction process. On the other hand, a lower concentration of oxygen is used to prevent the risk of fire or explosion.

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26. What size IV catheter would be best to use on a 3 yr old child?

Explanation

A size 22 IV catheter would be the best choice for a 3-year-old child. IV catheters are used to administer fluids or medications directly into the bloodstream. The size of the catheter is determined by the gauge, which refers to the diameter of the needle. A size 22 gauge is smaller than a size 24 and larger than a size 20 or 18. In pediatric patients, it is important to use a smaller gauge to minimize discomfort and potential complications. Therefore, a size 22 IV catheter would be the most appropriate choice for a 3-year-old child.

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27. Why is it not safe to use an adult semi-closed system on an infant who weighs less than 10 kg?

Explanation

Using an adult semi-closed system on an infant who weighs less than 10 kg is not safe because it would result in too much dead space, leading to increased work of breathing. Dead space refers to the portion of the respiratory system where no gas exchange occurs, and in an infant, the dead space-to-tidal volume ratio is higher compared to adults. This means that a larger proportion of the inspired air is not participating in gas exchange, resulting in inefficient ventilation and increased effort required for breathing. This can put a strain on the infant's respiratory system and potentially lead to respiratory distress.

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28. What would be an appropriate size LMA for an infant weighing 9 kg?

Explanation

An appropriate size LMA for an infant weighing 9 kg would be 1.5. The size of the LMA is determined based on the weight of the patient, and in this case, the infant weighs 9 kg. The LMA size 1.5 is suitable for infants in this weight range, providing a secure airway and effective ventilation during medical procedures.

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29. You are going to do a pre-op on a 6 yr old patient about to undergo a Left nephrectomy to remove a tumor.You walk into the room and find a very nervous little boy clutching a bear and hiding under the covers, the father also looks very upset and nervous. What should your approach be to do this pre-op?

Explanation

In this scenario, the best approach would be to first address the parent's anxiety and nervousness. By calming the parent, it will create a more stable and supportive environment for the child. Once the parent is calmer, they can then help in reassuring the child and making them feel more comfortable. This approach recognizes the importance of the parent's role in providing emotional support to the child and establishes a foundation of trust and cooperation for the pre-op procedure.

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30. Approximately what percentage of children with down syndrome will have associated cardiac anomalies?

Explanation

Approximately 40-60% of children with Down syndrome will have associated cardiac anomalies. This means that a significant number of children with Down syndrome will have some form of heart defect or abnormality. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of this statistic and closely monitor the cardiac health of children with Down syndrome to ensure early detection and appropriate treatment of any cardiac anomalies.

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31. What would be an appropriate size LMA for a child weighing 27 kg?

Explanation

An appropriate size LMA for a child weighing 27 kg would be 2.5. The size of the LMA is determined based on the weight of the child, and in this case, a child weighing 27 kg would require a size 2.5 LMA.

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32. What size laryngoscope blade would you choose to intubate an 8  yr old child?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 mac. The Macintosh (mac) blade is commonly used for intubation in children. The size of the blade is determined by the age and size of the child. In this case, for an 8-year-old child, a 2 mac blade would be appropriate. The mac blade is designed to lift the epiglottis and provide a clear view of the vocal cords, making intubation easier and safer.

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33. The preferred combination of narcotics and inhalational agents, commonly the “bread and butter” of many ped anesthetists is ______  & _________.

Explanation

The preferred combination of narcotics and inhalational agents commonly used by pediatric anesthetists is 1-2 mcg/kg Fentanyl and 0.5 MAC isoflurane. This combination provides effective pain relief and anesthesia for pediatric patients during surgery. Fentanyl is a potent opioid analgesic that helps to manage pain, while isoflurane is an inhalational anesthetic that produces general anesthesia. The dosage of fentanyl and the MAC level of isoflurane are carefully adjusted based on the individual patient's needs and the type of surgery being performed. This combination has been found to be safe and effective in pediatric anesthesia practice.

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34. What would be the ideal position for induction of a 4 yr old child who is frightened and refuses to lie flat on the OR table?

Explanation

The ideal position for induction of a frightened 4-year-old child who refuses to lie flat on the OR table is to have the child sit in the center of the OR table while the healthcare professional sits nearby and wraps their arm around the child to induce anesthesia via mask inhalation. This approach allows the child to feel secure and supported while receiving the anesthesia, which can help alleviate their fear and anxiety.

