The IFMA Certified Facility Manager (Cfm) Practice Test

184 Questions | Total Attempts: 4342

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The IFMA Certified Facility Manager (Cfm) Practice Test

Welcome to the IFMA Certified Facility Manager (CFM) Certification practice test. The CFM for facility managers ensures that a facility manager has proper knowledge and training to deal with continually increasing complex building management issues. This practice test will assist to have you prepare for the exam. Do not choose NEXT until you are sure of your answer. You cannot go back to a previous question.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      You gain optimum chiller capacity

    • B. 

      Less refrigeration loss

    • C. 

      Not as much “white” noise, thus, benefiting workers

    • D. 

      Less wear on all moving parts

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      Lighting

    • B. 

      Ventilation

    • C. 

      Equipment

    • D. 

      People

  • 3. 
    To compensate for thermal load variance due to sun, wind, and outside temperature, the HVAC system uses:
    • A. 

      Multiple systems

    • B. 

      Integrated controls

    • C. 

      Total capacity

    • D. 

      Multiple zones

  • 4. 
    The type of control that uses a varying signal in the control of heating, cooling and humidity is:
    • A. 

      Two-position action

    • B. 

      Timed two-position action

    • C. 

      Floating action

    • D. 

      Proportional action

  • 5. 
    In a closed loop HVAC system, the feedback process begins with the:
    • A. 

      Controller

    • B. 

      Sensor

    • C. 

      Actuator

    • D. 

      Controlled device

  • 6. 
    The advent of the micro-electric controls has produced a concept known as:
    • A. 

      Building management system

    • B. 

      Energy management system

    • C. 

      ICS (Integrated Comfort Systems)

    • D. 

      Waste heat recovery system

  • 7. 
    The heating system that uses a refrigeration cycle is the:
    • A. 

      Heat pipe

    • B. 

      Total energy system

    • C. 

      Heat pump

    • D. 

      Absorption system

  • 8. 
    The direct-expansion refrigerant HVAC system commonly used in newer one to two-story office buildings is:
    • A. 

      Through the wall unit

    • B. 

      Water-cooled unit

    • C. 

      Rooftop unit

    • D. 

      Fan-coil unit

  • 9. 
    The principal way to improve a building’s indoor air quality is to:
    • A. 

      Establish a no-smoking policy throughout the building

    • B. 

      Educate occupants about the materials used in the building

    • C. 

      Reduce the amount of outside air drawn into the building

    • D. 

      Maintain acceptable temperature and relative humidity

  • 10. 
    The all-air system that requires minimum apparatus size and the least complicated duct system is the:
    • A. 

      Single-duct VAT

    • B. 

      Single-duct VAV

    • C. 

      Multi-zone VAT

    • D. 

      Dual-duct VAT

  • 11. 
    The variable air volume (VAV) system depends on:
    • A. 

      Sensors for static pressure in the ducts

    • B. 

      Water moved through pumps at a high rate

    • C. 

      Ducts of uniform size

    • D. 

      Condenser water temperature of 75 degrees to 80 degrees

  • 12. 
    HVAC systems are designed with a capacity based on:
    • A. 

      System performance with low life-cycle costs

    • B. 

      Median conditions under which they are expected to operate

    • C. 

      Physical characteristics of the building

    • D. 

      Estimated maximum heating and cooling loads

  • 13. 
    Ceiling return air plenums control the spread of fire from space to space by:
    • A. 

      Spray-on insulation

    • B. 

      Fire dampers

    • C. 

      Asbestos coatings

    • D. 

      Ventilation

  • 14. 
    Electrical Systems Operation and Maintenance The ratio of the maximum demand on an electrical system to the total connected load of a system is known as the:
    • A. 

      Energy factor

    • B. 

      Load factor

    • C. 

      Power factor

    • D. 

      Demand factor

  • 15. 
    Lighting Applications and Maintenance As a part of a feasibility study, which evaluation approach analyzes all current and future financial implications of a capital project?
    • A. 

      Systems approach

    • B. 

      Life-cycle costing

    • C. 

      Pay-back evaluation

    • D. 

      Cost-benefit analysis

  • 16. 
    The largest internal heat load in a typical office building is from:
    • A. 

      People

    • B. 

      Office equipment

    • C. 

      Ventilation

    • D. 

      Lighting

  • 17. 
    To save labor costs, group re-lamping should be done:
    • A. 

      At planned intervals

    • B. 

      On a annual basis

    • C. 

      At 90% rated life

    • D. 

      During working hours

  • 18. 
    In a space where workstations are at least 12 feet apart and not often relocated, the best choice for lighting is:
    • A. 

      Accent lighting

    • B. 

      Ambient lighting

    • C. 

      Uniform lighting

    • D. 

      Non-uniform lighting

  • 19. 
    The type of lighting that illuminates the general areas surrounding work positions is:
    • A. 

      Task lighting

    • B. 

      Ambient lighting

    • C. 

      Uniform lighting

    • D. 

      Non-uniform lighting

  • 20. 
    The most practical choice for general illuminations of interior working areas in an office is:
    • A. 

      Fluorescent lighting

    • B. 

      Incandescent lighting

    • C. 

      High-Intensity discharge lamps

    • D. 

      Combination of incandescent and HID lighting

  • 21. 
    Maintenance and Modernization of Elevators If  the main power fails in a building, the emergency power system for the elevators causes each elevator cab to:
    • A. 

      Close and lock its door

    • B. 

      Remain open on its present floor

    • C. 

      Go to the lowest designated floor

    • D. 

      Maintain power to go up or down

  • 22. 
    Elevators in buildings that have more than seven stops and require faster operation are generally:
    • A. 

      Traction

    • B. 

      Holed hydraulic

    • C. 

      Dual service

    • D. 

      Hole-less hydraulic

  • 23. 
    The heart of the elevator system and location of most routine maintenance is the:
    • A. 

      Hoist-way

    • B. 

      Cab

    • C. 

      Pit

    • D. 

      Machine room

  • 24. 
    Assess the Core Business Places After establishing the space requirements and performance expectations of the owner, the process of developing a building model is:
    • A. 

      Statement of need

    • B. 

      Systems approach

    • C. 

