Principles II- Exam 3

71 Questions | Total Attempts: 262

SettingsSettingsSettings
Please wait...
School Quizzes & Trivia

A review of the material for Exam 3 in Principles covering OB anesthesia.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    If intubation should fail, as an anesthetist you should be most concerned with saving the life of the….
    • A. 

      Fetus

    • B. 

      Mother

    • C. 

      Neither is more important than the other

    • D. 

      Myself!!!

  • 2. 
    You are the SRNA for Mrs. Gitz who is coming to you for an elective C-section today. She has refused epidural anesthesia, so will have to undergo general anesthesia today. You begin a rapid sequence induction and are unable to intubate. You able to ventilate the pt with cricioid pressure, but can’t seem to get a tube in. What do you do?
    • A. 

      Perform retrograde intubation

    • B. 

      Insert LMA and then proceed with case

    • C. 

      Wake pt up, then do an awake fiberoptic intubation

    • D. 

      Maintain ventilation with cricoid pressure and proceed with surgery

  • 3. 
    You are the SRNA for Ms. Tiyarah who is coming down for an emergent c-section due to fetal distress. She does not have an epidural, so must undergo general anesthesia since there is no time to insert one. You do a rapid sequence induction and are unable to intubate the pt. You are able to maintain ventilation with cricoids pressure but can’t get a tube in. What do you do?
    • A. 

      Perform retrograde intubation

    • B. 

      Perform Transtracheal Jet Ventilation

    • C. 

      Wake pt up, then do an awake fiberoptic intubation

    • D. 

      Maintain ventilation with cricoid pressure and proceed with surgery

  • 4. 
    Which of the following is not an indication for general anesthesia?
    • A. 

      Precipitous labor

    • B. 

      Fetal Distress

    • C. 

      Pt hemorrhaging

    • D. 

      Failed regional block

  • 5. 
    Which nonparticulate antacid is commonly given to pregnant pts undergoing general anesthesia?
    • A. 

      Metaclopromide

    • B. 

      Bicitra

    • C. 

      Calcium Carbonate

    • D. 

      Pepcid

  • 6. 
    How should the pregnant pt be extubated upon emergence from general anesthesia?
    • A. 

      Deep extubation

    • B. 

      All pregnant pts should remain intubated until cleared by OB/GYN

    • C. 

      Awake extubation

    • D. 

      Extubate of jet stylet so re-intubation easier if necessary

  • 7. 
    In the obese patient in labor, it is of particular importance to…
    • A. 

      Avoid regional blocks due to difficulty in locating anatomical landmarks

    • B. 

      Administer anxiolytic and opioids as soon as possible to initiate pain control

    • C. 

      Talk to them about how to lose the baby weight (and then some) after birth

    • D. 

      Make every effort to initiate early regional anesthetic

  • 8. 
    You are doing general anesthesia on Mrs. Maritt who is having a lap chole today. She is also 7 months pregnant and morbidly obese. Which of the following would not be an airway consideration with this patient?
    • A. 

      More anterior larynx

    • B. 

      Limited flexion

    • C. 

      Narrowed view of pharyngeal opening

    • D. 

      Limited mouth opening

  • 9. 
    Which of the following is not an indication for cesarean section?
    • A. 

      Fetal Distress

    • B. 

      Failed regional block

    • C. 

      Dystocia

    • D. 

      Cephalopelvic disproportion

  • 10. 
    For cesarean section with epidural in place, you want to achieve a sensory blockade at what level?
    • A. 

      T6

    • B. 

      T2

    • C. 

      T4

    • D. 

      T8

  • 11. 
    Duty, Breach, Injury, and Proximate cause are all elements that are necessary to establish what?
    • A. 

      Sentinel Event

    • B. 

      Obstetric risk

    • C. 

      Culpability

    • D. 

      Medical Malpractice

  • 12. 
    What are the most common precipitating events leading to adverse outcome in obstetric anesthesia?
    • A. 

      Respiratory Events

    • B. 

      Cardiac Events

    • C. 

      Fetal Distress

    • D. 

      Abnormal fetal presentation

  • 13. 
    What is the preferred anesthetic method for the obstetric patient?
    • A. 

      MAC sedation

    • B. 

      Regional Anesthesia

    • C. 

      General Anesthesia

    • D. 

      All the above are equally good options

  • 14. 
    All OB patients going for a c-section are considered to have full stomachs regardless of how long they have been NPO.  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 15. 
    Minimum NPO status for an elective C-section is ____ hours.
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      8

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      10

  • 16. 
    Which of the following does not contribute to increases risk of aspiration during anesthesia for pregnant patients?
    • A. 

      Increased intragastric pressure

    • B. 

      Lower esophageal sphincter tone

    • C. 

      Delayed Gastric emptying

    • D. 

      All the above contribute.

  • 17. 
    Aspiration is more likely to occur for all of the following pregnant patients except?
    • A. 

      Pt who is overdue by 2 weeks

    • B. 

      Emergent c-section

    • C. 

      Eclamptic pt

    • D. 

      Difficult intubation

  • 18. 
    When does organogenesis occur?
    • A. 

      First 4 months of pregnancy

    • B. 

      3rd – 5th months of pregnancy

    • C. 

      First two months of pregnancy

    • D. 

      Throughout the entire pregnancy

  • 19. 
    Which of the following is considered unsafe to give during pregnancy?
    • A. 

      Vecuronium

    • B. 

      Ephedrine

    • C. 

      Sevoflurane

    • D. 

      Versed

  • 20. 
    Which of the following is not true regarding surgical considerations of pregnant pts?
    • A. 

      They have a greater sensitivity to anesthetics

    • B. 

      Optimal positioning for 2nd – 3rd trimester pts is supine

    • C. 

      Pts have a greater circulating blood volume

    • D. 

      Pts are more susceptible to thromboembolic problems

  • 21. 
    During the first and second trimesters, pregnant pts are not considered to be at an increased aspiration risk.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 22. 
    Why must nitrous oxide be avoided during pregnancy?
    • A. 

      N2O diffuses into and expands uterus, increasing risk for uterine rupture

    • B. 

      Nitrous oxide causes fetal bradycardia and increasing risk of spontaneous abortion

    • C. 

      N2O interferes with folic acid metabolism, thus impairing DNA synthesis

    • D. 

      All the above

  • 23. 
    Success in outcome of pregnancy following surgery is determined by all of the following except…
    • A. 

      Maternal well-being

    • B. 

      Timing of surgery

    • C. 

      Choice of anesthetic agents

    • D. 

      Maternal age

  • 24. 
    How will pregnancy affect the MAC of anesthetics?
    • A. 

      Decrease MAC

    • B. 

      Increase MAC

    • C. 

      No effect on MAC

  • 25. 
    You are performing an epidural on a patient in labor. As you begin to administer your test dose you see pts heart rate go up. She is now breathing deeply and rubbing her stomach. Is it OK to proceed?
    • A. 

      No, elevated HR is a sign of intravascular injection. Stop injection.

    • B. 

      Elevated HR is an expected side effect and It is OK to proceed.

    • C. 

      This is a sign of accidental dural puncture, just give a smaller dose.

    • D. 

      She is probably having a contraction, wait a few minutes and see.

Back to Top Back to top