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35. You are the SRNA for a 6 yr old child coming in from the ER for an emergent appendectomy. Which of the following is the best choice for induction?  

Explanation

The best choice for induction in this scenario is to place an IV prior to the procedure for safe induction. This is because an appendectomy is an emergent surgery and requires a rapid and controlled induction of anesthesia. Inhalational induction may not be suitable as the patient is not likely to cooperate with IV placement. IM induction with ketamine is not the best choice as it may not provide the required depth of anesthesia and control during the procedure. Therefore, the safest and most appropriate option is to place an IV prior to the surgery.

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36. Which of the following would be the best choice for the induction of a pediatric patient coming in for emergent surgery following an MVA? The child is currently wheezing and according to his father, the child has a history of severe asthma.

Explanation

Ketamine would be the best choice for the induction of a pediatric patient coming in for emergent surgery following an MVA, especially considering the child's history of severe asthma and current wheezing. Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic that provides both analgesia and sedation, making it a suitable option for patients with respiratory issues. It has bronchodilatory effects and does not suppress the respiratory drive, which is important in this case. Additionally, ketamine has a favorable safety profile and is known for its rapid onset and short duration of action, making it ideal for emergent situations.

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37. What type of breathing circuit would you choose for a child weighing less than 10 kg?

Explanation

The Jackson-Rees Circuit would be the most appropriate choice for a child weighing less than 10 kg. This circuit is specifically designed for pediatric patients and provides controlled ventilation with low resistance. It allows for precise control of oxygen and anesthetic gas delivery, making it suitable for small patients. The other options mentioned, such as the Small semi-closed Circuit, Mapleson A, and Standard adult semi closed system, are not specifically designed for pediatric patients and may not provide the same level of control and safety.

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38. You are the SRNA for a 2 week old child undergoing repair of a patent PDA. Which of the following is not true regarding proper monitor placement?

Explanation

The O2 sat probe should not be placed on the left hand for the procedure. This is because during the repair of a patent PDA, the left hand may be used for arterial line placement or for obtaining blood samples. Placing the O2 sat probe on the left hand may interfere with these procedures and compromise patient care.

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39. What response will infants typically have to exogenously administered catecholamines such as ephedrine?

Explanation

Infants typically have a blunted response to exogenously administered catecholamines such as ephedrine. This is because they have lower catecholamine stores compared to adults. Catecholamines are hormones that play a role in the body's response to stress and regulate various physiological processes. Due to their lower levels of these hormones, infants may not exhibit the same level of response as adults would.

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40. What pre-op medication would you choose for a 3 week old child, who weighs 4 kg, undergoing  surgery to  correct a pyloric stenosis?

Explanation

Atropine is the correct choice for pre-op medication in a 3-week-old child undergoing surgery to correct pyloric stenosis. Atropine is commonly used to reduce salivation and respiratory secretions, and it also helps to prevent bradycardia during anesthesia. The dose of 0.08 mg IM is appropriate for a child of this age and weight. Ketamine, Versed, and Fentanyl are not typically used as pre-op medications in infants of this age.

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41. High dose opioid therapy during maintenance of anesthesia may be appropriate for which of the following?

Explanation

High dose opioid therapy during maintenance of anesthesia may be appropriate for a child with cardiac instability who requires surgical intervention because opioids can provide effective analgesia and sedation while minimizing the stress response and hemodynamic instability associated with surgery. Opioids have minimal effects on the cardiovascular system and can help maintain hemodynamic stability in patients with cardiac instability. Additionally, opioids have a predictable and reversible effect, making them a suitable choice for patients who may need rapid adjustment of anesthesia depth.

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42. What would be appropriate pre-op medication for a child with a latex allergy?

Explanation

All the above options would be appropriate pre-op medications for a child with a latex allergy. Benadryl can help alleviate allergic symptoms, Prednisone can reduce inflammation and allergic reactions, and Zantac can help prevent gastric acid secretion. Using all of these medications together can provide comprehensive pre-operative care for a child with a latex allergy.

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43. Malignant Hyperthermia is a severe reaction which results in ryanodine receptor activation leading to…

Explanation

Malignant Hyperthermia is a severe reaction that occurs due to the activation of ryanodine receptors. These receptors are responsible for releasing calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells. When these receptors are activated, there is an excessive release of calcium into the intracellular space, leading to intracellular hypercalcemia. This abnormal increase in calcium levels can result in muscle rigidity, hypermetabolism, and a rapid rise in body temperature, which are characteristic symptoms of malignant hyperthermia.