      Space utilization

    • D. 

      Programming

  • 25. 
    Security Compared to proprietary security, contract security typically produces:
    • A. 

      Better trained personnel

    • B. 

      A more favorable company image

    • C. 

      Fewer management-personnel problems

    • D. 

      Less expensive

  • 26. 
    Administrating Building Operations and Maintenance The level of maintenance that intends to preserve the performance expected from the equipment or system is:
    • A. 

      Troubleshooting

    • B. 

      Breakdown maintenance

    • C. 

      Service maintenance

    • D. 

      Preventive maintenance

  • 27. 
    Efforts to keep equipment in good operating condition is called:
    • A. 

      Maintenance

    • B. 

      Troubleshooting

    • C. 

      Monitoring

    • D. 

      Inspection

  • 28. 
    The level of maintenance that meets basic manufacturer’s recommendations and requires a minimum level of skill is:
    • A. 

      Troubleshooting

    • B. 

      Breakdown maintenance

    • C. 

      Service maintenance

    • D. 

      Preventive maintenance

  • 29. 
    • A. 

      Extend the life of the facility’s fixed assets

    • B. 

      Reduce the overall cost of the maintenance program

    • C. 

      Provide assurance equipment is available when needed

    • D. 

      Reduce the number of times equipment is down unexpectedly

  • 30. 
    Grounds Maintenance You have just bid a landscape maintenance contract.  The low bidder is unable to provide I-9 (right-to-work) forms for its foreign-born laborers.  What should you do?
    • A. 

      Disqualify the bidder

    • B. 

      Hire the low bidder if he can provide forms within 90 days

    • C. 

      Refer the problem to the legal department

    • D. 

      Agree to hire the low bidder if he does not use employees without forms

  • 31. 
    REAL ESTATE Overview The type or lease in which the lessee pays all operating expenses is:
    • A. 

      Gross lease

    • B. 

      Net lease

    • C. 

      Contract lease

    • D. 

      Percentage lease

  • 32. 
    Your company requires new leased office space of 10,000 square feet in the next six months. You determine that using a commercial real estate broker would expedite the site selection. When receiving candidates, what is the most important factor?
    • A. 

      That the broker be employed by the largest commercial real estate firm in the city where your lease requirement is located

    • B. 

      That the broker also be the listing agent and represent a large number of landlords buildings in the local real estate market

    • C. 

      That the broker always have a long list of references from Fortune 500 companies which he or she has represented in the past

    • D. 

      That the broker work with you in a consistent partnership while providing experienced market knowledge and a good understanding of how commercial office leases function for both landlords and tenants

  • 33. 
    External Factors What is the greatest potential pitfall in acquiring property today?
    • A. 

      Inadvertently accepting environmental contamination liability

    • B. 

      Not obtaining the clear title to the property

    • C. 

      Stringent zoning restrictions

    • D. 

      Tax liability

  • 34. 
    Every real estate project begins with a:
    • A. 

      Needs analysis

    • B. 

      Contract

    • C. 

      Feasibility study

    • D. 

      Celebration

  • 35. 
    Ownership Which of the following space planning techniques will assist in bringing space/cost ratios into line:
    • A. 

      Increasing the number of corridors

    • B. 

      Maximizing the use of fixed walls

    • C. 

      Using inconsistent work station space modules

    • D. 

      Consolidating conference rooms and other support areas

  • 36. 
    What is the written instrument, evidenced by a note or bond, which the borrower gives as security for the repayment of the loan:
    • A. 

      Mortgage

    • B. 

      Contract

    • C. 

      Purchase agreement

    • D. 

      Down payment

  • 37. 
    Leasing The lease that tends to be long-term (20 years or more) is the:
    • A. 

      Ground lease

    • B. 

      Net lease

    • C. 

      Gross lease

    • D. 

      Percentage lease

  • 38. 
    To be legally enforceable, a contract to purchase real estate must:
    • A. 

      Be in writing

    • B. 

      Involve unrelated parties

    • C. 

      Detail any financing

    • D. 

      Include insurance requirements

  • 39. 
    Which of the following is not usually an allowable operating expense under a lease?
    • A. 

      Employee vacation/holiday pay

    • B. 

      Tenant improvement costs

    • C. 

      Property Insurance

    • D. 

      Utilities

  • 40. 
    What kind of lease includes the base rent, plus the tenant pays a share of the real estate taxes?
    • A. 

      Net lease

    • B. 

      Double-net lease

    • C. 

      Triple-net lease

    • D. 

      Cost lease

  • 41. 
    What kind of lease includes the base rent, plus tenant pays a share of the real estate taxes, insurance, maintenance, repairs, and operating expenses:
    • A. 

      Gross lease

    • B. 

      Double-net lease

    • C. 

      Triple-net lease

    • D. 

      Cost lease

  • 42. 
    What do you call that portion of the building that is a public corridor or lobby, or is required for access by all occupants on a floor to stairs, elevators, toilet rooms, and building entrances:
    • A. 

      Common area

    • B. 

      Primary circulation

    • C. 

      Public area

    • D. 

      Secondary circulation

  • 43. 
    In a multi-floor, multi-tenant office building, a private stairwell built between two floors occupied by one tenant is:
    • A. 

      Part of the building’s common area

    • B. 

      Part of the tenant’s rentable areas

    • C. 

      Part of the tenant’s usable areas

    • D. 

      Both B and C

  • 44. 
    What is the term used to describe the area of a building that measures to the outside face of exterior walls and disregards the cornices, pilasters and buttresses that extend beyond the wall face?
    • A. 

      Gross area

    • B. 

      Rentable area

    • C. 

      Usable area

    • D. 

      Assignable area

  • 45. 
    What is the term used to describe the area of a building that measures to the inside finished surface of the permanent out building walls, excluding any major vertical penetrations of the floor?
    • A. 

      Gross area

    • B. 

      Rentable area

    • C. 

      Usable area

    • D. 

      Assignable area

  • 46. 
    When calculating a floor’s rentable area, you must first subtract the area calculation for which of the following?
    • A. 

      Mechanical rooms, stairwells, restrooms, and elevator shafts

    • B. 

      Elevator shafts, restrooms, mechanical rooms, and stairwells

    • C. 