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44. What should be your first action when preparing to do a pre-op assessment on a 3 yr old child?

Explanation

The first action when preparing to do a pre-op assessment on a 3 yr old child should be to review the chart. This is important to gather information about the child's medical history, any previous surgeries, allergies, or any other relevant information that may impact the pre-op assessment and anesthesia plan. Reviewing the chart helps in ensuring the safety and well-being of the child during the procedure.

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45. You are going to do a pre-op on 5 yr old Trevor who is going in today for a repair of an inguinal hernia. When you go to assess him pre-op you see he is sniffly. His mother says he has seasonal allergies and has a constant runny nose. You go to look at Trevor and indeed his little nose is red and he has clear mucus coming from his nose, but no fever or wheezes. He does not appear to be otherwise ill and in fact, is playing with his stuffed dinosaur. Is it safe to proceed with the procedure?

Explanation

Based on the given information, Trevor's sniffles and runny nose are attributed to his seasonal allergies rather than an upper respiratory infection. He does not have a fever or wheezes, and he appears to be otherwise healthy and engaged in play. Therefore, it is safe to proceed with the procedure.

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46. You are the nurse for a premature child who was born at full term. The child is now 10 weeks old and doing very well. The child is having a minor procedure and was maintained with fentanyl 2mcg/kg and 0.5 MAC  Isoflurane. The childs mother wants to know when the child can come home. What do you tell her?

Explanation

The correct answer is "We will most likely keep her overnight on a pulse oximeter just to watch her." This answer is the most appropriate because it acknowledges the need for monitoring the child after the procedure. Premature babies may have a higher risk of complications and it is important to observe their vital signs, including oxygen saturation levels, to ensure their safety. Keeping the child overnight on a pulse oximeter allows healthcare providers to closely monitor her and intervene if necessary.

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47. In the pediatric population, the greatest amount of heat loss during surgery comes from…

Explanation

Radiation is the correct answer because it refers to the transfer of heat through electromagnetic waves. During surgery, pediatric patients may experience heat loss through radiation as their body heat is emitted to the surrounding environment. Conduction refers to the transfer of heat through direct contact, while convection involves heat transfer through the movement of fluids or gases. While both conduction and convection can contribute to heat loss during surgery, radiation is considered the greatest contributor in the pediatric population.

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48. What would be an appropriate starting dose of dantrolene to give to a 3 yr old child weighing 14 kg?

Explanation

An appropriate starting dose of dantrolene for a 3-year-old child weighing 14 kg would be 35 mg. The dosage of dantrolene is usually calculated based on the child's weight, and a common starting dose is around 1-2 mg/kg. In this case, 35 mg is within the appropriate range for a child weighing 14 kg.

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49. Which of the following children would likely experience the greatest amount of separation anxiety?

Explanation

An 11 month old child would likely experience the greatest amount of separation anxiety because this is the age when separation anxiety typically peaks. At this stage, infants have developed a strong attachment to their primary caregiver and may become distressed when separated from them. They may cry, cling, or display other signs of anxiety when the caregiver is not present. This is a normal and temporary phase of development that typically improves as the child grows older.

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50. During an inhalational induction, once your pediatric patient is tubed your first priority should be…

Explanation

Starting an IV is the correct answer because once the pediatric patient is tubed during an inhalational induction, it is important to establish intravenous access as a priority. This is necessary for administering medications, fluids, and emergency drugs if needed. It allows for immediate access to the bloodstream in case of any complications or emergencies during the procedure.

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51. A normal healthy child may be transported to PACU without any supplemental oxygen.

Explanation

A normal healthy child does not require supplemental oxygen during transportation to the PACU (Post-Anesthesia Care Unit) because their oxygen levels are within a normal range and they are able to breathe adequately on their own. Supplemental oxygen is usually only necessary for patients who have respiratory issues or are at risk of developing hypoxia.

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52. Inhalational induction should not be done on children with asthma due to increased risk of bronchospasm. 

Explanation

Inhalational induction should not be done on children with asthma due to the increased risk of bronchospasm. This statement is true because children with asthma have sensitive airways that can easily become inflamed and constricted when exposed to certain triggers, such as anesthesia gases. Inhalational induction involves the administration of anesthesia gases through a mask or inhaler, which can potentially trigger bronchospasm in children with asthma. Therefore, it is recommended to use alternative methods of induction in these cases to minimize the risk of complications.