      Entire core area of the floor

    • D. 

      Stairwells, elevator shafts, and mechanical chases

  • 47. 
    What is the term to describe the area of a building that includes the area to the exterior walls, building columns, and projections, and secondary circulation but excludes the exterior walls, major vertical penetrations, primary circulation, building core and building service areas?
    • A. 

      Gross area

    • B. 

      Rentable area

    • C. 

      Usable area

    • D. 

      Assignable area

  • 48. 
    • A. 

      Gross area

    • B. 

      Rentable area

    • C. 

      Usable area

    • D. 

      Assignable area

  • 49. 
     What do you call the area of load-bearing surfaces located above or below occupied building floors that are not available for general occupancy due to inadequate clear headroom, but that may contain building mechanical or electrical systems predominantly serving adjacent floors or provide access to such systems?
    • A. 

      Excluded area

    • B. 

      Service area

    • C. 

      Interstitial area

    • D. 

      Core area

  • 50. 
    Floor Area Management Guidelines What is the ratio of usable area divided by the rentable area called?
    • A. 

      Building efficiency ratio

    • B. 

      Rule of 72

    • C. 

      Equity ratio

    • D. 

      Lease option ratio

  • 51. 
    The Central issue in an investment decision is the owner’s:
    • A. 

      Qualifications

    • B. 

      Objectives

    • C. 

      Background

    • D. 

      Aggressiveness

  • 52. 
    Making the Buy vs. Lease Decision The sum of fixed and variable expenses is called:
    • A. 

      Operating expenses

    • B. 

      Variable expenses

    • C. 

      Fixed expenses

    • D. 

      Total expenses

  • 53. 
    Managing the Real Estate Master Plan What is the most important factor in leasing an office building?
    • A. 

      Cost

    • B. 

      Location

    • C. 

      Exterior design

    • D. 

      Occupancy limits

  • 54. 
    What is the most important attribute of a master plan?
    • A. 

      Accuracy

    • B. 

      Flexibility

    • C. 

      Scheduling

    • D. 

      Viability

  • 55. 
    Directing Highest and Best Use Studies  During an appraisal, adjustment for site density are best analyzed in relation to the ratio of:
    • A. 

      Land to comparable land

    • B. 

      Building to land

    • C. 

      Land to traffic

    • D. 

      Building to comparable building

  • 56. 
    What would be the best policy to follow during downsizing?
    • A. 

      Consolidate in owned facilities; cancel leases

    • B. 

      Hold the line; wait for an up turn

    • C. 

      Consolidate into leased facilities; sell owned property

    • D. 

      Sublease unused space; develop long-term subleases

  • 57. 
    Reading, Writing, and Interpreting Lease Agreements What are usually excluded in a net lease?
    • A. 

      HVAC and Security

    • B. 

      Utilities and housekeeping

    • C. 

      Utilities and HVAC

    • D. 

      HVAC and housekeeping

  • 58. 
    Disposal of Facilities When a lease agreement provides for “injunctive relief”,
    • A. 

      A tenant is not required to attain future successors

    • B. 

      A landlord may, at his/her sole direction, waive the right to secure the tenant’s obligation to deliver a guarantee

    • C. 

      Acceptance of rent shall not constitute consent to any holdover

    • D. 

      In the event of a breach of covenants, the landlord has the right to invoke any remedy by law

  • 59. 
    In relocating your company, the most important consideration should be:
    • A. 

      Selection of moving company

    • B. 

      The moving schedule

    • C. 

      Cost savings

    • D. 

      Business interruptions

  • 60. 
    Human and Environmental Factors National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs) concerning asbestos-containing material (ACM) in existing on-site structures are often cited in cases of:
    • A. 

      Cleaning

    • B. 

      Painting

    • C. 

      Renovation

    • D. 

      New construction

  • 61. 
    The EPA National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants primarily govern the asbestos activities of:
    • A. 

      Renovation and demolition

    • B. 

      Inspections

    • C. 

      Abatement

    • D. 

      Worker personal monitoring

  • 62. 
    Training and certification for lead inspectors, abatement workers and laboratories is overseen by:
    • A. 

      EPA

    • B. 

      OSHA

    • C. 

      HUD

    • D. 

      Property Manager

  • 63. 
    Responsibility for maintaining all manifest records of hazardous waste transport and disposal rests with the:
    • A. 

      Transporter

    • B. 

      TSD operator

    • C. 

      Generator/ Owner

    • D. 

      Property Manager

  • 64. 
    The 1990 Clean Air Act Amendments directly and specifically target all of the following establishments except:
    • A. 

      Dry cleaners

    • B. 

      Office buildings

    • C. 

      Power plants

    • D. 

      Factories

  • 65. 
     A manager's decision to replace equipment that uses CFC's depends on the existing equipment's:
    • A. 

      Condition and age

    • B. 

      Amount of CFC's used

    • C. 

      Power plants

    • D. 

      Ease of maintenance

  • 66. 
    Situations that require a manager to review the property's stormwater system include all of the following except:
    • A. 

      The parking lot repaving

    • B. 

      A building and site expansion

    • C. 

      The discovery of a sinkhole

    • D. 

      The building of neighboring facilities

  • 67. 
    The National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit program is administered by:
    • A. 

      Local municipalities

    • B. 

      EPA directly

    • C. 

      EPA or appropriate state agency

    • D. 

      State stormwater/wastewater management

  • 68. 
    Compared to regulations for underground storage tanks, those for above-ground storage tanks are:
    • A. 

      Fewer

    • B. 

      Similar

    • C. 

      Exactly the same

    • D. 

      Nonexistent

  • 69. 
    Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) waste management regulations mandate how a company manages all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Storage of petroleum products underground

    • B. 

      Control of solid or nonhazardous waste

    • C. 

      Transport of waste for disposal

    • D. 

      Generation of hazardous waste

  • 70. 
    Facilities involved with hazardous waste are required to obtain an EPA identification number if they:
    • A. 

      Treat more than 100kg per day of regulated waste

    • B. 

      Transport regulated waste to permitted TSD facilities

    • C. 

      Store more than 100kg of regulated waste

    • D. 