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53. You are the SRNa for 11 yr old Shaheem who has a PMH of asthma. Immediately after induction and intubation you hear wheezing develop. What should be your first action?

Explanation

The correct answer is to give a B2 agonist such as albuterol 4-8 puffs through the endotracheal tube (ETT). Wheezing after induction and intubation in a patient with a history of asthma suggests bronchospasm. Administering a B2 agonist directly into the airway via the ETT can help relieve the wheezing and improve ventilation. Delivering 100% FiO2 is important for oxygenation, but it does not directly address the bronchospasm. Administering hydrocortisone IV may be beneficial in the long term but is not the first-line treatment for acute bronchospasm. Turning off the anesthetic and starting a propofol gtt would not address the bronchospasm either.

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54. The MAC for all anesthetic agents are highest at what age?

Explanation

The correct answer is 6-12 months. The MAC (Minimum Alveolar Concentration) refers to the concentration of anesthetic agent required to prevent movement in 50% of patients when exposed to a noxious stimulus. The MAC for anesthetic agents is highest in infants between 6-12 months of age. This means that a higher concentration of anesthetic agent is needed to achieve the desired effect in this age group compared to other age groups.

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55. What is the most important factor when examining a patient with cystic fibrosis?

Explanation

The most important factor when examining a patient with cystic fibrosis is conducting a physical exam and checking for signs of chronic hypoxia. Cystic fibrosis primarily affects the lungs, leading to the buildup of mucus and subsequent respiratory complications. Chronic hypoxia, which is a deficiency in the amount of oxygen reaching the tissues, is a common consequence of lung damage in cystic fibrosis patients. Therefore, assessing the physical signs of chronic hypoxia, such as clubbing of the fingers, cyanosis, and shortness of breath, is crucial in evaluating the severity and progression of the disease.

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56. Which of the following is not true regarding management of a patient with sickle cell disease?

Explanation

Narcotics should be avoided in patients with sickle cell disease because they can cause respiratory depression and worsen hypoxemia. This is because sickle cell disease patients already have impaired oxygen delivery due to vaso-occlusion caused by sickled cells in the microvasculature. Therefore, the use of narcotics can further compromise their respiratory function and oxygenation.

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57. A 7 yr old child must not eat solid food for how many hours prior to procedure?

Explanation

A 7-year-old child must not eat solid food for 8 hours prior to a procedure. This is important because eating solid food within this time frame can increase the risk of aspiration during the procedure. Aspiration occurs when food or liquid enters the airway and can lead to serious complications. Therefore, it is necessary to ensure that the child's stomach is empty before the procedure to minimize the risk of aspiration and ensure their safety.

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58. You are the SRNA for 14 yr old Nathan who has a PMH of cerebral palsy. The mother of states he has reflux and takes medication at home to help control this. He currently has a PEG tube due to difficulty swallowing. When you examine the pt you notice copious amounts of drool coming from his mouth. What sort of induction would be best for this patient?

Explanation

The copious amounts of drool coming from the patient's mouth could be due to difficulty swallowing caused by cerebral palsy. Rapid sequence induction with succinylcholine would be the best option for this patient because it allows for a quick and controlled intubation without the need for the patient to cooperate or swallow. This method ensures that the airway is secured promptly and safely to prevent aspiration of the excessive drool.

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59. You are the SRNA for 15 yr old Valerie who has cerebral palsy. Due to the CP she has a past history lung infections and seizures. She currently takes dilantin to help control the seizures. Will this affect your case management?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the SRNA will need to use a much higher dose of ND-NMB's due to enzyme induction. This is because dilantin, which Valerie takes to control her seizures, is known to induce the enzymes responsible for metabolizing neuromuscular blocking agents (NMB's). As a result, higher doses of NMB's are required to achieve the desired effect in patients taking dilantin.

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60. How is the pediatric airway different from that of adults?

Explanation

The pediatric airway is different from that of adults because it is more superior and has a more acute angulation between the plane of the tongue and the epiglottis. This makes visualization difficult during airway management procedures. The other options mentioned, such as a smaller tongue and a very stiff epiglottis, as well as the narrowest portion of the airway being the vocal cords, are not correct explanations for the difference between pediatric and adult airways.