      Generate more than 100kg per month of regulated waste

  • 71. 
    Who is legally responsible for the completeness and accuracy of the information on the uniform hazardous waste manifest?
    • A. 

      The waste disposal firm

    • B. 

      The transporter

    • C. 

      The generator

    • D. 

      The DOT inspector

  • 72. 
    The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act (CERCLA) and Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act (SARA) collectively provide the federal regulation establishing:
    • A. 

      Contamination levels for hazardous waste sites

    • B. 

      Environmental laboratory and consultant qualifications

    • C. 

      Responsibility for cleanup of hazardous waste sites

    • D. 

      Property transfer disclosure requirements

  • 73. 
    Guidelines for OSHA Compliance According to OSHA, who can be sited or fined if an employee must wear steel-toed shoes, does not, and has an accident where his toes are crushed?
    • A. 

      The company

    • B. 

      The department manager

    • C. 

      The employee and company

    • D. 

      The employee and his supervisor

  • 74. 
    The federal agency responsible for implementing and enforcing workplace health and safety standards is the:
    • A. 

      Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

    • B. 

      Occupational Safety and Health Administration

    • C. 

      Department of Energy

    • D. 

      National Institute of Health

  • 75. 
    The category of OSHA fines that carry the highest penalties are:
    • A. 

      Serious

    • B. 

      Repeat

    • C. 

      Willful

    • D. 

      Fatal

  • 76. 
    To demonstrate a "good faith" effort toward employee safety and health, all activities to eliminate workplace hazards must be:
    • A. 

      Documented in detail and updated

    • B. 

      Recorded and sent to OSHA

    • C. 

      Agreed upon by all building occupants

    • D. 

      Approved by OSHA before implementation

  • 77. 
    The federal agency that establishes guidelines for IAQ investigation is:
    • A. 

      EPA

    • B. 

      OSHA

    • C. 

      ASHRAE

    • D. 

      ACHIH

  • 78. 
    Hazcom Specifics on a chemical's properties, hazards and safe use are given in a:
    • A. 

      Written HAZCOM program

    • B. 

      DOT label

    • C. 

      Material Safety Data Sheet

    • D. 

      Hazardous assessment

  • 79. 
    All of the following types of information are required on a typical MSDS except:
    • A. 

      Safe handling procedures and controls

    • B. 

      Precautionary, spill, leak, and clean up procedures

    • C. 

      Titles of personnel authorized to use the chemical

    • D. 

      Potential for fire and/ or explosion

  • 80. 
    Review of Existing Environmental Practices and Procedures What should you do as a facility manager, when personnel have developed symptoms associated with "sick building syndrome"?
    • A. 

      Hire an indoor air quality consultant

    • B. 

      Investigate the HVAC system with in-house personnel

    • C. 

      Clean all carpet and dust

    • D. 

      Vacuum the HVAC system's duct work

  • 81. 
    Ergonomics generally studies:
    • A. 

      Workplace comfort and efficiency

    • B. 

      Worker's interactions with each other

    • C. 

      Exercise and stress in the workplace

    • D. 

      Productivity related to salary

  • 82. 
    Ergonomic solutions related to office lighting include all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Use of overhead fluorescents at workstations

    • B. 

      Reduction of glare on computer screens

    • C. 

      Improvement of contrast of work surface

    • D. 

      Use of incandescents for visual comforts

  • 83. 
    The first step in managing ergonomic stressors in the workplace is to analyze the:
    • A. 

      Job task

    • B. 

      Injury/ illness reports

    • C. 

      Existing training program

    • D. 

      Management of responsibilities

  • 84. 
    The matrix of worker's activities and intensity levels is useful for the manager to evaluate:
    • A. 

      Insurance coverage

    • B. 

      Productivity projections

    • C. 

      Ergonomic risks

    • D. 

      Worker performance

  • 85. 
    A building-related illness (BRI) produces symptoms that are:
    • A. 

      Directly attributed to airborne building pollutants

    • B. 

      Linked to the time spent in a building

    • C. 

      Resulting in hospitalization or prolonged physician's care

    • D. 

      Related to serve allergies to air pollution

  • 86. 
    Any investigation of a suspected building-related illness must be reported immediately to the:
    • A. 

      Contracted IAQ consultant

    • B. 

      Company legal counsel

    • C. 

      Local fire and safety officials

    • D. 

      Appropriate health officials

  • 87. 
    More than 50% of IAQ complaints are associated with:
    • A. 

      Office equipment

    • B. 

      Workplace layout

    • C. 

      Cleaning chemicals

    • D. 

      Ventilation systems

  • 88. 
    Key Components of an Emergency Preparedness Plan A new emergency response plan has been developed.  A fire drill is scheduled as a part of the safety employee training.  Who should you notify ahead of time?
    • A. 

      Senior management

    • B. 

      All managers

    • C. 

      All employees

    • D. 

      Emergency response team

  • 89. 
    What part of a disaster plan is most critical?
    • A. 

      Procedures to minimize losses

    • B. 

      Knowing minimum resources needed to run the facility

    • C. 

      Emergency internal communication procedures

    • D. 

      Selection of alternative work sites

  • 90. 
    Due Diligence Under the CERCLA liability, if a chemical release occurs on a property, the burden of notification and costs normally rests on all of the following except:
    • A. 

      The owner of the property

    • B. 

      The operator of the facility

    • C. 

      The transporter of the materials

    • D. 

      The neighboring property owners

  • 91. 
    Planning & Project Management Performance Measures The objective of the facility plans has its origin in corporation's:
    • A. 

      Accounting plan

    • B. 

      Strategic and Operational Plans

    • C. 

      Personal Plan

    • D. 

      MIS Plan

  • 92. 
    In the facility planning process, strategic planning decisions can occur:
    • A. 

      In the first quarter

    • B. 

      At mid-year

    • C. 

      In the last quarter

    • D. 

      At any time

  • 93. 
    Good facility planning makes a significant contribution to the corporate:
    • A. 

      Bottom line

    • B. 

      Environment

    • C. 

      Standards

    • D. 

      Community

  • 94. 
    An example of corporate objective for a facility project would be:
    • A. 

      Arranging adjacencies that support the flow of paper-based transactions

    • B. 

      Providing technology that grants access to multiple outside databases

    • C. 

      Developing an environment that attracts highly qualified employees

    • D. 

      Locating information centers directly adjacent to user work groups

  • 95. 
    Site and Building Evaluation To best serve user needs, facilities standards must be:
    • A. 

      Rigid

    • B. 

      Updated

    • C. 

      Delineated in writing

    • D. 

      Flexible

  • 96. 
    Facility preprogramming tasks include all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Confirmation of the program content

    • B. 

      Documentation of the results

    • C. 

      Assembly of the programming team

    • D. 

      Determination of the program information provider

  • 97. 
    An action that is critical to successful compilation of programming information is:
    • A. 

      Meeting with every individual staff member

    • B. 

      Diagramming work process transactions

    • C. 

      Using many levels of detail

    • D. 

      Determining early the level of detail required

  • 98. 
    A & E Construction Documents Design development documentation should be coordinated with:
    • A. 

      Building constraints

    • B. 

      Schematic drawings

    • C. 

      Conceptual plans

    • D. 

      Post-occupancy surveys

  • 99. 
    What is the most important function for project management success?
    • A. 

      A cohesive team

    • B. 

      Scheduling and budgeting

    • C. 

      Coordinating and communicating

    • D. 

      Planning and monitoring

  • 100. 
    The most effective budgeting and scheduling technique for capital and expensed budgeted projects is:
    • A. 

      Two separate budgets and schedules

    • B. 

      One master schedule including all detailed information

    • C. 

      A master budget with two separate schedules

    • D. 

      A master schedule with two separate budgets

  • 101. 
    Bonds What kind of bond should the contractor carry on a large project in case the contractor defaults?
    • A. 

      Liability insurance

    • B. 

      Completion bond

    • C. 

      Project-specific bid bond

    • D. 

      Subcontractor bonding

  • 102. 
    Traditionally, the construction contract is between the contractor and the:
    • A. 

      Architect

    • B. 

      Interior designer

    • C. 

      Engineer

    • D. 

      Owner

  • 103. 
    Bid Process Who obtains comprehensive insurance for contractors?
    • A. 

      The contractor

    • B. 

      The contractor's insurance agent

    • C. 

      The building owner

    • D. 

      Whoever signed the contract

  • 104. 
    Project Close-Out, Acceptance, and Commissioning The contractor submits to the facility manager the final notice of completion and asks for signature.  The project is 99% complete.  The facility manager should:
    • A. 

      Ask to see all documents pertaining to the tenant improvements and then sign the form

    • B. 

      Not sign the form until you consider the project complete

    • C. 

      Not sign the form until a final occupancy permit is received

    • D. 

      Check with management and receive its approval before signing the form

  • 105. 
    To effectively operate a new building systems, all maintenance personnel should have:
    • A. 

      A copy of all contract documents

    • B. 

      Training in each system

    • C. 

      Consultants on call

    • D. 

      A copy of last year's maintenance schedule

  • 106. 
    During a move, if an employee does not pack according to move schedule, the person who should decide what is moved and what is discarded is:
    • A. 

      The user

    • B. 

      Senior manager

    • C. 

      The facility manager

    • D. 

      A moving company representative

  • 107. 
    Furniture orders that are most susceptible to time-consuming delays are usually:
    • A. 

      Quick-shipment requests

    • B. 

      Those with multiple panel heights

    • C. 

      Small orders and accessory pieces

    • D. 

      Large and complex installations

  • 108. 
    Detailed logistics of a move for employees should be included on a(n):
    • A. 

      Printout

    • B. 

      Operating procedure form

    • C. 

      Schedule A

    • D. 

      Master Schedule

  • 109. 
    Leadership & Management Overview The annual report can be used to report all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Critical maintenance actions

    • B. 

      Changes in facility strategy

    • C. 

      Project proposals

    • D. 

      Budget impact on facilities

  • 110. 
    Organized project documentation is important for all of the following reasons except:
    • A. 

      Time is saved retrieving information

    • B. 

      Credibility is preserved

    • C. 

      Occupants feel like part of the process

    • D. 

      All decisions can be referenced

  • 111. 
    How Facility Management Functions within the Business To demonstrate trends in workload, the facility manager must:
    • A. 

      Use the industry standard as a benchmark

    • B. 

      Use the budgeting justification process

    • C. 

      Have access to corporate revenue data

    • D. 

      Have access to data for several years

  • 112. 
    The measurement of the frequency of change in the physical workplace of an organization is referred to as:
    • A. 

      Churn

    • B. 

      Development

    • C. 

      Outsourcing

    • D. 

      Service delivery

  • 113. 
    From the facility management viewpoint, decisions about expenditures and programs are governed primarily by:
    • A. 

      The local economy

    • B. 

      Business objectives

    • C. 

      Management philosophy

    • D. 

      Building needs

  • 114. 
    The document that provides a basis for developing a strategic facilities plan is the:
    • A. 

      Corporation's Annual Report

    • B. 

      Department's goals and objectives

    • C. 

      Corporation's Strategic Plan

    • D. 

      Department's mission statement

  • 115. 
    Facility Function - Mission and Vision Statements The quality of customer service should be determined by:
    • A. 

      Budgetary constraints

    • B. 

      Manager's expectations

    • C. 

      Expert opinions

    • D. 

      Customer perceptions

  • 116. 
    Strategic and Tactical Facility Functions All the following create a need for space delivery projects except:
    • A. 

      Growth

    • B. 

      Renovation

    • C. 

      Downsizing

    • D. 

      New processes

  • 117. 
    The best way for facilities personnel to become involved in marketing is through:
    • A. 

      Joining professional organizations

    • B. 

      Referring friends and acquaintances

    • C. 

      Excelling at customer service

    • D. 

      Distributing promotional materials

  • 118. 
    In business, the word that refers to making something happen is:
    • A. 

      Logistics

    • B. 

      Tactics

    • C. 

      Strategy

    • D. 

      Ergonomics

  • 119. 
    The two type of tactical activities are:
    • A. 

      Processes and services

    • B. 

      Production and programs

    • C. 

      Projects and assignments

    • D. 

      Programs and procedures

  • 120. 
    Developing a Strategic Facilities Plan The more timely the information, the better the:
    • A. 