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61. You are the SRNA for 10 yr old Jacob who is coming in for an emergent appendectomy. Due to the surgery being emergent, he is being induced with IV rapid sequence induction. Almost immediately folloring administration of Succinycholine Jacob develops a severe arrhythmia and then goes into cardiac arrest. What caused this and what do you do?

Explanation

The correct answer is to immediately begin treatment for hyperkalemia as you run the code. Succinylcholine, a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker, can cause a release of potassium from the muscles, leading to hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can cause severe arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Therefore, it is important to start treating hyperkalemia immediately while running the code to stabilize the patient's cardiac rhythm and prevent further complications.

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62. Which of the following is not an advantage associated with IV induction?

Explanation

IV induction is not associated with the advantage of less pain and anxiety for children compared to inhalational induction.

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63. What is the most common cause of respiratory arrest in pediatric patients?

Explanation

Laryngospasm is the most common cause of respiratory arrest in pediatric patients. Laryngospasm occurs when the vocal cords in the throat spasm and close off the airway, preventing air from entering the lungs. This can be triggered by various factors such as irritation, infection, or an allergic reaction. Laryngospasm can quickly lead to respiratory distress and ultimately respiratory arrest if not promptly treated. It is important to recognize the signs of laryngospasm and intervene immediately to open the airway and restore breathing in pediatric patients.

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64. Which of the following is not a sign of latex allergy?

Explanation

Bradycardia and arrhythmias are not typically associated with latex allergies. Latex allergies commonly present with symptoms such as laryngeal edema, pruritus (itching), and bronchospasm. Bradycardia and arrhythmias may be caused by other factors or medical conditions, but they are not specific signs of latex allergy.

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65. In order to work well EMLA cream must be applied at least how many minutes prior to IV start?

Explanation

EMLA cream needs to be applied at least 45 minutes prior to an IV start in order to work effectively. Applying the cream 45 minutes in advance allows enough time for the numbing agents in the cream to penetrate the skin and desensitize the area. This ensures that the patient does not experience pain or discomfort during the IV insertion. Applying the cream too close to the procedure may not provide sufficient numbing effect, leading to potential discomfort for the patient.

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66. When monitoring the pediatric patient, where should the precordial stethoscope be placed?

Explanation

The precordial stethoscope should be placed on the left sternal border in the 2nd or 3rd intercostal space when monitoring a pediatric patient. This location allows for optimal auscultation of heart sounds and helps to accurately assess the patient's cardiac function. Placing the stethoscope on the right sternal border or in a different intercostal space may not provide clear and accurate heart sounds. The left midclavicular line in the 5th intercostal space is typically used for auscultating lung sounds, not heart sounds.

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67. Which of the following children is the best candidate for a deep extubation?

Explanation

The 9-year-old healthy child with asthma is the best candidate for a deep extubation because they have had no asthma attacks in one year and no wheezes. This indicates good control of their asthma and suggests that they are less likely to have complications during extubation. Additionally, the child is undergoing a minor elective procedure and has maintained spontaneous ventilation throughout the procedure, further supporting their suitability for a deep extubation.

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68. At how much pressure should you observe an air leak in pediatric ETT’s?

Explanation

An air leak should be observed at a pressure of 15-20 cm H2O in pediatric ETT's. This pressure range indicates that the endotracheal tube is properly sealed and there is no significant leakage of air. This is important to ensure that the patient is receiving the intended ventilation and there are no complications such as inadequate oxygenation or ventilation.

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69. What would be an appropriate IM stun dose ketamine for a 14 yr old boy weighing 40 kg?

Explanation

An appropriate IM stun dose of ketamine for a 14-year-old boy weighing 40 kg would be 80 mg. This dose is determined based on the weight of the patient and is considered safe and effective for inducing anesthesia or sedation.

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70. When placing a nerve stimulator on a child with cerebral palsy, which of the following is true?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Placing stimulator on a spastic extremity may cause falsely high readings and may lead to overdosing of NMB’s." This is because spastic extremities in children with cerebral palsy can have abnormal muscle tone and responses, which can result in exaggerated readings from the nerve stimulator. This can lead to the administration of higher doses of neuromuscular blocking agents (NMBs) than necessary, potentially causing complications or adverse effects.

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71. What type of circuit would you choose for a pediatric patient weighing more than 10 kg?