      Customer relations

    • B. 

      Decision

    • C. 

      Technology

    • D. 

      Support system

  • 121. 
     From the corporate executive's point of view, facilities:
    • A. 

      Are a long-term capital investment

    • B. 

      Are an income-generating resource

    • C. 

      Support the objective of the business

    • D. 

      Contribute to the direction of the business plan

  • 122. 
    All facility management functions have aspects that are both:
    • A. 

      Strategic and tactical

    • B. 

      Preventive and corrective

    • C. 

      Profit generating and cost savings

    • D. 

      Personal and impersonal

  • 123. 
    Facility Purpose Facility management employees must possess all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Analytical thinking

    • B. 

      Flexibility

    • C. 

      Initiative

    • D. 

      Complete independence

  • 124. 
    The Facility Manager: Practical Competencies and Tactical Activities The most visible indicator of how priorities are set is the:
    • A. 

      Facility department policies

    • B. 

      Annual report

    • C. 

      Corporate mission statement

    • D. 

      Budgeting process

  • 125. 
    Facility Managers are more likely to have control of a(n):
    • A. 

      Investment center

    • B. 

      Profit center

    • C. 

      Capital budget

    • D. 

      Operating budget

  • 126. 
    Receiving, Prioritizing, and Managing Work The core of the tactical facility function and the place customers contact when they need a facility service is the:
    • A. 

      Maintenance supervisor's office

    • B. 

      Work reception center

    • C. 

      Facilities department headquarters

    • D. 

      Leasing office

  • 127. 
    The greatest value of computer-aided facilities management (CAFM) systems is in their support of:
    • A. 

      Annual budgets

    • B. 

      Construction planning

    • C. 

      Contract management

    • D. 

      Strategic planning

  • 128. 
    Management of Personnel As the facility manager, based at the corporate headquarters of a large corporation, you have the staff with skills that are of:
    • A. 

      Broad scope and very little technical depth

    • B. 

      Narrow scope and have lots of technical depth

    • C. 

      Broad scope and have lots of technical depth

    • D. 

      Narrow scope and very little technical depth

  • 129. 
    The keys to providing any facilities service is to effectively manage service efforts and to maintain realistic:
    • A. 

      Estimation

    • B. 

      Expectations

    • C. 

      Assessments

    • D. 

      Exertion

  • 130. 
    One way to measure workload is by taking into account the size of a space and the:
    • A. 

      Budget

    • B. 

      Churn rate

    • C. 

      Type of customer

    • D. 

      Age of the building

  • 131. 
    What is the best way to develop teamwork among your staff members?
    • A. 

      Frequently tell them that they are part of the team

    • B. 

      Have them work together on projects

    • C. 

      Hold meetings on teamwork letting them know how to impact

    • D. 

      Consistently involve them in decision-making process

  • 132. 
    Outsourcing Facilities Services Outsourcing may be used in all of the following situations except:
    • A. 

      Reducing head count

    • B. 

      Reducing expenses

    • C. 

      Focusing on core business

    • D. 

      Increasing span of control

  • 133. 
    When there are many providers for facility services, to reduce the number of bids and proposals that must be reviewed in detail, a facility department should:
    • A. 

      Use rating criteria

    • B. 

      Use selection scorecards

    • C. 

      Practice short-listing

    • D. 

      Practice debriefing

  • 134. 
    To avert innocent but unfortunate gaffes by contract personnel at the outset of a project, the contract should include:
    • A. 

      Specific methods for handing off work from one contractor to another

    • B. 

      Descriptions of acceptable and unacceptable communication patterns

    • C. 

      Existing administration guidelines

    • D. 

      Contract administration guidelines

  • 135. 
    When a bundle of a full range of services is provided by a third-party single contractor or group of contractors, this arrangements is referred to as:
    • A. 

      Outsourcing

    • B. 

      Out tasking

    • C. 

      Consulting

    • D. 

      Contracting

  • 136. 
    One aspect of laying off staff and outsourcing facilities work is that it:
    • A. 

      Helps maintain better control

    • B. 

      Allows for manpower flexibility

    • C. 

      Eliminates patterns of problems

    • D. 

      Protects the organization's business interest

  • 137. 
    Environmental and Risk Management Documents that convey the organization's compliance to regulations and local codes and ordinances are called:
    • A. 

      Project proposal commitments

    • B. 

      Policy and procedure manuals

    • C. 

      Contractual agreements

    • D. 

      Legal compliance documents

  • 138. 
    Leadership Setting long-range goals and strategies, defining the direction of a unit or organization, recognizing the possibilities and potential in the future, and inspiring others to join in are all aspects of:
    • A. 

      Supervision

    • B. 

      Management

    • C. 

      Administration

    • D. 

      Leadership

  • 139. 
    Leaders who rely on teaching, monitoring, and coaching to evaluate their followers' desires and goals are exercising:
    • A. 

      Transforming leadership

    • B. 

      Transactional leadership

    • C. 

      Communication-based leadership

    • D. 

      Directional leadership

  • 140. 
    Finance Basic Financial Terminology Variable expenses include all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Management and Administration

    • B. 

      Cleaning

    • C. 

      Utilities

    • D. 

      Depreciation

  • 141. 
    Given an overall capitalization rate of 12.5% and a net operating income of $ 100,000, which of the following is the indicated value?
    • A. 

      12,500

    • B. 

      80,000

    • C. 

      800,000

    • D. 

      1,250,000

  • 142. 
    • A. 

      19 years

    • B. 

      18 years

    • C. 

      4 years

    • D. 

      12 years

  • 143. 
    The point where total income and total expenses equal each other out is the:
    • A. 

      Yield-equity equalization point

    • B. 

      Leverage

    • C. 

      Break-even point

    • D. 

      32% of total operating expense

  • 144. 
    Financial Contributions of the FM Department Answer the next four questions using the following information: Joe Smith buys a 100,000 rentable square foot (rsf) office building for $5,000,000. A market survey indicates rents are in the range of $17.00 per rsf per year. The average vacancy rate is 10%. Operating expenses are typically 45% of the total income. Miscellaneous income is expected to be $5,000 per month. What is the total annual income Joe can expect for this investment assuming market conditions?
    • A. 

      1,700,000

    • B. 

      1,590,000

    • C. 

      1,535,000

    • D. 

      1,760,000

  • 145. 
    • A. 

      765,000

    • B. 

      690,000

    • C. 

      792,000

    • D. 

      715,500

  • 146. 
    Answer the next four questions using the following information: Joe Smith buys a 100,000 rentable square foot (rsf) office building for $5,000,000. A market survey indicates rents are in the range of $17.00 per rsf per year. The average vacancy rate is 10%. Operating expenses are typically 45% of the total income. Miscellaneous income is expected to be $5,000 per month. What Net Operating Income (NOI) can Joe expect on this property?
    • A. 

      935,000

    • B. 

      874,500

    • C. 

      844,250

    • D. 

      968,000

  • 147. 
    Answer the next four questions using the following information: Joe Smith buys a 100,000 rentable square foot (rsf) office building for $5,000,000. A market survey indicates rents are in the range of $17.00 per rsf per year. The average vacancy rate is 10%. Operating expenses are typically 45% of the total income. Miscellaneous income is expected to be $5,000 per month. Assuming Joe bought the building for cash price of $ 5,000,000, what would be his free and clear return on an annual basis?
    • A. 

      17.49%

    • B. 

      18.70%

    • C. 

      19.89%

    • D. 

      16.89%

  • 148. 
    Understanding Facility Related Topics Developing a project capitalization rate starts with an evaluation of the:
    • A. 

      Weighted average cost of capital

    • B. 

      Expected rate of return

    • C. 

      Present value of the investment

    • D. 

      Property's current operations

  • 149. 
    Indicators of Financial Performance What is the approximate future value of $ 15,000 at 9% interest for 11 years?
    • A. 

      28,370

    • B. 

      38,370

    • C. 

      38,706

    • D. 

      40,706

  • 150. 
    If the present value of the future cash flows from an investment is greater than the initial investment, then:
    • A. 

      The expected rate of return has not been achieved

    • B. 

      The investment should not be made

    • C. 

      The internal rate of return is greater than the expected rate of return

    • D. 

      The expected rate of return is too high

  • 151. 
    Based on the following information, what is the internal rate of return on this investment? Initial investment:  $ 375,000 Expected rate of return:  14.5% Annual Cash Flow per Year: 1) $40,000.00 2) $47,000.00 3) $50,000.00 4) $46,000.00 5) $49,000.00 6) $58,000.00 7) $55,000.00 8) $51,000.00 9) $53,000.00 10) $415,000.00
    • A. 

      10.45%

    • B. 

      11.25%

    • C. 

      12.85%

    • D. 

      14.75%

  • 152. 
    Which of the following is/are discounted cash flow techniques?
    • A. 

      Present Value

    • B. 

      Net Present Value

    • C. 

      Internal Rate of Return

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 153. 
    Basic Budgeting Principles Which of the following is a benchmark for rental adjustments?
    • A. 

      Consumer Price Index

    • B. 

      Expense Pass Through

    • C. 

      Merchants Association

    • D. 

      Advertising Fund

  • 154. 
    Quality Assessment & Innovation Summary Who are the facility manager's customers?
    • A. 

      Other department managers

    • B. 

      Staff and other employees

    • C. 

      All building occupants

    • D. 

      Executive management

  • 155. 
    What is the primary goal of benchmarking?
    • A. 

      Networking with peers

    • B. 

      Sharing ideas and issues

    • C. 

      Improving operational performance

    • D. 

      Developing management skills

  • 156. 
    What is the best way to assess the quality of services your department has been giving to the occupants?
    • A. 

      Informal conversations with occupants

    • B. 

      Occupant surveys

    • C. 

      Surveys completed after individual jobs are completed

    • D. 

      If you receive complaints

  • 157. 
    Per uniform building code, what is the minimum width for a major exit corridor?
    • A. 

      3'8"

    • B. 

      5'

    • C. 

      6'

    • D. 

      7'6"

  • 158. 
    Communication Corporate Facilities Communication The faculty union files a grievance the morning of a walk-through and informs the university that prior approval is needed (according to the contract) to make any changes or move any faculty from offices they currently occupy.
    • A. 

      Continue the walk-through as planned

    • B. 

      Ask the vice president's office to meet with the union's representatives prior to the walk-through

    • C. 

      Ask the union stewards to join the walk-through

    • D. 

      Call the university legal counsel and ask for direction as to what response should be made to this filing

  • 159. 
    In departmentalized companies with minimal interdepartmental coordination, the type of communication that works best is:
    • A. 

      Top-down

    • B. 

      Chain of command

    • C. 

      Networks

    • D. 

      Lateral (corp. facilities communication)

  • 160. 
    To avert innocent but unfortunate gaffes by contract personnel at the outset of a project, the contract should include:
    • A. 

      Specific methods for handing off work from one contractor to another

    • B. 

      Descriptions of acceptable and unacceptable communication patterns

    • C. 

      Existing administration guidelines

    • D. 

      Contract administration guidelines

  • 161. 
    In a hazardous substance release emergency, under OSHA regulations, the first responder awareness level must take action to:
    • A. 

      Contain the release

    • B. 

      Evacuate occupants

    • C. 

      Notify the proper authorities

    • D. 

      Stop the release

  • 162. 
    Contract Administration What is the primary purpose of a shop drawing?
    • A. 

      To show how a contractor how to build something

    • B. 

      To call attention to items requiring additional work

    • C. 

      To confirm the materials to be used are appropriate

    • D. 

      To allow the contractor input in the design phase of a project

  • 163. 
    • A. 

      Insist representatives of executive management attend all meetings

    • B. 

      Have end-user representation at each meeting and ask them to initial documents and minutes

    • C. 

      Maintain cuts-and-adds list of credits and overruns for executive review

    • D. 

      Send minutes of meetings to executives for their review and sign-off

  • 164. 
    You have to plan space for an occupant who refuses to provide you details of his/her requirements.  How would you obtain the information you need from him/her?
    • A. 

      Pursue the problem to the highest level needed to resolve the issue

    • B. 

      Hire a consultant to gather the information from the occupant

    • C. 