Explanation

A small semi-closed circuit would be the most suitable choice for a pediatric patient weighing more than 10 kg. This type of circuit provides a more controlled and precise delivery of anesthesia, which is important for pediatric patients who require smaller doses. Additionally, the small circuit size helps to minimize the dead space and reduce the risk of rebreathing carbon dioxide. Therefore, it is a safer and more efficient option for pediatric patients in this weight range.

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72. What size laryngoscope blade would you choose to intubate a 3 yr old child?

Explanation

The correct answer is 1.5 mil. When intubating a 3-year-old child, a laryngoscope blade size of 1.5 mil would be appropriate. Laryngoscope blades are used to visualize the vocal cords and facilitate the insertion of an endotracheal tube during intubation. The size of the blade is chosen based on the patient's age, size, and anatomical characteristics. In this case, a 1.5 mil blade would likely provide a good fit and optimal visualization for intubating a 3-year-old child.

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73. You are the SRNA for 8 yr old Camryn who is in today to have a Tympanoplasty. She has a PMH of asthma, and she had her adenoids removed at age 3. You listen to her lungs and hear wheezing. You ask her mom about the wheezing and her mother says that Camryn has a constant wheeze that does not clear, this is normal for her. What do you now?

Explanation

Given the patient's history of asthma and the presence of wheezing, it is important to obtain medical clearance from her pulmonologist before proceeding with surgery. This is necessary to ensure that her asthma is well-controlled and that she is in a stable condition for the procedure. Administering albuterol or hydrocortisone without consulting the pulmonologist may not be appropriate as it is important to have a comprehensive understanding of her respiratory status before proceeding. Canceling the surgery without further evaluation would also not be an appropriate response.

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74. Which of the following children would be at an increased risk Latex Allergy

Explanation

Spina bifida is a birth defect that affects the development of the spine and spinal cord. It is often associated with other health conditions, such as latex allergy. Individuals with spina bifida often undergo multiple surgeries and medical procedures, which increases their exposure to latex products, such as gloves, catheters, and medical equipment. Therefore, Olivia, who has spina bifida, would be at an increased risk of developing a latex allergy compared to the other children mentioned.

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75. A child with a recent URI would be at an increased risk for all of the following except:

Explanation

A child with a recent URI (upper respiratory infection) would be at an increased risk for laryngospasm, atelectasis, and wheezing. This is because a URI can cause inflammation and congestion in the upper airways, leading to narrowing and obstruction of the air passages. Laryngospasm refers to the sudden closure of the vocal cords, which can occur due to irritation and inflammation caused by the URI. Atelectasis refers to the collapse of a part or the entire lung, which can occur due to blockage of the air passages. Wheezing is a common symptom of airway narrowing and obstruction. However, pneumonia is not directly related to a URI. Pneumonia is an infection that primarily affects the lungs, usually caused by bacteria or viruses. While a URI can increase the risk of developing pneumonia, it is not a direct consequence of a recent URI.

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76. You are SRNA for 17 yr old Sarah who has a past history of down syndrome. Her mother tells you that during previous procedures it had been told to her that Sarah has a very difficult airway and an unstable neck. You look at the airway and it does indeed look to be very difficult. How will you choose to intubate sarah?

Explanation

Given the information provided about Sarah's difficult airway and unstable neck, fiberoptic nasal intubation would be the most appropriate choice. This method allows for visualization of the airway using a flexible fiberoptic scope, which can navigate around any anatomical abnormalities or restrictions. It is a safer option compared to other methods as it minimizes the risk of further injury or complications. Additionally, it allows for a more controlled and precise intubation process, ensuring the best possible outcome for Sarah.

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77. At what level is the larynx located in infants?

Explanation

The larynx is located at the level of C4 in infants. This refers to the fourth cervical vertebrae, which is situated in the neck region. The larynx, also known as the voice box, plays a crucial role in producing sound and aiding in respiration. Understanding the anatomical position of the larynx is important for various medical procedures and assessments in infants.

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78. What is the overall incidence of cardiac arrest in the pediatric population?

Explanation

The overall incidence of cardiac arrest in the pediatric population is 1.4 per 10,000.

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79. Which of the following is not commonly associated with Trisomy 21?

Explanation

Trisomy 21, also known as Down syndrome, is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. It is commonly associated with certain physical and developmental characteristics, such as intellectual disability, distinctive facial features, and certain health conditions. Endocardial Cushion Defects, Hirschsprung's disease, and frequent upper respiratory infections are all commonly associated with Trisomy 21. However, stiff joints and neck resulting in limited mobility is not typically associated with this condition.

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80. Which of the following is not true regarding children with cystic fibrosis?

Explanation

The correct answer is "ETT placement may increase airway swelling and thus these patients are much better to have LMA’s and spontaneous ventilations if at all possible." This statement is not true because ETT placement does not increase airway swelling in children with cystic fibrosis. In fact, ETT placement is a common method of securing the airway in these patients during surgery or other procedures.

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81. What is the incidence of Malignant Hyperthermia in children?

Explanation

The incidence of Malignant Hyperthermia in children is 1 in 15,000. This means that out of every 15,000 children, one will develop Malignant Hyperthermia.

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82. Which of the following inhalational anesthetic agents may cause bradycardia, vasodilation and myocardial depression in infants?

Explanation

Isoflurane is an inhalational anesthetic agent that may cause bradycardia, vasodilation, and myocardial depression in infants. This is because isoflurane has a direct effect on the cardiovascular system, leading to a decrease in heart rate (bradycardia), relaxation of blood vessels (vasodilation), and depression of the heart muscle (myocardial depression). These effects can be particularly pronounced in infants due to their immature cardiovascular system. Therefore, isoflurane should be used with caution in this population to avoid potential complications.

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83. Which of the following is not true regarding use of Brutane?

Explanation

The given answer states that the technique of using Brutane is not appropriate for hysterical children. This implies that using Brutane may not be effective or suitable for managing hysterical children.

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84. Which of the following properly describes the Sundown Sign?

Explanation

The Sundown Sign is properly described as the contraction of the inferior rectus muscle of the eye causing the eyeball to look downward toward the toes. This sign refers to the downward movement of the eyeball and is often seen in certain medical conditions or neurological disorders. It is important to understand this description in order to recognize and interpret the Sundown Sign correctly in clinical practice.

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85. The first step in the pediatric RSI sequence is….

Explanation

Pretreatment with atropine is the first step in the pediatric Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI) sequence. Atropine is administered to pediatric patients to prevent bradycardia during intubation, especially in those who are at risk or have a history of bradycardia. It is given prior to the administration of the induction agent to ensure that the patient's heart rate remains stable during the procedure. This step is crucial in maintaining the patient's hemodynamic stability and preventing complications.

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86. Which of the following is not helpful in preventing laryngospasm?

Explanation

Suctioning secretions immediately after extubation can actually be helpful in preventing laryngospasm, as it helps to clear the airway and reduce the risk of blockage. Therefore, this option is not the correct answer.

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87. Which of the following is not true regarding muscular dystrophy patients?

Explanation

Muscular dystrophy patients should avoid succinylcholine, a muscle relaxant, due to the risk of triggering malignant hyperthermia. However, volatile anesthetic agents (VAA) are generally considered safe for most patients with muscular dystrophy, unless there is a past history indicating otherwise. VAA are used for general anesthesia and do not pose the same risk as succinylcholine. It is important to consider the patient's medical history and consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.

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88. Due to decreased FRC, infants are more prone to all of the following except:

Explanation

Due to decreased FRC (functional residual capacity), infants have a higher risk of developing atelectasis (collapse of lung), hypoxemia and rapid desaturation (low oxygen levels in the blood). However, laryngospasm (spasm of the vocal cords) is not directly related to decreased FRC and is therefore not a common risk in infants.

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89. You are nearing the end of surgery for 13 yr old Kami who started wheezing part way through her surgery. You gave albuterol and started her on steroid therapy but she is still wheezing. Her O2 sats are good and she is breathing adequate tidal volumes. What should you do?

Explanation

The correct answer is to not extubate the patient and take her to the PACU. This is because she is still wheezing despite receiving albuterol and steroid therapy. By keeping her intubated and taking her to the PACU, the patient can be closely monitored and further interventions can be provided if necessary. Extubating her while she is still wheezing may lead to complications such as laryngospasm or respiratory distress.

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90. What should be your first action for a suspected anaphylactic response during anesthesia?

Explanation

In the case of a suspected anaphylactic response during anesthesia, switching to 100% O2 is the recommended first action. This is because anaphylaxis can lead to severe respiratory distress, and providing the patient with 100% oxygen can help improve oxygenation and prevent hypoxia. This action should be taken immediately to ensure the patient's safety and stabilize their condition.