      Send a detailed note outlining specific needs and ask for a response

    • D. 

      Plan the space based on your experience and ask for a review before work begins

  • 165. 
    Meetings The landlord is planning asbestos removal in your facility.  What information should you provide to employees?
    • A. 

      When the process will start and how long it will take

    • B. 

      The safety procedures needed to avoid hazards

    • C. 

      A complete description of asbestos hazards

    • D. 

      An explanation of why the asbestos must be removed

  • 166. 
    All of the following affect the degree of formality of a meeting except:
    • A. 

      A highly structured agenda

    • B. 

      The positions of attendees

    • C. 

      Having fewer rules of conduct

    • D. 

      The surroundings

  • 167. 
    To keep all parties involved in the construction process up-to-date, the facility manager should have:
    • A. 

      A good construction manager

    • B. 

      An efficient architect

    • C. 

      Regular progress meetings

    • D. 

      A master schedule

  • 168. 
    Most planning of short-term projects, including schematic design, should take place directly in:
    • A. 

      Senior management offices

    • B. 

      Team meetings with users

    • C. 

      Corporate meetings

    • D. 

      Architects offices

  • 169. 
    Marketing Your Department and Services The annual report can be used to report all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Critical maintenance actions

    • B. 

      Changes in facility strategy

    • C. 

      Project proposals

    • D. 

      Budget impact on facilities

  • 170. 
    In a facilities annual report, a list of facility actions scheduled for the coming year, in timetable form, is found in the:
    • A. 

      Critical maintenance plan

    • B. 

      Full action plan

    • C. 

      Corporate added value statement

    • D. 

      Executive summary

  • 171. 
    Defining project objectives will be most effective through:
    • A. 

      Written documents

    • B. 

      Verbal communications

    • C. 

      The assumption that everyone knows them

    • D. 

      CAD drawings

  • 172. 
    For facilities reports prepared in following years, information contained in the first facilities report will serve as a:
    • A. 

      Hindrance

    • B. 

      Numerical chart

    • C. 

      Graph

    • D. 

      Precedent

  • 173. 
    Using Visual Aids In organization-oriented information, stacking charts are an example of:
    • A. 

      Numeric form

    • B. 

      Graphic form

    • C. 

      Tabular form

    • D. 

      Photographic form

  • 174. 
    Technology Justifying and Implementing Technology Initiatives In developing a sound strategic plan for building technology into the facility management work processes of an organization, there are many factors that must be taken into consideration.  Of the four factors, which area must be dealt with first to assure successful implementation:
    • A. 

      The sophistication level of the facility department staff toward automated systems.

    • B. 

      The ability to integrate FM automation into the framework of the overall organizational technology plan.

    • C. 

      The commitment of adequate FM and IT resource that will be necessary to complete the project.

    • D. 

      Completion of a comprehensive needs analysis that clearly demonstrates the advantages of automation for this organization.

  • 175. 
    In the development of a comprehensive automation strategy for a facility management organization, the final step of the process would be:
    • A. 

      Performing a facility needs analysis

    • B. 

      The establishment of automation goals

    • C. 

      Development of an implementation plan

    • D. 

      Education of the staff on automation

  • 176. 
    Computer-Aided Facilities Management Systems Which of the following data collection areas can most benefit from the automation process within a large facility operation?
    • A. 

      Energy Management

    • B. 

      Predictive Maintenance

    • C. 

      Staffing and working scheduling

    • D. 

      Budget formulation and execution

  • 177. 
    As part of the implementation of a new automated system within the facility management department which of the following five priorities must be addressed initially?
    • A. 

      That all existing data is immediately transferred to the new system

    • B. 

      The new system is integrated into the work processes of the parent organization

    • C. 

      Data input is kept current as new procedures are refined and the initial databases are established

    • D. 

      Management reports are produced so that the new systems can be evaluated and refined

  • 178. 
    The major challenge of any type of total integrated automated facility management system comes from essentially which of the following factors:
    • A. 

      Lack of uniform protocol between existing systems

    • B. 

      Uneven development of automated systems in the FM arena

    • C. 

      The need for the FM systems to integrate with the mission related systems within many different types of organizations

    • D. 

      The difficulty of providing resources both personnel and dollars to the automation effort

  • 179. 
    General guidelines for systems development of a CAFM should include all of the following with the exception of:
    • A. 

      Bar code reader capability

    • B. 

      Preventative maintenance module

    • C. 

      Independent of other FM systems

    • D. 

      Work order management

  • 180. 
    Using a CAFM as an inventory system for building equipment and personal property, the most important element of the module is:
    • A. 

      Bar code readers and their software flexibility

    • B. 

      Tracking tax basis and depreciation

    • C. 

      Ability to issue requisitions for approval

    • D. 

      Updating records is on a real time basis

  • 181. 
    Automated Building Systems In the development of close coordination with the Information Technology department in a large organization, the facility manager must be aware of this as a first priority.
    • A. 

      The both the IT and FM are support activities to the main mission of the overall organization

    • B. 

      Cooperation with IT is essential because of the many overlapping functions of the two organizations

    • C. 

      Improvement of productivity is an important issue in any organization and currently many IT functions promote productivity gains

    • D. 

      The importance of a sound and functional automated network is a primary function for the facility manager

  • 182. 
    Which of the following four success criteria is the least important in developing and implementing a solid facility automation program?
    • A. 

      Enhance the productivity of the work force

    • B. 

      Creation of a paperless system

    • C. 

      Reduce maintenance failures

    • D. 

      Improve customer satisfaction

  • 183. 
    The main obstacle in the development of integrated building automation systems (BAS) has been:
    • A. 

      Demand for this type of system has been low because of initial expense

    • B. 

      The protocols have been brand specific

    • C. 

      Integration is too complex in large facilities

    • D. 

      Large amounts of data storage are necessary

  • 184. 
    Technology-Intensive Special Space In determining the build-out of a new computer facility primary FM consideration should be given to:
    • A. 

      Layout of the space to accommodate equipment and operators

    • B. 

      Equipment loads required for electrical and HVAC operation

    • C. 

      Adjacencies to other IT organizations

    • D. 

      Strategic plans for IT systems over the next three years