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91. Neonates and infants have less effective ventilation due to all of the following except what?

Explanation

Neonates and infants have less effective ventilation due to weak intercostals and diaphragmatic musculature, more pliable and horizontal ribs, and a protuberant abdomen. However, a larger tongue and head do not contribute to their less effective ventilation.

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92. Which of the inhalational agents had the highest incidence of  emergence delirum?

Explanation

Desflurane has the highest incidence of emergence delirium among the given inhalational agents. Emergence delirium is a common side effect that occurs during the recovery phase after anesthesia. It is characterized by confusion, agitation, disorientation, and sometimes aggressive behavior. Desflurane is known to have a more rapid onset and offset compared to other inhalational agents, which may contribute to a higher incidence of emergence delirium. Additionally, desflurane has a pungent odor and can irritate the airways, potentially leading to increased agitation and delirium in some patients.

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93. Which of the following is incorrect regarding maintenance of survival position?

Explanation

The correct answer is that downward pressure should not be applied to the mask, instead, the jaw should be lifted up to form a tight seal. This is because applying downward pressure to the mask can cause air to leak out and prevent a proper seal from forming. Lifting the jaw up helps to align the airway and ensure that the mask fits securely over the face, allowing for effective ventilation.

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94. You are the SRNA for 16-month-old Arturo, who is about to be extubated. As he is waking up from anesthesia you deliver 100% FiO2, but then Arturo begins to cough. He becomes cyanotic as you suction your tube to rule out any kind of obstruction. Your FiO2 is100% and the pt is ventilating but still blue. What do you do?

Explanation

The correct answer is to just wait, as cyanosis caused by coughing is likely temporary and will resolve once the coughing stops. Administering sux to break laryngospasm is not indicated as there is no evidence of laryngospasm in the scenario. Giving albuterol via ETT may be considered if there is suspicion of bronchospasm, but it is not mentioned in the scenario. Calling a code and beginning PALS protocol is not necessary as the patient is still ventilating and the cyanosis is likely due to coughing.

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95. When setting an adult vent for pediatric use in pressure-controlled mode, which of the following would be inappropriate?

Explanation

Setting the pop off limit to vent to 30 cm H2O would be inappropriate when setting an adult vent for pediatric use in pressure-controlled mode. The pop off limit is the maximum pressure at which the ventilator will release excess pressure. In pediatric patients, the pop off limit should be set lower to prevent barotrauma and ensure the safety of the patient. Therefore, setting the pop off limit to 30 cm H2O would not be appropriate in this scenario.

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96. You are the SRNA for 22 month old Collin who is about to be extubated. During emergence he starts to vigorously cough and then becomes cyanotic. You have 100% O2, and make sure he is not hypoventilating. You suction his airway to check form any obstruction and find there is no obstruction, yet little Collin still remains blue. What is wrong?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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97. Why are patients with muscular dystrophy more prone to cardiac arrhythmias?

Explanation

Patients with muscular dystrophy are more prone to cardiac arrhythmias due to the lack of dystrophin, which is essential for proper cardiac function. Dystrophin is a protein that helps maintain the structural integrity of muscle cells, including those in the heart. Without dystrophin, the heart muscle becomes weakened and more susceptible to irregular electrical impulses, leading to arrhythmias. This is a common genetic issue associated with muscular dystrophy, and it explains why these patients are at a higher risk for cardiac arrhythmias.

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98. Which of the following is not true regarding pre-op treatment of a patient with down syndrome?

Explanation

It is not necessary to obtain neck X-rays for all patients with Down syndrome. Neck X-rays are typically performed in patients with Down syndrome who have symptoms or signs of atlantoaxial instability, such as neck pain, limitation of neck movement, or neurological symptoms.

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99. You are doing an inhalation induction on 6 yr old Tessie when she begins to cough and goes into laryngospasm. She begins to desaturate, how do you treat her?

Explanation

Laryngospasm is a spasm of the vocal cords that can occur during anesthesia induction. It can lead to airway obstruction and desaturation. The treatment for laryngospasm is to administer a muscle relaxant, such as succinylcholine (sux), to relax the vocal cords and allow for proper ventilation. The recommended dose for sux is 4-6 mg/kg when administered intramuscularly (IM). Therefore, the correct answer is to administer sux 4-6 mg/kg IM to treat Tessie's laryngospasm and prevent further desaturation.

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